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Chapter 10: Antepartum Fetal Assessment
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. A pregnant client’s biophysical profile score is 8. She asks the nurse to explain the results.
What is the nurse’s best response?
a. “The test results are within normal limits.”
b. “Immediate birth by cesarean birth is being considered.”
c. “Further testing will be performed to determine the meaning of this score.”
d. “An obstetric specialist will evaluate the results of this profile and, within the next
week, will inform you of your options regarding birth.”
ANS: A
The normal biophysical score ranges from 8 to 10 points if the amniotic fluid volume is
adequate. A normal score allows conservative treatment of high-risk patients. Birth can be
delayed if fetal well-being is an issue. Scores less than 4 would be investigated, and birth
could be initiated sooner than planned. This score is within normal range, and no further
testing is required at this time. The results of the biophysical profile are usually available
immediately after the procedure is performed.
2. Which analysis of maternal serum may predict chromosomal abnormalities in the fetus?
a. Biophysical profile
b. Multiple-marker screening
c. Lecithin-to-sphingomyelin ratio
d. Blood type and crossmatch of maternal and fetal serum
ANS: B
Maternal serum can be analyzed for abnormal levels of alpha-fetoprotein (AFP), human
chorionic gonadotropin (hCG), inhibin A, and estriol. The multiple-marker screening may
predict chromosomal defects in the fetus. The biophysical profile is used to evaluate fetal
status during the antepartum period. Five variables are used, but none are concerned with
chromosomal problems. The lecithin-to-sphingomyelin ratio is used to determine fetal lung
maturity. The blood type and crossmatch will not predict chromosomal defects in the fetus.
3. The clinic nurse is obtaining a health history on a newly pregnant client. Which is an
indication for fetal diagnostic procedures if present in the health history?
a. Maternal diabetes
b. Weight gain of 25 lb
c. Maternal age older than 30
d. Previous infant weighing more than 3000 g at birth
ANS: A
Diabetes is a risk factor in pregnancy because of possible impairment of placental perfusion.
Excessive weight gain is an indication for testing. Normal weight gain is 25 to 35 lb. A
maternal age older than 35 years is an indication for testing. Having had another infant
weighing more than 4000 g is an indication for testing.
4. When is the most accurate time to determine gestational age through ultrasound?
a. First trimester
b. Second trimester
c. Third trimester
d. No difference in accuracy among the trimesters
ANS: A
Gestational age determination by ultrasonography is increasingly less accurate after the first
trimester. Gestational age determination is best done in the first trimester. There is a
difference in trimesters when doing a gestational age ultrasonography.
5. The primary reason for evaluating alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) levels in maternal serum is to
determine whether the fetus has which?
a. Hemophilia
b. Sickle cell anemia
c. A neural tube defect
d. A normal lecithin-to-sphingomyelin ratio
ANS: C
An open neural tube allows a high level of AFP to seep into the amniotic fluid and enter the
maternal serum. Hemophilia is a genetic defect and is best detected with chromosomal
studies, such as chorionic villus sampling or amniocentesis. Sickle cell anemia is a genetic
defect and is best detected with chromosomal studies such as chorionic villus sampling or
amniocentesis. L/S ratios are determined with an amniocentesis and are usually done in the
third trimester.
6. When is the earliest that chorionic villus sampling can be performed during pregnancy?
a. 4 weeks
b. 8 weeks
c. 10 weeks
d. 12 weeks
ANS: C
Fetal villus tissue can be obtained as early as 10 weeks of gestation and can be analyzed
directly for chromosomal or genetic abnormalities. It is too early to be performed at 4 weeks.
It is too early to be performed at 8 weeks. The test should be performed at 12 weeks, but it can
be done as early as 10 weeks.
PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Understanding REF: 170
OBJ: Nursing Process Step: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Physiologic Integrity
7. On which aspect of fetal diagnostic testing do parents usually place the most importance?
a. Safety of the fetus
b. Duration of the test
c. Cost of the procedure
d. Physical discomfort caused by the procedure
ANS: A
Although all these are considerations, parents are usually most concerned about the safety of
the fetus. Parents are concerned about the duration, but it is not the greatest concern. The cost
of the procedure is important to parents, especially those without third-party payers, but is not
the greatest concern. Discomfort of the procedure is important, especially for the mother, but
is not the greatest concern.
11. Which is the major advantage of chorionic villus sampling over amniocentesis?
a. It is not an invasive procedure.
b. It does not require a hospital setting.
c. It requires less time to obtain results.
d. It has less risk of spontaneous abortion.
ANS: C
Results from chorionic villus sampling can be known within 24 to 48 hours, whereas results
from amniocentesis require 2 to 4 weeks. It is an invasive procedure. The woman has to be in
a hospital setting for her and the fetus to be properly assessed during and after the procedure.
