BEATS IOE MODEL ENTRANCE EXAM SET 3

INSTITUTE OF ENGINEERING

Model Entrance Exam

(Set-3)

Instructions:

There are 100 multiple-choice questions, each having four choices of

which only one choice is correct.

Date: 2078/08/04 Duration: 2 hours

(November-20) Time: 12 Noon-2P.M.

SECTION – I
BEATS IOE MODEL ENTRANCE EXAM SET 3

1. The weight of a body at the centre of earth is

a) zero b) infinite
c) slightly less than at the poles d) slightly less than at the
equator
2. Interference was observed in interference chamber when air was present.
Now the chamber is evacuated and if the same light is used a careful
observer will see
a) no interference
b) interference with brighter bands
c) interference with darker bands
d) interference in which width of fringe will be slightly increased
3. If a unit positive charge is taken from one point to another over an
equipotential surface, then
a) work is done on the charge b) work is done by the charge
c) work done is constant d) no work is done
4. Hydrogen atom does not emit X-ray because
a) its energy levels are too close to each other
b) it energy levels are too far to each other
c) it is too small
d) it has single electron
5. A charge particle moves through a magnetic field perpendicular to it. The
energy of the particle
a) increases b) decreases c) remains unchanged d) becomes zero
6. Find % change in time period of simple pendulum of its length as well as
g decrease by 0.5 %
a. increase by 1% b. decrease by 1 %
c. no change in time period d. none
7. A particle of mass m is rotating along a circular path of radius ‘r’. It’s
angular momentum is ‘L’ then centripetal force will be
a. b. c. d.
8. An iron cube floats in a vessel containing mercury at 20°C. If the
temperature is increased to 100°C, the cube will float
a. lower b. higher
c. at same level d. can’t be predicted
9. The wrong relation is
a. cv = b. cp =
c. =  d. cp–cv = 2R
10. When the prong of a tuning fork are made thinner the frequency of
vibration
a. increases b. decreases
c. decreases d. first increase then decrease
11. If an ant is approaching to a convex lens with a uniform speed up to first
focus then speed of image of ant formed by lens changes as
a. remain constant b. increases
c. decreases d. first increase then decrease
BEATS IOE MODEL ENTRANCE EXAM SET 3

12. The electrons separated by a distance ‘r’ experience a force F between

them. The force between a proton and singly ionized helium atom at
distance 2r is
a. 4F b. 2F c. d.
13. How many times will the resistance of conductors be increased if its
c.s.a is made half keeping length constant
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d.
14. If an automobile moves with constant power P the relation between
velocity and time will be
a. v  t1/2 b. v  t3/2 c. v  t2 d. v  t
15. If the forward voltage in a semiconductor diode is doubled, the width of
depletion layer
a. increases b. decreases
c. remains unchanged d. becomes zero
16. =
a) x.log b) log c) x.log x d) none
17 The slope of tangent to the curve y = at the point (1, 1) is equal to:
a) -1 b) 1 c) d) -
18. If Q is the set of rational numbers and P is the set of irrational numbers,
then:
a) P⋂Q = ϕ b) P⊂Q c) P - Q = ϕ d) Q⊂P
2 2
19. The eccentricity of the ellipse 16x + 7y = 112 is:
a) b) c) d)
20. The fourth term of G.P. is 2, then the product of first seven term is:
a) 27 b) 26 c)25 d) 24

21. If cos3θ -cosθ =0 then general values of θ =

nπ nπ nπ
a. b. c. d. none
2 3 6
22. The equation having both root common to x 2-5x+6=0 is
a. (x-3)(2x-4)=0 b. (x+2)(4x-2)=0
2
c. x -7x+10=0 d. (x-1)(x-4)=0
3
23. If f(x) has roots a and b then f( )=0 has roots equals
x
1 1 1
a. b b. , c. –a, -b d. - , b
a b a
24. For a square matrix A, which of the following is true?
a. |A|=| AT ∨¿ b. | A−1∨¿=|A|
c. | A−1∨¿=|1/A| d. None
x 2 −1
25. If f’(x)=e +(1+ x ¿ and f(0)=1 then f(x) equals:
a. e x + tan−1 x b. e x +2
c. e x +sin−1 x d. none
sinx
26. lim =
x →0 tanx
a. -1 b. 0 c. 2 d. 1
d
27. cosh−1secx=
dx
BEATS IOE MODEL ENTRANCE EXAM SET 3

