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Mhiretu
Mhiretu
Question 1
What are the main factors that drive the correlation between physical and human capital and economic
growth?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Feedback
The correct answer is: Omitted factors affecting both investment and schooling.
Question 2
Fractional reserve banking occurs when
a.
b.
c.
d.
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The correct answer is: a bank has reserves which are less than its deposits.
Question 3
a.
b.
None
d.
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Question 4
a.
b.
High demand for money with low aggregate demand for goods and services.
c.
Low saving rate which is mainly caused by the low interest rate.
d.
Feedback
The correct answer is: High demand for money with low aggregate demand for goods and services.
Question 5
Which of the following statements is not true with regard to the view of classical and Keynesians
economists?
a.
None
b.
With regard to the financial market for Classical saving and investment are brought into equilibrium by
the interest rate and investment responds to the interest rate.
c.
Saving and investment are brought into equilibrium by changes in income and Investment is not
influenced by a mere change in interest rate for Keynesians.
d.
With regard to the labor market classical contend that labor demand and labor supply are brought into
equilibrium by the real wage.
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Question 6
Question text
If a country experiences a rapid increase in per-capita income due to discovery of new oil reserves then it
is experiencing:
a.
c.
d.
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Question 7
The demand for a factor of production depends on one of the following except _________.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Question 8
How do neo-Malthusian perspectives differ from classical Malthusian theory regarding population
growth and economic development?
a.
b.
Neo-Malthusian perspectives emphasize the importance of population control measures while classical
Malthusian theory emphasizes the role of education and empowerment in reducing fertility rates.
c.
Neo-Malthusian perspectives focus on the role of government intervention and social policies in
controlling population growth while classical Malthusian theory advocates for natural population checks
such as famine and disease.
d.
Neo-Malthusian perspectives argue that population growth leads to economic prosperity through
increased demand and innovation while classical Malthusian theory suggests that population growth
leads to resource scarcity and economic decline.
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The correct answer is: Neo-Malthusian perspectives focus on the role of government intervention and
social policies in controlling population growth while classical Malthusian theory advocates for natural
population checks such as famine and disease.
Question 9
The observed fact from the household income consumption the confirms that
a.
b.
c.
d.
Feedback
The correct answer is: The marginal propensity to consume is between 0 and 1
Question 10
The main factors, which explain the difference in the values of the NPV IRR and BCR assumed different in
economic analysis and financial analysis except?
a.
None
b.
d.
The procedure for undertaking economic analysis differ that of financial analysis
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Question 11
If an individual sells a government bond to central bank and an individual hold in the form of currency
instead of depose at commercial bank
a.
the monetary base will rise, but reserves will remain unchanged.
b.
reserves will fall but the monetary base will remain unchanged
c.
the monetary base will rise, but currency in circulation will remain unchanged.
d.
reserves will rise but the monetary base will remain unchanged
Feedback
The correct answer is: the monetary base will rise, but reserves will remain unchanged.
Question 12
Which of the following statement is not correct with the view of new classical economists?
a.
They believe that economic agents maximize i.e households and business firms make optimal decisions.
b.
Expectations of the future are rational and agents forecast of the future are on average accurate.
c.
d.
They believe that markets may not clear even if agents are rational and optimizing.
Feedback
The correct answer is: They believe that markets may not clear even if agents are rational and
optimizing.
Question 13
If the distribution of income in Ethiopia is (1, 2, 2, 3, 5), and in Kenya it is (1, 1, 2, 3, 5), and the poverty
line in both countries is 2.5, by the average income shortfall measure which country has more poverty?
a.
Kenya
c.
d.
Ethiopia
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Question 14
Which market involves agreements to exchange currencies at a future date at a predetermined price?
a.
Options market
b.
Futures market
c.
Forward market
d.
Spot market
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Question 15
a.
Arbitraging
b.
Hedging
c.
Speculation
d.
Trading options
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Question 16
Question text
a.
Positive definite
b.
Indefinite
c.
Negative definite
d.
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Question 17
Which one of the following is not common to use hypothesis tests to evaluate the performance of a
linear regression model?
a.
b.
c.
Students t-test
d.
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Question 18
Given that 𝝙Yt=β0+β1𝝙Xt+ δut-1+εt , which one of the following is NOT TRUE?
a.
b.
The coefficient of the lagged values of the residuals is expected to be less than one and negative.
c.
d.
