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Practice Test 01 Test Papers (PCM) Prayas JEE 2.0 2025
Practice Test 01 Test Papers (PCM) Prayas JEE 2.0 2025
0 (2025)
PRACTICE TEST - 01
DURATION ::180
DURATION Minutes
90 Minutes DATE : 07/07/2024 M.MARKS : 300
Topics Covered
Physics: Mathematical Tools (Complete Chapter), Motion in a Straight Line (Complete Chapter), Motion in
a Plane (Complete Chapter).
Chemistry: Structure of Atom (Complete Chapter), Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties
(Complete Chapter), Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure: Introduction Kössel - Lewis
Approach to Chemical Bonding, Resonating Structure, Resonance Energy, Valence Shell Electron
Pair Repulsion (VSEPR) Theory, Resonating Structure, Resonance Energy, Valence Shell Electron
Pair Repulsion (VSEPR) Theory.
Mathematics: Basic Maths (Complete Chapter), Quadratic Equations (Complete Chapter)
General Instructions:
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the test booklet.
2. The test is of 3 hours duration.
3. The test booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 300.
4. There are three sections in the question paper, Section I, II & III consisting of Section-I (Physics), Section-II (Chemistry),
Section-III (Mathematics) and having 30 questions in each Section in which first 20 questions are compulsory and are
of Objective Type and last 10 questions are integer type with answers ranging from ‘0’ to ‘999’ where answer needs to be
rounded off to the nearest integer. Only 5 questions have to be attempted out of the last 10 questions of each section.
5. There is only one correct response for each question.
6. Each correct answer will give 4 marks while 1 Mark will be deducted for a wrong response.
7. No student is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, any electronic
device, etc. inside the examination room/hall.
8. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall.
However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
9. Do not fold or make any stray mark on the Answer Sheet (OMR).
OMR Instructions:
1. Use blue/black dark ballpoint pens.
2. Darken the bubbles completely. Don't put a tick mark or a cross mark where it is specified that you fill the bubbles
completely. Half-filled or over-filled bubbles will not be read by the software.
3. Never use pencils to mark your answers.
4. Never use whiteners to rectify filling errors as they may disrupt the scanning and evaluation process.
5. Writing on the OMR Sheet is permitted on the specified area only and even small marks other than the specified area may
create problems during the evaluation.
6. Multiple markings will be treated as invalid responses.
7. Do not fold or make any stray mark on the Answer Sheet (OMR).
[1]
Section-I (PHYSICS)
Single Correct Type Questions 7. A particle moves for 50 seconds if first accelerates from
1. A football player throws a ball with a velocity of 50 rest and then retard or deaccelerates to rest. If the
ms–1 at an angle 30° from the horizontal. The ball retardation be 5 times the acceleration then the time for
remains in the air for (Take, g = 10 ms–2) retardation is:
(1) 2.5s (2) 1.25s (1) 25/3 second
(3) 5s (4) 0.625s (2) 50/3 second
(3) 25 second
2. Kinetic energy of a particle executing S.H.M. (4) 100/3 second
is K
1
2
m2 a 2 x 2 . Calculate average value of 8. A particle is projected from ground with velocity v at
an angle θ to the horizontal. Average velocity of the
kinetic energy from x 0 to x a
particle between the point of projection and maximum
1 1
(1) mω 2 a 2 (2) mω 2 a 2 height of projectile, is
2 4 v v
1 1 (1) 1 2cos 2θ (2) 1 cos 2θ
(3) mω 2 a 2 (4) mω 2 a 2 2 2
3 6 v
(3) 1 3cos 2θ (4) vcosθ
2
3. In a straight line motion the distance travelled is
proportional to the square root of the time taken. The
9. A body is at rest at x 0 . At t 0 , it starts moving in
acceleration of the particle is proportional to :-
the positive x -direction with a constant acceleration. At
(1) v (2) v2 the same instant another body passes through x 0
3
(3) v (4) v moving in the positive x -direction with a constant
speed. The position of the first body is given by x1 t
4. A person walks at the rate of 3 km / hr . Rain appears
after time t and that of the second body by x2 t after
to him in vertical direction at the rate of 3 3 km / hr .
the same time interval. Which of the following graphs
correctly describes x1 x2 as a function of time t ?
Find magnitude and direction of true velocity of rain.
(1) 6 km / hr , inclined at an angle of 45 to the
vertical towards the person's motion.
(2) 3 km / hr , inclined at an angle of 30 to the
vertical towards the person's motion. (1)
(4)
(1) 4 s (2) 3 s
(3) 2 s (4) 5 s
[2]
10. The horizontal and vertical displacements of a particle 16. Six particles situated at the corners of a regular hexagon
moving along a curved line are given by x 5t and of side d move at a constant speed v . Each particle
maintains a direction towards the particle at the next
y 2t 2 t . Time after which its velocity vector makes
corner. The time which particles will take to meet each
an angle of 45 with the horizontal is other is
(1) 0.5 s (2) 1 s (1) 2d / 3v (2) 2d / v
(3) 2 s (4) 1.5 s (3) 3d / 2v (4) 4d / 3v
11. A projectile is launched at an angle ' ' with the 17. Three projectiles A, B and C are thrown from the same
horizontal with a velocity 20 m/s. After 10s, it point in the same plane. Their trajectories are shown in
inclination with horizontal is ' '. The value of tan the figure.
will be: g 10ms
2
.
