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1. According to the three-stage model of memory, in what sequence does incoming
information flow through memory?
A) sensory memory, short-term memory, long-term memory
B) short-term memory, sensory memory, long-term memory
C) short-term memory, long-term memory, sensory memory
D) long-term memory, sensory memory, short-term memory

2. When we need to use information previously stored, it flows from _____ memory into
_____ memory.
A) short-term; sensory
B) short-term; long-term
C) long-term; sensory
D) long-term; short-term

3. _____ memory is to bottom-up processing as _____ memory is to top-down processing.

A) Sensory; long-term
B) Long-term; sensory
C) Short-term; long-term
D) Long-term; short-term

4. The initial stage of memory is somewhat comparable to _____, involving input that
_____ been recognized.
A) sensation; has
B) sensation; has not
C) perception; has
D) perception; has not

5. Which statement about our senses and sensory memory is FALSE?

A) Our sensory memory contains registers for all five senses.
B) In sensory memory, the auditory register is dominant.
C) Vision is our dominant sense.
D) Information in iconic memory lasts less than one second.

6. Our sensory memory registers allow us to:

A) move into short-term memory everything our sensory registers receive.
B) recognize and become consciously aware of all the sensory information we receive.
C) integrate two sequentially presented stimuli into a meaningful pattern through the
temporal integration procedure.
D) store all the sensory information coming in for about a minute.

Page 1
 7. Photographic memory that lasts for less than 1 second is also called _____ memory.
A) visual
B) echoic
C) iconic
D) short-term

8. Iconic memory in the visual sensory register is believed to last for _____ second(s).
A) less than 1
B) 3 to 5
C) 5 to 10
D) 20 to 30

9. Which description of iconic memory is accurate?

A) memory for visual images that have accumulated throughout your life
B) memory for pictures that you have seen within the last 30 seconds
C) memory for all incoming visual information that lasts for less than 1 second
D) memory for incoming visual information that has been recognized

10. Temporal integration is a(n) _____ procedure for measuring _____ iconic memory.
A) direct; whether practice can improve
B) direct; the duration of
C) inferential; whether practice can improve
D) inferential; the duration and capacity of

11. The duration of iconic memory has been successfully measured using the _____
procedure.
A) iconic integration
B) temporal partial-report
C) temporal integration
D) iconic report

12. In Sperling's full-report procedure, after viewing a matrix of letters for less than 1
second, what were participants asked to do?
A) listen for a tone, and report only those letters in the row signaled by the tone
B) listen for a tone, and report all letters they could remember from the entire matrix
C) report all letters they could remember from the entire matrix
D) view a second matrix and report only those letters that were in both matrices

Page 2
13. The partial report is a(n) _____ procedure for measuring _____ iconic memory.
A) direct; whether practice can improve
B) direct; the duration and capacity of
C) inferential; whether practice can improve
D) inferential; the duration and capacity of

14. Using Sperling's full-report procedure, participants recalled _____ letters on average,
and using the partial-report procedure, participants recalled _____ the letters on the
indicated row.
A) 3; half
B) 4.5; half
C) 3; all
D) 4.5; all

15. Which statement about Sperling's procedures to study sensory memory is CORRECT?
A) Regardless of the length of the cue delay, participants recalled about 4.5 letters in
the full-report procedure but all letters in the partial-report procedure.
B) Regardless of the length of the cue delay, participants recalled about 4.5 letters in
the partial-report procedure but all letters in the full-report procedure.
C) There was a negative correlation between number of letters recalled and time delay
before auditory cue in the partial-report procedure.
D) There was a positive correlation between number of letters recalled and time delay
before auditory cue in the full-report procedure.

16. What were the results of Sperling's partial-report procedure?

A) If a tone was sounded immediately after the matrix disappeared, people accurately
reported all letters in the row signaled by the tone.
B) If a tone was sounded immediately after the matrix disappeared, people accurately
reported all letters in the top row and part of the second row only.
C) If a tone was sounded 2 seconds after the matrix disappeared, people accurately
reported all letters in the row signaled by the tone.
D) If a tone was sounded 2 seconds after the matrix disappeared, people accurately
reported all letters in the matrix.

17. Which conclusion(s) can be drawn by combining the results from Sperling's full- and
partial-report procedures for studying sensory memory?
A) There is no visual sensory register.
B) Storage in iconic memory is an exact copy of the visual stimulus.
C) Storage in iconic memory lasts about 5 seconds.
D) Visual sensory memory lasts longer if a partial-report procedure is used.

Page 3
18. Sheingold's research using Sperling's partial-report technique to study iconic memory in
children and adults found that:
A) the capacity of iconic memory is invariant across age.
B) children have greater iconic memory capacity than do adults.
C) adults have greater iconic memory capacity than do children.
D) iconic memory capacity peaks at about the age of 11 years, with younger children
and adults both having lower memory capacities.

19. The duration of auditory sensory register is approximately:

A) 4 to 5 seconds.
B) 5 to 10 seconds.
C) 30 seconds.
D) 1 minute.

20. _____ memory is to the visual sensory register as _____ memory is to the auditory
sensory register.
A) Iconic; echoic
B) Echoic; iconic
C) Iconic; haptic
D) Haptic; echoic

21. Iconic memory duration is to _____ second(s) as echoic memory duration is to _____
second(s).
A) less than 1; 4 to 5
B) 1 to 2; 2 to 3
C) 2 to 3; 1 to 2
D) 4 to 5; less than 1

22. What type of "work" is done in working memory?

A) preparing information for transfer to sensory memory
B) storing information permanently for many years
C) processing information for storage or decision making
D) gathering information directly from the environment

Page 4
23. In the memory span task, participants:
A) are presented with a series of items one at a time and then asked to recall the items
in the order in which they were presented.
B) recall a small part of a matrix of letters.
C) recall the entire matrix of presented letters.
D) are presented with meaningless dot patterns that produce a meaningful pattern if
presented sequentially.