It is less than 1 because the adjustment towards equilibrium may not be 100%.
Feedback
The correct answer is: If ? is positive and significant, the adjustment is towards the equilibrium
Question 19
Correct
Which one is true about Money and capital market?
a.
money market is a financial market in which new issues of a security, such as a bond or a stock, are sold
to initial buyers
b.
capital market is a financial market in which new issues of a security, such as a bond or a stock, are sold
to initial buyers
c.
capital market instruments have large fluctuation in price than money market instruments
d.
capital market securities are more liquid than money market instruments
Feedback
The correct answer is: capital market instruments have large fluctuation in price than money market
instruments
Question 20
a.
c.
d.
Feedback
The correct answer is: To account for qualitative information in econometric analysis
Question 21
A panel data set in which data is available for each observation for every time period under consideration
is specifically known as
a.
Balanced Panel
b.
Micro Panel
c.
Unbalanced Panel
d.
Macro Panel
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Question 22
a.
b.
c.
d.
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Question 23
Which one of the following statistical problems most likely occurs due to inclusion of too many dummy
variables in a regression model ?
a.
Multicollinearity
b.
Autocorrelation
c.
Endogeniety
d.
Hetroscedasticity
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Question 24
Which of the following variables affects demand for foreign currency in the foreign exchange market?
a.
b.
c.
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Question 25
Which one of the following is INCORRECT about a stochastic process and a realization?
a.
Stochastic process takes any kind of values at random, while realization is not.
b.
A stochastic process is what will happen on a specific variable over time, while a realization is what has
already happened.
c.
Realization is the ultimate objective that we want to learn about in time series analysis.
d.
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The correct answer is: Realization is the ultimate objective that we want to learn about in time series
analysis.
Question 26
The basic difference between the cardinalist and ordinalist school of analyzing utility is___________.
a.
b.
On the scale of measurement where the cardinalist used ratio scale and the ordinalist used ordinal scale.
c.
d.
On the measurability of utility i.e. the cardinalist says utility can be measured but the ordinalist says
utility cannot be measured.
Feedback
The correct answer is: On the scale of measurement where the cardinalist used ratio scale and the
ordinalist used ordinal scale.
Question 27
Which of the followings are true about the goal of Regional Economic Integration?
a.
b.
Eliminate barriers to international flow of products, people, or capital with in geographic region.
c.
All
d.
Create real gains in terms of greater choice, lower prices & increased productivity.
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Question 28
a.
b.
c.
d.
Question 29
a.
excess reserves.
b.
total reserves.
c.
vault cash
d.
required reserves.
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Question 30
Regular gathering analyzing and reporting of information that is needed for evaluation or effective
project management is:
a.
Impact evaluation
b.
Evaluation
c.
Forecasting
d.
Monitoring
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Question 31
Among the following development concerns which one is not agriculture project focus area?
a.
b.
c.
Helping farmers reach markets and improving their incomes
d.
Feedback
The correct answer is: Transforming the agriculture sector to industrial sector
Question 32
a.
b.
c.
d.
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Question 33
In the real world no one country by itself can produce all goods & services which its citizens require for
their consumption so why nations trade with each other?
a.
To take its specialization leads to greater economy of scale and decrease the real prices of goods and
services.
b.
c.
d.
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The correct answer is: To get international recognition in politics and economy.
Question 34
An equilibrium condition for national income model is given by( Y) =( 𝝰 +I0 + G0)/(1 – 𝝱 ), where Y is
equilibrium level of national income, 𝝰 is autonomous consumption, is marginal propensity to consume,
I0 is exogenous national investment and G0 is exogenous national government expenditure. Then what is
the magnitude of government expenditure multiplier of the economy?
a.
1/1-𝝱+𝝱t
b.
𝝱/1-𝝱
c.
-𝝱/1-𝝱+𝝱t
d.
-𝝱/1-𝝱
Feedback
-𝝱/1-𝝱
Question 35
The most-favored nation clause of the WTO requires that each member must
a.
Offer some trade concession to any other member country offering it a trade concession.
c.
Choose one foreign member as its most-favored trading nation and give that country its most generous
trade concessions.
d.
Offer to all member countries the same trade concessions offered to any member country.
Feedback
The correct answer is: Offer to all member countries the same trade concessions offered to any member
country.