a. Secx b. Sinx c. Tanx d. Cosecx

28. Two lines y=mx+c and y=mx+d are on the opposite sides of the origin if
a. c= -d b. c and d are same signs
c. c and d are of opposite signs d. c=d
29. If the planes x+2y+kz=0 and 2x+y-2z=0 are at right angles then the value of
k is
a. 4 b. 2 c. -2 d. 1
30. If a, b, c be any vectors and (a+b+c)=0 then the angle between b and c is
given by
2 2 2 2 2 2
−1 a −b −c −1 b +c −a
a. cos ( ) b. cos ( )
2 bc 2 bc
2 2 2
−1 a +b −c
c. cos ( ) d. None
2 bc
31. Which of the following is not paramagnetic?
−¿ ¿ −¿¿
a. S2−¿¿ b. N 2 c. O2 d. NO
32. Ionic radii are
a. inversely proportional to effective nuclear charge
b. inversely proportional to square of effective nuclear charge
c. directly proportional to effective nuclear charge
d. directly proportional to square of effective nuclear charge
33. The number of silver atoms present in 90% pure silver wire weighing 10g
is
a. 5.571012 b. 0.621023
c. 5.01022 d. 6.021029
34. The equivalent mass of Fe in the reaction will be
3Fe+4H2OFe3O4 +4H2
a. 21 b. 56 c. 42 d. 10
35. The oxidation state of carbon in cyanide ion is
a. +2 b. +4 c. 0 d. –4
36. Nucleophiles are
a. Lewis acid b. Lewis base c. Bronsted acids d. none
37. Longest bond is
a. C–C b. C=C c. CC d. all are equal
38. For a reversible reaction if concentration of reactant is doubled, the
equilibrium constant will be
a. one-fourth b. halvedc. doubled d. the same
39. The IUPAC name of compound

a. 1–Pentanol b. Pentanol
c. 2-Methyl – 4 butanol d. 3-Methylbutan-1-ol
40. The number of  and  bonds in a molecule of benzene is
a. 6,9 b. 9,3 c. 12,3 d. 6,6
41. Malachite is an ore of
a. iron b. copper c. mercury d. zinc
BEATS IOE MODEL ENTRANCE EXAM SET 3

42. Plaster of Paris is

a. CaS04.H20 b. CaS04.2H20
c. CaS04.H20 d. CaS04.H20
43. The catalyst used in Bosch process of manufacture of H2 is:
a) Finely divided Ni c) Pd b) V2O5 d) Fe2O3 + Cr2O3
44. Spelter is:
a) Impure zinc c) Pure zinc b) Impure iron d) Impure Al
45. Soda ash is chemically:
a) Na2CO3. H2O c) NaHCO3
b) NaOH d) Na2CO3 (anhydrous)
46. The final sound of the word ‘how’ is
a. /ӕ/ b. /ʊə/ c. /əʊ/ d. /aʊ/
47. The word ‘intersect’ gets stress on the …. syllable.
a. first b. second c. third d. fourth
48. The synonym of the word ‘Incessant’ is
a. impromptu b. incisive c. inducement d. continuous
49. The antonym of the word ‘dainty’ is
a. inelegant b. hesitate c. glitter d. discord
50. You should not avoid ….. him.
a. to meet b. for meeting
c. in meeting d. meeting
51. If he …. to me I will help him.
a. will come b. will have come
c. had come d. comes
52. You can hear her ….
a. cry b. crying c. cried d. to cry
53. I think I am fine, ……?
a. are I b. don’t I c. aren’t I d. do I
54. The flowers need …..
a. water b. watered c. watering d. to watered
55. To beat the air means ….
a. to act foolishly b. to move vigorously
c. to move sluggishly d. to make vain efforts
56. I ….. the police about the robbery tomorrow.
a. am informing b. have been informing
c. will be informing d. will inform
57. My teacher …. accomplish my task.
a. helped b. helped me to
c. both a and b d. helps
58. My sister, who lives in Biratnagar, is coming to Kathmandu. It is a …..
sentence.
a. simple b. complex c. mixed d. compound
59. What is the reply of “Here you’re, anything else?”
a. No, I’m fine. Thank you. b. Fine, thank you.
c. I’m fine. Thank you. d. That’s all, thank you.
60. She is burdened _____ the work load at the office.
BEATS IOE MODEL ENTRANCE EXAM SET 3