The risk of an abortion is at the same level for both procedures.
12. What is the purpose of amniocentesis for a client hospitalized at 34 weeks of gestation with
pregnancy-induced hypertension?
a. Determine if a metabolic disorder is genetic.
b. Identify the sex of the fetus.
c. Identify abnormal fetal cells.
d. Determine fetal lung maturity.
ANS: D
During the third trimester, amniocentesis is most often performed to determine fetal lung
maturity. In cases of pregnancy-induced hypertension, preterm birth may be necessary
because of changes in placental perfusion. The test is done in the early portion of the
pregnancy if the metabolic disorder is genetic. Amniocentesis is done early in the pregnancy
to do genetic studies and determine the sex. Identification of abnormal cells is done during the
early portion of the pregnancy.
14. What is the term for a non–stress test in which there are two or more fetal heart rate
accelerations of 15 or more bpm with fetal movement in a 20-minute period?
a. Positive
b. Negative
c. Reactive
d. Nonreactive
ANS: C
The non–stress test (NST) is reactive (normal) when there are two or more fetal heart rate
accelerations of at least 15 bpm (each with a duration of at least 15 seconds) in a 20-minute
period. A positive result is not used with an NST. The contraction stress test (CST) uses
positive as a result term. A negative result is not used with an NST. The CST uses negative as
a result term. A nonreactive result means that the heart rate did not accelerate during fetal
movement.
15. What is the purpose of initiating contractions in a contraction stress test (CST)?
a. Increase placental blood flow.
b. Identify fetal acceleration patterns.
c. Determine the degree of fetal activity.
d. Apply a stressful stimulus to the fetus.
ANS: D
The CST involves recording the response of the fetal heart rate to stress induced by uterine
contractions. The CST records the fetal response to stress. It does not increase placental blood
flow. The NST looks at fetal heart accelerations with fetal movements. The NST and
biophysical profiles look at fetal movements.
17. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate to the statement, “This test isn’t my idea, but
my husband insists?”
a. “It’s your decision.”
b. “Don’t worry. Everything will be fine.”
c. “Why don’t you want to have this test?”
d. “You’re concerned about having this test?”
ANS: D
The nurse should clarify the statement and assist the client in exploring her feelings about the
test. “It’s your decision” is a closed statement and does not encourage the woman to express
her feelings. “Don’t worry” is false reassurance and does not deal with the concerns expressed
by the woman. The woman may not be able to answer “why” questions. It may also make her
defensive.
18. A biophysical profile is performed on a pregnant client. The following assessments are noted:
nonreactive stress test (NST), three episodes of fetal breathing movements (FBMs), limited
gross movements, opening and closing of hang indicating the presence of fetal tone, and
adequate amniotic fluid index (AFI) meeting criteria. What would be the correct interpretation
of this test result?
a. A score of 10 would indicate that the results are equivocal.
b. A score of 8 would indicate normal results.
c. A score of 6 would indicate that birth should be considered as a possible treatment
option.
d. A score of 9 would indicate reassurance.
ANS: B
The biophysical profile is used to assess fetal well-being. Five categories of assessment are
used in this combination test: fetal monitoring NST, evaluation of FBMs, gross movements,
fetal tone, and calculation of the amniotic fluid index (AFI). A maximum of 2 points is used if
criteria are met successfully in each category; thus a score in the range of 8 to 10 indicates a
normal or reassuring finding. A score of 6 provides equivocal results and further testing or
observation is necessary. A score of 4 or less requires immediate intervention, and birth may
be warranted. The provided assessments indicate a score of 8 as the only area that has not met
the stated criteria in the NST.
PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Analysis REF: 178
OBJ: Nursing Process Step: Evaluation
MSC: Client Needs: Physiologic Integrity: Reduction of Risk Potential/Diagnostic Tests
19. In preparing a pregnant client for a non–stress test (NST), which of the following should be
included in the plan of care?
a. Have the client void prior to being placed on the fetal monitor because a full
bladder will interfere with results.
b. Maintain NPO status prior to testing.
c. Position the client for comfort, adjusting the tocotransducer belt to locate fetal
heart rate.
d. Have an infusion pump prepared with oxytocin per protocol for evaluation.
ANS: C
The nurse must adjust the tocotransducer to find the best location to pick up and record the
fetal heart rate. Positioning the client for comfort during testing is a prime concern. Although
a full bladder may affect client comfort, it will not interfere with testing results. NPO status is
not required for an NST. Instead, a pregnant client should maintain her normal nutritional
intake to provide energy to herself and the fetus. An infusion pump with oxytocin is required
for a contraction stress test (CST).
