This test is a part of Rau’s IAS Test series for Preliminary Exam 202 4

Test ID
GENERAL STUDIES (PAPER–I)
0006
CURRENT AFFAIRS

CA: FEBRUARY 2023

Time Allowed: 1 Hour Maximum Marks: 100

INSTRUCTIONS

1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK

THAT THIS TEST BBOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN or MISSING PAGES
OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.

2. This Test Booklet contains 50 items (questions). Each item is printed in English Only. Each item
comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the
Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response
which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.

3. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet (OMR sheet) provided.
Read the directions in the Answer Sheet.

4. All items carry equal marks.

5. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test booklet,
you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions contained therein.

6. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has
concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to
take away with you the Test Booklet.

7. Penalty for wrong answers:

THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE
OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.

(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a
wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that
question will be deducted as penalty.

(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of
the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that
question.

(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for
that question.

This test is a part of Rau’s IAS Test series for Preliminary Exam 202 4
1. With reference to Subhash Chandra Bose, 4. She was the first queen to fight against the
consider the following statements: British colonial power in India. In
1. The newspaper ‘Swaraj’ was started by collaboration with Hyder Ali and Gopala
Subhash Chandra Bose. Nayaker, she waged a war against the
2. Jawaharlal Nehru constituted a British and emerged victorious. She went
National Planning Committee under the on to produce the first human bomb, as
chairmanship of Subhash Chandra well as establish the first army of trained
Bose. women soldiers in the late 1700s. She was
Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) Bhima Bai Holkar
correct?
(b) Rani Velu Nachiyar
(a) 1 only
(c) Rukmini Lakshmipathi
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Kittur Chennamma

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

5. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly
2. With reference to the Indian National Army matched?
(INA), which of the following statements are S.N. Dance/Martial Art Region
correct?
1. Khukuri Manipur
1. It was formed with the Indians in the
South-east Asian countries. 2. Thang-ta Sikkim
2. Rash Behari Bose was entrusted with 3. Kalaripayattu Kerala
the responsibility of raising the Army.
Select the correct answer using the code
3. Colonel Shah Nawaz, Major G.S. Dhillon
given below:
and Captain Prem Sehgal were the
leaders of the INA. (a) 1 and 2 only
Select the correct answer using the code (b) 3 only
given below: (c) 1 and 3 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
6. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly
(d) 1, 2 and 3
matched?
S.N. Petroglyphs Site Region
3. With reference to Purana Qila, consider the
following statements: 1. Kupgal Karnataka
1. Purana Qila is made up of grey 2. Sindhudurg Tamil Nadu
sandstone.
3. Unakoti Maharashtra
2. It was built by the Mughal emperor
Humayun, as a part of his new city of Select the correct answer using the code
Din Panah. given below:
Which of the statements given above is/are (a) 1 only
correct?
(b) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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7. Which of the following statements is / are 10. Which of the following statements is/are
correct regarding Millets? correct?
1. They are generally grown in the tropical 1. High concentration of Ozone is found in
and the sub-tropical climates, and have the layer of the atmosphere between 10-
wide adaptability to different types of 50 km altitude.
soil.
2. Ozone depletion is directly related to the
2. They can withstand high temperature
formation of the Polar Vortex.
and long periods of droughts.
Select the correct answer using the code
Select the correct answer using the code
given below: given below:
(a) 1 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

8. Which of the following statements is/are 11. Consider the following statements
correct regarding the Deepwater regarding the Indian Skimmers:
Circulations?
1. They are classified as ‘Critically
1. Temperature and density difference are
Endangered’ by the IUCN.
the main factors which drive these
circulations. 2. They are more widespread in the winter
2. In the Northern Hemisphere, the season.
primary region of deepwater formation 3. Coastal estuaries and wetlands are their
is the Central Atlantic. favourable habitats.
Select the correct answer using the code Which of the statements given above is/are
given below: incorrect?
(a) 1 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (b) 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) 1 and 2 only

9. Which of the following statements are

correct regarding the ‘Asian Elephants’? 12. Which of the following statements are
correct regarding the Deepor Beel?
1. Their society is organized into well-
defined, matrilineal communities. 1. It is a brackish water lake in Assam.
2. The IUCN classified them as 2. It is famous for the species, like the
‘Vulnerable’ species. Spot-Billed Pelican and the Baer's
3. They are categorized as the ‘Umbrella Pochard.
Species’, as well as the ‘Keystone 3. It is a Ramsar Site.
Species.’
Select the correct answer using the code
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

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13. Consider the following statements: Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
1. The Ganges River Dolphin is an
umbrella species of the Ganga and (a) 1 only
Brahmaputra river system. (b) 2 only
2. The species is listed under the (c) Both 1 and 2
‘Endangered’ category of the
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
International Union for the
Conservation of Nature.
16. Consider the following statements:
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? 1. The evolution of the Basic Structure
Doctrine has ensured Parliamentary
(a) 1 only
Supremacy over Constitutional
(b) 2 only Supremacy.

(c) Both 1 and 2 2. The Basic Structure Doctrine has

ensured permeation of
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 constitutionalism, which envisages the
idea of limited government.

14. Which of the following statements is/are Which of the statements given above is/are
correct regarding the Noble’s Helen? correct?
(a) 1 only
1. It is a type of butterfly species having
additional white spot in the dorsum of (b) 2 only
the forewing. (c) Both 1 and 2
2. Recently, it has been found in the (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Namdapha National Park.

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Select the correct answer using the code
17. Which of the following constitutional or

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given below: legal principles ensure judicial
(a) 1 only independence? L
(b) 2 only 1. Separation of power.
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(c) Both 1 and 2 2. Security of the tenure of the judges.

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3. The Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.

(d) Neither 1 nor 2
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4. The expenses of the Supreme Court

charged upon the Consolidated Fund of
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15. Which of the following statements is/are India.

correct regarding the National Green
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5. The CJI as the Master of the Roster.