a) at b) by
c) with d) in

SECTION-II
61. Two angle of a triangle are tan-1 and tan-1 then the 3rd angle is
a. b.
c. d.
62. Set A has 3 elements and set B has 4 elements. The number of one to one
mapping that can be defined from A to B is
a. 7 b. 12 c. 144 d. 24
63. If a,b,c are unit vectors such that a+b+c= 0 then a.b+b.c+c.a =
a. –Error! Bookmark not defined. b. Error! Bookmark not defined.
c. d. –
64. The coefficient of x3 in the expansion of e3x + 2 is
a. b.
c. d.
65. In how many ways can the number 1,2,3,4,3,2,1 can be arranged in a row
so that odd digits always occupy odd places.
a. 18 b. 30 c. 12 d. 24
4 n+1 4 n−1
+¿¿ i −i
66. If n∈ Z then =
2
a. -1 b. 1 c. –i d. i
67. If & are roots of equation 9x +6x+1=0, then equation with roots and is
2

a. 2x2+3x+18=0 b. x2+6x–9=0
c. x2+6x+9=0 d. x2–6x+9=0
68. The value of determinant is
a. b.
c. d.

dy
69. If y=√ logx+ √ logx+ √ logx+… … … . ∞ then =
dx
x logx
a. b.
2 y −1 2 y −1
1
c. d. none
x(2 y −1)
π /4

70. ∫ ¿ ¿ ¿dx=
0
a. ½ b. 1/99
c. 1/100 d. 1
71. The area bounded by curves y2=8x and x2=8y is
a. b. c. d.
72. The value of ‘k’ so that the equation x 2-6xy+9 y 2+4x+ky+3=0 represents a
pair of parallel lines is
a. -2 b. -6
c. -8 d. -12
BEATS IOE MODEL ENTRANCE EXAM SET 3

73. The equation of the smallest circle passing through two points (a, o) and
(o, b) is
a. x 2+ y 2+ax+by=0 b. x 2+ y 2-ax-by=0
2 2
2 2 a a 2 2 b b
c. x + y − x− =0 d. x + y − y − =0
2 2 2 2
74. The sum of distance of the vertices of the ellipse 3 x 2+4 y 2=48 from the focus
of the same side
a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 8
75. The angle between the plane 3x+4y=0 and line x 2+ y 2=0 is
a. 90 b. 0 c. 60 d. 45
76. An object of mass 0.5kg is rotated in a horizontal circle by a string 1m
long. The maximum tension in the string before it breaks is 50N. What is
the greatest number of revolutions per second of the object?
a. 1.6 b. 16
c. 3.2 d. 26
77. A bob of mass ‘m’ is attached to one of string of length ‘l’. This is kept in
horizontal position and released from rest. The angle with vertical at which
tension on the string become equal to its weight is
−1 1 −1 1
a. cos b. cos
2 3
−1 1 −1 1
c. cos d. cos
√2 √3
78. The total amount of work done on raising a body of mass ‘m’ from surface
of earth to a height R/2 from surface of earth is
mgr mgr
a. b.
2 3
mgr mgr
c. d.
4 5
79. When a bubble of water rises from bottom of Tamakoshi river its volume
becomes double, the depth of Tamakoshi river is
a. 10 m b. 20 m
c. 30 m d. data is in sufficient
80. Two identical copper rod and brass rod are joined end to end. Free end of
copper is at 0 0C and brass is at 100 0C then temperature of interface if
conductivity of copper is four times the brass is
a. 10 0C b. 20 0C c. 30 0C d. 40 0C
81. A person is approaching a plane mirror with speed 10 cm/s. If the initial
distance between person and mirror is 1m, the distance person and his
image after 2.5 sec will be
a. 0.75 b. 1.5m
c. 0.25m d. 0.5m
82. White light is passed through a prism of angle 5º. If the refractive indices
for the red and blue colours are 1.641 and 1.659 respectively, what is the
angle of dispersion between them?
a) 2º b) 5º
c) 0.9º d) 0.09º
BEATS IOE MODEL ENTRANCE EXAM SET 3

