Republic of the Philippines

Department of Education
REGION VIII - EASTERN VISAYAS
Ormoc City Division
ORMOC CITY NIGHT HIGH SCHOOL

SECOND QUARTER TEST IN GRADE 7

Directions: Read each item carefully. Write only the letter of the correct answer for each question. Use a separate
sheet for your answers.
1. In what year did the father-and-son duo spectacles- makers create the first microscope?
A. 1565 B. 1590 C. 1675 D. 1830
2. Who uses the microscope with only one lens to observe insects and other specimens?
A. Robert Hooke B. Richard Zsigmondy
C. Hans & Zacharias Janssen D. Anton van Leeuwenhoek
3. Who invented the ultra- microscope which allows the observation of specimens beyond the wavelength of
light?
A. Robert Hooke B. Richard Zsigmondy
C. Anton van Leeuwenhoek D. Hans & Zacharias Janssen
For items 4 to 6, use the letters in the figure to answer the questions.

4. Which part supports the entire weight of the microscope?

A. Part B B. Part C C. Part D D. Part E
5. Edgar needs to raise the stage to focus the specimen he is studying using the low power objective. Which part
should he manipulate?
A. Part A B. Part B C. Part C D. Part E
6. You are to transfer the microscope to the next room. What parts should you hold to carry the microscope
properly?
A. Part C & E B. Part B & C C. Part A & F D. Part E & J
7. Which part will you adjust if the object you are observing under the HPO is NOT clear?
A. Coarse adjustment B. Inclination joint
 C. fine adjustment D. Diaphragm
8. Which of the following describes the function of the mirror?
A. It facilitates the changing of the objectives.
B. It reflects light up to the diaphragm and to the specimen to be observed.
C. It allows one to tilt the microscope, so viewing is possible while seated.
D. Regulates the amount of light reflected to the object to be viewed.
9. Which of the following describes the function of diaphragm?
A. It facilitates the changing of the objectives.
B. It reflects light up to the diaphragm and the specimen to be observed.
C. Regulates the amount of light reflected to the object to be viewed.
D. It allows one to tilt the microscope, so viewing is possible while seated.
10. What is the correct way of carrying a microscope?
A. Hold the arm by grasping with one hand.
B. Hold the base by grasping with two hands.
C. Hold the arm by grasping with one hand and the stage with the other hand.
D. Hold the arm by grasping with one hand and the base with the other hand.
11. Total magnification is obtained by ______________.
A. magnifying power of eyepiece.
B. magnifying power of condenser lens.
C. magnifying power of the objective lens.
D. magnifying power of both the objective lens and eyepiece.
12. Which should be used to observe bacteria?
A. 20x obj. and 10x eyepiece
B. 30x obj. and 10x eyepiece
C. 100x oil immersion objective and 10x eyepiece
D. 100x oil immersion objective and 5x eyepiece
13. Why does a microscope stage have a hole in it?
A. To hold the specimen in place.
B. To make the specimen visible.
C. To secure the slide to the stage.
D. To allow the light to pass through.
14. A student wants to see the parts of a plant cell in detail using high power objective. What part of the
microscope will be manipulated?
A. Eyepiece B. Objective lenses C. Fine adjustment knob D. Coarse adjustment knob 15. It is 15.
the ability of a microscope to distinguish the finer details in an image.
A. microscopy B. scanning ability C. magnification D. Resolving power
16. Which of the following organs does NOT belong to the digestive system?
A. Ears B. Esophagus C. Mouth D. Nose
17. Which of the following organs does NOT belong to the Circulatory system?
A. Artery B. Heart C. Nose D. Vein
18. Which of the following is NOT an organ system?
A. Digestive B. Population C. Excretory D. Respiratory
19. What do you call a group of individuals belonging to the same species and living in a particular area?
A. organism B. community C. Population D. Ecosystem
20. Which of the following is NOT a plant part for reproduction?
A. Petals B. Pistil C. Stamen D. Stem