Question 36
Given an estimated model of the form Y ̂_i=α ̂+β ̂_1 X_1i+β ̂_2 X_2i+e_i, if the coefficient, β ̂_1 is proved
to be statistically different from zero using the t-test of the hypothesis that β_1=0. The implication is that
a.
b.
The variable, X_1 is the only variable that determines the dependent variable, Y.
c.
Feedback
The correct answer is: The variable, X_1 influences the dependent variable, Y.
Question 37
According to Keyness liquidity preference theory since the expected return on money was zero,
a.
People would hold money as a store of wealth only when forced to by government policy.
b.
c.
People would always hold money as a store of value since its expected return is constant.
d.
People would hold money as a store of wealth when the expected return on bonds was negative.
Feedback
The correct answer is: People would hold money as a store of wealth when the expected return on bonds
was negative.
Question 38
In the context of agricultural trade, what does the term dumping refer to?
a.
b.
c.
Exporting agricultural products at prices lower than the domestic market price
d.
Feedback
The correct answer is: Exporting agricultural products at prices lower than the domestic market price
Question 39
a.
It is possible to add discounted costs and benefits which occur at different period of time
b.
Discounting factor point out how much one birr in the future worth today.
c.
Using single discount rate indicates an increase in time preference of benefits at constant rate
d.
An individual has marginal rate of time preference if he is indifferent b/n current and future income.
Feedback
The correct answer is: Using single discount rate indicates an increase in time preference of benefits at
constant rate
Question 40
Suppose the Central bank has bought the $200 bond from the Commercial Bank of Ethiopia that
previously had no excess reserves, deposits in the banking system can potentially increase by
a.
200
b.
c.
d.
100
Feedback
The correct answer is: 200 times the deposit expansion multiplier
Question 41
a.
Y = 150
b.
X = 150
c.
X = 60
d.
Y = 60
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Question 42
a.
An indifference curve is a locus of points representing different consumption bundles of two commodities
b.
The ordinal utility approach explained with the help of indifference curves
c.
A consumer derives the same level of utilities from various combinations of goods on the same
indifference curve
d.
A consumer derives different utilities among different consumption bundles of two commodities on the
same indifference curve
Feedback
The correct answer is: A consumer derives different utilities among different consumption bundles of two
commodities on the same indifference curve
Question 43
Which one of the following is not properties of OLS estimators in small sampling distribution?
a.
Linearity
b.
Unbiasedness
c.
Consistency
d.
Minimum Variance
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Question 44
Identify the wrong statement about the long run equilibrium of a monopolist.
a.
The firm is over utilizing its plant size if it operates at the minimum of LAC.
b.
The firm immediately leaves the market if it incurs loss in the long run.
c.
The firm is under utilizing its plant if it operates in the rising part of LAC curve.
d.
Feedback
The correct answer is: Operate at the optimal plant size in the long run.
Question 45
How does the concept of demographic dividend contribute to our understanding of population growth
and economic development?
a.
The demographic dividend highlights the potential economic benefits of a youthful population age
structure including increased labor force participation and productivity.
b.
The demographic dividend emphasizes the need for targeted policies to address the challenges
associated with an aging population including healthcare and pension reforms.
c.
The demographic dividend underscores the importance of reducing fertility rates and dependency ratios
to achieve sustainable economic growth.
d.
The demographic dividend challenges the notion that population growth is always detrimental to
economic development by highlighting the positive effects of population dynamics on innovation and
entrepreneurship.
Feedback
The correct answer is: The demographic dividend highlights the potential economic benefits of a youthful
population age structure including increased labor force participation and productivity.
Question 46
Which one of the following is not true about the oligopoly market?
a.
c.
d.
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Question 47
According to the theory of liquidity preference when money supply remains constant
a.
Higher money demand puts upward pressure on the equilibrium interest rate whereas higher interest
rate puts downward pressure on money demand.
b.
c.
Higher money supply puts upward pressure on the equilibrium interest rate.
d.
Higher money demand puts downward pressure on the equilibrium interest rate whereas higher interest
rate puts upward pressure on money demand.
Feedback
The correct answer is: Higher money demand puts upward pressure on the equilibrium interest rate
whereas higher interest rate puts downward pressure on money demand.
Question 48
a.
b.
c.
d.
If the loss of one firm is the gain of the other then this is a fair game.
Feedback
The correct answer is: If the loss of one firm is the gain of the other then this is a fair game.
Question 49
-----is a contractual agreement by the borrower to pay the holder of instrument fixed dollar amounts at
regular intervals (interest and principal payments) until a specified date.
a.
