11/07/2024 A

Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

MM : 720 RM02 TEST-1 Time : 200 Min.

Topics Covered :
ATTEMPT ALL QUESTIONS:
Motion in a Straight Line
Physical World
Motion in a Plane
Units and Measurements
ATTEMPT 10 OUT OF 15:
Motion in a Straight Line
Motion in a Plane
Units and Measurements
ATTEMPT ALL QUESTION:
Some basic concepts of chemistry
ATTEMPT 10 OUT OF 15:
Solutions
Some basic concepts of chemistry
ATTEMPT ALL QUESTIONS:
Cell : The unit of Life
ATTEMPT 10 OUT OF 15:
Cell : The unit of Life
ATTEMPT ALL QUESTIONS:
Structural Organisation in Animals (Animal Tissues)
Structural Organisation in Animals (Contd....) (Animal Morphology)
ATTEMPT 10 OUT OF 15:
Structural Organisation in Animals (Animal Tissues)

PHYSICS

ATTEMPT ALL QUESTIONS

1. A stone is dropped from the top of a tower. When it has 3. If F1 – Gravitational force
fallen by 5 m from the top, another stone is dropped from F2 – Electromagnetic force
a point 25 m below the top. If both stones reach the
F3 – Strong nuclear force
ground at the same moment, then height of the tower from
F4 – Weak Nuclear force
ground is : (take g = 10 m/s2)
Which of following is the correct ascending order
(1) 45 m considering relative strength of forces?
(2) 50 m (1) F1< F3< F4< F2
(3) 60 m (2) F1< F4< F3< F2
(4) 65 m
(3) F1< F4< F2< F3
2. A body is moving with 20 m/s towards east. After 5 s its
(4) F3< F2< F4< F1
velocity becomes 30 m/s towards north. Magnitude of
average acceleration between (0 to 10 s) is

(1)
1

−−
(2) 3

2
√13

−−
(3) √13

−−
(4) 5√13
4. A juggler throws ball into air. He throws one whenever the 11. A boy riding a bicycle with a speed of 4 m/s towards east
previous one is at its highest point. How high do the balls direction, observes rain falling vertically downward. If he
rise if he throws n balls each second? increases his speed to 8 m/s, rain appears to meet him at
g
45° to the vertical. The speed of rain with respect to
(1) n2
ground is
g (1) 8 m/s
(2) 2n
2

(2) 4 m/s
2g
(3) n
2
(3) 2 m/s

(4)
g
(4) –
4√2 m/s
n

5. A particle starts from rest with uniform acceleration and its 12. Figure shows velocity-time curve I and II. Which of the
velocity after T second is u. The displacement of the following statement(s) are correct?
particle in last second of this motion is
u
(1) 2T
(2T − 1)

u
(2) 2T
(2T + 1)

(3) T
u
(T − 1)

u
(4) (2T − 1)
T
(a) Both the curves are representing uniform acceleration
6. motion
Initial velocity of a projectile is given by ˆ ˆ
u = i + 5j. The
(b) Acceleration of II is more than acceleration of I
cartesian equation of it’s path is (Take g = 10 m/s2) (c) Displacement covered by particle I is more than II

(1) y = x – 5x2 (1) (a) only

(2) (b) only
(2) y = 2x – 5x2
(3) (a), (b) only
(3) y = 2x – 25x2
(4) (a), (b) & (c)
(4) y = 5x(1 – x)
13. Velocity of a particle varies w.r.t. time as v =
4
.
7.
√3 sin t+cos t
dy
If y = x sin (
x

2
), then at x = π will be equal to The minimum velocity is
dx

(1) 1 (1) 0
(2) Zero (2) 2 m/s
(3) –1 (3) 4 m/s
(4) 2 (4) 1 m/s

8. A car is moving on a straight road covers one third of the 14. A rocket is fired from the earth surface with constant
total distance with speed 25 km/h and rest with speed of vertical acceleration. A bolt is dropped from the rocket 2.0
50 km/h. The average speed of the car is s after the firing and fuel of the rocket finished in 7.0 s
after the bolt is dropped. Time of free fall of the bolt to the
(1) 40 km/h
ground is 4.8 s. Acceleration of the free fall is 10 m/s2.
(2) 20 km/h Which of the following statement is/are correct?
(3) 37.5 km/h Ascending acceleration of the rocket with fuel is
(1)
(4) 42.5 km/h nearly 10.0 m/s2