21. Which of the following organs are used for pumping of blood and nutrients throughout the body?
A. Artery B. Heart C. Stem D. Vein
22. Which organ is responsible for eliminating metabolic waste?
A. Digestive System B. Excretory System
C. Circulatory System D. Respiratory System
23. Which organ system responsible in processing oxygen into our body?
A. Nervous System B. Circulatory System
C. Respiratory System D. Integumentary System
24. Which is the correct sequence of the level of biological organization in an organism?
A. cell- tissue –organ- organ system- organism
B. cell- organ system–organ- tissue - organism
C. cell- organ –- tissue organ system- organism
D. cell- organ- organ system- organism-tissue
25. Which of the following is NOT correctly matched?
A. Roots-Excretion B. Stem-Circulation
C. Leaves-Respiration D. Flower- Reproduction
26. Plants benefits from animals. Do animals benefits from plants?
A. No, animals can produce its need.
B. No, because plants and animals can live alone.
C. Yes, because it provides shade during summer.
D. Yes, because it provides food and oxygen for respiration.
27. There are how many primary types of cells?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
28. Which of the following organelles is NOT a basic part of a cell?
A. Endoplasmic reticulum B. Cell membrane
C. Cytoplasm D. Nucleus
29. Which types of cells contain nucleus and other membrane-bound organelles?
A. Animal cells B. Autocratic cells C. Eukaryotic cells D. Prokaryotic cellls
30. What type of cells lack defined nucleus but contain nucleoid in them?
A. Plant Cells B. Animal Cells C. Eukaryotic Cells D. Prokaryotic Cells
31. What main part of a cell is consisting of a jelly-like substance where all the other parts of the cell are
embedded?
A. Plasma membrane B. Cytoplasm C. Cell wall D. Nucleus
32. Which organelle is NOT considered as a main part of the cell?
A. Nucleus B. Cytoplasm C. Golgi body D. Plasma membrane
33. What type of cell is present in humans?
A. Plant Cells B. Monocular Cells C. Eukaryotic Cells D. Prokaryotic Cells
34. What do you call the living organisms that inhabit an environment?
A. Survivors B . Community C. Biotic factors D. Abiotic factors
35. Which of the following choices are abiotic factors?
A. Crabs, fish, and oxygen B. Oxygen, soil, and sunlight,
C. Algae, dog, and temperature, D. Mushroom, sunlight, and temperature
36. Which of the following statements is true?
A. All living things are biotic factors
B. Most living things are abiotic factors
C. Some nonliving things are biotic factors
D. Living things can either be biotic or abiotic
37. All of the items below are abiotic EXCEPT
A. Grasses B. Soil C. Sun D. Temperature

For items 38 and 39 choose your answer from the given choices inside the box.

38. From the items in the box, which factors are purely biotic?
A. I and II only B. I, II and III only C. II, III and IV only D.I, II, III and IV
39. Which statement is true about the choices in the box?
A. I, II and II contain abiotic factors
B. I, II and III include biotic factors
C. I, II and III include biotic factors
D. I, II, III, and IV contains biotic and abiotic factors
40. Which of the following conditions is NOT an ecosystem?
A. An empty aquarium B. A growing flower in a pot
C. Mountains surrounded by trees D. Large bodies of oceans and lakes
41. Outdoor plants need water and sunlight in order to grow. Which statements will distinguish plants from water
and sunlight correctly?

A. I & II only B. II & III only C. I & III only D. I, II, and III
42. What do you call the living parts of the environment, such as humans, animals, and plants?
A. Biosphere B. Ecosystem C. Biotic factors D. Abiotic factors
43. In which place do biotic and abiotic factors interact?
A. Ecosystem B. House C. Niche D. Shelter
45. Which of the following is an example of an abiotic factor?
A. Bugs B. Ferns C. Minerals D. Zebra
46. In your science class you investigated a cell. You found out that this cell is eukaryotic. What is your first
criterion in identifying the type of the cell?
A. Absence of nucleus B. Presence of nucleus
C. Absence of Plasma membrane D. Presence of Plasma membrane
47. Which of the following is the function of the cell membrane?
A. To control reproduction in the cell.
B. To give the cell shape and support.
C. To control what enters and leaves the cell.
D. To control activities in the cell.
48. Athena observed a prepared slide of a bacterium under the microscope. She concluded that the cell is
prokaryotic. What do you think was her basis?
A. Absence of nucleus B. Presence of nucleus
C. Absence of Plasma membrane D. Presence of Plasma membrane
49. Which of the following is a cell that has NO defined nucleus but has a nucleoid region?
A. Plant cell B. Animal cell C. Eukaryotic cell D. Prokaryotic cell
50. Which of the following cells have NO nucleus and other membrane-bound organelles?
A. Prokaryotic cell B. Eukaryotic cell C. Both A and B D. Plant cell
 Republic of the Philippines
Department of Education
REGION VIII - EASTERN VISAYAS
Ormoc City Division
 ORMOC CITY NIGHT HIGH SCHOOL