Hydrogen Mission?
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Select the correct answer using the code

1. It aims to develop the Green Hydrogen given below:
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production capacity of at least 5 MMT

(a) 2, 3 and 5 only
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(Million Metric Tonne) per annum by

(b) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
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2025.
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
2. The SIGHT Programme is a sub-
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component under the Mission. (d) 3, 4 and 5 only

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18. In the light of the recent Supreme Court 20. With reference to the Speaker and the
judgments, consider the following Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha, consider
statements about Article 19 of the Indian the following statements:
Constitution: 1. A motion for an adjournment of the
1. “Additional restrictions” on the right to business of the House for the purpose
freedom of speech of the Ministers can of discussing a definite matter of urgent
be imposed, other than those provided public importance may be made with
the consent of the Speaker.
under Article 19.
2. The election of the Deputy Speaker shall
2. A Fundamental Right under Article 19
be held on such date as the President
or 21 can be enforced even against
may fix, and the Speaker shall send to
persons other than the state or its every member notice of the date of such
instrumentalities. election.
3. The Ministers, including the 3. The Speaker can decide if a question is
MPs/MLAs, enjoy lesser freedom of to be treated as starred or un-starred, if
speech, as compared to other citizens, in the opinion of the Speaker any
under Article 19(1)(a) of the Indian question put down for oral answer is of
Constitution. such a nature that demands written
Which of the statements given above is/are reply.
correct? Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) 2 only correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3 only

19. Consider the following statements:

21. With reference to the conduct of Census in
1. According to the Constitution of India, India, consider the following statements:
both the President and the Governor 1. The Government conducts Census

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enjoy equal powers with respect to the under the Census Act, 1948, in three

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Special Address at the commencement phases of House-listing, Housing
of the first session after each general Census and Population Enumeration,
election and at the commencement of one followed by the other.
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the first session of each year. 2. Separate enumeration takes place
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2. According to the Rules of Procedure and during the Census for the castes and
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Conduct of Business in the Lok Sabha, the tribes, which are specifically notified
the Special Address of the President is as the Scheduled Castes, the Scheduled
Tribes and Other Backward Class.
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followed up with the Motion of Thanks,

prepared and presented independently 3. Responsibility of conducting decennial
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by the President, highlighting the Census rests with the Office of Registrar
government’s successes and failures as General and Census Commissioner,
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a part of policy evaluation. under the Ministry of Statistics and

Programme Implementation.
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Which of the statements given above is/are

Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
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correct?
(a) 1 only
A

(a) 2 only
(b) 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
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(c) Both 1 and 2

(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
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(d) None of the above

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22. Consider the following pairs: 24. With reference to the “Right to Freedom of
S.N. Terms of the Provision Religion”, guaranteed under Part III of the
Constitution Indian Constitution, consider the following
1. Remission It affects both the statements:
punishment 1. No religious instruction shall be
prescribed for the provided in any educational institution
offence and the wholly maintained out of the State
guilt of the offender, funds.
and may completely
2. Subject to public order, morality and
erase the guilt.
health, every religious denomination or
2. Commutation Temporary any section thereof shall have the right
suspension of the
to establish and maintain institutions
punishment
for religious and charitable purposes.
awarded by a court
of law. Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
3. Pardon Changing the
punishment from (a) 1 only
one category to (b) 2 only
another, such as (c) Both 1 and 2
changing of the
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
death sentence to
life imprisonment.
25. With reference to the National Commission
How many pairs given above is/are
for Minorities, consider the following
correctly matched?
statements:
(a) Only one pair
1. The National and State Minorities
(b) Only two pairs
Commissions were constituted by the
(c) All three pairs
Centre through an executive order of
(d) None of the pairs
the Ministry of Home Affairs.
2. The Chairperson and the Vice-
23. Which of the following constitutional or

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legal provisions protect and safeguard the Chairperson of the Commission are
appointed by the President, based on

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land rights of the Scheduled Tribes and
address their land acquisition or the recommendations of the Union
displacement issues and problems? Government.
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1. The Fifth Schedule to the Indian 3. The Chairperson and every Member of
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Constitution. the Commission shall hold the office for

2. The Scheduled Tribes and Other a term of three years from the date they
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Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition assume the office.

of Forest Rights) Act, 2006. 4. The Comptroller and Auditor General is
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3. The Right to Fair Compensation and prohibited under the rules of the
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Transparency in Land Acquisition, Ministry of Home Affairs to audit the

Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act,
accounts of the National Commission
2013.
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for Minorities.
4. The Panchayats (Extension to
Which of the statements given above is/are
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Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996.

Select the correct answer using the code correct?
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given below: (a) 1, 2 and 4 only

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(a) 2, 3 and 4 only (b) 2 and 3 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only
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(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only

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(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
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45. Consider the following statements about 48. Consider the following statements about
the Clearing Corporation of India Ltd. the Government Securities:
(CCIL): 1. All Dated Government Securities are
1. The Clearing Corporation of India Ltd. issued having a fixed coupon rate.
provides an institutional infrastructure 2. The auctions of the Government
for the clearing and settlement of Securities are done on the e-Kuber
transactions in Government Securities platform of the RBI.
only. 3. Both primary and secondary issues of
2. It is regulated by the SEBI. the Government Securities are
conducted by yield-based auctions.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(a) 2 only
(b) 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3

46. Consider the following statements about

49. Consider the following statements about
the Fully Accessible Route (FAR):
1. This mechanism is provided by the RBI
which enables the non-resident Indians
to invest in both short-term and long-
term securities of the Government of
India.
2. There will be no investment ceilings on
the securities eligible for investment
under the Fully Accessible Route.
Which of the statements given above is/are
the Gig Workers:
1. The Code on Social Security provides for
mandatory registration of all the gig
workers.
2. The Code on Social Security provides
that the Central Government will
establish a Social Security Fund for the
gig workers.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?

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correct? (a) 1 only

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(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 L
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
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(d) Neither 1 nor 2

50. Consider the following statements about
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47. Consider the following statements about the Sovereign Green Bonds (SGBs):
the Additional Tier 1 (AT 1) Bonds: 1. The SGBs will be eligible for Repurchase
L

Transactions (Repo).
1. They are unsecured bonds having
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perpetual tenor. 2. The interest accrued on the SGBs will

be paid on a half-yearly basis.
2. They are issued by the RBI.
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3. There is no cap on foreign investments

Which of the statements given above is/are
in the Sovereign Green Bonds.
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correct?
Which of the statements given above are
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(a) 1 only
correct?
(b) 2 only
A

(a) 1 and 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 only
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(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) 1 and 3 only

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(d) 1, 2 and 3
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Answers &
Explanations
of

TEST ID: 0006

GENERAL STUDIES (PAPER–I)