24. "Memory span" refers to:

A) how long a person's recall for a list of 10 words will last.
B) the average number of items a person recalls across multiple trials.
C) how many different types of items, such as pictures and numbers, a person can
recall.
D) the average number of items a person recognizes from sets of 20 items.

25. George Miller is credited with determining:

A) how long information can be held in short-term memory.
B) the amount of information that can be held in short-term memory.
C) why larger chunks of information are harder to retain in short-term memory than
smaller chunks of information are.
D) the capacity of sensory memory.

26. The "magical number 7 ± 2" was derived from studies on:
A) the spacing effect.
B) the serial position effect.
C) STM (short-term memory) capacity.
D) STM (short-term memory) duration.

27. For most Americans, the acronym USA is _____ chunk(s) of information; the date 1776
is _____ chunk(s) of information.
A) one; one
B) one; four
C) three; one
D) three; four

28. When it pertains to memory processes, the term "chunk" means:

A) a memory strategy used for grouping unrelated information.
B) a meaningful unit in memory.
C) the information pieces moved from sensory memory into long-term memory.
D) the average number of items remembered across a series of memory span trials.

Page 5
29. In a memory span task, participants are given two lists of items to recall. Items on list A
are three-letter acronyms, such as USA and ABC, and items on list B are three unrelated
letters, such as BQD and YHP. It is likely that participants will recall more letters from
_____, which can BEST be explained by the use of _____.
A) list A; priming
B) list A; chunking
C) list B; priming
D) list B; chunking

30. Which statement concerning memory "chunks" is FALSE?

A) Most people can hold 7 ± 2 chunks of information in STM (short-term memory).
B) A chunk is a meaningful unit of information in memory.
C) There is no difference in the size of chunks when experts in a particular area are
compared with novices in the same area.
D) A memory span task leads to greater recall when it includes acronyms that can be
chunked.

31. Which procedure would be MOST useful in studying the duration of short-term
memory?
A) a distractor task
B) a memory span task
C) a temporal integration procedure
D) Sperling's partial report technique

32. If we do NOT concentrate on the information in short-term memory, it will be lost after
approximately:
A) 15 seconds.
B) 30 seconds.
C) 1 minute.
D) 2 minutes.

33. What is the purpose of counting backwards in the distractor task?

A) to prevent rehearsal of the information to be remembered
B) to determine if memory for numbers is better than memory for letters
C) to assess if people can remember a mixture of numbers and letters
D) to block distraction from noise in the experimental laboratory

Page 6
34. An experimenter presents a small amount of information to a participant and then
immediately distracts her from rehearsal by asking her to count backwards from 100 by
3s. This task would be MOST useful in studying:
A) sensory memory capacity.
B) sensory memory duration.
C) short-term memory capacity.
D) short-term memory duration.

35. Maintenance rehearsal is MOST useful for:

A) retaining information in sensory memory.
B) retaining information in short-term memory.
C) retaining information in long-term memory.
D) moving information from sensory memory to short- term memory.

36. Working memory is:

A) a more detailed description of short-term memory.
B) in between sensory memory and short-term memory.
C) takes information from short-term memory to long-term memory
D) an antiquated concept that researchers don't use much anymore.

37. Which factor is NOT a component of Baddeley's model of working memory?

A) phonological loop
B) visuospatial sketchpad
C) iconic memory
D) central executive

38. Which component of working memory allows you to work with verbal information for a
short period of time?
A) echoic memory
B) phonological loop
C) visuospatial sketchpad
D) central executive

39. Which component of working memory is a temporary storage space that can integrate
visual and verbal input?
A) phonological loop
B) visuospatial sketchpad
C) episodic buffer
D) central executive

Page 7
40. Which component of working memory coordinates the activities and distributes
resources to the other three components?
A) phonological loop
B) visuospatial sketchpad
C) episodic buffer
D) central executive

41. It has been estimated that the long-term storage capacity of the human brain is
approximately 2.5 million gigabytes, which is enough to hold _____ hours of television
shows.
A) 3,000
B) 30,000
C) 300,000
D) 3 million

42. Laura vividly remembers her high school graduation, an example of _____ memory, but
has forgotten the meaning of the term "photosynthesis," a failure of _____ memory.
A) implicit; explicit
B) explicit; implicit
C) episodic; semantic
D) semantic; episodic

43. When recall of a memory requires conscious effort and entails making declarations
about the information remembered, you are using your _____ memory.
A) implicit
B) iconic
C) explicit
D) nondeclarative

44. Knowing how to ride a bicycle requires the use of _____ memory, whereas knowing the
name of a state capital requires the use of _____.
A) implicit; explicit
B) explicit; implicit
C) episodic; semantic
D) semantic; episodic

Page 8
45. Remembering how to drive a car is to _____ memory as remembering how to ride a
bike is to _____ memory.
A) explicit; implicit
B) implicit; explicit
C) implicit; implicit
D) explicit; explicit

46. Remembering how to type on a keyboard is an example of which type of memory?

A) iconic
B) semantic
C) implicit
D) explicit

47. Which term does NOT belong with the others?

A) priming
B) semantic memory
C) procedural memory
D) classical conditioning

48. _____ memory is to automatic processing as _____ memory is to conscious effort.

A) Episodic; implicit
B) Semantic; episodic
C) Implicit; explicit
D) Explicit; semantic

49. Which statement concerning implicit memory is FALSE?

A) Not all implicit memories are procedural memories.
B) Classically conditioned responses are implicit memories.
C) Implicit memories require conscious effort to recall.
D) Priming is an involuntary, nonconscious implicit process.