SECOND QUARTER TEST IN GRADE 8

Directions: Read each item carefully. Write only the letter of the correct answer for each question. Use a separate
sheet for your answers.
1. The stress along the outer layer of the Earth causes the build-up of energy. What prevent the rocks from
releasing this energy?
A. bending of rocks B. vibration of the rocks
C. friction between rocks D. energy released by rocks
2. Why do earthquakes occur frequently in Japan, Indonesia, and Philippines?
A. They are surrounded by seas.
B. They are located near the equator.
C. They are considered archipelagic countries.
D. They are found within the Pacific Ring of Fire.
3. Which factor keeps the rocks from slipping past each other?
A. Arrangement B. Bending C. Depth D. Roughness
4. What type of fault formed the Rocky Mountains?
A. Normal B. Reverse C. Strike-slip D. Transform
5. What happens to the rocks in a fault slip?
A. They stick together. B. They slide past each other.
C. There is no movement at all. D. They suddenly slip and generate earthquake.
6. What is referred to as a fracture between two blocks of rocks?
A. Earthquake B. Fault C. Stress D. Volcano
7. What type of fault is the San Andreas fault?
A. Normal B. Reverse C. Strike-slip D. Thrust
8. Which type of fault is described by two blocks of crust pushing together?
A. Normal B. Reverse C. Strike-slip D. Thrust
9. Which of the following figures illustrates normal fault?

10. How do faults produce earthquakes?

A. Once friction is overcome, a fault slip produces earthquake.
B. Molten rock materials accumulate and go out along a fault.
C. Tectonic plates collide forming a volcano and causing earthquake.
D. Magma and lava cause the ground to move producing earthquake
11. Where is the focus located in the illustration?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 2 and 3

12. At what point along a fault does the first motion of an earthquake occur?
A. Epicenter B. Focus C. Intensity D. Magnitude
13. Where is the epicenter located?
A. directly above the focus
B. at the center of the earth
C. located in the seismic waves
D. located underground where the earthquake begins
14. Which instrument determines the amount of damage caused by earthquake?
A. spring scale B. Richter scale C. Mercalli scale D. weighing scale
15. What is the highest intensity scale of an earthquake?
A. VIII B. IX C. X D. XI
16. Scientists use different ways to find out if a fault is active. Which one is NOT included?
A. creating a fault model
B. observing the surroundings
C. tracing the country’s historical record
D. studying the past and present vibrations
17. Which point is nearest to the focus?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

18. Which of the following locations is directly above the focus?

A. Core B. Epicenter C. Fault D. Hypocenter
19. What is the magnitude of an earthquake that can cause serious damage in areas across several hundred
miles?
A. 5.0 – 5.9 B. 6.0 – 6.9 C. 7.0 – 7.9 D. 8.0 – 8.9
20. Which of the following is NOT considered an effect when movement of an active fault happens?
A. ground motion B. typhoon formation C. surface faulting D. land deformation
21. What wave causes earthquake to occur?
A. Electromagnetic B. Radio C. Seismic D. Sound
22. What does P in a P wave stand for?
A. Parallel B. Partial C. Perpendicular D. Primary

23. What kind of seismic wave arrives last at seismic station?

A. Love B. Primary C. Secondary D. Surface
24. Which type of wave vibrates parallel to the direction and travels in a push-pull motion?
A. Love B. Primary C. Secondary D. Surface
25. Which of the following statements best describes primary wave?
A. It travels through a vacuum.
B. It causes rock particles to vibrate.
C. It is the slowest, largest and causes the most destruction.
D. It travels the fastest and causes rock material to move back and forth.
26. Which type of seismic wave moves rock particles up and down, or side-to- side perpendicular to the direction
the waves are traveling in?
A. Love B. Primary C. Secondary D. Surface
27. What type of seismic wave is S wave?
A. Electromagnetic B. Longitudinal C. Transverse D. Ultrasonic
28. Which type of seismic waves can travel through crust, mantle, and core?
A. Love B. Primary C. Secondary D. Surface
29. In which of the following media can secondary waves travel?
A. gases only B. solids only C. liquids only D. solids, liquids and gases
30. Which of the following statements is NOT true about the secondary wave?
A. S waves travel slower that P waves.
B. S waves can travel through solid rocks.
C. S waves move rock particles up and down.
D. S waves can travel both in solid rocks and in liquid medium.
31. What is the name of the tropical cyclone formed in the northwestern part of the Pacific Ocean?
A. Hurricane B. Tornado C. Tsunami D. Typhoon
32. In what year did super typhoon Yolanda hit the Philippines?
A. 2011 B. 2012 C. 2013 D. 2014
33. In what direction does a tropical cyclone usually move?
A. Northeast B. Northwest C. Southeast D. Southwest
34. What is the wind speed of severe tropical storm?
A. 62 – 88 kph B. 89 – 117 kph C. 118 – 220 kph D. more than 220
35. During a typhoon, Public Storm Warning Signal (PSWS) is issued over the affected area. What is the impact
of the wind when PSWS signal is 4?
A. No to light damage B. Light to moderate damage
C. Moderate to heavy damage D. Heavy to very heavy damage
36. What should be done after a typhoon?
A. Store sufficient amount of food.
B. Always ready with the emergency kit.
C. Keep monitoring the typhoon’s movement.
D. Boil water before drinking as it may be contaminated.
37. Tropical cyclones are not formed on which part of the Pacific Ocean?
A. Northeastern B. Northwestern C. Southeastern D. Southwestern
38. What happens to a typhoon when it makes a landfall?
A. gets weaker B. stays longer C. moves faster D. gets stronger
39. How do landforms affect typhoon?
A. no effect at all
B. increase wind direction
C. serve as a fuel to travelling air masses making typhoon stronger
D. serve as an obstacle for travelling air masses making typhoon weaker