9. In an unknown gravity force system, a particle is falling Maximum height attained by the bolt from the ground
(2)
is nearly 40 m
down with an acceleration a = 2t m/s2. If the particle starts
from rest, then the velocity at 3 s is (3) Maximum speed of the rocket is nearly 70 m/s
(1) 18 m/s (4) Both (A) and (B)
(2) 9 m/s 15. A particle is moving along the circular path of radius 8 m
(3) 6 m/s with increasing speed of 2t. The acceleration of the
particle at t = 2 s is (g = 10 ms–2)
(4) 3 m/s
–
(1) 2√2 ms
−2

10. A river of width 0.5 km flows at a constant speed 5 km/h. A

boat which can row at 3 km/h in still water wants to (2) 4 ms–2
minimize drift. The time taken to cross the river is
(1) Boat cannot cross the river (3) 2 ms–2
–
(2)
5
h
(4) 4√2 ms
−2

24

(3) 5

4
h

(4) 3

8
h
16. A bus is moving along a straight road with speed of 20 21. If y = A sin(ωt − kx), where ω and k are constant then
m/s for 5 minutes and with speed 10 m/s for next 5 dy dy

minutes. The average speed of bus for time interval of first (

dx
)/ (
dt
) is
seven minutes is
(1) ω/k
(1) 17.14 m/s
(2) –ω/k
(2) 20 m/s
(3) kω
(3) 15 m/s
(4) –k/ω
(4) 16.74 m/s
22. Rain drops are falling vertically with 5 ms–1 w.r.t. ground.
17. Consider an expanding ring of instantaneous radius R
and total mass m, which remains constant. The To a boy running in rain, rain-drops are falling with 10
expansion is such that the instantaneous linear mass ms–1. The speed of the boy and the angle with vertical
density 'λ' remain uniform throughout the ring. The rate of with which rain is being appeared to the boy will be
fractional change in linear mass density (
1

λ
dλ

dt
) is (1) 5 ms
−1
, 30
∘

constant. The velocity v of any point of the circumference

of the expanding ring is proportional to (2) –
5√3 ms
−1
, 30
∘

(1) R (3) –
5√3 ms
−1
, 60
∘

(2) R
2/3
(4) 5 ms
−1
, 45
∘

(3)
1

R
23. A police van moving on a highway with a speed of 20
km/h fires a bullet at a criminal’s car speeding away in the
(4) R
1/3
same direction with a speed of 90 km/h. If the bullet
speed w.r.t. van is 200 m/s, with what speed does the
18. → → →
bullet hit the criminal’s car?
Consider three vectors A , B and C , which add up to
give zero vector. Then which of the following is false? (1) 137.3 m/s
∣→ →∣ ∣→ →∣ (2) 149.1 m/s
(1) ∣A × B ∣ = ∣B × C ∣
∣ ∣ ∣ ∣
(3) 180.5 m/s
→ → → → → → (4) 206.4 m/s
(2) (A × B )× C lies in the plane of A , B and C

24. A star is 1.45 parsec away. How much parallax will this
→ → →
star show when viewed from two locations of the earth six
→ →
(3) (A × B )⋅ C = ABC only if A ⊥ B months apart in its orbit around the sun?
(1) 2 Parsec
→ → → → →
(4) (A × B )⋅ C = 0 for any angle between A and B
(2) 0.725 Parsec
(3) 1.45 Parsec
19. Velocity-time graph for a car is semi-circular as shown (4) 2.9 Parsec
below. Which of the following is correct?
25. A particle moves rectilinearly with deceleration whose
magnitude depends on the velocity v of the particle as
a = 3√v . At the initial moment velocity of the particle is 9

m/s. The distance covered by the particle before it stops,

will be
(1) 3 m

(1) Car must move in circular path (2) 9 m

(2) Acceleration of car is never zero (3) 6 m

(3) The car takes a turn once during its motion (4) 12 m

(4) Mean speed of particle is undefined m/s 26. An object thrown vertically up from the ground passes the
height 10 m twice in the time interval of 10 s. The time of
20. A particle moving in the positive x direction has initial
flight is (g = 10 m/s2)
velocity u. The particle undergoes a retardation αv3,
–
where v is instantaneous velocity and α is a positive (1) 6√3 s

constant. The velocity of particle as a function of time t is// –

(2) 3√3 s
u
(1) –
√1+2uαt
(3) 2√3 s

(2) √2uαt (4) –

√3 s
u

(3) √1+2u2 αt

αt
(4) √2u2 +1
27. A particle starts from origin. If velocity is depending on 31. A motorboat going downstream overcomes a raft at point
time as v = t2 – 6t. Find its position at the moment A. 30 minute later, it turns back and after some time
acceleration is zero. passes the raft at a distance 3 km from point A. If the duty
of the engine is constant, then the river flow velocity is
(1) 18 m
(1) 3 km/h
(2) –27 m
(2) 6 km/h
(3) –18 m
(3) 12 km/h
(4) 27 m
(4) 4 km/h
28. Initially car x is 4 m ahead of car y. Both start moving at t =
0 in same direction along straight line. The velocity-time 32. Equation of trajectory of projectile is given by
4
graph of two cars is shown in figure. The time when car y y = 10x −
7
x
2