50. Implicit memory for cognitive and motor tasks is known as _____ memory.
A) episodic
B) semantic
C) procedural
D) priming

Page 9
51. _____ is a type of implicit memory that occurs when an earlier stimulus influences the
response to a later stimulus.
A) Episodic
B) Semantic
C) Procedural
D) Priming

52. Joe studies a list of words that includes the word motel. He later completes the word
fragment mot--- with the word motel instead of the word mother, even though he does
not consciously recall studying the word motel. This behavior likely occurs because of:
A) classical conditioning.
B) episodic memory.
C) iconic memory.
D) priming.

53. Individuals suffering from _____ amnesia are unable to store new _____ memories that
are believed to be processed in the _____.
A) retrograde; explicit; cerebellum
B) anterograde; implicit; cerebellum
C) retrograde; implicit; hippocampus
D) anterograde; explicit; hippocampus

54. After surgery to reduce the impact of epileptic seizures, H. M. suffered from _____
amnesia, meaning that he was unable to _____.
A) anterograde; recall long-term memories from the time prior to surgery
B) anterograde; form new long-term memories after surgery
C) retrograde; recall long-term memories from the time prior to surgery
D) retrograde; form new long-term memories after surgery

55. H. M.'s performance on the mirror-tracing task revealed that he:

A) could encode new procedural and episodic memories.
B) could encode new procedural memories.
C) could encode new episodic memories.
D) had suffered damage to his cerebellum as well as his hippocampus.

Page 10
56. In the case study of H. M., his _____ long-term memory was affected and he suffered
from _____ amnesia.
A) explicit; retrograde
B) implicit; retrograde
C) explicit; anterograde
D) implicit; anterograde

57. Which statement concerning H. M.'s memory abilities following surgery is FALSE?
A) H. M.'s short-term and long-term memory abilities were severely damaged
following his surgery.
B) H. M. had difficulty remembering new people he met but not people he knew
before his surgery.
C) H. M.'s hippocampus and surrounding temporal lobe areas were removed to reduce
his epileptic seizures.
D) H. M. had anterograde amnesia following his surgery.

58. Research evidence suggests the _____ is important in the formation of explicit
memories and the _____ is important in the formation of implicit memories.
A) amygdala; hypothalamus
B) hypothalamus; amygdala
C) cerebellum; hippocampus
D) hippocampus; cerebellum

59. Following injury to his cerebellum, Frank is likely to experience difficulty forming new
_____ memories.
A) iconic
B) semantic
C) short-term
D) implicit

60. Rebecca demonstrated normal implicit repetition priming effects on a word fragment
completion task but had difficulty forming new memories. It is likely Rebecca has
experienced damage to her:
A) hippocampus.
B) cerebellum.
C) basal ganglia.
D) hypothalamus.

Page 11
61. Schacter (1996) reported that people with left hippocampal damage have difficulty
recalling _____ information and that people with right hippocampal damage have
difficulty recalling _____ information.
A) visual; verbal
B) verbal; visual
C) complex; simple
D) simple; complex

62. One explanation for infantile/child amnesia is that _____ is/are not fully developed.
A) the cerebellum
B) the basal ganglia
C) the hippocampus
D) both the cerebellum and the hippocampus

63. Which statement is FALSE regarding the proposed role of the hippocampus in infantile
amnesia?
A) During infancy, the hippocampus is not fully developed.
B) During infancy, high levels of neurogenesis in the hippocampus disrupt
hippocampus-dependent memories.
C) The hippocampus is the final repository for explicit memories.
D) As explicit memories age, the hippocampus's participation in their storage wanes.

64. Infantile/child amnesia is the inability of adults to remember events that occurred before
about 3 years of age. This means that adults have no _____ memories for this time
period.
A) semantic
B) implicit
C) nondeclarative
D) episodic

65. As explicit memories age, participation by the _____ tends to _____.

A) cerebellum; increase
B) hippocampus; increase
C) cerebellum; decrease
D) hippocampus; decrease

Page 12
66. In a free recall task, items from the middle of the list are typically recalled _____
frequently than those at the beginning of the list and _____ frequently than those at the
end of the list.
A) less; less
B) less; more
C) more; less
D) more; more

67. We can effectively eliminate the recency effect in a free recall task by:
A) selecting a list of words that all begin with the same letter.
B) forcing participants to study each of the words on the list equally.
C) preventing rehearsal and delaying the time between presentation and recall of the
words.
D) presenting the items at a faster rate.

68. A research participant is asked to recall one at a time a list of 20 words he has just been
asked to learn. When he recalls more words from the beginning than the middle of the
list, it is called the _____ effect and is MOST likely due to recall from _____ memory.
A) primacy; short-term
B) primacy; long-term
C) recency; short-term
D) recency; long-term

69. The primacy effect results from superior recall from _____ memory, and the recency
effect results from superior recall from _____ memory.
A) short-term; long-term
B) long-term; short-term
C) explicit; implicit
D) implicit; explicit

70. If people count backwards for 30 seconds after viewing a list of words, then attempt to
freely recall the words, the serial position curve is likely to reveal:
A) both primacy and recency effects.
B) a primacy effect but not a recency effect.
C) a recency effect but not a primacy effect.
D) neither primacy nor recency effects.

Page 13
71. The primacy effect likely occurs because research participants:
A) believe that the first words presented are the most important to recall.
B) believe that the last words presented are the most important to recall.
C) study the first few words in the list more than later words.
D) study the last few words in the list more than earlier words.

72. If people are forced to rehearse all words on a list equally, followed by freely recalling
the words, the serial position curve is likely to reveal:
A) both a primacy and a recency effect.
B) a primacy effect but not a recency effect.
C) a recency effect but not a primacy effect.
D) neither a primacy nor a recency effect.