20. The results of a contraction stress test (CST) are positive. Which intervention is necessary
based on this test result?
a. Repeat the test in 1 week so that results can be trended based on this baseline
result.
b. Contact the health care provider to discuss birth options for the client.
c. Send the client out for a meal and repeat the test to confirm that the results are
valid.
d. Ask the client to perform a fetal kick count assessment for the next 30 minutes and
then reassess the client.
ANS: B
A positive CST test is an abnormal finding, and the physician should be notified so that birth
options can be initiated. A positive CST indicates possible fetal compromise. Intervention
should not be delayed by 1 week and results do not have to be trended. Because this is an
abnormal result, there is no need to repeat the test. Sending the client out for a meal will delay
treatment options and may interfere with possible birth interventions if anesthesia is needed.
Fetal kick count assessment is not needed at this time and will further delay treatment
interventions for this abnormal result, which indicates fetal compromise.
22. A pregnant woman is scheduled to undergo chorionic villus sampling (CVS) based on genetic
family history. Which medication does the nurse anticipate will be administered?
a. Magnesium sulfate
b. Prostaglandin suppository
c. RhoGAM if the client is Rh-negative
d. Betamethasone
ANS: C
CVS can increase the likelihood of Rh sensitization if a woman in Rh-negative. There is no
indication for magnesium sulfate because it is used to stop preterm labor. There is no
indication for administration of a prostaglandin suppository. Betamethasone is given to
pregnant women in preterm labor to improve fetal lung maturity.
23. Which factor serves as a clinical indicator for a third trimester amniocentesis?
a. Sex of the fetus
b. Rh isoimmunization
c. Placenta previa
d. Placental abruption
ANS: B
Rh isoimmunization is a clinical indicator for a third-trimester amniocentesis. Although an
amniocentesis can determine the sex of the fetus, this is not a primary indication for a
third-trimester amniocentesis. Ultrasound imaging would be indicated for evaluation of
placenta previa. Ultrasound imaging would be indicated for evaluation of placental abruption.
24. For which client would an L/S ratio of 2:1 potentially be considered to be abnormal?
a. A 38-year-old gravida 2, para 1, who is 38 weeks’ gestation
b. A 24-year-old gravida 1, para 0, who has diabetes
c. A 44-year-old gravida 6, para 5, who is at term
d. An 18-year-old gravida 1, para 0, who is in early labor at term
ANS: B
Even though an L/S ratio of 2:1 is typically considered to be a normal finding to validate fetal
lung maturity prior to 38 weeks’ gestation, the result may not be accurate in determining fetal
lung maturity if a client is diabetic.
25. Which complication could occur as a result of percutaneous umbilical blood sampling
(PUBS)?
a. Postdates pregnancy
b. Fetal bradycardia
c. Placenta previa
d. Uterine rupture
ANS: B
PUBS is an invasive test whereby a needle is inserted into the umbilical cord to obtain blood
as the basis for diagnostic testing with the guidance of ultrasound technology. The most
common complication is fetal bradycardia, which is temporary. PUBS has no effect on
extending the gestation of pregnancy, the development of placenta previa, or uterine rupture.
26. A newly pregnant patient tells the nurse that she has irregular periods and is unsure of when
she got pregnant. Scheduling an ultrasound is a standing prescription for the patient’s health
care provider. When is the best time for the nurse to schedule the patient’s ultrasound?
a. Immediately
b. In 2 weeks
c. In 4 weeks
d. In 6 weeks
ANS: A
An embryo can be seen about 5 to 6 weeks after the last menstrual period. At this time the
crown-rump length (CRL) of the embryo is the most reliable measure of gestational age. Fetal
viability is confirmed by observation of fetal heartbeat, which is visible when the CRL of the
embryo is 5 mm.
28. A patient at 36 weeks gestation is undergoing a non–stress (NST) test. The nurse observes the
fetal heart rate baseline at 135 beats per minute (bpm) and four nonepisodic patterns of the
fetal heart rate reaching 160 bpm for periods of 20 to 25 seconds each. How will the nurse
record these findings?
a. NST positive, nonreassuring
b. NST negative, reassuring
c. NST reactive, reassuring
d. NST nonreactive, nonreassuring
ANS: C
The presence of at least three accelerations of at least 15 beats, over at least 15 seconds, over a
duration of at least 20 minutes, is considered reactive and reassuring. Nonreactive testing
reveals no or fewer accelerations over the same or longer period. The NST test is not recorded
as positive or negative.
MULTIPLE RESPONSE
29. Which clinical conditions are associated with increased levels of alpha fetoprotein (AFP)?
(Select all that apply.)
a. Down syndrome
b. Molar pregnancy
c. Twin gestation
d. Incorrect gestational age assessment of a normal fetus—estimation is earlier in the
pregnancy
e. Threatened abortion
ANS: C, D, E
Elevated APF levels are seen in multiple gestations, underestimation of fetal age, and
threatened abortion. Decreased levels are seen in Down syndrome and a molar pregnancy.