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ANSWERS & EXPLANATIONS OF
CA: February 2023
GS Paper-I: (0006)
1. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
 Subhash Chandra Bose was one of the
most celebrated freedom fighters and
charismatic influencers of the youth of
India.
 In 1921, Bose worked under
Chittaranjan Das, a powerful politician
in Bengal. He worked as the editor for
Das’s newspaper, forward, and later
started his newspaper, Swaraj.
 He joined the Indian National Congress
in 1927 and supported the idea of
complete independence (Purna Swaraj).
With his support, Jawaharlal Nehru
passed the resolution of Purna Swaraj
in 1929.
 He was elected as the Congress
President in 1938, when the annual
session was convened at Haripur in
Bengal.
 In 1938, the President of the Indian
National Congress, Subhash Chandra
Bose, constituted a National Planning
Committee under the chairmanship
of Jawaharlal Nehru.
 He set up the Committee to ensure
equal distribution of wealth among the
diverse sections.
 He resigned in 1939 due to differences
with Mahatma Gandhi and set up the
All India Forward Bloc.
 released, thus making it a clear victory
In 1942, he earned the title ‘Netaji’, in
Germany from the Indian soldiers of the
Azad Hind Fauj.
 He is also accredited to be the first man
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to call Mahatma Gandhi “Father of the
Nation”, in his address from Singapore.
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2. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
 When Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose
was in Germany, Rash Behari Bose was
busy organizing the Indian
Independence League in Japan. For this
purpose, he convened two conferences
in 1942: one in Tokyo and the second in
Bangkok. The revolutionaries, who had
assembled in the conferences, wanted
to form an Indian National Army (INA)
(Azad Hind Fauj) for the liberation of
India from the British rule.
 The Army was formed with the Indians
in the South-east Asian countries and
the Indian soldiers of the British Army
captured by the Japanese. Captain
Mohan Singh was entrusted with the
responsibility of raising the Army and
Rash Behari Bose was made the
President of the Council of Action.
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 After this, Rash Behari invited Subhash
Bose to accept the leadership of the INA
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in 1943. After taking over the command
of the INA, he gave his famous battle
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slogan, “Delhi Chalo” (on to Delhi).
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 The INA soldiers were tried at the Red
Fort, for various charges, like treason,
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atrocities, abetment to murder and
murder. For this, these trials were also
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called the Red Fort Trials. Influential
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INA leaders, like Colonel Shah Nawaz,
Major G.S. Dhillon and Captain Prem
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Sehgal were initially convicted, but later
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for them.
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3. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
 Purana Qila is one of the attractions of
the G20 meeting and its visitors.
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 Humayun started building the Purana
Qila in 1533 CE, as a part of his new
fortified city, named Din Panah, or the
“Sanctuary of Faith”. By 1534 CE, the
walls, bastions, ramparts and gates of
the citadel were almost complete.
 Sher Shah renamed Din Panah Sher
Garh and built various important
structures within it.
 It has three majestic gateways: Bada
Darwaza (The large arch); Humayun
Darwaza; and Talaqi Darwaza, and
made up of red sandstone.
4. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
 Rani Velu Nachiyar was known for her
fierce resistance against colonialism.
She also worked for the welfare of the
society. She is known as ‘Veeramangai’
among the Tamils.
 She was the first queen to fight against
the British colonial power in India. She
fought against the colonial rulers many
years before the Sepoy Mutiny. In
6.
collaboration with Hyder Ali and Gopala
Nayaker, she waged a war against the
British and emerged victorious.

She went on to produce the first human
bomb, as well as establish the first
army of trained women soldiers in the
late 1700s.
 She was a scholar in many languages,
having proficiency with languages like
French, English and Urdu, and was
trained in martial arts like Valari,
Silambam (fighting using a stick), horse
riding and archery.
5. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
 The name Khukuri means bravery in
Sikkim. In the Gorkha culture,
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‘Khukuri’ is a small knife, which
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symbolizes victory, robustness and
power. The dance is also performed as a
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tribute to the soldiers for the security
they provide.
 Created by the Meitei people of
Manipur, Thang-ta is an armed
martial art that finds its mention in the
most lethal combat forms. It is
practised in three different ways: The
first is completely ritualistic in nature,
linked with the tantric practices. The
second consists of a mesmerising
performance of spear and sword
dances. The third and last involves the
actual techniques of fighting.
 One of the oldest martial arts in India,
Kalaripayattu, although practised in
most parts of southern India, originated
in the state of Kerala in the 4th century
AD. Kalaripayattu includes several
techniques and aspects. Fighting with
Otta (an S-shaped stick), Maipayattu or
body exercises, Puliyankam or sword
fight, Verumkai or bare-handed fight,
Anga Thari or use of metal weapons and
sticks of Kolthari.
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The rock arts, or petroglyphs, estimated to
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be 20,000 years old, are classified as
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protected monuments by the State
Archaeology Department and the
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Archaeological Survey of India, and have
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been added to the tentative list of
UNESCO’s World Heritage Sites.
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Petroglyphs Sites in India:
 Ratnagiri: Maharashtra
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 Kupgal: Karnataka
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 Kandanathi: Andhra Pradesh
 Sindhudurg: Maharashtra
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 Dindigul: Tamil Nadu
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 Nilgiri: Tamil Nadu
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 Bhimbedtka: Madhya Pradesh
 Edakkal Caves: Kerala
 Unakoti: Tripura
 Dhomkhar and Tangtse: Ladakh
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7. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Generally, Millet is grown in the tropical
and the sub-tropical regions, upto an
altitude of 2,100 m. It is a heat loving plant
and for its germination minimum
temperature required is 8°c - 10°c. A mean
temperature range of 26°c - 29°c during the
growth is best for proper development and
good crop yield.
Millet has wide adaptability to different
soils, from very poor to very fertile and can
tolerate a certain degree of alkalinity.
The best soils are alluvial, loamy and sandy
soils with good drainage.
India, Nigeria and China are the largest
producers of Millets in the world,
accounting for more than 55% of the global
production. India produces around 38% of
the global Millets.
8. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Surface currents are influenced by the
wind. However, others, much slower and
deeper currents that occur from the surface
to the seafloor, are driven by changes in the
saltiness and ocean temperature, a process
called ‘Thermohaline Circulation’. These
currents are carried in a large "Global
Conveyor Belt”.
The basic Deepwater Circulations /
Thermohaline Circulation is one of sinking
of cold water in the Polar Regions, chiefly in
the Northern North Atlantic and near
Antarctica. These dense water masses
spread into the full extent of the ocean and
gradually upwell to feed a slow return flow
to the sinking regions.
In the Northern Hemisphere, the
primary region of deepwater formation is
the North Atlantic.
9. Answer: (c)
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Explanation:
Key Facts related to the Asian
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Elephants:
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 IUCN (The International Union for
Conservation of Nature) Status:
Endangered.
 The Asian Elephants inhibit grasslands,
tropical evergreen forests, semi-
evergreen forests, moist deciduous
forests, dry deciduous forests and dry
thorn forests, in addition to cultivated
and secondary forests or scrublands.
 The Asian Elephants can range over
large areas and therefore, the elephants
disperse seeds over longer distances
than most other herbivores and, thus,
are responsible for structuring and
maintaining plant diversity within the
ecosystems.
 Given their large area requirements, the
elephants are regarded as an “Umbrella
Species”, because their conservation
will also protect a large number of other
species occupying the same area. They
may also be considered the “Flagship
Species” because of their iconic or
cultural value, and the “Keystone
Species” because of their important
ecological role and impact on the
environment.
 The Asian Elephant society is organized
E
into well-defined, matrilineal
IN
communities or clans, comprising adult
females, as well as sub-adult and
L
juvenile males and females.
N
10. Answer: (c)
.O
Explanation:
Ozone layer is a common term for the high
L
concentration of Ozone that is found in the
IA
stratosphere (layer of the atmosphere
between around 10 - 50 km altitude). The
R
Atmospheric Ozone absorbs ultraviolet (UV)
radiation from the Sun, particularly the
E
harmful UV-B type rays.
T
 Ozone Hole refers to a region in
A
stratosphere where the concentration of
Ozone becomes extremely low.
o Such Holes are spotted over both
the Poles.
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o Ozone depletions at the North Pole 13. Answer: (c)