73. Sandra read a section of her textbook, but when she tried to answer the concept check
questions at the end of the section, she could not even remember reading about the
topics covered in the questions. It is likely that, when reading, Sandra used _____, rather
than _____, which is required for effective study.
A) visual encoding; verbal encoding
B) verbal encoding; visual encoding
C) automatic processing; effortful processing
D) effortful processing; automatic processing

74. Encoding is the process of:

A) maintaining information in a particular stage.
B) bringing information stored in long-term memory to the conscious level in
short-term memory.
C) bringing information stored in short-term memory to the conscious level in
long-term memory.
D) transferring information from one memory stage to the next.

75. Encoding refers to transfers of information:

A) from sensory to short-term memory.
B) from short-term memory to sensory memory.
C) from long-term memory to short-term memory.
D) both sensory to short-term memory and long-term memory to short-term memory.

Page 14
76. Storage is the process of:
A) maintaining information in a memory stage.
B) bringing information stored in long-term memory to the conscious level in
short-term memory.
C) bringing information stored in short-term memory to the conscious level in
long-term memory.
D) transferring information from one memory stage to the next.

77. Retrieval is the process of:

A) maintaining information in a memory stage.
B) bringing information stored in long-term memory to the conscious level in
short-term memory.
C) bringing information stored in short-term memory to the conscious level in sensory
memory.
D) transferring information from one memory stage to the next.

78. Conscious is to unconscious as _____ is to _____.

A) encoding; retrieval
B) automatic processing; effortful processing
C) effortful processing; automatic processing
D) retrieval; encoding

79. Automatic processing involves:

A) subconsciously deleting information from the memory system.
B) a tendency to automatically recall emotionally significant events.
C) processing that does not require attention.
D) processing that involves conscious awareness.

80. If subconscious automatic processing were represented in the three-stage memory

model, it would show sensory input:
A) bypassing sensory memory and going directly into short-term memory.
B) bypassing both sensory memory and short-term memory and going directly into
long-term memory.
C) entering sensory memory but skipping short-term memory and going directly from
sensory memory to long-term memory.
D) entering sensory memory, then going to short-term memory and from there to
long-term memory.

Page 15
81. Tessa frequently has difficulty remembering where she left her car keys. If she wants to
be more likely to recall where she left her keys in the future, she should engage in _____
processing.
A) automatic
B) effortful
C) levels of
D) implicit

82. According to levels-of-processing theory, _____ processing stimulates greater recall

than _____ processing.
A) physical; acoustic
B) acoustic; semantic
C) physical; semantic
D) semantic; acoustic

83. In their research on levels of processing, Craik and Tulving found that recognition
memory was best in the _____ processing condition and worst in the _____ processing
condition.
A) acoustic; semantic
B) semantic; physical
C) acoustic; physical
D) physical; semantic

84. Long-term recognition memory is best for words encoded _____, next best for those
encoded _____, and worst for those encoded _____.
A) semantically; physically; acoustically
B) acoustically; physically; semantically
C) physically; semantically; acoustically
D) semantically; acoustically; physically

85. Research by Craik and Tulving revealed that recognition of words depended on the
types of questions asked about each word. Which ordering BEST reflects their findings
concerning processing conditions ordered from best to worst?
A) physical  acoustic  semantic
B) acoustic  physical  semantic
C) semantic  acoustic  physical
D) acoustic  semantic  physical

Page 16
86. Which statement is an example of elaborative rehearsal?
A) To remember the meaning of temporal integration, Melvin highlights the term in
his textbook.
B) To remember the concept "procedural" memory, Margaret thinks of her experience
riding a bicycle.
C) To remember the flow of information through memory, Michael repeats the
sequence multiple times.
D) To remember the story of H. M., Michelle writes "H. M.-amnesia" several times.

87. Elaborative rehearsal is more effective than maintenance rehearsal because it:
A) takes more time and more time means more memory.
B) provides more retrieval cues when we need to recall information.
C) is more difficult to do, and the extra energy required tells the brain "remember
this."
D) requires the use of mnemonic devices that improve recall.

88. Maintenance rehearsal is to _____ as elaborative rehearsal is to _____.

A) shallower processing; deeper processing
B) long-term memory; sensory memory
C) deeper processing; shallower processing
D) sensory memory; short-term memory

89. Research suggests that _____ is one of the BEST ways to remember information about
memory in your textbook.
A) rereading it several times
B) relating it to yourself
C) saying it aloud
D) copying it from the text

90. If you better remember the words "happy" and "cheerful" from a list of words because
they are characteristics you embody, you are likely experiencing:
A) the encoding specificity principle.
B) the self-reference effect.
C) levels of processing.
D) mood-dependent memory.

Page 17
91. According to your text, why is the encoding specificity effect not consistently applicable
to classroom testing?
A) Students may not pay attention to the instructor in class.
B) Students may focus on the instructor but ignore the classroom environment itself.
C) Students may learn the material in several different environments.
D) Students may not learn the material well enough for encoding specificity to apply.

92. Which phenomenon is NOT based on the encoding specificity principle?

A) state-dependent memory
B) mood-congruence effect
C) the self-reference effect
D) serial position effects

93. Godden and Baddeley (1975) determined that participants recalled more information
when their study and test environments matched. This finding is BEST explained by:
A) the self-reference effect.
B) the encoding specificity principle.
C) state-dependent memory.
D) the mood-congruence effect.

94. Divers studied words in one of two contexts (on land or underwater) and recalled the
words in one of two contexts (on land or underwater). Results indicated that recall for
both groups was greater:
A) on land, the more familiar context.
B) under water, the more unusual context.
C) if tested in the context not used for studying, a contrast effect.
D) if tested in the same context in which they had studied.

95. You are MOST likely to remember the word "cheery" if you encoded it as:
A) your normal mood on a daily basis.
B) sounding like the word "dreary."
C) fitting into a sentence about a teacher's disposition.
D) beginning with the same consonant blend as "chief" and "chicken."