31. A woman who is 36 weeks pregnant asks the nurse to explain the vibroacoustic stimulator
(VAS) test. Which should the nurse include in the response? (Select all that apply.)
a. The test is invasive.
b. The test uses sound to elicit fetal movements.
c. The test may confirm nonreactive non–stress test results.
d. The test can only be performed if contractions are present.
e. Vibroacoustic stimulation can be repeated at 1-minute intervals up to three times.
ANS: B, C, E
Also referred to as VAS or acoustic stimulation, the vibroacoustic stimulator (similar to an
electronic larynx) is applied to the maternal abdomen over the area of the fetal head. Vibration
and sound are emitted for up to 3 seconds and may be repeated. A fetus near term responds by
increasing the number of gross body movements, which can be easily seen and felt. The
procedure can confirm reassuring NST findings and shorten the length of time necessary to
obtain NST data. The test is noninvasive and contractions do not need to be present to perform
the test.
32. The nurse is instructing a client on how to perform kick counts. Which information should the
nurse include in the teaching session? (Select all that apply.)
a. Use a clock or timer when performing kick counts.
b. Your bladder should be full before performing kick counts.
c. Notify your health care provider if you have not felt movement in 24 hours.
d. Protocols can provide a structured timetable for concentrating on fetal movements.
e. You should lie on your side, place your hands on the largest part of the abdomen,
and concentrate on the number of movements felt.
ANS: A, D, E
The nurse should instruct the client to lie on her side, place her hands on the largest part of her
abdomen, and concentrate on fetal movements. She should use a clock or timer and record the
number of movements felt during that time. Protocols are not essential but may give the client
a more structured timetable for when to concentrate on fetal movements. The bladder does not
need to be full for kick counts; it is better to have the client empty her bladder before
beginning the assessment of fetal movements. Further evaluation is recommended if the client
feels no movements in 12 hours; 24 hours is too long before notifying the health care
provider.
33. The nurse is reviewing maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) results. Which conditions
are associated with elevated levels of MSAFP? (Select all that apply.)
a. Fetal demise
b. Neural tube defects
c. Abdominal wall defects
d. Chromosomal trisomies
e. Gestational trophoblastic disease
ANS: A, B, C
Elevated levels of AFP may indicate open neural tube defects (e.g., anencephaly, spina
bifida), abdominal wall defects (e.g., omphalocele, gastroschisis), or fetal demise. Low levels
of AFP may indicate chromosomal trisomies (e.g., Down syndrome, trisomy 21) or
gestational trophoblastic disease.
34. The nurse is preparing a client for a non–stress test (NST). Which interventions should the
nurse plan to implement? (Select all that apply.)
a. Ensure that the client has a full bladder.
b. Plan approximately 15 minutes for the test.
c. Have the client sit in a recliner with the head elevated 45 degrees.
d. Apply electronic monitoring equipment to the client’s abdomen.
e. Instruct the client to press an event marker every time she feels fetal movement.
ANS: C, D, E
The client may be seated in a reclining chair or have her head elevated at least 45 degrees. The
nurse applies external electronic monitoring equipment to the client’s abdomen to detect the
fetal heart rate and any contractions. The woman may be given an event marker to press each
time she senses movement. Before the NST, the client should void and her baseline vital signs
should be taken. The NST takes about 40 minutes, allowing for most fetal sleep-wake cycles,
although the fetus may show a reassuring pattern more quickly or need more time to awaken
and become active. Fifteen minutes would not allow enough time to complete the test.
MATCHING
SHORT ANSWER
38. The health care provider has prescribed an initial rate of 1 milliunits (mU)/min of diluted
Pitocin to be started on a client having a contraction stress test (CST). What mL/hr will the
nurse set the infusion pump if the dilution of the Pitocin is 10 units of Pitocin in 1000 mL of
0.25 normal saline? Record your answer as a whole number.
___________ mL/hr
ANS:
6
10 units of Pitocin in 1000 mL of 0.25 normal saline = 10,000 mU/1,000 mL, or 10
milliunits/1 mL. Cross-multiply to get 1 mU/X mL:
10:1::1:X = 10X = 1
X = 0.1 mL/min
Multiply by 60 minutes to get the amount infused per hour:
0.1 60 = 6 mL/hr
The fruit of Monroe is small and the trees produce well only in
alternate years, defects that its high quality cannot overcome.
Monroe originated with a Miss Durham, Penfield, Monroe County,
New York, about the middle of the last century. At one time it was
quoted by nearly all nurserymen but the variety is fast disappearing.