40.Which statement is INCORRECT?

A. Warm bodies of ocean water are the main source in the formation of typhoon.
B. Warm bodies of ocean water build up increasing the wind speed of typhoon.
C. Air from surrounding areas with lower air pressure pushes to the high-pressure area.
D. Tropical cyclone does not form in the South Atlantic Ocean due to its lower temperature
41. What agency oversees the tracking of the movement and strength of a typhoon once it enters PAR?
A. Department of Environment and Natural Disaster (DENR)
B. National Disaster Risk Reduction and Management Council (NDRRMC)
C. Philippine Institute of Volcanology and Seismology (PHIVOLCS)
D. Philippine Atmospheric, Geophysical and Astronomical Services Administration (PAGASA)

For item numbers 42-44, refer to the figure below. Write the letter of the correct answer
42. Which location has the highest air pressure? ________________
43. Which location is the eyewall? ________________
44. Which location has a calm condition? ________________
45. Which statement is INCORRECT about tracking the typhoon?
A. It predicts the path as to where typhoon will take its course.
B. It involves determining the position and strength of high-and-low pressure areas.
C. It involves using a single weather instrument to predict its strength and movement.
D. It involves predicting the movements of typhoon within 5 to 7 days, and in 6 to 12 hours whenever there is a
storm.
46. Which is NOT a sign of an approaching typhoon?
A. decreasing rainfall
B. increasing cloudiness
C. decreasing barometric pressure
D. increasing wave height and frequency
47. When forecasting a typhoon, PAGASA usually talks about sustained winds. These sustained winds are at the
__________.
A. eye B. eyewall C. rain band D. top
48. A typhoon is moving at 15 kph and is making a landfall at point A at exactly 5:30 AM. At what time will the
typhoon hit point B if the distance between the two points is 225 km?
A. 7:30 AM B. 7:30 PM C. 8:30 AM D. 8:30 PM
49. Which is an effect of a typhoon?
A. tsunami B. earthquake C. storm surge D. calm weather condition
50.How often PAGASA monitors the weather and predicts typhoon movement in the Philippines?
A. daily B. monthly C. quarterly D. yearly

Republic of the Philippines

Department of Education
REGION VIII - EASTERN VISAYAS
Ormoc City Division
ORMOC CITY NIGHT HIGH SCHOOL

2nd Quarter TEST in Science 10

Directions: Read each item carefully. Write only the letter of the correct answer for each question. Use a separate
sheet for your answers.
1. Which pair of EM waves is commonly used for communication?
A. X-rays and infrared C. radio waves and gamma rays
B. radio waves and microwaves D. infrared and microwaves
2. Radio wave is useful in which of the following applications?
A. watching television C. sterilizing medical equipment
B. treating cancers D. sunbathing
3. All of the following made use of gamma rays except one. Which is it?
 A. treating tumors
B.treating cancer through the process called radiotherapy
C. sterilization of water in drinking fountains
D. sterilization of medical equipment
4. Infrared waves is useful in which of the following applications?
A. remote control C. screen of electronic devices
B. television signal D. night vision goggles
5. Microwave is useful in which of the following applications?
A. remote control C. artificial lighting
B. cellphone communication D. sterilization
6. In visible light, which color has the longest wavelength?
A. red C. yellow
B. violet D. green
7. What form of wave makes your skin tan when exposed for a long period of time?
A. infrared rays C. radio waves
B. microwaves D. ultraviolet rays
8. Which of the following is not an application of visible light?
A. bulb C. cell phone screen
B. security markings D. flashlight
9. Which of the following is the correct meaning of the acronym GPS?
A. Guided Position Symbol C. Guided Positioning System
B. Global Positioning System D. Global Perimeter Scale
10. Colors in the infrared image depend on ________________.
A. wavelength C. amplitude
B. frequency D. temperature