Page 18
 96. Which statement is FALSE?
A) The self-reference effect states that information related to oneself is better
remembered.
B) The encoding specificity principle proposes that the cues present during encoding
serve as the best retrieval cues.
C) State-dependent memory is memory that is dependent on one's physiological state
at the time of encoding and retrieval.
D) The mood-congruence effect states that memory is better for experiences that differ
from a person's current mood.

97. After he had a few beers, Larry reorganized the closet where he kept his sporting
equipment. The next day, he could not find his tennis racquet. However, the following
weekend, after having a few beers, Larry remembered where he put his racquet, an
example of _____ memory.
A) state-dependent
B) mood-dependent
C) mood-congruence
D) nondeclarative

98. Whenever Francesca is angry with her brother Gerald, she more easily recalls many of
the times she has been treated unfairly by others in the past. This example is BEST
explained by:
A) the self-reference effect.
B) state-dependent memory.
C) the mood-congruence effect.
D) mood-dependent memory.

99. Recovery from depression may be hindered by:

A) state-dependent memory.
B) mood-dependent memory.
C) the mood-congruence effect.
D) nondeclarative memory.

100. Long-term memory is best when a person's mood state is the same at encoding and
retrieval, an effect known as:
A) state-dependent memory.
B) mood-dependent memory.
C) the mood-congruence effect.
D) the self-reference effect.

Page 19
101. Which statement is BEST explained by the mood-congruence effect?
A) Happy people attempt difficult cognitive tasks more willingly when their mood
states are positive.
B) Depressed patients report more memories related to illness, injury, and death than
do nondepressed people.
C) People under the influence of alcohol at the time of encoding information have
better recall of this information when again under the influence of alcohol.
D) People remember words better if they determine whether the words describes them.

102. Sandra remembers her grocery list by associating each item with a different place in her
kitchen (e.g., eggs on top of the toaster, milk in the sink). Which mnemonic is Sandra
using?
A) acronyms
B) method of loci
C) peg-word method
D) the spacing effect

103. When Hillary has nothing to write on, she takes a mental walk through her house
selecting various places for items she needs to remember to buy at the grocery store.
Then, when she gets to the grocery store, she takes this mental walk again while
shopping. Which mnemonic device is Hillary using?
A) peg-word system
B) method of loci
C) cue dependency
D) state-dependent memory

104. Which mnemonic device involves the use of imagery?

A) method of loci
B) first-letter technique
C) peg-word system
D) both method of loci and peg-word system

105. Which mnemonic device is LEAST effective?

A) method of loci
B) first-letter technique
C) peg-word system
D) the spacing effect