MOREMAN
Prunus hortulana
1. Montreal Hort. Soc. Rpt. 91. 1885. 2. Cornell Sta. Bul. 38:49, 86.
1892. 3. Mich. Sta. Bul. 123:20. 1895. 4. Vt. Sta. An. Rpt. 11:285. 1898. 5.
Bailey Ev. Nat. Fruits 177, 206. 1898. 6. Am. Pom. Soc. Cat. 40. 1899. 7.
Ia. Sta. Bul. 46:280. 1900. 8. Kan. Sta. Bul. 101:135, 137. 1901, 9. Ohio
Sta. Bul. 162:256, 257. 1905.
Mooreman 1.
MOROCCO
Prunus domestica
1. Parkinson Par. Ter. 576. 1629. 2. Rea Flora 207. 1676. 3. Ray Hist.
Plant. 2:1528. 1688. 4. Langley Pomona 91, Pl. XX fig. III. 1729. 5. Miller
Gard. Dict. 3:1754. 6. Knoop Fructologie 56. 1771. 7. Abercrombie Gard.
Ass’t 13. 1786. 8. Forsyth Treat. Fr. Trees 19. 1803. 9. Pom. Mag. 3:103.
1830. 10. Lond. Hort. Soc. Cat. 145, 146, 150. 1831. 11. Prince Pom.
Man. 2:82. 1832. 12. Downing Fr. Trees Am. 306. 1845. 13. Floy-Lindley
Guide Orch. Gard. 282, 382. 1846. 14. Thomas Am. Fruit Cult. 338. 1849.
15. Loudon Enc. Gard. 921. 1834. 16. Ga. Hort. Soc. Rpt. 28. 1876. 17.
Hogg Fruit Man. 714. 1884. 18. Mathieu Nom. Pom. 430. 1889.
Black Morocco 7. Black Morocco 9, 10, 12, 13, 14, 17, 18. Black
Damask 9, 10, 12, 13, 14, 17, 18. Black Damascus 13. Damas Noir 5.
Damas Noir Hâtif 6, 10. Damas Hâtif 10. Damas noir hâtif 11. Early
Damask 5, 8. Early Black Damask 9, 10, 13. Early Damson 10. Early
Morocco 10, 12, 13, 14, 17, 18. Early Damask 9, 10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15,
17, 18. Early Black Damask 11. Early Black Morocco 12, 18. Frühe
Schwarze Pflaume 18. Frühe Platte Damascene 18. Italian Damask 12
incor., 14. Mogul 16. Morocco 16, 18. Marokko Pflaume 18. Morocco
Plumb 4. Morocco 5, 8, 9. Noire Hâtif 18. Saint Cyr 11.
This variety is not popular in New York nor does it deserve to be,
as there are many better plums of its season. Its faults are small
size, an insipid flavor and poor keeping qualities. Morocco is one of
the oldest of the cultivated plums. It has been known in Europe for
three centuries at least and is undoubtedly much older, its early
history not having been written. It is not known when the variety was
introduced into this country but it has been grown in the Southern
States for many years under the name Mogul. About 1894, it was
reintroduced from England by the W. & T. Smith Nursery Company of
Geneva, New York, under the name Mogul.
MOTTLED PRUNE
Prunus domestica
This plum is placed among the leading varieties only that a full
description of it may be put on record. The fruit is attractive in color
but is inferior in quality. These defects are so prominent that the
variety can hardly become popular. The Mottled Prune originated in
Waterloo, New York, as a chance seedling in 1887; it was introduced
by E. Smith & Sons, Geneva, New York.
MYROBALAN
Prunus cerasifera
1. Parkinson Par. Ter. 576, 578. 1629. 2. Gerard Herball 1498, 1500.
1636. 3. Rea Flora 209. 1676. 4. Ray Hist. Plant. 2:1528. 1688. 5.
Duhamel Trait. Arb. Fr. 2:111, Pl. XX fig. 15. 1768. 6. Knoop Fructologie
55, 56. 1771. 7. Forsyth Treat. Fr. Trees 20. 1803. 8. Miller Gard. Dict.
3:1807. 9. Coxe Cult. Fr. Trees 232. 1817. 10. Lond. Hort. Soc. Cat. 144,
150. 1831. 11. Prince Pom. Man. 2:80. 1832. 12. Hoffy Orch. Comp.
2:1842. 13. Downing Fr. Trees Am. 294. 1845. 14. Floy-Lindley Guide
Orch. Gard. 285. 1846. 15. Poiteau Pom. Franc. 1. 1846. 16. Jour. Roy.
Hort. Soc. N. S. 15:360. 1868. 17. Hogg Fruit Man. 690. 1884. 18. Gard. &
For. 1:178. 1888. 19. Mathieu Nom. Pom. 448. 1889. 20. Cal. State Board
Hort. 112, 113. 1891. 21. Cornell Sta. Bul. 38:66. 1892. 22. Rev. Hort. 204.