are much smaller in size, owing to Explanation:
warmer temperatures at the North The Ganges River Dolphin (Platenista
Pole, than at the South Pole. gangetica) or Gangetic Dolphin, known as
o Ozone depletion is directly related to Sauns in Uttar Pradesh and Bihar, is the
the formation of the Polar Vortex (in national aquatic animal of India.
the stratosphere). The elusive freshwater cetacean is an
umbrella species of the Ganga and
11. Answer: (a) Brahmaputra river system and has a
Explanation: significant ecological importance as its
Key Facts regarding the Indian presence indicates the good health of an
Skimmer: area.

 IUCN status: Endangered. The species is listed under the

‘Endangered’ category of the International
 Distribution: More widespread in
Union for the Conservation of Nature as it
winter, the Indian Skimmer is found in
is losing its habitat due to anthropogenic
the coastal estuaries of western and
activities.
eastern India. It occurs primarily on
The Vikramshila Gangetic Dolphin
larger, sandy, lowland rivers, around
lakes and adjacent marshes and, in the Sanctuary in Bihar’s Bhagalpur district,
the only sanctuary for our national aquatic
non-breeding season, in the estuaries
and the coasts. animal, is facing a decline in its dolphin
population.
 The Indian Skimmer grows to a length
Ganges river dolphins are protected under
of 40-43 cm.
Schedule I of Wildlife Protection Act (1972).
 It breeds colonially on large, exposed
sandbars and islands.
14. Answer: (c)
 It feeds on surface-dwelling fish, small
Explanation:
crustaceans and insect larvae.

E
The Noble's Helen butterfly, a rare species,

IN
was discovered for the first time in India at
12. Answer: (b)
the Namdapha National Park in Arunachal
Explanation:
Pradesh.
L
About the Deepor Beel:
 It is a swallow-tail butterfly, with a
N

 It is a permanent freshwater lake wingspan of 100-120 mm, and it has an

located in the Kamrup Metropolitan
.O

additional white spot in the dorsum of

district of Assam. the forewing.
 It is considered as one of the largest
L

 Its scientific name is Papilio Noblei.

Beels (lakes) in the Brahmaputra Valley.
IA

 It is found in Myanmar, Yunnan, Hubei

 It is the state’s only Ramsar Site, (China), North Thailand, Laos,
besides being an ‘Important Bird Area’ Cambodia and Vietnam.
R

by BirdLife International.
 Butterflies play a crucial role in the
E

 Some of the species in the Deepor balance of the ecosystems as pollinators

T

Wetlands are the Lesser Adjutant Stork and a food source for other species.
(IUCN- Vulnerable), the Greater
A

 They are considered as the indicators of

Adjutant Stork (IUCN- Endangered), the
environmental health, and changes in
M

Spot-Billed Pelican (IUCN- Near

butterfly populations and distributions
threatened) and the Baer's Pochard
C

(IUCN- Critically Endangered).

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can signal changes in the habitat, such
as destruction or degradation.
 Butterflies also add to the aesthetic
beauty of the environment and can be a
key aspect of tourism.
15. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The National Green Hydrogen Mission
will result in the following likely
outcomes by 2030:
 Development of Green Hydrogen
production capacity of at least 5
MMT (Million Metric Tonne) per
annum with an associated renewable
energy capacity addition of about 125
GW in the country.
 Over Rs. Eight lakh crores in total
investments.
 Creation of over six lakh jobs.
 Cumulative reduction in fossil fuel
imports of over Rs. One lakh crore.
 Abatement of nearly 50 MMT of annual
greenhouse gas emissions
o The Mission will facilitate demand
creation, production, utilization and
export of Green Hydrogen.
o Under the Strategic Interventions for
Green Hydrogen Transition (SIGHT)
Programme, two distinct financial
incentive mechanisms – targeting
domestic manufacturing of
electrolysers and production of
Green Hydrogen – will be provided
under the Mission.
16. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The Basic Structure Doctrine was
expounded in the landmark judgment of
the Kesavananda Bharati Case,
according to which the Basic Structure of
the Constitution cannot be altered or
amended by the Parliament or the
M
Executive. Thus, the Doctrine has limited
C
the amending powers of the Parliament
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under Article 368. So, we can say that the
Basic Structure Doctrine has ensured
the Principle of Constitutional
Supremacy, along with the idea of
constitutionalism, rather than
Parliamentary Supremacy, as practised
in Britain.
Constitutionalism refers to the set of
principles, norms and values that define
the limits of the government and provide
the framework for its functioning. It
encompasses the idea that a government's
power and authority are derived from a
written Constitution that outlines the basic
rights and responsibilities of the citizens,
the structure of government and the
distribution of power among different
branches of the government.
17. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
As the role of the Master of the Roster of
the Chief Justice of India (CJI) is an
administrative act, it does not ensure
judicial independence.
Constitutional and Legal Principles to
Ensure Judicial Independence:

E
Article 141: The law declared by the
Supreme Court shall be binding on all
IN
courts within the territory of India.
 Separation of Power - Article 50:
L
Separation of power between
N
Legislature; Executive; and Judiciary –
is now a part of the Basic Structure of
.O
the Indian Constitution.
 Security of the Tenure of the Judges:
L
The judges of the Supreme Court or the
IA
High Courts cannot be removed
arbitrarily by the executive and their
R
removal has to undergo rigorous
legislative scrutiny, as provided
E
under Article 124 (4). Further, Article
T
124 (5) mentions that the removal of the
A
judge on the grounds of
“misbehaviour” and “incapacity” can
be prescribed by law made by the
Parliament.
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 The Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968: It lays
down the process to remove the judges
of the Supreme Court and the High
Courts, including the investigation
necessary to prove misbehaviour or
incapacity.
 The Salaries of the Judges cannot be
reduced - Article 125 (2): The salary of
the judges is fixed by the Parliament
and it cannot be reduced during the
tenure of a judge. Privileges,
allowances, leaves and pension
provided to a judge cannot be varied or
reduced to his/her disadvantage.
 The Expenses of the Supreme Court
charged upon the Consolidated Fund
of India – Article 146 (3): This ensures
financial independence of the judiciary,
away from the Parliament’s vote on the
matter or executive’s pressure or
influence.
 The Jurisdiction of the Courts cannot
be diminished: The Parliament cannot
reduce the jurisdiction of the Supreme
Court or the High Courts, by passing
any law on appeals or Supreme Court’s
Original Jurisdiction under Article
131 with respect to dispute between the
Centre and the States.
Court has held that there is no reason to
impose “additional restrictions” on the right
to freedom of speech of the Ministers, and
the government is not vicariously liable for
disparaging remarks made by them, even if
the comments are traceable to the state
affairs or meant to protect the government.
Vicarious liability is a situation in which
one party is held partly responsible for the
unlawful actions of a third party.
Fundamental Rights enforced against
the citizens: A Fundamental Right, under
Article 19 or 21, can be enforced even
against the persons other than the state or
its instrumentalities.
K.S. Puttaswamy case (2017): The
Supreme Court held that individuals are
protected against interference by the state
and non-state actors. This also means the
Horizontal Application of Fundamental
Rights. Whereas the Vertical Application of
Fundamental Rights refers to the
application of the Fundamental Rights
against the state or its functionaries.
The Ministers, including the MPs/MLAs,
enjoy freedom of speech in equal
measure as other citizens, under Article
19(1)(a) of the Constitution, and greater

E
 The Constitution insulates the or additional restrictions cannot be

IN
Judges from criticism in the imposed on the Fundamental Right of
Parliament and the State free speech of such public functionaries.
Legislatures: The Parliament or the Fundamental Rights, under Article 19/21,
L
State Legislatures cannot discuss the can be enforced even against the persons
N

conduct of the judges in discharge of other than the state or its

their duties.
.O

instrumentalities, including other citizens.

 Protection from Contempt
Proceedings: The Supreme Court, in
L

19. Answer: (a)

the Keshav Singh Case, held that
Explanation:
IA

Articles 121 and 211 also protect a

judge of the court from any contempt The Special Address, under Article 87, is
prepared by the Union Government and
R

proceedings, which may be taken

against him/her in discharge of his/her read by the President. Similarly, in the
E

duties. states, the Special Address, under Article

T

176, is prepared by the State Government

and read by the Governor.
A

18. Answer: (a)

The Motion of Thanks is moved in the Lok
Explanation:
M

Sabha and the Rajya Sabha after the

In the case of Kaushal Kumar v/s the
President’s Special Address under Article
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State of Uttar Pradesh, the Supreme