Dividend
b.
Equity instruments
c.
common stock
d.
debt instrument
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Question 50
Which one of the following describes the relationship between the market value of a firms securities and
the replacement cost its physical asset?
a.
b.
c.
Keynesian theory of investment
d.
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Question 51
a.
A tariff when country A imposes duties against the products from country B due to this country B will
retaliate and levy duties on goods imported from country A.
b.
c.
The tariffs that are imposed primarily to generate revenue for the government
d.
The type of tariff imposes by importer country to offset export subsiding in the country of origin.
Feedback
The correct answer is: It designed to insulate import-competing producers from foreign competition.
Question 52
Which one of the following expression is not the characteristic of a project?
a.
b.
Projects use a multiple of resources and needs well planned resource management
c.
d.
Projects have specific of benefits that can be identified quantified and valued monetarily.
Feedback
The correct answer is: A project is an intermediate operational element unit like public investment
programs
Question 53
According to the permanent income hypothesis which of the following would have the greatest impact
on the current consumption of a 30-year-old college teacher?
a.
b.
A 5000 birr advance payment for a book that will take two years to write.
c.
d.
Feedback
The correct answer is: A promotion to associate professor combined with a 2000 birr/year raise.
Question 54
Developing countries that emphasize the production of raw materials or agricultural goods may realize a
long-run deterioration in the international terms of trade because of
a.
b.
c.
d.
Feedback
The correct answer is: sluggish demand for these products in advanced countries
Question 55
a.
b.
When sales are low firms produce more than they sell and put the extra goods in inventories.
c.
When a product is only partly completed its components are counted as part of the firms inventory.
d.
Feedback
The correct answer is: When sales are low firms produce more than they sell and put the extra goods in
inventories.
Question 56
The demand curve for a firm which is a perfect competitor in the factor market and monopolist in the
product market and buying several variable inputs is _____________.
a.
A curve derived from shifting MRP curves as the wage rate changes.
b.
A curve derived from shifting VMP curves as the wage rate changes.
c.
d.
Feedback
The correct answer is: A curve derived from shifting MRP curves as the wage rate changes.
Question 57
a.
b.
c.
d.
The correct answer is: By buying or selling domestic or foreign currency reserves
Question 58
Free international trade maintain that an open economy that it provides all of the following except:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Feedback
The correct answer is: reducing competition and raising profits leads.
Question 59
If a situation exists where it is not profitable for any single producer to expand production because of
market limitation then the best strategy for the country to adopt would be ______
a.
c.
d.
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Question 60
The market demand curve faced by six Cournot-type firms is given as P = 840 - 0.5Q. How much is the
amount of output of each oligopoly firm is supposed to produce and sell?
a.
168
b.
120
c.
140
d.
100
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Question 61
A firm under perfectly competitive market structure earn only normal profit in the long run due to:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Feedback
The correct answer is: The existence of free entry and exit in the market
Question 62
a.
They are small countries with limited markets and resources.
b.
They all have similar developmental problems and share common characteristics.
c.
They are all large countries with complex problems of national cohesions and administration
d.
They have diverse structural features and varying level of population growth, resource availability and
economic dependence.
Feedback
The correct answer is: They have diverse structural features and varying level of population growth,
resource availability and economic dependence.
Question 63
If the central bank making discount loan which one of the following is false
a.
b.
c.
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Question 64
a.
VECM only provides us a long-run relationship since it is applicable incase co-integration exists among
the variables under study.
b.
VECM is a special kind of VAR model which is used when variables are co-integrated.
c.
d.
Feedback
The correct answer is: VECM only provides us a long-run relationship since it is applicable incase co-
integration exists among the variables under study.
Question 65
Which one of the following is not true about the rental firms investment decisions?
a.
If the MPK is below the cost of capital the firm will let its capital stock to shrink.
b.
If the MPK equals to the cost of capital, net investment will increase.
c.
At the steady state level of capital stock the firm will not change its capital stock.
d.
If the MPK is above the cost of capital the firm will increase its capital stock.
Feedback
The correct answer is: If the MPK equals to the cost of capital, net investment will increase.
Question 66
Which of the following exclude from government purchase component of aggregate expenditure?
a.
b.
d.
Transfer payment
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Question 67
a.
1.2K
b.
4.8L
c.
1.2L
d.