1894. 23. Neb. Hort. Soc. Rpt. 177. 1895. 24. Guide Prat. 157, 353. 1895.
25. Bailey Ev. Nat. Fruits 190 fig. 27, 209. 1898. 26. Vt. Sta. An. Rpt.
12:211, 212, 215. 1899. 27. S. Dak. Sta. Bul. 93:66. 1905.
Arabische Kirsche 19. Asiatische Kirsche 19. American Cherry Plum 11.
Cerisette 11, 18, 19. Cerizette 11. Ciriselle 6. Cerisette 6, 11. Cerisette
Blanche 6. Cerise 19. Cherry 1, 11. Cherry Plum 7, 8, 11, 16, 19, 20.
Cherry 13, 14, 17. Cherry Plum 9, 10, 18. De Virginie 10, 13, 14.
Damasine 24. D’Amerique Rouge 10, 13, 14. Early Scarlet 10, 11, 13, 17,
19. European Cherry Plum 11. Muscadine ?1. Kirschpflaume 18, 19.
Kleine Kirschpflaume 24. Mirobalan 2. Mirabilon 3. Mirabolan 5.
Myrobolan 13. Mirabolanenpflaume 19. Myrobalans 7. Mirabolane 19.
Mirobalan 9, 11. Myrobalane 19. Mirabolan 14. Myrobalan 10, 11, 14, 17,
18, 19. Mirabelle Rouge 24. Mirabelle Rouge 10. Miser Plum 19. Miser 12,
13, 14, 17. Prune d’Amerique Rouge 19. Prune Cerise 11. Prune Cerizette
8. Prunus Myrobalana 11, 14, 19, 23. Prunus Cerasifera 10, 11, 13, 14, 19.
Prune Ceriset 11. Prune de Virginie 19. Prunier Myrobolan 15, 22. Prune
Cerisette 15. Prunus Cerasifera fructu majore 19. Prunus Myrobolana 13.
Queene Mother ?1. Red Mirobalane 1. Rote Kirschpflaume 19. Red
Mirabelle 12. Rothe Mirabelle 24. Stambul Erik oder Irek 19. Türkische
Kirsche 19. Virginian Cherry 10, 13, 14, 17, 19. White Mirobalane 1. The
Myrobalane Plum 4.
NECTARINE
Prunus domestica
1. Pom. Mag. 3:148. 1830. 2. Lond. Hort. Soc. Cat. 150. 1831. 3.
Kenrick Am. Orch. 264. 1832. 4. Downing Fr. Trees Am. 306. 1845. 5.
Horticulturist 1:115. 1846. 6. Cole Am. Fr. Book 215. 1849. 7. Thompson
Gard. Ass’t 518. 1859. 8. Mathieu Nom. Pom. 448. 1889. 9. Guide Prat.
162, 365. 1895.
Bradshaw 6. Caledonian 1, 2, 3. Calvel’s Pfirschenpflaume 8. Goliath of
some 8. Howel’s 3. Howell’s Large 1, 2, 4, 7, 8. Jenkin’s Imperial 2, 4, 7, 8,
9. Louis Phillipe 4. Louis Philippe 6, 7, 8, 9. Large Early Black 6. Nectarine
1, 8, 9. Nectarine Plum 3, 7. Peach Plum 4, 7, 9. Peach 2, 8. Prune Pêche
1, 2, 3, 4, 7, 8. Pêche de Calvel 8. Prune d’Abricot 8. Pêche of some 9.
Rothe Nectarine 9. Rote Nectarine 8. The Nectarine Plum 1.
NEWARK
Prunus domestica
This fruit has little to recommend it to the commercial plum-grower;
it is small in size and unattractive in color; the quality, however, is
very good and the variety is worth planting for home use. Newark
originated in Newark, New York, and in 1895 was bought by E. Smith
& Sons of Geneva, New York, who disseminated it two years later.
NEWMAN
NEWMAN
Prunus munsoniana
Newman is one of the oldest but still one of the standard varieties
of its species. Its fruits are characterized by a firm, meaty flesh,
which fits it well for shipping and storing; the plums are also
attractive in shape and color but are too small and too low in quality
to make the variety a first-rate one. The trees are large and vigorous
and in all respects very satisfactory orchard plants. Both fruits and
trees are usually reported as fairly free from diseases and insects.
While the variety is gradually going out it still has some value for its
crops and ought to make a good parent from which to breed a race
of vigorous, firm-fleshed Munsonianas.