will catch the car x will be

The range of the projectile is (Take g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 30 m
(2) 40 m
(3) 17.5 m
(4) 60 m
(1) 4 s 33. A body is thrown down with velocity u. Its speed
(2) 2 s increases to 2u at a point A and just before landing its
speed is 3u. If the initial point is O and the final point is B,
(3) 1 s then find OA/AB.
–
(4) √2s (1) 3 : 5

29. A particle starting from rest move along the x-axis with (2) 3 : 4
constant acceleration. The position-time (x-t) graph of the (3) 4 : 3
particle is shown below.
(4) 8 : 3

34. A : A negative acceleration of a body can be associated

with a increasing speed of the body.
R : Acceleration is a vector physical quantity.
Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is
(1)
the correct explanation of the assertion
Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is
The acceleration of the particle is (2)
not the correct explanation of the assertion
(1) 2 ms–2 (3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(2) 1 ms–2 (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements

(3) 1
ms
−2 35. A : Large angular displacement is not a vector quantity.
4
R : Large angular displacement do not follow
(4) 1
ms
−2 commutative law.
2

Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is

30. The magnitude of velocity of a body is given by v = |t – 4| (1)
the correct explanation of the assertion
m/s, then average speed of body between 1 s to 4 s is
Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is
(1) 2 m/s (2)
not the correct explanation of the assertion
(2) 0.25 m/s (3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(3) 1 m/s (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements
(4) 1.5 m/s

ATTEMPT 10 OUT OF 15
36. A projectile is projected at 10 m/s by making an angle 60° 41. Position of a particle can be expressed as
with the horizontal. After sometime, its velocity makes an →
m. The magnitude of acceleration of the
2ˆ ˆ
r = (9t i + 3t j )
angle of 30° to the horizontal. Its speed at this instant is
particle is (t is in second)
m/s
10
(1)
(1) 18 m/s2
√3

(2) –
10√3 m/s
(2) 9 m/s2
(3)
5
m/s
√3 (3) Zero
– –
(4) 5√3 m/s (4) 9√5m/s
2

37. The measured value of resistance of two wires are 42. A particle is moving on a circular track of radius r. If speed
R = (3 ± 0.09)Ω and
1 R = (6 ± 0.36)Ω . If they are
2 of the particle is increasing with time then the angle
connected in parallel then the percentage error in between acceleration (linear) and position vector of the
equivalent resistance is particle is (centre of circle is taken as origin).

(1) 2% (1) Acute

(2) 8% (2) Obtuse

(3) 3% (3) Equal to 90°

(4) 4% (4) Equal to 180°

38. Velocity-time (v-t) graph for a moving object is shown in
the figure. The net displacement of the object, during the
time interval when there is non zero acceleration, will be
43. The velocity-time graph of a particle moving in straight
line along x-axis is as shown in figure. Which of the
following relations are correct for describing the motion of
particle over the time interval, t1 to t2 is
(vav = average velocity, aav = average acceleration)

(1) 9 m
(2) 18 m
(3) 6 m
(1)
1

(4) 12 m xt2 = xt1 + vt1 ( t2 − t1 ) +

2
aav ( t2 − t1 )

39. A particle is moving in a straight line such that its velocity (2) vt
2
= vt
1
+ aav ( t2 + t1 )

varies according to v(x) = 2 x–3m, where m is a constant v(t + v(t

and x is the position of the particle. The acceleration of (3) vav =

1
)
2
)

the particle as a function of x, is given by

x −x

(4) vav =
(t )
2
(t )
1

(1) −12 mx
−6 m + 1 t2 − t1

(2) −3 m − 1
44. A ball is dropped from the top of a building of height 100
−12 mx
m at time t = 0. At same instant, another ball is thrown
upwards with speed 50 m/s from the bottom of the
(3) −8 x
−3 m − 1
building. The time at which balls will meet is
(4) −12 mx
−6 m − 1 (1) 2 s

40. A ship is sailing eastwards with a speed of 72 km/h, while (2) 4 s

wind is blowing northwards with a speed 10 m/s. A flag (3) 3 s
on the ship will flutter in the direction
(4) 2.5 s
(1) tan-1(2), east of north