4.8K
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Question 68
Which one of the following is the most common errors of econometric model specification?
a.
b.
c.
d.
All
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Question 69
In Solow growth model what is the main assumption about the production process?
a.
b.
Price and wages are not flexible
c.
d.
Feedback
Question 70
a.
MC begins to rise
b.
MP begins to rise
c.
TP begins to fall
d.
AP begins to decline
Feedback
The correct answer is: AP begins to decline
Question 71
If the capital-labor ratio changes from 4 units to 8 units and marginal rate technical substitution changes
from 1 unit to 2 units then degree of factor substitutability of the two inputs are
a.
b.
c.
d.
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Question 72
Which one of the following defines the effects of technical progress correctly?
a.
Inward shift in isoquant curve shows the ability of the firm to produce the same output by combination of
inputs used before.
c.
Technological progress upward shifts the production function but inward shifts the isoquant curve.
d.
A producer can produce the same output using less combination of factors is described by an upward
shift in production function
Feedback
The correct answer is: Technological progress upward shifts the production function but inward shifts the
isoquant curve.
Question 73
Assume that two countries A and B both have the per-worker production function y=?k, neither has
population growth or technological progress, depreciation is 5 percent of capital in both countries and
country A saves 10 percent of output whereas country B saves 20 percent. If A starts out with a capital
per worker of 4 and B starts out with a capital per worker of 2, then what will happen in the long run in
both countries?:
a.
b.
c.
As capital per worker will be 4 whereas Bs will be 16.
d.
Feedback
The correct answer is: As capital per worker will be 4 whereas Bs will be 16.
Question 74
a.
Demonstrate the alternative and that further resources should be devoted for preparation.
b.
c.
d.
Feedback
The correct answer is: Establish clearly the follow ?up steps for full preparation.
Question 75
It helps to solve for critical values of optimization problems involving inequality constraints is referred as:
a.
Eulers theorem
b.
None
c.
Youngs theorem
d.
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Question 76
a.
The Keynesian cross is a building block for the IS curve the theory of liquidity preference is a building
block for the LM curve.
b.
Changes in fiscal policy that raise the demand for goods and services shift the IS curve to the right.
c.
Changes in fiscal policy that reduce the demand for goods and services shift the IS curve to the right.
d.
Decreases in the supply of real money balances shift the LM curve upward.
Feedback
The correct answer is: Changes in fiscal policy that reduce the demand for goods and services shift the IS
curve to the right.
Question 77
If the supply curve of input X has zero price elasticity what can you conclude about the quantity supplied
of input X?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Feedback
a.
b.
c.
d.
Feedback
Question 79
Let the market equilibrium for a commodity is given by 3+3Y-3P+3T=0 where P price of the commodity, Y
is income of a consumer and T is tax on the commodity supplied. If P,Y and T are dependent to each other
and all derivatives are continuous, then the partial derivative of T with respect to P is equal to:
a.
3
b.
c.
-1
d.
None
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Question 80
Which one of the following types of data consist of observations of a single subject at multiple time
intervals:
a.
Panel data
b.
Pooled data
c.
Cross-sectional data
d.
Question 81
Approximates the marginal impact caused by a small change in the constant of the constraint on the
objective function of constrained optimization problems
a.
Bordered Hessian
b.
c.
Eulers theorem
d.
Youngs theorem
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Question 82
a.
The exchange rate fluctuates freely based on supply and demand
b.
c.
d.
The exchange rate is pegged to a specific value by the government or central bank
Feedback
The correct answer is: The exchange rate is pegged to a specific value by the government or central bank
Question 83
Which economic theory suggests that agricultural productivity growth leads to economic development by
freeing up labor for industrialization?
a.
Dependency theory
b.
Neoclassical economics
c.
Modernization theory
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Question 84
What are some of the criticism of the Physical Quality of Life of index (PQLI) in measuring development?
a.
Methodological criticism such as the assumptions that all components of the index are equally important
in capturing the defined aspects of concept.
b.
Conceptual criticisms such as the argument that different components of need satisfaction cannot be
traded off against each other and therefore cannot be aggregated into a single measure.
c.
Conceptual criticisms such as the argument that PQLI only measures economic growth.
d.
Methodological criticism such as the assumptions that PQLI measures only poverty in advanced capitalist
countries.
Feedback
The correct answer is: Conceptual criticisms such as the argument that different components of need
satisfaction cannot be traded off against each other and therefore cannot be aggregated into a single
measure.