Page 20
Another random document with
no related content on Scribd:
 „ intestinal coccidiosis of, 271
„ parasitic gastro-enteritis in, 268
Laminitis, 32
„ symptoms, 33
„ treatment, 34
Laparotomy, 740
Larkspur poisoning in sheep, 231
Laryngitis, 333
„ acute, 333
„ pseudo-membranous, 333
Larynx, 333
„ examination of, 313
„ tumours of, 335
Lathyrism, 243
Lead poisoning, 220
Licking habit, 158
Lily of the valley family, 228
Lime and sulphur dips, 627
„ „ prejudice against, 628
Linaceæ, 244
Liver, 119
„ cancer of, 282
„ congestion of, 280
„ diseases of, 279
„ echinococcosis of, 283
„ rot, 293
Liver fluke (Fasciola hepatica), 294
„ disease, 293
Local affections, 20
Locomotion, apparatus of, 730
„ organs of, diseases of, 1
„ gait in, 1
 „ inspection for, 1
„ palpation and pressure to detect, 1
„ percussion in, 1
Louping-ill, 429
Lumbar prurigo, or “trembling,” in sheep, 475
Lumbricosis of calves, 267
Lund’s truss, 770
Lungs, 343
Lupines, poisoning by, 241
Luxation of the femoro-tibial articulation, 61
„ „ femur, 56
„ „ patella, 58
„ „ scapulo-humeral joint, 63
Lymphadenitis, 448
Lymphatic glands, tuberculosis of, 696
„ glandular apparatus, topography of, 445
„ system, diseases of, 444
Lympho-cythæmia, 448
Lymphogenic diathesis, 448
M.
Magnoliaceæ, 229
Magnolia family, 229
Maize, poisoning by the male tufts of, 226
Male genital organs, 594
Malformations, genital, 560
Malignant œdema, 415
Mammæ, ablation of the, 771
Mammary glands, diseases of, 565
„ toxæmia, 461
Mammitis, 571
 „ acute, 573
„ chronic, 581
„ contagious, in milch cows, 580
Mammitis, gangrenous in goats, 584
„ „ of milch ewes, 583
„ interstitial, 574
„ parenchymatous, 575
Mange, 611
„ chorioptic, 636, 640, 642
„ demodecic, 643
„ in the goat, 641
„ „ ox, 638
„ „ pig, 642
„ psoroptic, 614, 639
„ sarcoptic, 638, 641
„ symbiotic, 636
Manual technique in bistournage, 752
„ „ castration of the cow, 762
„ „ „ „ sow, 766
Martelage, 756
Maxilla, actinomycosis of the, 673
Maxillary sinus, purulent collections in, 329
„ „ trephining the, 745
Measles, beef, 79
„ pork, 78
Mechanical pneumonia, 347
Mediastinum, diseases of structures enclosed within the, 368
„ tuberculosis of the, 697
„ tumours of, 369
Medicated milk, 591
Melanthaceæ, 227
Meliaceæ, 244
Meningitis, 456
Mercurial poisoning, 219
„ stomatitis, 128
„ „ nature of, 129
Metritis, 547
„ acute, 550
„ chronic, 552
„ septic, 547
Microbic changes in milk, 588
Migration of foreign bodies from the reticulum, pneumonia due to,
348
Milch cows, contagious mammitis in, 580
„ ewes, gangrenous mammitis of, 583
Milk, bitter, 591
„ blue, 590
„ changes in the, 587
„ clotted, 589
„ diseases transmissible to man through the medium of, 593
„ fever, 461
„ fistulæ, 569
„ medicated, 591
„ microbic changes in, 588
„ mucous, viscous, or thready, 589
„ preservation of, 591
„ putrid, 589
„ red, 590
„ secretion, disturbance in the, 587
„ thready, 589
„ viscous, 589
„ without butter, 589
„ yellow, 590
Milkweed family, 252
Molasses refuse, poisoning by, 258
Motor dyspepsia, 195
Mouth, diseases of, 106, 121
Mucous milk, 589
Muguet, 124
Muscles and tendons, diseases of, 70
„ parasitic diseases of, 73
Muscular rheumatism, 92
Mushroom family, 225
Mycotic stomatitis in calves, 124
Myelo-cythæmia, 448
N.
Nails, picked-up, 37
Nasal cavities, 319
„ „ examination of, 311
„ „ tumours of, 325
„ gleet, 326
„ sinuses, purulent collections in, 326
Neck, actinomycosis of the, 675
Necrosing stomatitis in calves, 123
Nephritis, acute, 528
„ chronic, 530
„ suppurative, 537
Nervous system, 456
Nettle family, 229
New-born animals, septicæmia of, 406
„ „ umbilical phlebitis of, 399
New Zealand, blood poisoning in sheep and lambs in, 415
Nitrates of potash and soda, poisoning by, 217
Nodular necrosing hepatitis, 280
„ sclerosing glossitis, 133
Non-psoroptic forms of acariasis, 645
Nympho-mania, 562
 O.
Obstruction of the abomasum, 194
Œsophageal obstructions, 152
„ „ treatment, 154
„ sounds, 155
Œsophagitis, 145
Œsophagotomy, 156, 736
Œsophagus, 734
„ dilatation of, 149
„ diseases of, 109, 145
„ ruptures and perforations of, 157
„ stricture of, 148
Œstrus larvæ in the facial sinuses of sheep, 330
Oleaceæ, 251
Olive family, 251
Omasum, 113
„ impaction of the, 179
Omphalo-phlebitis, 402
“Open arthritis”, 51
“Open Synovitis, 49
Operations, 720
Ophthalmia, verminous, of the ox, 663
Organs of circulation, semiology of, 370
„ locomotion, diseases of, 1
„ „ „ methods of examination in, 1
Orifice of the teat, dilatation of the, 770
Osseous cachexia, 7
„ „ causes of, 14
„ „ history of, 8
Osseous cachexia, phases of, 9–11
„ „ symptoms of, 8, 11
 „ „ treatment of, 18
Ostitis, suppurating, 29
Ovary, tumours of the, 559
Over-eating, indigestion as a result of, 175
Over-exertion, 442
Ovine pasteurellosis, 263
„ piroplasmosis, 425
Ox, colic in the, 162
„ demodecic mange in the, 644
„ depraved appetite in the, 158
„ hypodermosis in the, 646
„ mange in the, 638
„ strongylosis of the abomasum in the, 268
„ urethrotomy in the, 747
„ verminous ophthalmia of the, 663
Oxen, canker in, 40
„ control of, 720
„ „ by casting, 723
„ „ the limbs, 720
„ warts in, 655
P.
Panaritium, 41
Pancreas, 119
Papaveraceæ, 235
Papillomata, verrucous, of the udder, 586
Paralysis of the bladder, 519
Parasites, cystic, of animals, table of, 73
„ of the digestive apparatus, 263