(2) tan
−1
(
1

4
) , north of east

(3) tan-1(2), east of south

(4) tan
−1
(
1

2
) , north of west
45. A man tries to cross the river and has to reach a point B
on the opposite bank of river as shown. Then the
minimum speed relative to water and direction of
swimmer at O so that he can reach point B is (given river
speed is u)
48. Between the two towns, cars starts at regular intervals of
45 s with constant speed 60 km/h. At some point of time
all the cars simultaneously have to reduce their speed to
45 km/h due to bad condition. What will be the interval of
time between arrivals of the cars at second town during
the bad condition?
(1) 30 s
(2) 40 s
(3) 50 s
(4) 60 s

49. A particle of unit mass is moving along x-axis. The

velocity of particle varies with position x as v(x) = αx–β,
u
120° with direction of river flow (where α and β are positive constants and x > 0). The
(1) 2
,
acceleration of the particle as a function of x is given as
(2)
u

2
, 60° with direction of river flow (1) –αβ2 x–2β–1

(3)
2u

√3
, 60° with direction of river flow (2) –α2β x–2β–1

(4)
2u
, 120° with direction of river flow (3) –α2β x–2β+1
√3

(4) – α2β x–β–1

46. Two cars A and B starts from same point and moving in
the same direction along a straight line. In a time interval
of 4 s after cars starts, velocity-time graph is shown in
figure. The maximum separation between the particle
during this time interval is
50. A stone is projected from point O on a horizontal plane
making an angle 45° as shown in figure. It attains
maximum height 100 m. Height of the point when ball is
at a distance 300 m from the point O, is

(1) 50 m
(1) 2.5 m
(2) 25 m
(2) 2.0 m
(3) 75 m
(3) 3.0 m
(4) 65 m
(4) 1.5 m

47. Rain drops are falling at an angle of 30° with the vertical.
A man is moving along negative x-direction with constant
velocity of 5 m/s. To him rain drops appears to fall
vertically downward. The actual speed of rain is
(1) 5 m/s
(2) 10 m/s
(3) 15 m/s
(4) 20 m/s

CHEMISTRY

ATTEMPT ALL QUESTION

51. Two elements A and B reacts to form 2 compounds A3B4 57. A biomolecule contains 0.2% Fe by mass. The minimum
and A2B3. If 0.08 mole of A3B4 weighs 18.56 g and 0.2 molecular mass possible for the biomolecule is (At. Mass
mole of A2B3 weighs 32 g, then the atomic weights of A of Fe = 56 u)
and B respectively are (1) 14000 u
(1) 27 u, 16 u (2) 28000 u
(2) 56 u, 16 u (3) 5600 u
(3) 54 u, 14 u (4) 2800 u
(4) 63.5 u, 14 u 58. 1 kg of coal is burnt in 640 g of oxygen in a closed vessel.
If the percentage of carbon and sulphur in the coal
52. One gram of metal hydroxide gives x g of the metal oxide sample is 12% and 10% respectively and rest of the coal
then equivalent weight of metal is content does not burn, then the ratio of the amount of
CO2 produced to that of SO2 produced is (Consider SO2
(1) 8

1−x
will not oxidise further)
(2) 17x

1−x
(1) 11 : 8
(2) 8 : 11
(3) 17x−8

1−x

(3) 5 : 11
(4) 17x+8

1+x (4) 11 : 5
53. From 44 mg CO , 1020 molecules are removed calculate 59. For the chemical reaction
2
X + 2Y ⟶ Z
the moles of CO2 left (Use NA = 6 × 1023) 4 mole of X and 6 mole of Y will produce, maximum
(1) 4.25 × 10–4 (1) 4 mole of Z

(2) 8.3 × 10–4 (2) 3 mole of Z

(3) 8 mole of Z
(3) 1.6 × 10–2
(4) 12 mole of Z
(4) 4.4 × 10–2
60. 100 ml of propane gas undergoes combustion with 100
54. 15 moles A, 18 moles of B and 20 moles of C reacted ml of oxygen. The total volume of the reaction mixture
together according to the reaction A + 2B + 4C after the combustion (All the measurements are taken at
⟶ AB C . The moles of AB C
STP):
2 4 2 4 formed is
(1) 100 ml
(1) 5
(2) 220 ml
(2) 9
(3) 140 ml
(3) 15
(4) 130 ml
(4) 20
61. For the complete neutralisation of one gram mixture of
55. 0.23 g of a metal on treatment with an acid gives 112 ml
of hydrogen gas at STP. Equivalent mass of the metal is Na2CO3 and NaHCO3, y equivalents of HCl are
required. How many equivalents of HCl are required for
(1) 46 complete neutralisation of residue obtained by strong
(2) 23 heating of one gram given mixture?