The origin of this plum is uncertain. In 1867 a Mr. Elliott of
Cleveland, Ohio, reported in the Horticulturist that he had received
samples of the “Newman Plum” from D. L. Adair, Esq., of Hawesville,
Kentucky, and gave a brief description of the fruit which seems to
tally with that of the variety under discussion. The American
Pomological Society added this plum to its fruit catalog list in 1875
and removed it in 1891.
NEW ULM
NEW ULM
Prunus americana
1. Minn. Hort. Soc. Rpt. 126. 1890. 2. Wis. Sta. Bul. 63:49 fig., 50. 1897.
3. Ia. Hort. Soc. Rpt. 111. 1899. 4. Am. Pom. Soc. Cat. 37. 1899. 5. Ia.
Sta. Bul. 46:282 fig. 1900. 6. Waugh Plum Cult. 158. 1901. 7. Ont. Fr. Gr.
Assoc. 143. 1901. 8. S. Dak. Sta. Bul. 93:26. 1905. 9. Ill. Hort. Soc. Rpt.
422. 1905. 10. Ia. Sta. Bul. 114:141. 1910.
Snooks 10.
Tree of medium size, spreading and drooping, irregular, low and dense-
topped, undesirable in habit of growth, hardy, usually productive, subject
to attacks of shot-hole fungus; branches very rough and shaggy, zigzag,
thorny, dark ash-gray, with large lenticels; branchlets thick, long, willowy,
with long internodes, green, with a faint yellow tinge, changing to light and
dark, dull reddish-brown, glabrous, with numerous, conspicuous, large,
raised lenticels; leaf-buds small, pointed, strongly appressed.
Leaves drooping, folded upward, oval or ovate, two inches wide, four
and three-eighths inches long, thin; upper surface dark green, changing to
reddish-yellow late in the season, glabrous, with a grooved midrib; lower
surface silvery green, lightly pubescent; apex taper-pointed, base abrupt,
margin coarsely and doubly serrate, eglandular; petiole slender, five-
eighths inch long, pubescent, tinged with red which deepens in color at the
base, glandless or with from one to three globose, greenish-brown glands
usually on the stalk.
Flowers intermediate in time and length of blooming season, appearing
after the leaves, showy on account of the numerous pure white petals, one
and one-sixteenth inches across, white; borne in dense clusters on lateral
spurs and buds, usually in threes; pedicels seven-sixteenths inch long,
thick, glabrous, greenish; calyx-tube red, campanulate, glabrous; calyx-
lobes long, narrowly obtuse, lightly pubescent on the inner surface, thickly
pubescent along the glandular-serrate margin, erect; petals oval, entire or
incised, tapering below to narrow claws of medium length and with reddish
base; anthers yellow; filaments seven-sixteenths inch in length; pistil
glabrous, much shorter than the stamens.
Fruit mid-season, intermediate in length of ripening period; about one
and three-eighths inches in diameter, roundish-ovate, halves equal; cavity
markedly shallow, very narrow; suture a line; apex roundish or slightly
pointed; color carmine over a yellow ground, overspread with thin bloom;
dots very numerous, russet; stem five-eighths inch long, glabrous,
adhering somewhat to the fruit; skin thick and tough, astringent, adhering
strongly; flesh golden-yellow, very juicy and fibrous, granular, tender and
melting, sweet with a strong aromatic flavor; good; stone adhering, seven-
eighths inch by nine-sixteenths inch in size, oval, slightly flattened, blunt at
the base, pointed at the apex, with smooth surfaces; ventral suture
distinctly winged; dorsal suture narrow, shallow, grooved.
NICHOLAS
Prunus domestica
1. Am. Pom. Soc. Rpt. 61. 1887. 2. Kan. Sta. Bul. 101:121, 124 fig.
1901. 3. Budd-Hansen Am. Hort. Man. 327. 1903.
Arab No. 2 Bielaya Nicholskaya 1. White Nicolas 1. White Nicholas 2, 3.
OCCIDENT
Prunus triflora
OCHEEDA
Prunus americana
1. Cornell Sta. Bul. 38:41. 1892. 2. Wis. Sta. An. Rpt. 11:344. 1894. 3.
Ia. Hort. Soc. Rpt. 34:112. 1899. 4. Am. Pom. Soc. Cat. 37. 1899. 5.
Waugh Plum Cult. 159. 1901. 6. Can. Exp. Farm Bul. 43:31. 1903. 7. Ill.
Hort. Soc. Rpt. 420. 1905. 8. S. Dak. Sta. Bul. 93:28. 1905.
Ocheda 7.
This variety is generally regarded as one of the valuable native
plums but in New York it is surpassed by a number of other plums of
its species in size of fruit and color though the quality is very good.
We must rank it in this State as second rate among Americanas.