Parasitic diseases of muscles, 73
„ gastro-enteritis, 268
„ „ in cattle, 268
„ „ in lambs, 268
 „ „ in sheep, 268
Parenchymatous mammitis, 575
Parotid fistula, 136
„ glands, actinomycosis of the, 675
Parotiditis (Parotitis), 134, 136
Parturient apoplexy, 461
Passage of the catheter in the cow, 750
„ „ „ ram, 749
Passing the probang, 735
Patella, luxation of, 58
„ „ bandage for, 60
„ „ symptoms, 59
„ „ treatment, 60
Patellar synovial capsule, inflammation of, 45
Pea family, 236
Pelvis, fractures of, 20
Pericarditis, 375
„ cancerous, 375
„ chronic, 389
„ exudative, due to foreign bodies, 376
„ simple acute, 375
„ specific, 375
Perineal hernia of young pigs, 487
Perinephritis, 537
Peripneumonia and pneumonia, differences between, 347
Perisporaceæ, 223
Peritoneal cysticercosis, 485
Peritoneum, diseases of, 478
Peritonitis, 478
„ acute, 478
„ chronic, 481
Persistence of the urachus, 508
Phallaceæ, 225
Pharyngeal polypi, 143
Pharyngitis, 138
Pharynx, actinomycosis of the, 675
„ diseases of, 108, 134
Phlebitis, 396
„ accidental, 396
„ internal infectious, 398
„ umbilical, 402
„ „ of new-born animals, 399
„ utero-ovarian, 398
Phosphorus poisoning, 219
Phthiriasis, 608
Physiological anomalies, 567
Phytolaccaceæ, 229
Pica, 158
Picked-up nails, 37
Pig, cysticercus disease of the, 73
„ „ „ „ cause of, 74
„ „ „ „ examination fo, 77
„ „ „ „ symptoms of, 75
„ „ „ „ treatment, 78
„ demodecic mange in the, 644
„ impetigo in the, 605
„ mange in the, 642
„ pneumonia of the, 710, 714
„ ringworm in the, 653
„ urticaria in the, 656
„ verrucous endocarditis of the, 710, 713
Pigs, control of, 725
„ ringing, 734
„ tonsilitis in, 138
 „ young, castration of, 759
„ „ inguinal hernia in, 741
„ „ perineal hernia of, 487
Pink family, 229
Piroplasmosis, 416
Plantar aponeurosis, injury to, 38
Plants poisonous to stock, 223
Pleura, diseases of, 361
Pleuræ, 343
Pleurisy, acute, 361
„ chronic, 362
Plugs, 728
Plum family, 236
Pneumonia due to foreign bodies, 347
„ „ migration of foreign bodies from the reticulum, 348
„ mechanical, 347
„ mycosis due to aspergilli, 350
„ of the pig, 710
„ simple, 343
Pneumo-thorax, 362
Poaceæ, 226
Poisoning, 213
„ by acorns, 228
„ „ aloes, 221
„ „ annual mercury, 256
„ „ Aragallus spicatus, 237
„ „ arsenic, 218
„ „ bryony, 256
„ „ castor oil cake, 257
„ „ caustic acids, 217
„ „ „ alkalies, 216
„ „ common salt, 217
„ „ cotton cake, 257
 „ „ ergot of rye, 223
„ „ fennel, 249
„ „ hellebore, 234
„ „ hemlock, 248
„ „ lupines, 241
„ „ male tufts of maize, 226
„ „ molasses refuse, 258
„ „ nitrates of potash and soda, 217
„ „ poppies, 235
„ „ ranunculaceæ, 234
„ „ smut of barley, 224
„ „ St. John’s wort, 246
„ „ sweet sorghum grass, 226
„ „ tartar emetic, 218
„ „ vetches, 243
„ „ white loco weed, 237
„ „ wild chervil, 248
„ carbolic acid, 221
„ colchicum, 256
„ copper, 221
„ due to food, 215
„ iodine, 222
„ iodoform, 222
„ larkspur, in sheep, 231
„ lead, 220
„ mercurial, 219
„ phosphorus, 219
„ strychnine, 222
„ tobacco, 254
Pokeweed family, 229
Polypi of the glans penis and sheath, 506
„ pharyngeal, 143
Polypodiaceæ, 225
Poppies, poisoning by, 235
Poppy family, 235
Post-partum paralysis, 461
Potato family, 252
„ pulp, eczema due to feeding with, 603
Preservation of milk, 591
Pricks and stabs in shoeing, 36
Primrose family, 251
Primulaceæ, 251
Probang, passing the, 735
Probangs, 155
Prolapsus and inversion of the rectum, 743
Prostate, 597
Prunaceæ, 236
Pseudo-membranous bronchitis, 339
„ laryngitis, 333
„ pharyngitis in cattle, 141
„ pharyngitis in sheep, 142
Pseudo-pericarditis, 390
Pseudo-rheumatism, 94
„ „ infectious, in adults, 99
Psoroptic mange, 614, 639
Psorospermosis in calves and lambs, 271
Pulmonary congestion, 343
Pulmonary emphysema, 359
Pulse, examination of, 371
Puncture, in exploration of the rumen, 112
„ of the rumen, 737
Purulent collections in the frontal sinus, 327
„ „ „ maxillary sinus, 329
„ „ „ nasal sinuses, 326
Putrid milk, 589
Pyelo-nephritis, infectious, 533
Pyo-pneumo-thorax, 366
R.
Rachitis, 4
„ symptoms of, 5
„ treatment of, 7
Ragweed family, 256
Ram, castration of the, 751, 759
„ passage of the catheter in the, 749
„ urethrotomy in the, 749
Ranunculaceæ, 230
„ poisoning by, 234
Rectal exploration, 116
Rectum, prolapsus and inversion of the, 743
Red milk, 590
Respiratory apparatus, 311, 745
„ „ examination of, 311
„ „ tuberculosis of the, 690
Reticulitis, 186
Reticulum, 113
Retro-pharyngeal glands, tuberculosis of, 696
Rheumatism, 89
„ articular, 89
„ infectious forms of, 94
„ muscular, 92
Ring-bone, 28
Ringing pigs, 734
Ringworm, 649
„ in the sheep, goat, and pig, 653
Rot-mould family, 223
Rowels, 728
Rumen, 737
„ examination of the, 110
„ hernia of the, 490
„ impaction of the, 175
„ puncture of the, 737
Rumenitis, 186
Ruminants, intestinal helminthiasis in, 275
Rupture of the external ischio-tibial muscle, 70
„ „ flexor metatarsi, 72
Ruptures and perforations of the œsophagus, 157
S.
“Salivary abscesses”, 137
Salivary glands, diseases of, 108, 134
Salpingitis, 555
Salpingo-ovaritis, 555
Salt common, poisoning by, 217
Sand crack, 34
„ symptoms, 35
„ treatment, 35
Sarcoptic scabies, 612
„ mange, 638, 641
Saturnism, 220
Scab, 611, 614
„ dips, arsenical, 632
„ „ carbolic, 633
„ „ Clément’s bath, 623
„ „ creolin bath, 624
„ „ lime and sulphur, 627