11.He theorized that changing magnetic field will produce electric field.
a. Faraday b. Hertz c. Maxwell d. Oersted
12. Electromagnetic waves can travel through a vacuum. What is the speed of an electromagnetic wave in a
vacuum?
a. 3 x 108 m/s c. 3 x 109 m/s
b. 3 x 108 m/s2 d. 3 x 109 m/s2
13. Which property spells the difference between radio wave and microwave radiation?
a. amplitude c. speed in vacuum
b. color d. wavelength
14. Which two waves lie at the beginning and end of the electromagnetic spectrum?
a. gamma ray and X-ray b. microwave and ultraviolet rays
c. radio wave and gamma ray d. radio waves and microwaves
15.What is the frequency range of ultraviolet radiation?
a. 3.5 x 109 – 3 x 1011 Hz b. 3.5 x 1011 – 3 x 1014 Hz
c. 7.5 x 1014 – 3 x 1016 Hz d. 7.5 x 1016 – 3 x 1019 Hz
16. Visible light is the only EM wave that can be seen by our naked eye. What is the color of light if it has a
frequency of 4.5 x 1014 Hz?
a. blue b. green c. red d. yellow
17. Which of the following is correctly arranged from longest to shortest wavelength?
a. gamma ray, radio wave, infrared
b. microwave, x-ray, gamma ray
c. ultraviolet, visible light, radio wave
d. x-ray, gamma ray, ultraviolet
18. Which type of EM wave has wavelength similar to the size of a 1 Peso coin?
a. infrared b. microwave c. ultraviolet d. visible light
19. Which electromagnetic wave can travel the least distances because it has a wavelength range of less than
1x10-11 meters but has the highest energy?
a. gamma ray b. microwave c. radio wave d. x-ray
20. In the electromagnetic spectrum, which has the longest wavelength?
a. gamma ray b. radio wave c. ultraviolet d. visible light
21. The reflection by the rough surfaces that tend to reflect light in all directions is called _______________ .
a. diffused reflection c. regular reflection
b. glossy reflection d. specular reflection
22. The image you see in a plane mirror called a _______________ image because it is not a real, physical
object.
a. imaginary b. physical c. reflected d. virtual
23. When the image of an object is seen in a plane mirror the image is _______________
a. real and inverted c. virtual and inverted
b. real and upright d. virtual and upright
24. Diffuse Reflection is produced by _______________ surfaces that tend to reflect light in all directions.
a. rough b. semi rough c. semi smooth d. smooth
25. Out of the following which one is diverging on negative lens?
a. concave lens b. convex lens c. parabolic lens d. plane lens
26. The center of curvature is denoted by letter _______________ .
a. c b. C c. o d. O
27. If the angle of incidence between the incident ray and the normal line is 25 degrees, what is the angle of
reflection?
a. 65 degrees b. 45 degrees c. 35 degrees d. 25 degrees
28. When the image is seen in the concave mirror, the image will ______________.
a. always be real c. be either real or virtual
b. always be virtual d. will always be magnified
29. When the image is seen in the convex mirror, the image will _______________ .
a. always be real c. be either real or virtual
b. always be virtual d. will always be magnified
30. The focal length is equal to the half of the ______________.
a. center of curvature c. radius of curvature
b. principal axis d. none of the above
31. Which of the following tells the difference between lenses and mirrors?
a. Lenses refract light, mirrors reflect light.
b. Lenses make object appear larger, while mirrors give exact copy of object.
c. Lenses reflect light, mirrors refract light.
d. Lenses produce virtual image; mirrors make real image.
32. Concave mirror ___________________________.
a. bulges out toward the light source
b. curves towards the center
c. diverge light rays
d. creates smaller image of an object
33. Which of the following uses concave lens?
a. Magnifying glasses b. Person with hyperopia
c. Nearsighted corrective eyeglasses d. All of the above
34. You see the reflection of the analog type of clock without numbers in your plane mirror. The image formed
by the hands of the clock shows the time of 10:00. What is the real time?
a. 2: 00 b. 1:00 c. 7:00 d. Still 10:00
35. Which mirror concept explains why the word AMBULANCE is written in reverse in an ambulance car? a.
Multiple image b. Lateral inversion c. Virtual image and real image d. All of the above
36. What kind of mirror is used by dentists in examining tooth cavities?
a. Plane mirror b. Concave mirror c. Convex mirror d. None of the above
37. Vehicle’s side mirrors are __________.
a. plane mirrors b. concave mirror c. convex mirror d. None of the above
38. Which of the following statements is TRUE about virtual image?
a. virtual image seems to appear behind the mirror and is upside down.
b. virtual image seems to appear behind the mirror and is seen in an upright position.
c. virtual image is formed after the light rays are reflected from the mirror.
d. All of the above.
39. The sun’s rays are observed to focus at a point behind a lens. What kind of lens was used?
a. converging lens b. diverging lens c. focusing lens d. none of the above
40. Looking through a concave lens, arm-length away can make object appear _______.
a. smaller and upright b. smaller and upside down
c. larger and upright d. larger and upside down
41. Images in a kaleidoscope are examples of a
a. multiple image b. convex mirror c. concave mirror d. lateral inversion
42.To correct nearsightedness, a person is prescribed with what kind of lenses?
a. Converging lens b. Diverging lens c. Focusing lens d. None of the above.
43.What type of image is formed by the concave side of the spoon when the object is arm-length away from it?
a. Upright and bigger b. Upside down and bigger
c. Upright and smaller d. Upside down and smaller
44.How will the letter e appear in the mirror?