(3) 12 (1) y equivalents

(4) 11.5 (2) 2y equivalents

y

56. P and Q are two elements which form two compounds (3) 2
equivalents
P2Q3 and PQ2. If 0.15 mole of P2Q3 weighs 15.9 g and
0.15 mole of PQ2 weighs 9.3 g, then what are atomic (4) 3y

2
equivalents
mass of P and Q?
62. An organic compound containing C, H and O gave the
P = 18 u following analysis C = 40%, O = 53.33%. Its possible
(1)
Q = 26 u molecular formula is
P = 26 u (1) C2H4O2
(2)
Q = 18 u
(2) C2H4O
P = 62 u
(3)
Q = 36 u (3) C2H6O
P = 31 u (4) C2H6O2
(4)
Q = 40 u
63. Number of oxygen molecules present in 1 equivalent of 70. 2 g of metal carbonate (M2CO3) on treatment with dil.
oxygen are (NA : Avogadro's number) HCl produces 0.02 mole of CO2. The molar mass (g

(1) 2 NA mole–1) of metal carbonate is

(2) 3 NA (1) 100

(2) 50
(3) NA

2
(3) 200
(4) NA

4
(4) 115

64. Suppose the elements X and Y combine to form two
compounds X2Y and X3Y4. 0.1 mole of X2Y weighs 10 g
and 0.05 mole of X3Y4 weighs 15 g, the atomic masses
of X and Y respectively are
(1) 20 u and 60 u
(2) 50 u and 30 u
71. A 40 mL mixture of CO, CH4 and He gases is exploded
by an electric discharge at room temperature with excess
of oxygen. The volume contraction is found to be 26 mL.
A further contraction of 28 mL occurs when the residual
gas is treated with KOH. The composition of the original
mixture in terms of volume percentage of CO(g), CH4(g),
and He(g) is respectively

(3) 60 u and 20 u (1) 50, 30, 20

(4) 30 u and 50 u (2) 50, 20, 30

(3) 30, 20, 50
65. How many moles of ethane are required to produce 44 g
of CO2(g), after the combustion of ethane? (4) 50, 40, 10

(1) 2 72. A silver coin weighing 2.4 g is dissolved in excess HNO3

(2) 1 and then further treated with HCl solution in excess. The
weight of AgCl formed is 2.87 g. The percentage of silver
(3) 0.5 in the coin is (Atomic weight of Ag = 108, Cl = 35.5)
(4) 0.25 (1) 85%
66. Mass of lime (CaO) that can be produced by heating 10 (2) 88%
kg of limestone (CaCO3) which is 75% pure, is
(3) 92%
(1) 5.6 kg (4) 90%
(2) 4.2 kg 73. For the hypothetical reaction
(3) 6.5 kg 2A + 3B + 4C → 2D
Maximum moles of D formed when 10 moles of A reacts
(4) 2.4 kg with 9 moles of B and 16 moles of C are
67. Calculate the number of gram atoms in 100 ml mercury. (1) 8
Given: Density of Hg = 13.6 g ml–1 and molar mass of Hg (2) 6
= 200 g mol–1
(3) 4
(1) 2.26
(4) 2
(2) 6.8
74. 100 ml of 0.2 M Na2SO4 solution is mixed with 400 ml of
(3) 6.8 × NA 0.1 M Al2(SO4)3 solution. The molar concentration of

(4)
2.26
SO42– ion in the final solution is
NA

(1) 0.12
68. The number of moles of electrons in 1.1 mg of electrons is
(NA = 6.02 × 1023 mol–1) (mass of electron = 9.1 × 10– (2) 0.28
31 kg) (3) 0.24

(1) 3 mol (4) 2.8

(2) 1 mol 75. How many grams of maximum zinc chloride will be
formed from a reaction between 6.5 g of Zn and 3.2 g of
(3) 4 mol HCl?
(4) 2 mol (Atomic weight of Zn = 65 and Cl = 35.5)

69. What volume of O2 at NTP is required to burn 420 g of (1) 5.96 g

cyclopropane completely? (2) 3.97 g
(1) 1120 L (3) 7.97 g
(2) 2016 L (4) 2.97 g
(3) 1008 L
(4) 2240 L
76. Which among the following is an incorrect statement? 81. If the mass percentage of magnesium in a biomolecule is
0.04%, then the minimum molecular weight of
(1) Avogadro number = 6.022 × 1022 biomolecule is