(1) tan 5sec (2) tan 5sec
(3) 2tan 5sec (4) 2tan 5sec
[4]
Section-II (CHEMISTRY)
Single Correct Type Questions (2) The second ionisation potential of Mg is greater
31. Screening effect is not observed in: than the second ionisation potential of Na
(1) He+ (2) Li2+ (3) The first ionisation potential of Na is less than
(3) Be3+ (4) In all the three the first ionisation potential of Mg
(4) The third ionisation potential of Mg is greater
32. If wavelength is equal to the distance travelled by the than third ionisation potential of Na
electron in one second, then:
h h 39. If 'x' is the radius of first Bohr's orbit of hydrogen
(1) (2)
p m atom, then the ratio of radius of 2nd, 4th and 6th orbit is:
(1) 1 : 2 : 3
h h
(3) (4) (2) 1 : 4 : 9
p m
(3) 3 : 2 : 1
(4) 2 : 4 : 8
33. The following graph is plotted for ns-orbital. The
value of n will be: 40. Match the column I with column II:
34. The element with atomic number 35 belongs to: 41. The valence electron are involved in formation of
(1) d-block (2) f-block
covalent bonds is/are called:
(3) p-block (4) s-block
(1) Non-bonding electrons
(2) Lone pairs
Zh (3) Unshared pairs
35. If the angular momentum of 4th excited state is ,
(4) None of these
then what will be Z?
(1) 5 (2) 2.5 x
(3) 4 (4) None of these 42. For 25 Mn ion, the value of spin only magnetic
[5]
44. Predict the correct order of repulsion among the 9R H
(1) cm 1
following: 400
(1) bond pair - bond pair > lone pair - bond pair > 7R H
(2) cm 1
lone pair - lone pair 144
(2) lone pair - bond pair > bond pair - bond pair > 3R H
lone pair - lone pair (3) cm 1
4
(3) lone pair - lone pair > lone pair - bond pair >
5R H
bond pair - bond pair (4) cm 1
36
(4) lone pair - lone pair > bond pair - bond pair >
lone pair - bond pair
Integer Type Questions
51. Find out total number of representative elements in
45. An electron from one Bohr stationary orbit can go to
the given elements: Zn, Mg, Na, Fe, N, F, S, B, Al.
next higher orbit:
(1) By emission of electromagnetic radiation
(2) By absorption of any electromagnetic radiation 52. In a hydrogen atom, an electron de-excites from 5th
(3) By absorption of electromagnetic radiation of excited state to 1st excited state. The number of
particular frequency spectral lines obtained in the ultraviolet region
(4) Without emission or absorption of is_________.
electromagnetic radiation
53. How many of the following do(es) not represent
46. If atomic number of an element is 33, then it will be correct lewis symbol?
placed in periodic table in the:
(1) 1st group
(2) 3rd group
54. The number of ions among the following having
(3) 15th group
pseudo inert gas configuration is_____.
(4) 17th group
Zn 2 ,Cd2 ,Hg2 ,Cu ,Ag ,Au
47. The order of filling of electrons in the orbitals of an
atom will be 55. The formal charge on the carbon atom in the
(1) 3d, 4s, 4p, 4d, 5s carbonate ion is
(2) 4s, 3d, 4p, 5s, 4d
(3) 5s, 4p, 3d, 4d, 5s 56. In Bohr's model, the atomic radius of the first orbit of
(4) 3d, 4p, 4s, 4d, 5s hydrogen atom is y, the radius of the 3rd orbit of
hydrogen atom is ny. What is the value of n.
48. Which of the following orders of ionic radii is
correctly represented? 57. The number of electrons present in all the completely
(1) H H H filled subshells having n = 4 and s = +1/2 is _____.
(where n = principal quantum number and s = spin
(2) Na F O2
quantum number)
(3) O2 F Na
(4) Al3 Mg2 N3 58. The successive ionization energy for an element is
given below in kJ mol–1.
0.7865, 1.5771, 3.2316, 4.3555, 16.091, 19.785,
49. The number of spectral lines in Balmer series when an 23.786, 29.252. Predict the number of valence shell
electron returns from 7th orbit to 1st orbit of hydrogen electrons in the given element.
atom are:
(1) 6 (2) 7 59. The number of -particle deflected at 60o are 16. The
(3) 5 (4) 4 number of -particle deflected at 180o are.
50. The first emission line in the atomic spectrum of 60. How many electrons are present in the orbitals with l
hydrogen in the Balmer Series appears at = 2 in Cr?