Ocheeda was found by P. L. Hardow in 1872 growing wild on the
banks of Ocheeda Lake, Minnesota, and in 1892 was introduced by
H. J. Ludlow of Worthington, Minnesota.
OCTOBER
Prunus triflora
1. Cornell Sta. Bul. 106:58. 1896. 2. Cal. State Bd. Hort. 52. 1897-98. 3.
Am. Gard. 20:162 fig. 1899. 4. Rural N. Y. 59:104, 690. 1900. 5. Am.
Gard. 21:36, 660. 1900. 6. Nat. Nur. 8:109, 123. 1900. 7. Waugh Plum
Cult. 139. 1901. 8. Rural N. Y. 62:756. 1903. 9. Ohio Sta. Bul. 162:250
fig., 256, 257. 1905. 10. Mass. Sta. An. Rp. 17:160. 1905.
October Purple 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 8, 9, 10. October Purple 7.
There are but few late plums in Prunus triflora worth cultivating
and one of the needs of horticulture is a late plum of superior quality
in this species. At present October is the nearest approach to the
plum desired but because of several faults it falls considerably short
of filling the need. The fruits are large, attractive-looking, fairly
suitable for dessert, very good for culinary purposes, hang well to the
tree and keep and ship much better than the average Triflora variety;
but still they are not far enough from mediocrity to make the variety
especially desirable. The trees are well shaped, usually robust and
healthy and the fruit is well borne on lateral spurs distributed over the
old wood; but in New York, at least, the trees are very tardy in
coming in bearing and cannot be depended upon to bear satisfactory
crops regularly—a fatal fault in a Triflora plum. October might be
sparingly planted in New York to the pleasure of the amateur and
possibly to the profit of the commercial fruit-grower who has a good
local market.
October is said to be a cross of Satsuma and a seedling Triflora
plum; it was first fruited by Luther Burbank in 1892 and was
introduced by Stephen Hoyt’s Sons, New Canaan, Connecticut, in
1897. The variety was named October Purple by Burbank but
“Purple” has been dropped in accordance with the rules of the
American Pomological Society.
OGON
Prunus triflora
1. Ga. Hort. Soc. Rpt. 29. 1886. 2. Ibid. 35, 58. 1888. 3. Ibid. 53, 99.
1889. 4. Col., O., Hort. Soc. Rpt. 81. 1892. 5. Cornell Sta. Bul. 62:27, 28
fig. 1894. 6. Ga. Hort. Soc. Rpt. 95. 1895. 7. Cornell Sta. Bul. 106:59.
1896. 8. Ibid. 131:194. 1897. 9. Ibid. 139:45. 1897. 10. Am. Pom. Soc.
Cat. 26. 1897. 11. Rural N. Y. 57:562. 1898. 12. Colo. Sta. Bul. 50:43.
1898. 13. Mich. Sta. Bul. 169:242, 249. 1899. 14. Cornell Sta. Bul.
175:138 fig. 1899. 15. Ohio Sta. Bul. 113:157. 1899. 16. Waugh Plum Cult.
139. 1901. 17. Ga. Sta. Bul. 68:6 32. 1905. 18. Miss. Sta. Bul. 93:15.
1905.
Ogan 5. Ogden 1. Ogon 5. Shiro Smomo 6. Yellow Nagate 2.
Ogon, the Japanese for gold, is the name for one of the
comparatively few varieties of Prunus triflora having a yellow color.
This variety is further distinguished by being the only freestone sort
of its species under cultivation in America. Ogon also has a flavor
quite distinct, resembling somewhat that of the apricot, which is
agreeable to some and not so to others; as the variety grows on the
grounds of this Station it cannot be considered of high quality even
for an early plum. The fruits crack rather badly on the tree and seem
to be unusually susceptible to the attacks of curculio. In some of the
references given, it is reported as making a poor tree and as having
a weak constitution, and practically all agree that the variety is
unproductive. These faults preclude its use in commercial
plantations. The variety is distinct and interesting not only in its fruits
but in its flowers which bear comparatively few stamens, many of
which are abortive and show all degrees between perfect stamens
and perfect petals.
Ogon was imported from Japan by H. H. Berger and Company,
San Francisco, California. It was first mentioned as the Ogden in the
Georgia Horticultural Society Report for 1886 and in the 1888 report
of the same Society it was described as a new fruit. In 1897, the
American Pomological Society added Ogon to its fruit catalog list.
ORANGE
Prunus domestica
1. Lond. Hort. Soc. Cat. 150. 1831. 2. Downing Fr. Trees Am. 282.
1845. 3. Cole Am. Fr. Book 214. 1849. 4. Mas Le Verger 6:25. 1866-73. 5.
Mathieu Nom. Pom. 442. 1889. 6. Budd-Hansen Am. Hort. Man. 320.
1903.
Orange 5. Orange Gage 2, 5, 6. Pomeranzen Zwetsche 5. Wager 5, 6.
OREN