SET Pharmacology Nursing Latest Update Exam 2022-2023 Questions

& Answer

1. During the implementation phase of the nursing process for medication

administration, which procedure is considered essential?

a. Monitor the patient's response to the drug therapy

b. Following the five rights of medication administration

c. Establishing measurable and realistic outcomes

d. Use NANDA nursing diagnoses to plan care delivery

2. The nurse would recognize which of these as the five rights of medication
administration?

a. Right patient, right teaching, right form of drug, right transcription, right response

b. Right room, right time, right storage, right chart, right signature

c. Right drug, right time, right patient, right dose, right route

d. Right drawer, right documentation, right dosage calculation, right drug preparation,
right pharmacy

3. The nurse is reviewing a prescription for a medication that a patient is to receive,

which component is recognized as being required as a part of the prescription?

a. The prescriber signature

b. The patient's diagnosis

c. The patient's age

d. The patient's weight

4. How would the nurse best describe the half-life of a drug?

a. It is the time it takes for one half of the original available drug to be removed.
b. It is the time it takes for the drug to reach half way to the peak level.

c. It is the time it would take for a 50 mg tablet to be at 25 mgs remaining.

d. It is the time it takes for the drug to be eliminated and non-effective.

5. The nurse is preparing for an acute medication intervention, which route is

understood to provide the most rapid delivery in to the circulation of blood?

A. The parenteral route.

B. The topical route.

C. The enteral route.

D. Oral liquids.

6. The nurse is describing the generic name of a drug to a patient. Which statement
best represents the meaning of the generic name? Select one:

A. This is the proprietary name of the drug given by the manufacturer that is
trademarked.

B. This is the common name by which most everyone refers to the drug.

C. This is the name given to the drug based on the chemical structure.

D. This is a non-proprietary name given by the United States Adopted Name Council.

7. Which feature of a pediatric patient would the nurse recognize as most affecting the
distribution of a fat soluble drug? Select one:

A. The slower gastric emptying.

B. The lower serum protein levels.

C. The gastric acid level.

D. The total body water (TBW).

8. Which factor is most involved in the elderly as a reason for polypharmacy? Select
one:

A. Decreased gastric acid levels.

B. Reduced cardiovascular functioning.

C. Greater incidence of chronic illness.

D. Reduced OTC availability.

9. The nurse is discussing gene therapy in a continuing education class. Which is the
best definition of eugenics?

a. Developing new drugs based on gene therapy.

b. Using gene therapy to prevent disease.

c. Intentional selection, before birth, of genotypes that are considered more desirable
than others.

d. The determination of genetic factors that influence a person's response to

medications.

10. Which is the most important compound that transfers genes from parents to
offspring?

a. RNA.

b. DNA.

c. Chromatin.

d. Alleles.

11. In order to prevent medication errors, which recommendation will help in prevention
of confusing doses?

a. Question every medication prescription.

b. Ask another nurse to read written orders

c. Ask the physician for verbal orders.

d. Avoid medical shorthand and abbreviations.

12. The student nurse is preparing medications for administration. Which factor would
most likely contribute to making a mistake? Select one:

a. Preparing the medication in a quiet area, with drug reference materials.

b. The careful review of the medication order by a pharmacist, prior to dispensing.

c. An anxious nurse asking to get to the medication cart for her medications.

d. An instructor asking questions, and allowing time to think or look up responses.

13. The nurse is planning the education for a patient going home on medications. Which
outcome criteria best represents a comprehensive outcome?

a. The patient will demonstrate the proper administration of medications prior to

discharge.

b. The patient will no longer have symptoms of their current disease.

c. The patient will take all medications as prescribed and not be readmitted to the
hospital.

d. The patient will report any adverse reactions to their primary care provider.

14. Which assessment data would the nurse consider essential prior to beginning an
education session with their patient?

a. The patient's need to know the information.

b. The patient's home status, and safety.

c. The patient's organization ability.

d. The patient's readiness to learn, and timing.

15. The nurse is discussing the use of over-the-counter (OTC) medications with a
patient. Which statement by the nurse best indicates a reason for discussing what the
patient is taking with a health care provider?

a. "When OTC medications are taken there will be ongoing disease processes."

b. "All OTC medications can eliminate a disease, and should be used first."

c. "OTC medications can interact with the prescribed medications."

d. "The OTC medications are not safe enough to just take them."

16. When discussing herbal products with a patient it is important for the nurse to
include which information with them?

a. These products are safe because they are all natural.

b. None of these products have been found to ever be unsafe.

c. These products are not required to prove efficacy or safety.

d. These products provide no additional positive effects and should be avoided.

17. A patient with renal insufficiency is being changed from morphine sulfate to
hydromorphone (Dilaudid) opiod analgesics for pain control. What is essential for the
nurse to recognize as the patient changes medications?

a. The dose of the new medication should be increased for the same effect.

b. The new medication is significantly more potent and requires a reduced dose.

c. These drugs are extremely similar and only the frequency will be increased.

d. Renal impairment will increase toxic metabolites with the new drug.