Question 85
Which of the following is a role of the exchange rate?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Feedback
Question 86
a.
b.
The supply of goods by firms and the price of goods relative to the price of nonmonetary asset
c.
The price level and the aggregate amount of output that firms supply
d.
The real interest rate and the aggregate amount of output that the firm supply
Feedback
The correct answer is: The price level and the aggregate amount of output that firms supply
Question 87
Suppose that the National Bank of Ethiopia increase money supply, how does this policy affect the
exchange rate and interest rate dynamics in an open economy?
a.
It causes both the exchange rate and interest rates to decrease simultaneously.
b.
c.
d.
It has no effect on the exchange rate but leads to a decrease in interest rates.
Feedback
The correct answer is: It leads to a depreciation of the domestic currency and an increase in interest
rates.
Question 88
Among the following issues which one is not the factor that entails differences between financial and
economic analysis of projects?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Feedback
Question 89
Any two stochastic processes X_t and Y_t are mostly likely tends to be co-integrated if
a.
c.
d.
Feedback
The correct answer is: They have similar long-run trends which converge over time.
Question 90
Which one of the following is true about the classical quantity theory of money?
a.
b.
Movement or change in general price level result solely from change in the interest rate.
c.
Movement or change in general price level result solely from change in the money supply.
d.
An increase in interest rates will cause the demand for money to fall.
Feedback
The correct answer is: Movement or change in general price level result solely from change in the money
supply.
Question 91
The price leader in an oligopoly market does all of the following except _____________.
a.
Stepping in to fill the gap between market demand and followers supply.
b.
c.
Allowing the follower firms to charge the price set by the leader.
d.
Feedback
The correct answer is: Allowing the follower firms to set their respective prices.
Question 92
a.
Classical school argues that disequilibrium in the various markets that are likely to cause unemployment
is a short run phenomenon that can be addressed through the interaction of market forces.
b.
Keynesians argue that markets are not always self-regulating output fluctuations are partly caused by
private sector behavior.
c.
According to the Classical school of thought prices are unnecessarily flexible and possibly harm certain
segments of the society.
d.
In a Classical school of thought the economy is operating at full employment any change in fiscal or
monetary policy instruments will have nominal value changes only.
Feedback
The correct answer is: According to the Classical school of thought prices are unnecessarily flexible and
possibly harm certain segments of the society.
Question 93
Which one of the following is not true about a risk lover consumer?
a.
They prefer a certain income than a risky uncertain income with high possible return.
b.
d.
Feedback
The correct answer is: They prefer a certain income than a risky uncertain income with high possible
return.
Question 94
Despite being employed interchangeably in empirical studies, probit regression is somewhat better
approach than the logistic regression, because of the fact that:
a.
Probit model provides more precise estimates than the logit model.
b.
Probit model depends on simpler probability distribution than the logit model.
c.
d.
Probit model makes some variables significant which are found to be insignificant in logistic model.
Feedback
The correct answer is: Probit model provides more precise estimates than the logit model.
Question 95
In managing projects we are normally involved in the following types of management except?
a.
Time management
b.
Scope management
c.
Cost management
d.
Feedback
Question 96
Even though members of a market-sharing cartel agree to charge the same price eventually some firms
are found to cheat. The main reason for this cheating behavior could be _______________.
a.
b.
d.
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Question 97
Which of the following statements best explains the causes for shifts in Aggregate demand?
a.
b.
Expansionary fiscal policy shifts IS curve outwards which leads to increase in income
c.
By increasing interest rate expansionary monetary policy leads to increase planned investment.
d.
During expansionary monetary policy: the increments of money supply leads to shifts LM curve inward to
the left.
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The correct answer is: Expansionary fiscal policy shifts IS curve outwards which leads to increase in
income
Question 98
Which one of the following is not consistent with the objective of making collusion by oligopoly firms?
a.
b.
c.
d.
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Question 99
Mr.Zelalem estimates a model to predict the variation in steel production in Ethiopia, but he fails to
include the world price of steel, because he does not find this data. He wonders if his model suffers from
a specification error. Which problem did he face?
a.
Multicolinearity
b.
All
c.
d.
Heteroscedasticity
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Question 100
____is a tax that levied as a fixed percentage of the value of the imported goods.
a.
Ad valorem tariff
b.
c.
Specific tariff
d.
Nominal tariff
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