87(1). However, the provision of the Motion
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of Thanks has not been provided in the
Constitution, but provided in the Rules of
Procedure and Conduct of Business in the
Lok Sabha.
According to the Rules of Procedure and
Conduct of Business in the Lok Sabha,
the Special Address of the President is
followed up with a Motion of Thanks,
prepared by the Central Government,
based on the advice of the Council of
Ministers, headed by the Prime Minister.
The Special Address of the President
contains the Government’s Statement of
Policy: The President's Address is the
statement of policy of the Government and,
as such, is drafted by the Government,
which is responsible for its contents. The
Special Address is the Government’s
Statement of Policy.
The Address contains a review of various
activities and achievements of the
government during the previous year and
sets out the policies, projects and
programmes which the government of the
day wishes to pursue with regard to
important national and international
issues. The Address also indicates, in broad 20. Answer: (d)
terms, the items of legislative business,
which are proposed to be brought during
the sessions to be held in that year.
Article 87 - Special address by the
President:
 Clause (1) of that Article provides that
o at the commencement of the first
session after each general election to
the House of the People and
o at the commencement of the first
session of each year, the President
shall address both the Houses of the
Parliament, assembled together, and
inform the Parliament of the causes
of its summons.
 Clause 2 of Article 87 mentions that
A
provision shall be made by the Rules
regulating the procedure of either
M
House for the allotment of time for
discussion of the matters referred to in
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such address.
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 No other business is transacted till
the President has addressed both the
Houses of the Parliament, assembled
together through the Special
Address.
Article 176 - Special address by the
Governor:
 At the commencement of the
o first session after each general
election to the Legislative Assembly
and
o at the commencement of the first
session of each year,
 the Governor shall address the
Legislative Assembly or, in the case of a
State having a Legislative Council also,
both Houses assembled together, and
inform the Legislature of the causes of
its summons;
 provision shall be made by the Rules
regulating the procedure of the House
or either House for the allotment of time
for discussion of the matters referred to
in such address.
Explanation:
E
All the above statements have been
IN
provided in the Rules of Procedure and
Conduct of Business in the Lok Sabha.
L
Rule 56: Subject to the provisions of these
Rules, a motion for an adjournment of the
N
business of the House for the purpose of
.O
discussing a definite matter of urgent
public importance may be made with the
L
consent of the Speaker.
Rule 8: The election of the Deputy
IA
Speaker shall be held on such date as
the Speaker may fix, and the Secretary-
R
General shall send to every member
E
notice of this date.
T
Rule 43 - Speaker to decide
admissibility: The Speaker shall decide
whether a question, or a part thereof, is or
is not admissible under these Rules and
may disallow any question, or a part
thereof, when in the opinion of the Speaker,
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it is an abuse of the right of questioning or
is calculated to obstruct or prejudicially
affect the procedure of the House or is in
contravention of these Rules.
21. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Conduct of Census:
 Census exercise is carried out in two
phases: House-listing & Housing
Census; and Population Enumeration.
 The responsibility of conducting
decennial Census rests with the
Office of Registrar General and
Census Commissioner, under the
Ministry of Home Affairs.
 The Census Act, 1948, provides
statutory framework to it.
First Phase – House-listing and Housing
Census:
 During House-listing and Housing
Census, all buildings, Census Houses
and households are identified and
systematically listed in the relevant
schedules.
 It provides comprehensive data on the
conditions of human settlements,
housing deficit and consequently the
housing requirements to be taken care
of in the formulation of housing
policies.
 This also provides a wide range of
data/information on amenities and
assets available to the households.
 It also provides the base for Population
Enumeration by giving a more realistic
idea of the population size of the House-
listing blocks, thereby ensuring the
more practical carving of the blocks for
Population Enumeration.
Second Phase - Population Enumeration:
 The Population Enumeration follows the
Housing Census within a gap of six to
eight months.
 During the second phase of Census
taking, each person is enumerated and
M
her/his individual particulars, like
C
o Age
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o Marital status
o Religion
o Scheduled Cast/Scheduled Tribe
o Mother tongue
o Education level
o Disability
o Economic activity
o Migration
o Fertility
Separate Enumeration for the SCs/STs:
In Census, castes and tribes, which are
specifically notified as the Scheduled
Castes and the Scheduled Tribes, as per
the Constitution (Scheduled Castes)
Order 1950 and the Constitution
(Scheduled Tribes) Order, 1950, are
enumerated separately. However, OBCs
are not enumerated separately as part
of the Census.
22. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Important Terms:
 In ‘Pardon’, it affects both the
punishment prescribed for the offence
E
and the guilt of the offender. A full
pardon may completely erase the guilt.
IN
 ‘Reprieve’ means a temporary
suspension of the punishment awarded
L
by a court of law. For example: Putting
N
a stay order on death sentence of a
convict for certain temporary period.
.O
 'Respite’ means postponement of the
sentence of punishment or reducing the
L
sentence due to certain special
IA
circumstances, such as disability,
pregnancy etc.
R
 ‘Commutation’ means changing the
E
punishment from one category to
another, such as changing of the death
T
sentence to life imprisonment.
A
 ‘Remission’ is the reduction of the
amount of a sentence without changing
its character. Example: A person is
imprisoned for14 years in solitary
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confinement. In Remission, his sentence
might reduce to 10 years, but the
nature, i.e., solitary confinement will
not change.
23. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Constitutional and Legal Provisions
against Land Acquisition of the Tribals:
The Scheduled Tribes (STs) have been the
most marginalized, isolated and deprived
population. To protect and safeguard the
land rights of the STs, and to address the
issue of land acquisition and displacement
of the tribals, the following constitutional
and legal provisions have been put in place:
The Constitution of India - Under the
Fifth Schedule: The Governor of the State,
which has Scheduled Areas, is empowered
to prohibit or restrict the transfer of land
from the tribals and regulate the allotment
of the land to the members of the
Scheduled tribes.
Land being a State subject, various
provisions of rehabilitation and
resettlement, as per the RFCTLARR Act,
2013 (The Right to Fair Compensation and
Transparency in Land Acquisition,
Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013),
are implemented by the concerned State
Governments.
The Scheduled Tribes and Other
Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition
of Forest Rights) Act, 2006:
 A member of the forest dwelling
Scheduled Tribe or Other Traditional
Forest Dweller shall not be evicted or
removed from the forest land under his
occupation, till the recognition and
verification procedure is complete.
 The Gram Sabha is empowered to
regulate access to the community forest
T
resources and stop any activity which
A
adversely affects the wild animals,
forest and the biodiversity.
M
The Right to Fair Compensation and
C
Transparency in Land Acquisition,
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Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act,
2013 (The RFCTLARR Act, 2013):
 Section 48: The National Level
Monitoring Committee for Rehabilitation
and Resettlement has been constituted
to review and monitor implementation
of rehabilitation and resettlement
schemes and plans related to land
acquisition under the RFCTLARR Act,
2013; and the National Rehabilitation
and Resettlement Policy, 2007.
 Section 41 (1): As far as possible, no
acquisition of land shall be made in the
Scheduled Areas.
 Section 41(2): Any land acquisition
shall be done only as a demonstrable
last resort.
 Section 41(3): In the case of acquisition
or alternation of any land in the
Scheduled Areas, the prior consent of
the concerned Gram Sabha or the
Panchayats or the Autonomous District
Councils in the Scheduled Areas under
the Fifth Schedule to the Constitution
be obtained, in all cases of land
acquisition in such areas, including
acquisition in case of urgency.
The Panchayats (Extension to Scheduled
E
Areas) Act, 1996: The Gram Sabha or the
IN
Panchayats at the appropriate level shall be
consulted before making the acquisition of
L
land in the Scheduled Areas for
N
development projects and before resettling
or rehabilitating the persons affected by
.O
such projects in the Scheduled Areas.
The Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled
L
Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act,
IA
1989:
 It prevents commission of atrocities
R
against the members of the Scheduled
Castes and the Scheduled Tribes, to
E
provide for the trial of such offences and
for the relief of rehabilitation of the
victims of such offences.
 Wrongfully dispossessing the members
of the Scheduled Castes or the
Scheduled Tribes from their land or
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 “Disputes” are to be referred to a seven-
member arbitral tribunal, called the
“Court of Arbitration.”
Generation of hydroelectric power:
However, the Treaty does not allow the
creation of large river water storage
projects, but only run-of-the-river
hydropower projects.
Prevents storage projects by India: The
IWT prevents India from building any
storage systems on the western rivers.
Example: Objections to the Kishanganga
Hydroelectric Project.
India is allowed to make some use of the
waters of the western rivers, which include:
Agricultural Use: Use of water for
irrigation, except for irrigation of
household gardens and public
recreational gardens.
34. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The International Court of Justice (ICJ) is
the principal judicial organ of the United
Nations (UN).
It was established in 1945 by the Charter
of the United Nations and began work in
1946.
The seat of the Court is at the Peace Palace
in The Hague (Netherlands). Of the six
principal organs of the United Nations, it is
the only one not located in New York (The
United States of America).
The Court’s role is to settle, following the
international laws, legal disputes submitted
to it by the States and to give advisory
opinions on legal questions, referred to it
by the authorized United Nations organs
and specialized agencies.
Jurisdiction:
Only the UN Member States are eligible to
appear before the Court in contentious
cases.
 It cannot deal with a dispute of its
M
motion.
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 It is not permitted, under its Statute,
to investigate and rule on the acts of
the sovereign States as it chooses.
 The States concerned must accept the
jurisdiction and must provide consent
to the Court's considering the dispute in
question.
Advisory proceedings before the Court
are only open to the five organs of the
United Nations and 16 specialized
agencies of the United Nations family or
affiliated organizations.
Such opinions are essentially advisory. In
other words, unlike the Court’s judgments,
they are not binding.
However, certain instruments or
regulations provide that an advisory
opinion by the Court does have binding
force (e.g., the Conventions on the
Privileges and Immunities of the United
Nations).
35. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
General Assembly Resolution 377 (V) is
known as the ‘Uniting for Peace’
Resolution.
E
Adopted in 1950, the Resolution resolves
that if the Security Council, because of lack
IN
of unanimity of the permanent
members, fails to exercise its primary
L
responsibility to act as required to maintain
N
international peace and security..., the
General Assembly shall consider the matter
.O
immediately with the view to making
recommendations to the Members...in order
L
to restore international peace and security.
IA
If not in session, the General Assembly may
meet using the mechanism of the
R
emergency special session.
E
Till date, 11 emergency sessions have been
convened.
T
The Charter of the United Nations can be
A
amended.
According to Article 108 of the Charter,
amendments must be adopted by two-
thirds of the members of the General
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Assembly and ratified by two-thirds of the 38. Answer: (b)