45.Which of the following parts of the eyes function like the aperture and iris diaphragm of a camera? a.
eyelid and cornea b. pupil and eyelid
c. retina and cornea d. pupil and iris
46. The focal length is denoted by the letter _______________.
a. f b. F c. P d. p
47. A spherical mirror with reflecting surface curved inwards is called _______________.
a. concave mirror c. curved mirror
b. convex mirror d. none of the above
48. The distance from the focal point to the vertex is called _______________.
a. center of curvature c. focal point
b. focal length d. vertex
49. Which lens is used to magnify objects and refract light? This type of lens is curved outward.
a. concave lens b. convex lens
c. parabolic lens d. plane lens
50. Which describes a concave lens?
a. more transparent in the middle
b. thinner in the middle than on the edges
c. thinner on the edges than in the middle
d. triangular in shape.
 SET A

Republic of the Philippines

Department of Education
REGION VIII - EASTERN VISAYAS
Ormoc City Division
ORMOC CITY NIGHT HIGH SCHOOL

SUMMATIVE TEST IN GRADE 10

Assessment 1
Directions: Unscramble the letters to form the correct words and write the appropriate word to
complete the statements below on a separate sheet.
1. EM wave that can be seen by human eye is the __________________. ISVIELB HGLIT
2. _______ is the only source of natural white light. UNS
3. Rainbow is formed when light _____________ at different angles. FRRETACS
4. _______ is one of the artificial lights we use at night. LBUB
5. In a rainbow, the color that bends the most is ______. IVLTOE

Assessment 2 Directions: Write ULTRA if the statement is correct, and VIOLET if not. If the statement
is incorrect, state reason or appropriately correct the statement
. _________ 1. Too much exposure to UV rays may increase the risk for skin cancer and cataracts.
_________ 2. Sunscreens protect our skin so we can stay under the sun all day.
_________ 3. The higher the Sun Protection Factor (SPF) in a sunscreen, the higher the protection.
_________4. Sunglasses have UV coating that help block harmful rays from the sun.
_________5. It is good to avoid the sun entirely.
ASSESSMENT 4
Choose the correct term from the enclosed choices that should go into the blank spaces.
Radio/television signals, GPS and MRI are practical applications of (1) __________________
(radio wave/microwave). Satellite communication, cooking, terrestrial communication, and RADAR
make use of (2) ________________ (infrared/microwave). Remote controls, thermal imaging and
night vision goggles are practical applications of (3) ________________ (infrared/ultraviolet). You
can see things around you because of (4) __________________ (gamma rays/visible light) which
is also used in optical fibers, artificial lights and screens of electronic devices. Vitamin D is
produced from (5) ______________ (ultraviolet /microwave), which is also used for security
markings and sterilization of water in drinking fountains. In diagnosing bone fractures, we use (6)
______________________ (gamma rays/X-rays). (7) __________________ (long wavelength X-
ray)/short wavelength X-ray)) is a type of x-ray that can penetrate the flesh while (8)
__________________ (long wavelength Xray)/short wavelength X-ray)) can penetrate through
metals. Treating tumors and cancer through the process called radiotherapy and sterilizing medical
equipment are practical applications of (9) _______________ (gamma rays/ultraviolet). The effect
of Electromagnetic waves on organisms and environment depends on how much (10)
______________ (wavelength, energy) it carries.