18. A patient is taking an opiod analgesic for acute pain rated 9/10 after abdominal
surgery. Which adverse effect would the nurse need to respond to most rapidly?

a. Patient complaint of constipation.

b. Increased urination to 60 mL per hour.

c. Heart rate elevation to 90 beats per minute.

d. Respiratory rate reduced to 8 breaths per minute.

19. A patient is being given a medication for analgesia. Which effect does the nurse
recognize as the therapeutic effect?

a. Reduced fever.

b. Reduced pain.

c. Reduced GI upset.

d. Reduced sleep.

20. A patient is being started on a buld-forming laxative for constipation. What is the
best teaching by the nurse for this patient?

a. Be close to a restroom immediately after taking this medication.

b. Reduce fluid intake after mixing this medication in milk only.

c. Take with a full cup of water and increase daily fluid intake.

d. Notify the physician immediately if bowel movements are not daily.

21. A patient with severe diarrhea has been taking diphenoxylate with atropine (Lomotil)
a synthetic opiate agonist, with subtherapeutic anticholinergic. The nurse would
recognize which signs indicating that too much is being taken?

a. Increased bleeding, visual field obstruction, and hearing loss.

b. Weight loss, heat intolerance, abdominial distention, and tearing.

c. Slurred speech, bradycardia, and increased diarrhea.

d. Dry mouth, abdominal pain, tachycardia, and blurred vision.

22. A patient is being started on an antihistmine (Benadryl) for nausea. What is most
important for the nurse to include in the discharge education?
a. You may develop pink tinged urine.

b. Be sure to take the medication as often as you feel symptoms.

c. You may need to urinate more often.

d. You should avoid driving, or using heavy equipment.

23. A patient is on post-operative serotonin blocker (Ondansetron) for relief of nause

and vomitting. Which assessment is the priority during it's use?

a. Neurologic status especially pupilary reaction time.

b. Temperature, protein intake, and blood glucose.

c. Serum liver function, and blood pressure.

d. Intake and output with serum electrolytes.

24. The nurse is preparing to apply silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene) a topical antiinfective,
for a patient with 2nd and 3rd degree burns. Which nursing action would be best to
apply the cream to the burn surfaces? Select one:

a. Use a sterile-gloved hand to spread over the entire effected skin surface.

b. Use cotton-tipped applicator, and tongue blade to provide even distribution.

c. Prepare surgical suite for any exposure of the burned skin. d. Use gloved hand with
multipuprose gloves, and apply to skin at the rim of the burn.

25. A patient is on a topical antifungal miconazole (Monistat) for a vaginal yeast

infection. The patient explains that they may be pregnant, what is the best response by
the nurse?

a. Tell them to not take the medication it will damage the baby.

b. Notify the prescriber, and assist with obtaining a urine sample.

c. Obtain blood for fungus, and pregnancy tests.

d. Explain that the risks are minimal and that they should take the medication
26. A school-aged child has been diagnosed with head lice, and is to receive lindane
(Kwell) a chlorinated hydrocarbon shampoo. The nurse is preparing to shampoo the
child's hair, what is the priority during the procedure?

a. Keep all other persons away from the child in case the lice jump.

b. Apply the topical cream immediately after the shampoo is rinsed out for greatest
effectiveness.

c. Use a shower only to clean the child so that the entire body can be rinsed of the lice.

d. Leave the product on the hair four minutes or as directed by the package, before
rinsing.

27. During which phase of drug approval is a large population used and may include
two groups, where one group receives medication and the other group does not? Select
one:

a. Phase I.

b. Phase III.

c. Phase IV.

d. Phase II.

28. A pregnant woman is prescribed a medication, while teaching the patient, the nurse
explains that which pregnancy category drug would be the safest? Select one:

A. "B"

B. "D"

C. "X"

D. "A"

29. A 5-year-old boy needs an IM injection. The least painful and most effective injection
site would be the
A .rectus femoris muscle.

B. ventrogluteal muscle.

C. dorsogluteal muscle.

D. deltoid muscle

30. A nurse is administering drugs to a 10-year-old child who has multiple health
problems. The child is underweight and is on a special diet. Which of the following will
the nurse consider when planning for the best absorption of the prescribed drugs?
(Select all that apply.)

I. Disease process

II. Age

III. Weight

IV. Route of administration

V. Diet

a. II & IV

b. I, II & III

c. I, III, IV & V

d. All of the above

31. A nurse is providing patient education to a 13-year-old girl who was just diagnosed
with type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following statements by the patient will alert
the nurse that special instructions regarding insulin are necessary?

A. “We live in a two-story house.”

B. “My mother is going to give me my insulin.”

C. “I am on the middle school track team.”

D. “I walk two blocks to school every day.”

32. A 30-year-old man with a BMI of 59 has recently been diagnosed with type 2
diabetes mellitus. In light of the man’s lack of success with weight loss programs in the
past, his care provider has prescribed sibutramine (Meridia). What instructions should
the nurse consequently provide to this patient?