members of the United Nations, including
all the permanent members of the Security
Council.
36. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
 BharOS is an indigenous mobile
operating system, developed by the
Indian Institute of Technology,
Madras (IIT-M). It is a government-
funded AOSP (Android Open Source
Project) based operating system with no
Google Apps or services.
 Benefits:
o It comes with No Default Apps
(NDA), which means that the users
are not forced to use unfamiliar
apps.
o It offers ‘Native Over The Air’ (NOTA)
updates, i.e., security updates and
bug fixes will be automatically
installed on the device.
o It provides access to trusted apps
39. Answer: (b)
from organization-specific Private
App Store Services (PASS).
Explanation:
 Neuromorphic Computing is an
approach to computing that is inspired
by the structure and function of the
human brain. The development of
Neuromorphic hardware aims at
mimicking biological synapse that
monitors and remembers the signal
generated by the stimuli.
 A Neuromorphic Computer/Chip
consists of Artificial Neural Networks,
comprised of millions of artificial
neurons (made from silicon). These
neurons pass signals to each other in
layers, converting input into output
through electric spikes or signals, based
on the architecture of the Spiking
Neural Networks. This allows the
machine to mimic the neuro-biological
networks in the human brain and
perform tasks efficiently, such as visual
recognition and data interpretation.
Explanation:
 Shukrayaan I will be an orbiter

E
37. Answer: (b) mission by the Indian Space
Research Organization (ISRO) to

IN
Explanation:
study the surface and atmosphere of
 MANPADS (Man-Portable Air-Defence Venus. It will study the planet for four
L
Systems) are short-range, lightweight years. Shukrayaan was expected to be
and portable surface-to-air missiles.
N

launched in 2024, but now is postponed

They can be fired by individuals or to 2031.
.O

small groups to destroy aircrafts or

 The mission will study Venus’s
helicopters.
geological and volcanic activity,
L

 They have the ‘fire and forget’ guidance emissions on the ground, wind speed,
IA

systems, i.e., the operator is not cloud cover and other planetary
required to guide the missile to its characteristics from an elliptical orbit.
target. They are fitted with infrared (IR)
R

 The spacecraft will carry several

seekers that identify and target the
E

instruments to probe the Venusian

airborne vehicle through heat radiation
environment.
T

being emitted by the latter.

o Synthetic Aperture Radar will
 They shield the troops from aerial
A

examine the Venusian surface,

attacks and are most effective in
which is surrounded by thick clouds
M

targeting low-flying aircrafts.

that make it impossible to glimpse
C

the surface in visible light.

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o Venusian Neutrals Analyzer 41. Answer: (b)
(Swedish-Indian collaboration) will
examine how charged particles from
the Sun interact with the
atmosphere of Venus.
o An instrument to Venus will
examine the planet's atmosphere in
infrared, ultraviolet and
submillimetre wavelengths.
40. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
 Aditya-L1 is the first Indian Space
Mission to observe the Sun and the
solar corona. It will observe Sun’s
photosphere, chromosphere and
corona. The Indian Space Research
Organization is planning to launch the
Mission by mid- 2023.
 The Mission will be launched to the L1
orbit (which is the first Lagrangian Point
of the Sun-Earth System), which is 1.5
million kms from the Earth towards the 42. Answer: (b)
Sun.
 Aditya-L1 has seven payloads in
total, of which the primary payload is
the Visible Emission Line
Coronagraph (VELC), which is an
instrument to study the Sun's
corona. It can image the solar corona
as close to the solar disk (as close as
1.05 times the solar radius).
 Significance: Aditya-L1 would help in
understanding the effect of the Sun on
the Earth and its surroundings. It
would study solar upper atmospheric
(chromosphere and corona) dynamics
and understand the physics of solar
43. Answer: (b)
corona and its heating mechanism. It
would help in understanding coronal
mass ejection, pre-flare and flare
activities, and dynamics of space
A
weather, propagation of particles and
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fields etc.
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Explanation:
 Kala-Azar or Visceral Leishmaniasis
(VL) is a complex infectious disease
transmitted by the bite of female
Phlebotomine sandflies. It is caused
by protozoan parasites of the genus
Leishmania.
 In India, it is endemic to four states-
Bihar, Jharkhand, Uttar Pradesh and
West Bengal. India is committed to
eliminating Kala-Azar by 2023. 99.8% of
endemic blocks in India have already
achieved the elimination status.
 The neglected tropical disease affects
millions annually, making it the second
most common parasitic killer after
malaria. It is covered under the National
Vector Borne Disease Control
Programme in India.
Explanation:
The Foreign Exchange Reserves refer to the
reserves of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI),
E
kept in the form of foreign currency assets,
IN
gold, SDRs (The Special Drawing Rights)
and Reserve Tranche Position with the
International Monetary Fund (IMF). The
L
Forex Reserve is kept as a cushion against
N
any potential ‘Balance of Payments’ related
.O
crisis. In India, the Reserve Bank of India
Act, 1934, enabled the RBI to act as the
L
custodian of The Foreign Exchange
IA
Management Act Foreign Reserves.
R
E
Explanation:
T
In order to promote growth of global trade,
with emphasis on exports from India and to
support the increasing interests of the
global trading community in INR, it has
been decided to put in place an additional
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arrangement for invoicing, payment and 44. Answer: (d)