Assessment 5
 SET B bBV

Republic of the Philippines

Department of Education
REGION VIII - EASTERN VISAYAS
Ormoc City Division
ORMOC CITY NIGHT HIGH SCHOOL

SUMMATIVE TEST IN GRADE 10

SUMMATIVE TEST I
A. Below are the qualitative characteristics of images. Determine whether it is REAL or VIRTUAL type
of images:
1. is upright.
2. is inverted.
3. is behind the mirror.
4. is formed by convex mirror.
5. can be projected onto a screen.
6. is inverted with the respect to the object.
7. is on the same side of the mirror as object.
8. rays of light do not actually pass through the image.
9. can be larger, smaller, or the same size as the object.
10. rays of light actually converge and pass through the image.
Assessment 3
Directions: Answer the following questions. Use a separate sheet.
1. Describe your image as you look at your face on the concave surface of the spoon.
A. erect, virtual B. inverted, real
2. Describe your image after you bring the spoon on arm length distance away from you using the
concave surface of the spoon.
A. appear as real image B. appear as virtual image
3. Describe your image as you look at your face on the convex surface of the spoon.
A. erect, virtual B. inverted, real
4. Describe your image after you bring the spoon on arm length distance away from you using the
convex surface of the mirror.
A. appear as real B. appear as virtual
Assessment 4
“The L-O-S-T Art of Image Description in Spherical Mirrors” The following figures below show the ray
diagrams for the formation of image by a concave and convex mirror for various positions of the object.
Use a Table below to summarize the characteristics and location of the images formed. Use a separate
sheet for your answers.

SET a bBV

Republic of the Philippines

Department of Education
REGION VIII - EASTERN VISAYAS
Ormoc City Division
ORMOC CITY NIGHT HIGH SCHOOL

SUMMATIVE TEST IN GRADE 10

Assessment I
A. Below are the qualitative characteristics of images. Determine whether it is REAL or VIRTUAL
type of images:
1. is upright. ______________ 2. is inverted.____________ 3. is behind the mirror__________
4. is formed by convex mirror._________ 5. can be projected onto a screen. ____________
6. is inverted with the respect to the object.____________
7. is on the same side of the mirror as object._______________
8. rays of light do not actually pass through the image._______________
9. can be larger, smaller, or the same size as the object.______________
10. rays of light actually converge and pass through the image._________________

B. Identify whether the following is PLANE, CONCAVE or a CONVEX MIRROR

1. forms images that are either behind the mirror or on the same side as the object.
2. forms images that are always the same distance from the mirror as the object.
3. forms images that are either smaller/same size/larger than the object.
4. forms images that are the same size as the object only.
5. forms images that have left to right reversal.
6. forms images that are either real or virtual.
7. forms images that are upright or inverted.
8. forms images that are behind the mirror.
9. forms images that are always reduced.
10. forms images that are always upright.
 11. forms images that are only virtual.
12. forms real or virtual images.
13. forms only virtual images.
14. is flat, smooth mirror.
15. is a curved mirror.

C. Identify whether the following is CONCAVE or a CONVEX LENS

1. In the , the curve faces inward.
2. In the , the curve faces outward.
3. is a diverging lens that spreads out the light.
4. is thicker at the center, as compared to its edges.
5. is thinner at the center, as compared to its edges. What I Have Learned 18 0
6. is use for correction of nearsightedness or myopia.
7. is use for correction of farsightedness or hyperopia.
8. is a converging lens which converges the refracted rays.
9. is called negative lens because of its negative focal length nature.
10. is called positive lens because of its positive focal length nature.

Assessment
Directions: Identify what is defined in the following statement, you can use the jumbled letters in each
item as a hint.
1. A plane mirror is a flat surface mirror, the image formed by a plane mirror is called (TULARIV)
image.
2. Mirrors arranged parallel to each other can form (ENITFNII) image, a number you can’t count.
3. A (PEOCSOKAEILD) is a colorful optical instrument in which the mechanism of multiple image is
used.
4. A convex mirror is used in car’s side mirror because it gives (RDWIE) view field than concave
mirrors.
5. To secure the store from shoplifters, aside from CCTV camera, store owners hang (RORMIR
XNCOEV) on the corner.
 Republic of the Philippines
Department of Education
REGION VIII - EASTERN VISAYAS
Ormoc City Division
ORMOC CITY NIGHT HIGH SCHOOL

SUMMATIVE TEST IN GRADE 9

B. Identify the following:
1. Number of orbitals in the third energy level. _______
2. Maximum number of electrons that can occupy the first energy level. _______
3. The total number of electrons in the first and second energy level _______
4. Number of orbitals present in the first energy level. _______
5. The lowest value that the principal quantum number n may have. _______
 Republic of the Philippines
Department of Education
REGION VIII - EASTERN VISAYAS
Ormoc City Division
ORMOC CITY NIGHT HIGH SCHOOL

SUMMATIVE TEST IN GRADE 9

 Republic of the Philippines
Department of Education
REGION VIII - EASTERN VISAYAS
Ormoc City Division
ORMOC CITY NIGHT HIGH SCHOOL

2nd Quarter Test in Science 9

Directions: Read each item carefully. Write only the letter of the correct answer for each question. Use a separate
sheet for your answers.