[6]
Section-III (MATHEMATICS)
Single Correct Type Questions (1) 8 (2) 7
61. If roots of equation x2 – 5x + 3 = 0 are and , then (3) 6 (4) 4
quadratic equation whose roots are
69. The range of values of 'p' so that both the roots of the
2 10 7 1 and 2 10 7 1 is
3 2 3 2
equation (p – 5)x2 – 2px + (p – 4) = 0 are positive, one
(1) x2 + 3x – 1 = 0 (2) x2 – 3x– 1 = 0 is less than 2 and other is lying between 2 & 3, is
(3) x2 – 3x + 1 = 0 (4) None of these
49
(1) , 24
4
62. Let λ 0 be a real number. Let , be the roots of the
(2) 5,
equation 14 x2 31x 3λ 0 and , the roots of
, 4 U
49
the equation 35x2 – 53x 4λ 0. Then
3
and
4 (3) ,
4
(4) None of these
are the roots of the equation.
(1) 7x2 – 245x + 250 = 0
(2) 49x2 – 245x + 250 = 0 70. If (x2 + x + 2)2 – (a – 3) (x2 + x + 1) (x2 + x + 2)
+ (a – 4) (x2 + x + 1)2 = 0 has atleast one root then
(3) 49x2 + 245x + 250 = 0
complete set of value of a is
(4) 7x2 + 245x – 250 = 0
7 7
(1) 1, (2) 3 ,5
63. Let x, y, z and u be positive integers such 3
3 5 3 19
that log x y , log z u . If x–z = 9 then y – u = (3) 7 ,1 (4) 5,
2 4 3
(1) 3 (2) 21
(3) 93 (4) None mx 2 3 x 4
71. If the inequality 5 is satisfied for all x
x2 2 x 2
64. The complete set of values of x satisfying R, then
log x x 2 2 0 is (1) 1 < m < 5
11
(2) – 1 < m < 1
71
(3) 5 m (4) m
(1) 0 x 3 (2) 2 x 3 24 24
(3) x 3 (4) None of these
2 3 4 22 3 2
72. If K , then the value of
65. If , be two roots of the equation
2 1
2
x 2 24
1/4
x 61/2 0, then 8 8 is equal to is equal to
2K
(1) 12 (2) 144 1
(3) 72 (4) 228 (1) (2) 2
2
1
66. Given that the quadratic equation ax2 + bx + c = 0 has (3) 4 (4)
4
no real roots, but Adam got two roots 2 and 4 since he
wrote down a wrong value of a. Ben also got two roots 73. If order pair (x, y) is satisfying the system of
–1 and 4 because he wrote down the sign of a term x y
2b 3c equations 4 y x
32 and log3 x y 1 log3
wrongly, then the value of
a (x+y), then which of the following is not true?
(1) 3 (2) 4 (1) x + y = 3 (2) xy = 2
(3) 5 (4) 6 (3) x – y = 1 (4) x + 2y = 5
[7]
75. If solution set of inequality (x2 + x – 2) Integer Type Questions
(x + x – 16) > – 40 is x , 4 a, b c,
2 81. The smallest possible natural number 'p' for which the
equation x2 – px + 1258 = 0 has integral roots?
then a + b – c is equal to
(1) – 2 (2) – 3
(3) – 4 (4) – 6 82. The least integral value of k such that (k – 2)x2 + 8x + k
+ 4 is positive for all real values of x is
76. The solution of the inequation
971 83. α, β, γ, δ are roots of f (x) = 5x4 + ax3 + bx2 + cx + d
253 1
x 2 10000
x 1 x x 8 4
and α, γ,δ are roots of g(x) = x3 – 9x2 + kx – 24
2
0 also , , are in A.P. and , , , are in H.P.
x500 x 3 x 2 93
75
, 2 1,0 0,
1
(4) 3, 85. If (x – a) (x – a2) < 0 has exactly one integral solution
2
of x for a I+, then a possible integral value of x is
77. If a2 4b2 9c2 2ab 6bc 3ac 0 where 86. If , are the roots the quadratic equation
x 23
a, b, c R, then the number of distinct real roots
of ax bx c 0 is/are
2 x2 3 2
log 2 3
3
log3 2 log3 2
2log2 3 0,
(1) 0 (2) 2 then the value of is equal to
2 2
(3) 1 (4) Infinite
78. If the equation (6a + 3b + 4c)x2 + (11a + 8b + 7c)x + 87. The number of real value(s) of 'x' satisfying the
x 1
(5a + 5b + 3c) = 0 has equal real roots, x2 2 x 2 x
equation 2
x2 1 is/are
where a, b, c R , then a, b, c are in
(1) A.P. (2) G.P.
(3) H.P. (4) None of these 88. The number of integral values of x satisfying
2 x x 2 x 4, is equal to
79. The quadratic equations 2006 x2 2007 x 1 0
& x2 2007 x 2006 0 have a common root. Then 89.
2
If the solution set of 2 4 x 1 5 3 is given by
product of the uncommon roots is
(1) –1 (2) 1 [a, b] [c, d] then a + b + c + d is
(3) 2006 (4) 2007
90. If and are the roots of the equation x2 – 6x +
2|x
80. If 1, then 6 8
12 = 0 and the value of 2
24
3|x 1
8
(1) x ,2 3,
is a b where a and b are natural numbers then
(2) x 3, 3 least value of a b is
(3) x , 3 3,
(4) x
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[8]