settlement of exports/imports in INR. Explanation:
Before putting in place this mechanism, the The Asian Clearing Union (ACU) has been
AD banks shall require prior approval from established as an initiative of the United
the Foreign Exchange Department of the Nation Economic and Social Commission
Reserve Bank of India, Central Office at for Asia and the Pacific (UNESCAP).
Mumbai.
The Central Banks and the Monetary
Accordingly, for settlement of trade Authorities of Bangladesh, Bhutan, India,
transactions with any country, the AD Iran, the Maldives, Myanmar, Nepal,
(Authorised Dealer) bank in India may Pakistan and Sri Lanka are currently the
open the Special Rupee Vostro Accounts members of the ACU.
of the correspondent bank/s of the
The Asian Monetary Unit (AMU) is the
partner trading country. In order to allow
common unit of account of the ACU, and
settlement of international trade
is denominated as ‘ACU Dollar’, ‘ACU
transactions through this arrangement, it
Euro’ and ‘ACU Yen’, which is equivalent
has been decided that:
in value to one US Dollar, one Euro and
 The Indian importers, undertaking one Japanese Yen, respectively.
imports through this mechanism, shall
make payment in INR, which shall be
45. Answer: (d)
credited into the Special Vostro Account
Explanation:
of the correspondent bank of the
partner country, against the invoices for The Clearing Corporation of India Ltd.
the supply of goods or services from the (CCIL) was set up in 2001 to provide an
overseas seller/supplier. institutional infrastructure for the
clearing and settlement of transactions
 The Indian exporters, undertaking
in Government Securities; Money
exports of goods and services through

E
Market Instruments; Foreign Exchange;
this mechanism, shall be paid the
and other related products. The objective

IN
export proceeds in INR from the
was to bring efficiency to the transaction
balances in the designated Special
settlement process and mitigate the
L
Vostro Account of the correspondent
systemic risk emanating from settlement
N

bank of the partner country.

related problems and counter-party risk.
Salient features:
.O

The CCIL is a payment system operator,

 Invoicing: All exports and imports
authorized by the Reserve Bank of India
under this arrangement may be
L

(RBI) under the Payment and Settlement

denominated and invoiced in Indian
IA

Systems (PSS) Act, 2007, to provide

Rupee (INR).
guaranteed settlement in Government
 Exchange Rate: The exchange rate
R

Securities (G-Secs); Tri-party Repo (TREP);

between the currencies of the two and Forex and Rupee Derivatives market.
E

trading partner countries may be In view of its critical importance to the

T

market determined. Indian financial system, the CCIL has been

A

 Settlement: The settlement of trade designated as a critical Financial Market

M

transactions under this arrangement Infrastructure (FMI) by the RBI and it has
shall take place in INR. given CCIL the status of a Qualifying
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46. Answer: (b) typically used by the banks to bolster their

Explanation: core or Tier 1 capital.
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI), in The AT 1 Bonds are subordinate to all other
consultation with the Government of India, debt and only senior to common equity.
introduced a separate channel, called the Mutual Funds (MFs) were among the
‘Fully Accessible Route’ (FAR), to enable the largest investors in perpetual debt
non-residents to invest in specified instruments.
Government of India Dated Securities. The
eligible investors can invest in specified 48. Answer: (a)
Government Securities, without being Explanation:
subject to any investment ceilings. This
Long-Term Government Securities (G-
scheme shall operate along with the two
Secs) –
existing routes, viz., the Medium-Term
Dated G-Secs: These are the securities
Framework (MTF) and the Voluntary
which carry a fixed or floating coupon
Retention Route (VRR).
(interest rate), which is paid on the face
The Reserve Bank of India shall notify the
value, on a half-yearly basis. The tenor
Government Securities that shall be eligible
ranges between 5 to 40 years.
for investment under the FAR (hereinafter,
Fixed Rate Bonds: These are the Bonds on
‘specified securities’). These securities will
which the coupon rate is fixed for the entire
continue to be eligible for investment by the
life (i.e., till maturity) of the Bonds. Most
residents. ‘Specified Securities’, once so
Government Bonds in India are issued as
designated, shall remain eligible for
Fixed Rate Bonds.
investment under the FAR until maturity.
Floating Rate Bonds: These are the
This mechanism came into force in 2020.
securities which do not have a fixed coupon
FEATURES
rate. Instead, they have a variable coupon
Investments: There shall be no

E
rate, which is re-set at pre-announced
quantitative limit on investment by eligible intervals (say, every six months or one

IN
investors in the specified securities. year).
In addition, all new issuances of Types of Auctions –
L
Government Securities of 5-year, 10-year
The rate of interest (coupon rate) gets fixed
N

and 30-year tenors, from the financial year

through a market-based price discovery
.O

2020-21, will be eligible for investment

process.
under the FAR as ‘Specified Securities’.
Yield-Based Auction: A yield-based
L

auction is generally conducted when a new

IA

47. Answer: (a) G-Sec is issued. The investors bid in yield

Explanation: terms. Bids are arranged in the ascending
R

The Additional Tier 1 (AT 1) Bonds are order and cut-off yield is arrived at the
E

unsecured Bonds that have perpetual yield corresponding to the notified amount
tenor. In other words, these Bonds, of the auction. The cut-off yield is then
T

issued by the banks, have no maturity fixed as the coupon rate for the security.
A

date. They have a call option, which can be Successful bidders are those who have bid
M

used by the banks to buy these Bonds back at or below the cut-off yield.
from the investors. These Bonds are Price-Based Auction: A price-based
C

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which has already been issued, is being re- 50. Answer: (d)
issued. The bidders quote in terms of price Explanation:
per Rs. 100 of face of the security. The bids The Green Bonds, popularly known as the
are arranged in the descending order of Climate Bonds, are fixed interest-bearing
price offered and the successful bidders are financial instruments, issued by any
those who have bid at or above the cut-off sovereign entity / inter-governmental
price. organization / corporation. The proceeds of
these Bonds are used only for
49. Answer: (c) environmentally conscious, climate-
Explanation: resilient projects.
Labour Codes that seek to introduce labour The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) recently
reforms in India have legally acknowledged auctioned its maiden Sovereign Green
the presence of the ‘gig workers’ in the Bonds, worth ₹8,000 crores, under its
economy. For example, the Code on Social Sovereign Green Bond Framework.
Security, 2020, provides for the registration The investors in the Bonds, issued under
of all the gig workers. It calls upon the this Framework, do not bear any project
Central and the State Governments to related risks.
formulate schemes to ensure social security There is no cap on foreign investments in
benefits, such as insurance, for the gig these Bonds, because these instruments
workers. It also empowers the Government are considered as specified securities under
to set up Social Security Funds for their the ‘Fully Accessible Route’.
benefit. The contribution to these Funds The stocks will be eligible for Repurchase
may be funded from the contributions of Transactions (Repo), as per the conditions
the Centre, the States and the aggregator mentioned in the Repurchase
platforms, such as Uber, Zomato etc. Transactions (Repo) (Reserve Bank)
Directions, 2018.

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