1. According to the Bohr model, how many electrons can the first orbital hold?
A. 2 C. 6
B. 4 D. 8
2. What happens to the energy of an electron when it jumps from an outer to an inner
orbit?
A. It is absorbed B. It remains constant
C. It is emitted/released D. It could either increase or decrease
3. What is the name of the model of the atom that scientists use today?
A. Billiard Model B. The Nuclear Model
C. Plum Pudding Model D. Quantum Mechanical Model
4. Who described the electrons as waves that move in orbitals?
A. Chadwick B. Rutherford C. Schrodinger D. Thomson
5. Who proposed the probability that electrons will be found in certain regions around the nucleus of an
atom?
A. Niels Bohr B. Ernest Rutherford C. Erwin Schrodinger D. Joseph John Thomson
6. Who states that “it is impossible to determine both the momentum and the position of an electron at
the same time accurately’?
A. Hund’s Rule B. Aufbau Principle C. Uncertainty Principle D. Pauli’s Exclusion Principle
7. Which occurs when an electron moves from high energy level to a low energy level?
A. The atoms move faster
B. Colored light is given off.
C. This process is not possible
D. Another electron goes from a low energy level to a high- energy level
8. How many orbitals are present in the third principal energy level?
A. 2 B. 3 C. 6 D. 9
9. What is the group and period of an element with an electronic configuration 1s2, 2s2, 2p6?
A. Group II period 3 B. Group 4 period 2 C. Group 8 period 2 D. Group 8 period 4
10. Which is the correct valence electron of element found in group 2 of the Periodic Table?
A. 3p1 B. 4s2 C. 3p5 D. 3s2. 5p6
11. What happens to the momentum of an electron when it remains between orbitals?
A. Emitted B. Quantized C. Dequantized D. Changed always
12. Which subshells can the electron with this quantum numbers n = 3, l = 2 be found?
A. 1s B. 2p C. 3d D. 4f
13. Which does NOT have much allowed values for each of the four quanta numbers: n,
l, ml, and ms ?
A. ml : -1 to 1 B. l: 0 to n-1 C. n: zero integer D. ms: ½ or -½

14. How many orbitals of type (x) are found in a shell with n=2?
A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3
15. What is the lowest principal quantum number n may have?
A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3
16 Why do atoms tend to lose or gain electrons during chemical bonding?
A. to attain beauty
B. to attain stability
C. to become reactive
D. to attain malleability
17. What do we mean by stable configuration?
A. having 5 electrons in the outermost shell
B. having 6 electrons in the outermost shell
C. having 7 electrons in the outermost shell
D. having 8 electrons in the outermost shell
18. What type of element should bond together to form an ionic compound?
A. Metal and Nonmetal B. Metal and Metalloids
C. Nonmetal and metalloid D. Nonmetal and another Nonmetal
19 When a metal and nonmetal atom bond together to form an ionic compound they become ions,
what type of ion is formed by the metal atom?
A. Negative Ions B. Neutral Ions C. Positive Ions D. Reactive Ions
20. When a metal and nonmetal atom bond together to form an ionic compound they become ions,
what type of ion is formed by the nonmetal atom?
A. Negative Ions B. Neutral Ions C. Positive Ions D. Reactive Ions
21. What does it mean if K atom becomes K+ ions?
A. it has lost 1 electron B. it has lost 2 electrons
C. it has gain 1 electron D. it has gain 2 electrons
22. Which atom is most likely to form a 3+ ion?
A. Al B. Kr C. Li D. Si
23. Which is true about the elements in a particular group in the periodic table?
A. they have the same number of protons
B. they have the same number of electrons
C. they have the same number of energy levels
D. they have the same number of valence electrons
24. When writing the chemical formula for an ionic compound, which will you write first?
A. Positive ion B. Negative ion C .Charge of the ion D. Subscript of the ion
25. How will you write the ion of Bromine that gains 1 electron during the process of chemical
bonding?
A. B+1 B. B-1 C. Br+1 D. Br-1
B. Identify the following:
1. Number of orbitals in the third energy level. _______
2. Maximum number of electrons that can occupy the first energy level. _______
3. The total number of electrons in the first and second energy level _______
4. Number of orbitals present in the first energy level. _______
5. The lowest value that the principal quantum number n may have. _______