83. Two tuning forks A and B should together produce 8 beats/sec. A is in

resonance with a column of air 32 cm long in closed pipe and B is unison
with air column in closed pipe of length 33 cm. The speed of sound in air is
a. 330 m/sec b. 338 m/sec
c. 328 m/sec d. 334 m/sec
84. The intensity of a sound increases to 1000 times then the increase in
sound level is
a. 3db b. 30db
c. 10db d. 1000db
20
85. 4×10 eV of energy is required to move a charge of 0.25Cbetween two
points. The potential difference between two points is
a. 64V b. 128V c. 256V d. 512V
86. A dry cell of emf 1.5V and internal resistance 0.5Ω. The maximum current
obtained from source is
a. 30A b. 300A c. 3A d. 0.3A
87. A 2Ω resistance coil is to be constructed from a constantan wire of
diameter 0.315mm. If the resistivity of constantan is 4.9 ×10−6Ohm cm, fin
the length of wire required to construct the coil.
a. 31.8 b. 40 c. 55 d. 60.2
88. Two wires of the same mass and material are drawn 1mm and 2mm thick.
They are connected in series and current in set through them. The heat
produced will be in the ratio of
a. 1:16 b. 16:1 c. 4:1 d. 2:1
89. The maximum K.E of the electrons emitted from metallic surface of
1.610-19 J when frequency of incident radiation is 7.51014Hz. Calculate
the minimum frequency of radiation for which electron will be emitted.
a. 5.0751014Hz b. 8.91014Hz
c. 8.91015Hz d. 4.991014Hz
90. Rn decays to Po by emitting -particle with half life of 4 days. A sample
contain 6.41010 atoms of Rn. After 12 days no. of atoms left in sample is
a. 3.21010 b. 0.531010
c. 2.11010 d. 0.81010
91. Assuming that about 20 MeV energy is released per fission reaction
1H +1H 2He +0n . The approximate mass of 1H consumed in a fusion
2 2 3 1 2

reactor of power 1MW in a day is

a. 0.001 g b. 0.1g c. 10 g d. 1 kg
Read the following passage carefully and select the best alternatives:
There is no general agreement about how the planets were formed. The
most widely accepted theory is that about 5000 million years ago swirling
clouds of matter began to condense. Through the action of a centrifugal force,
the heaviour molecules were concentrated near the centre of the eddies, and
the lighter gaseous material was thrown out the periphery. Such is the theory.
What is known is that nine satelites began orbitting round the sun. These are
the planets.
The planet on which man lives is the third closest to the sun, with the third
shortest orbit. It also has something none of the others has – an atmosphere
BEATS IOE MODEL ENTRANCE EXAM SET 3

that can support life in all the manifold forms that exist on our planet. There
may be satellites circling other stars in other parts of the universe, which have
the right ingredients for some sort of life to evolve, but the earth is only one in
the solar system.
92. The theory of formation of the planets
a. is a debatable one b. is generally agreed upon by everyone
c. covers a very wide area d. is fairly well known
93. According to the passage, the planets are
a. nothing but condensed clouds
b. a collection of gaseous material
c. a collection of condensed swirling material
d. a collection of centrifugal forces
94. One essential difference between the earth and the other planets is that
a. the atmosphere of the earth makes possible the presence of life on it
b. the earth draws the heavier molecules into its centre through the actoin
of centrifugal force
c. only the earth is on the periphery of its solar system
d. the earth has the capacity to come into closer contact with the sun
95. The writer claims that life –supporting atmosphere
a. is there on other planets in the solar system
b. may be there are other satellites in the universe
c. may evolve on other satellites encircling other stars in the universe
d. cannot evolve anywhere outside the earth
96. How many grams of CaO are required to neutralise 852g of P4O10?
a) 632gm b) 560gm
c) 616gm d) 1008gm
97. The gas formed by adding conc. HCl to KMn O4 when passed into cold and
dilute NaOH, the product formed is,
a. NaCl and NaClO b. NaCl and NaClO3
c. NaCl and NaClO2 d. NaClO and NaClO3
98. The gas formed by heating chloroform with silver powder when passed
through alkaline KMnO4 gives
a. acetic acid b. oxalic acid
c. acetaldehyde c. formic acid
99. ‘x’ gm of Aluminium was dissolved in 100ml 0f N/2 H 2 SO4 . The excess acid
required 15ml of N KOH for complete neutralization. The value of x is,
a. 0.315 b. 0.472 c. 0.518 d. 0.618
100. 0.975g of metal were deposited by passing 1930C charge through Mn+
ion. The value of n is (atomic weight of M=195),
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4