(2) Root mean square speed = √

−
−−−
3RT (1) 6000
M

(2) 60000
The average speed of the gas molecules can be
(3) 30000
(3) 1/2

calculated by the formula ( 8RT

πM
)
(4) 12000

(4) Total kinetic energy for one mole of gas = 3

RT 82. Copper has two naturally occurring isotopes 63Cu and
2

65Cu. If the average atomic mass of copper is 63.546 u,

77. Two isotopes of an element have atomic masses M and
then natural abundance of lighter isotope of Cu will be
(M + 1) respectively. If the average atomic mass of the
element is (M + 0.5), then the ratio of % occurrence of M (1) 46.4%
and (M + 1) is
(2) 27.3%
(1) 1 : 1
(3) 54.2%
(2) 4 : 1
(4) 72.7%
(3) 3 : 2
83. A : Second is SI unit of time.
(4) 2 : 1 R : Infinite number of significant figures are present in 60
s.
78. The mass of precipitate (Ag2CO3) formed, when 50 ml of
21.2% (w/v) solution of Na2CO3 is mixed with 100 ml of Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is
(1)
17% (w/v) AgNO3 solution is (molar mass: AgNO3 = 170 the correct explanation of the assertion

g mol–1, Na2CO3 = 106 g mol–1 and Ag2CO3 = 276 g (2)

Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is
not the correct explanation of the assertion
mol–1)
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(1) 25.9 g
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements
(2) 16.7 g
84. The percentage loss of mass by Na2SO4·10 H2O to
(3) 31.4 g become anhydrous is
(4) 13.8 g (1) 72.5%
79. The mass of 80% pure H2SO4 required to neutralise 106 (2) 45.2%
g of Na2CO3 is
(3) 55.9%
(1) 78.4 g (4) 65.2%
(2) 122.5 g
85. A sample of CaCO3 has Ca = 40%, C = 12% and O =
(3) 98 g 48%. If the law of constant proportion is true, then the
(4) 80 g mass of O in 15 g CaCO3 from another source will be

80. Suppose the elements X and Y combine to form two (1) 5 g

compounds X2Y and X3Y4. 0.1 mole of X2Y weighs 10 g (2) 7.2 g
and 0.05 mole of X3Y4 weighs 15 g, the atomic masses
(3) 6 g
of X and Y respectively are
(4) 4.8 g
(1) 20 u and 60 u
(2) 50 u and 30 u
(3) 60 u and 20 u
(4) 30 u and 50 u

ATTEMPT 10 OUT OF 15

86. When 2 g of H2 reacts with 32 g of O2 during an

explosion at 500 K, the final gaseous mixture will contain
(1) H2, O2 and H2O

(2) O2 only

(3) H2O only

(4) O2 and H2O only

87. In the reaction 94. Correct decreasing order of mass of NaOH in the
F e2 ( C2 O4 )
3
+3
→ Fe equivalent
−
+ C O2 + e , mass of following solutions is
reactant is [Molar mass of Fe2(C2O4)3 is M] a. 50 g of 40% (w/w) NaOH
b. 50 ml of 50% (w/v) NaOH
(1) M

2
c. 50 g of 15 M NaOH with density 1 g mL–1
(1) a > b > c
(2)
M

(2) c > b > a

(3) M

3 (3) b > c > a

(4) M

1
(4) b > a > c

88. Among the following which has maximum number of 95. A bottle contains 2L of milk. The volume of milk in m3 is
molecules?
(1) 20 × 10–3
(1) 49 g of H3PO4
(2) 2 × 103
(2) 45 g of C6H12O6
(3) 20 × 103
(3) 28 g N2

(4) 36 g H2O (4) 2 × 10–3

96. How much maximum copper can be obtained from 100

89. The crystalline salt, Na2SO4·xH2O contains 40.4%
mL of 1 M CuSO4 solution? (At. mass of Cu = 63.5 u)
Na2SO4 by mass. The formula of crystalline salt is
(1) 63.5 g
(1) Na2SO4·2H2O
(2) 15.95 g
(2) Na2SO4·7H2O
(3) 6.35 g
(3) Na2SO4·12H2O (4) 159.5 g
(4) Na2SO4·5H2O 97. If mole fraction of glucose in its aqueous solution is 0.05
then molality of this solution will be
90. Which of the following has maximum number of atoms?
(1) 2.92 m
(1) 22.4 L of CO2 at STP
(2) 9.26 m
(2) 44.8 L of O2 at STP
(3) 4.63 m
(3) 1 L of H2O at 4°C
(4) 1.21 m
(4) 11.2 L of SO3 at STP
98. A solution containing 2 g per 100 mL of urea (molecular
91. 2 litres of 0.1 M HCl solution is mixed with another 1 litre mass = 60 g mol–1) is isotonic with a 5% (w/v) solution of
of 0.2 M HCl solution. The molarity of the resulting a non-volatile solute. The molecular mass of this non-
solution will be volatile solute is
(1) 0.13 M (1) 175 g mol–1
(2) 0.23 M
(2) 200 g mol–1
(3) 0.31 M
(3) 350 g mol–1
(4) 0.47 M