A. “Take this drug once each day on an empty stomach.”

B. “It’s best to take a dose of sibutramine after each meal.”

C. “This drug will help you to lose weight without having to exercise or change your
normal diet.”

D. “Take a dose when you feel like you are tempted to binge on food.”

33. A 6-month-old child has developed skin irritation due to an allergic reaction. He has
been prescribed a topical skin ointment. The nurse will consider which of the following
before administering the drug?

A. That there is less body surface area to be concerned about

B. That there is a lower concentration of water in an infant’s body compared with an

adult

C. That the infant’s skin has greater permeability than that of an adult

D. That there is decreased absorption rates of topical drugs in infants

34. A 7-year-old child has been taking tetracycline for a bacterial infection. The nurse
will be sure to inform the parents that this drug could cause

A. deep muscle pain.

B. sleep deprivation.

C. orange-tinged urine.

D. staining of permanent teeth.

35. A 16-year-old boy is prescribed cromolyn sodium nasal spray to treat a nasal
allergy. To maximize the therapeutic effects of the drug, which of the following will the
nurse include in instructions to the patient?
A. Drink plenty of fluids.

B. Take the drug for one full week before coming in contact with allergens

C. Avoid high noise levels

D. Take the drug on a full stomach

36. A 29-year-old woman who is morbidly obese has recently begun a comprehensive,
medically-supervised program of weight reduction. Prior to adding dextroamphetamine
(Dexedrine) to her regimen, the patient should be questioned about her intake of

A. grapefruit juice.

B. trans fat.

C. alcohol.

D. caffeine.

37. A patient is being seen in the emergency department for a sprained ankle and is
given a drug to relieve pain. When a second dose of the pain medication is given, the
patient develops redness of the skin, itching, and swelling at the site of injection of the
drug. The most likely cause of this response is

A. a paradoxical response.

B. an allergic response.

C. a hepatotoxic response.

D. an idiosyncratic response.

38. A nurse who provides care on a pediatric unit of a hospital is aware that the
potential for harm as a result of drug errors is higher among infants and children than
adults. This fact is primarily due to

A. increased heart rate and subsequently rapid drug distribution among infants and
children.

B. the inability of infants and children and describe symptoms of adverse drug reactions.
C. increased body surface area relative to body volume in infants and children.

D. immature liver and kidney function in infants and children.

39. A nurse practitioner orders a single dose of 2 g Metronidazole orally. How many
milligrams will the patient receive in one dose?

A. 2000 mg

B. 4000 mg

C. 3000 mg

D. 1000 mg

40. A patient asks the nurse practitioner about food sources such as soybeans and soy
products. The nurse practitioner understands that these foods are considered

A. taboo.

B. source of Protein.

C. monotherapy.

D. inappropriate.

41. Pharmacodynamics is:

a. What the body systems do to the the drug

b. What the drug does to the body

c. How drugs are produced

d. How drugs undergo tests on animals before being administers to humanbeings

42. 1. The following are functions of the Drugs and Therapeutics Committee
(DTC) EXCEPT:

a. Developing treatment guidelines

b. Developing drug policies

c. Developing drugs

d. Monitoring adverse drug reactions

43. 2. Drug dependence means?

a. One abstains from abuse of drugs

b. One consistently abuses drugs

c. One cannot do without the influence drugs

d. One consistently prescribes drugs

44. The anti-emetic drugs are useful medications which are commonly used in all of the
following conditions except.......

a. Nausea and vomiting

b. Allergic conditions

c. Liver disease

d. During treatment with cyto toxic drugs

45. One of the following conditions is a contraindication for lignocaine.

a. Hyperventricular tarchycardia

b. Ventricular arrythmias

c. Heart block

d. Ventricular systole

46. Proteins are found to have two different types of secondary structures viz. α-helix
and β-pleated sheet structures. α-helix structure of a protein is stabilised by:

a. Hydrogen bonds
b. van der Waals forces

c. Peptide bonds

d. Dipole-dipole interactions

47. Which of the following is polysaccharide?

a. Glucose, Fructose

b. Sucrose, maltose

c. Amylose

d. Cellulose, starch

48. How Many ATPs are Produced In the Krebs Cycle?

a. 5 ATPs are produced in one Krebs Cycle.

b. 2 ATPs are produced in one Krebs Cycle

c. 1 single ATP is produced in one Krebs Cycle

d. more than 10 ATPs are produced in one Krebs Cycle

49. Distribution of an absorbed drug within the body depends on what?

I. Blood flow

II. Solubility

III. Protein binding

a. I

b. I & II

c. II & III

d. All of the above

50. What are NSAIDS?

a. Anti-inflammatory painkillers that work by reducing prostaglandin levels

b. drugs used to treat allergic reactions

c. drugs used to treat severe nausea and vomiting

d. Painkiller that also has an anti-pyretic effect