„ „ Tessier’s bath, 622
„ „ tobacco and sulphur, 626
„ „ Trasbot’s bath, 623
„ foot, 636
Scabies, 611
„ in sheep, 611
Scapulo-humeral joint, luxation of the, 63
Sclero-caseous broncho-pneumonia of sheep, 358
Scleroderma, 657
Sclerostoma pinguicola (kidney worm), 539
Scorbutus, 104
Scrophulariaceæ, 255
Scrotal urethrotomy, 748
Scurvy, 104
Sebaceous or seborrhœic eczema, 601
Secretory dyspepsia, 195
Section of the sphincter of the teat, 770
Semiology of the digestive apparatus, 106
„ „ organs of circulation, 370
Septic metritis, 547
Septicæmia of new-born animals, 406
Serous membranes, tuberculosis of, 694
Setons, 728
Sheath, inflammation of, 506
Sheep, acne in the, 606
„ anæmia in, 268
„ bilharziosis in, 439
„ blood poisoning in, in New Zealand, 415
„ caseous lymphadenitis of the, 453
„ catarrhal stomatitis in, 122
„ control of, 725
„ diarrhœa in, 268
„ gastro-intestinal strongylosis in, 263
„ larkspur poisoning in, 231
„ œstrus larvæ in the facial sinuses of, 330
 „ parasitic gastro-enteritis in, 268
„ pseudo-membranous pharyngitis in, 142
„ ringworm in the, 653
„ scab, 614
„ scabies in, 611
„ sclero-caseous broncho-pneumonia of, 358
„ “trembling,” or lumbar prurigo, in, 475
„ ulcerative stomatitis in, 125
„ urinary calculi in, 518
„ verminous bronchitis in, 340
Shoeing, stabs and pricks in, 36
Shoulder, strain of, 52
Simple acute bronchitis, 337
Simple acute pericarditis, 375
„ coryza, 319
„ pneumonia, 343
„ stomatitis, 121
Sinuses, examination of, 312
Skin, diseases of, 599
„ tuberculosis of the, 703
Smut of barley, poisoning by, 224
„ family, 224
Solanaceæ, 252
Sole, contusions of the, 31
Sow, anatomical arrangements of the genital organs in the, 765
„ castration of the, 765
„ operative accidents in, 768
Spavin in the ox, 27
Specific pericarditis, 375
Speculum, examination of female genital organs with the, 760
Sphincter of the teat, contraction of the, 567
„ „ section of, 770
Spurge family, 244
Stabs and pricks in shoeing, 36
Sternum, hygroma of the point of the, 69
Stifle, hygroma of the, 67
„ joint, strain of, 54
Stink-horn family, 225
St. John’s wort family, 246
„ poisoning by, 246
Stock, plants poisonous to, 223
Stomach, diseases of the, 110, 169
Stomatitis, 121
„ catarrhal, in sheep, 122
„ general catarrhal, in swine, 126
„ mercurial, 128
„ mycotic, in calves, 124
„ necrosing, in calves, 123
„ ulcerative, in swine, 127
„ in sheep, 125
Strain of the fetlock, 54
„ „ hock joint, 55
„ „ knee, 53
„ „ shoulder, 52
„ „ stifle joint, 54
Strains of joints, 52
Strangulation, colic as a result of, 167
Strawberry-shrub family, 235
Stricture of the œsophagus, 148
Strongylosis of the abomasum in the ox, 268
Strychnine poisoning, 222
Sturdy, 467
Subcutaneous connective tissue, diseases of the, 599
 „ emphysema, 659, 738
Submaxillary salivary gland, inflammation of, 137
Sucking calves, broncho-pneumonia of, 356
Sugar factory pulp, diseases produced by, 259
Superficial glossitis, 130
Suppurating ostitis, 29
Suppurative echinococcosis, 288
„ nephritis and perinephritis, 537
Surgical dressing for a claw, 730
Suture of the vulva, 768
„ „ „ Rainard’s suture, 769
„ „ „ simple suture, 768
„ „ „ Strebel’s suture, 769
Sweet sorghum grass, poisoning by, 226
Swine, acute gastric indigestion in, 185
„ catarrhal gastritis in, 190
„ fever, 710
„ general catarrhal stomatitis in, 126
„ ulcerative stomatitis in, 127
„ kidney worm of, 539
Symbiotic (chorioptic) mange, 636
Synovial capsule of the hock joint, distension of, 46
„ „ „ fetlock joint, distension of, 48
„ „ „ knee joint, distension of, 47
„ membranes, diseases of, 45
Synovitis, 45
T.
Takosis, 412
Tartar emetic, poisoning by, 218
Taxaceæ, 226
Taxus baccata, 226
Teat, dilatation of the orifice of the, 770
„ imperforate condition of the, 567
„ section of the sphincter of the, 770
Tendon sheaths, distension of, 48
„ „ „ in the hock region, 46
„ „ „ in the region of the knee, 49
Tendons and muscles, diseases of, 70
Tessier’s scab dip, 622
Testicle, tumours of the, 594
Tetanus, 670
Thorax, examination of, 315
Thistle family, 256
Third stomach, impaction of the, 179
Thready milk, 589
Thrush, 124
Tobacco and sulphur dip, 626
Tobacco poisoning, 254
Tongue, actinomycosis of the, 674
Tonsilitis in pigs, 138
Tonsils, diseases of, 134
Torsion, castration by, 757
„ of the uterus, 556
Trachea, 333
„ examination of, 314
Tracheotomy, 746
Trasbot’s scab dip, 623
Traumatic arthritis, 51
„ articular synovitis, 51
„ lesions, 568
„ synovitis, 49
 „ tendinous synovitis, 50
“Trembling,” or lumbar prurigo, in sheep, 475
Trephining the facial sinuses, 745
„ frontal sinus, 745
„ horn core, 744
„ maxillary sinus, 745
Trichiniasis-trichinosis, 84
Trochanter of the femur, hygroma of the, 67
Truss, Lund’s, 770
Trusses, 769
Trypanosomata, diseases produced by, 426
Tuberculosis, 682
Tuberculosis, acute, 704
„ in sheep, goats, and pigs, 705
„ of serous membranes, 694
„ „ bones and articulations, 701
„ „ lymphatic glands, 696
„ „ the brain, 702
„ „ „ digestive tract, 699
„ „ „ genital organs, 700
„ „ „ respiratory apparatus, 690
„ „ „ skin, 703
Tuberculous septicæmia, 704
Tumours, bone, 30
„ cerebral, 459
„ of the gastric compartments, 202
„ „ larynx, 335
„ „ mediastinum, 369
„ „ nasal cavities, 325
„ „ ovary, 559
„ „ testicle, 594
„ „ udder, 585
„ „ uterus, 559