92. A mixture of 2.3 g formic acid and 4.5 g oxalic acid is (4) 150 g mol–1
treated with conc. H2SO4. The evolved gaseous mixture 99. Number of valence electrons present in 16 mg of oxygen
is passed through KOH pellets. Weight (in g) of the atoms is
remaining gaseous product at STP will be
(1) 6.02 × 1021
(1) 1.4
(2) 3.0 (2) 6.02 × 1020

(3) 4.4 (3) 3.6 × 1021

(4) 2.8
(4) 3.6 × 1020
93. A : The number of molecules in 1 cm3 of gas at STP is
100.A mixture of methanol and water contains 32% methanol
known as loschmidt number. by mass, the molality of methanol in the solution is
R : Charge on one mole of electron is nearly 96500
coulomb. (1) 14.7 m
Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is (2) 11.5 m
(1)
the correct explanation of the assertion (3) 9.7 m
Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is (4) 12.3 m
(2)
not the correct explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements
 BOTANY

ATTEMPT ALL QUESTIONS

101.Sometimes a few chromosomes have non-staining 106.Which of the given is/are not true for lipid component of
secondary constrictions at a constant location, which plasma membrane?
gives appearance of a small fragment called a. Tail is made up of saturated hydrocarbons
b. Head is hydrophobic
(1) Centromere c. It gives quasi fluid nature to plasmamembrane
(2) Satellite d. In human erythrocyte membrane, lipid fraction is more
than proteins
(3) Kinetochore
(1) Only b
(4) Telomere
(2) Only b & d
102.Identify True (T) or False (F) statements and choose the
(3) Only a & b
correct option.
(a) The assembly of microtubules require mostly ATP and (4) Only a & c
Mg++
107.Mitochondria and chloroplast, both are considered as
(b) The microfilaments help in pseudopodia formation semi-autonomous cell organelles. How many of the given
(c) Cytoskeleton occurs only in eukaryotic cells
features is/are exclusive to mitochondria?
(d) Protofilament is made up of α and β sub units of
(a) Presence of dsDNA
tubulin protein. (b) Oxidation of carbohydrates
(a) (b) (c) (d) (c) Presence of ETS
(1) (d) Surrounded by double membrane
F F T T
(e) ATP synthesis
(2) F T T T
(1) 2
(3) T T F T
(2) 3
(4) T F T F
(3) 1
(1) (1)
(4) 4
(2) (2)
108.The site for ribosomal RNA synthesis in eukaryotes
(3) (3)
(1) Is a spherical structure found in the nucleoplasm
(4) (4)
(2) Is bounded by two membranes
103.What is the common feature among leucoplasts,
Is absent in cells which are involved in protein
chloroplasts and chromoplasts? (3)
synthesis
(1) Type of pigments
(4) Both (1) & (3)
(2) Storage materials
109.Chromatin in interphase nucleus
(3) Presence of thylakoids and grana
(1) Is composed of DNA and basic protein histones.
(4) Double membrane bound
Has approximately 2 metre long thread of DNA and is
(2)
104.Phosphoglycerides are the main constituent of distributed in 23 chromosomes.
(1) Lipid component of cell membrane (3) Refers RNA and non-histone proteins only.
(2) Protein component of cell membrane (4) More than one options are correct.
(3) Lipid component of cell wall 110.Which one is a distinguishing feature between
prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?
(4) Protein component of cell wall
(1) Occurrence of ribosomes
105.Read the following statements and select which are not
the postulates of cell theory. (2) Cell wall composition
(a) Cell differ greatly in size, shape and activities.
(3) Structure of cell membrane
(b) All living organisms are composed of cells and
products of cells. (4) Occurrence of DNA as genetic material
(c) The cytoplasm is the main arena of cellular activities.
(d) All cells arise from pre-existing cells.
(1) (a), (d)
(2) (b), (d)
(3) (a), (c)
(4) (c), (d)
111. How many of the following organisms lack membrane 116.Read the following statements.
bound organelles? a. Golgi apparatus is the important site of formation of
Mycoplasma, Protozoa, E. coli, Clostridium, Blue green glycoproteins and glycolipids
algae, Fungi b. Enzymes of lysosomes are optimally active at basic pH.
c. Plant vacuole is bound by a single membrane called
(1) Two tonoplast.
d. Endoplasmic reticulum is involved in protein synthesis
(2) Three only
The correct ones are
(3) Four
(1) a and b
(4) Five
(2) a and c
112.How many of the following is/are the function(s) of cell
wall? (3) b and d
(a) Gives shape to the cells
(4) All except b
(b) Protects from mechanical damage and infection
(c) Regulates the transport of the molecules across it 117.Eukaryotic cells possess/have
(d) Helps in cell to cell interaction
(1) An organised nucleus without nucleolus
(1) One
(2) Genetic material organised into plasmids
(2) Two
(3) Inclusion bodies in all animal cells
(3) Three
A variety of complex locomotory and cytoskeletal
(4) Four (4)
structures
113.Choose the incorrect statement regarding eukaryotic 118.Match the following columns.
cells.
(a) Presence of extensive compartmentalisation of Column I Column II
cytoplasm a. Polysome (i) Mitochondria
(b) Presence of an organised nucleus having a nuclear b. Oxidation of proteins (ii) Ribosome
envelope
(c) Cytoskeletal structures are absent c. Membrane-less (iii) Ribosome
(d) Genetic material is organised into circular DNA d. Astral rays formation
(1) (a) and (b) only
(i) (ii) (iii)
(2) (b) and (c) only (1) a, b c d
(3) (c) and (d) only (2) c a, d b
(3) b a, c d
(4) All (a), (b), (c) and (d) (4) a b c, d
114.What is the common feature among leucoplasts, (1) (1)
chloroplasts and chromoplasts?
(2) (2)
(1) Type of pigments
(3) (3)
(2) Amount of storage materials
(4) (4)
(3) Presence of thylakoids and grana
119.Plasma membrane is an absolute requirement for living
(4) Double membrane bound
organisms, because it is/has
115.Which of the following statements is incorrect about Responsible for the relationship of a cell with the
lampbrush chromosomes? (1)
outside world.
(1) These are diplotene bivalents joined at chiasmata (2) Composed of lipids that are arranged in a bilayer.
They are observed in the salivary gland cells of some (3) Composed of protein.
(2)
insects
(4) Variable ratio of protein and lipid in different cell types.
Their loops are extended parts of chromosomes
(3)
which participate in transcription
Some of the nascent RNA produced by these
(4) chromosomes are stored as informosomes for future
use
120.Select the correct option to fill up the blanks in the 124.Which of the following is not true w.r.t plasma membrane?
following statements.
a. Typically mitochondrion is sausage shaped having a It is selectively permeable to some molecules present
(1)
on either side of it
diameter of (i) .
¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯
b. A single human cell has approx (ii) long thread of The lipid component of the membrane mainly consists
(2)
¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯ of phosphoglycerides
DNA distributed among its 46 chromosomes.
c. Mitochondria help in (iii) phosphorylation & Polar molecules can be transported easily across the
(3)
¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯ membrane by simple diffusion
generation of ATP.
(i) (ii) (iii) Ions require special type of proteins to cross the
(4)
membrane
(1) 1.0 – 4.1 μm 20 meter Oxidative
125.Nucleolus is the site of synthesis of ribosomal RNA which
(2) 0.2 – 10 μm 200 meter Substrate are the components of sub- units
(3) 0.2 – 1.0 μm 2 meter Oxidative (1) 30S, 50S

(4) 1.0 – 4.1 μm 2.5 meter Substrate (2) 60S, 50S

(3) 40S, 60S
(1) (1)
(4) 30S, 40S
(2) (2)
126.Different shapes and types of chromosomes are given in
(3) (3)
column A and B respectively. Select the correct option
(4) (4) after matching the following column.
Column-A Column-B
121.Match the following columns and choose the correct
answer. a. V-shape (i) Acrocentric
b. L-shape (ii) Metacentric
Column I Column II
c. J-shape (iii) Submetacentric
Passive Movement of ions against d. I-shape (iv) Telocentric
a. (i)
transport concentration gradient
(1) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv)
Active Movement of water by diffusion
b. (ii) (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
transport through SPM
Simple diffusion along (3) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
c. Osmosis (iii)
concentration gradient (4) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i)

(1) a(iii), b(ii), c(i) 127.Select the incorrect statement regarding Golgi
apparatus.
(2) a(iii), b(i), c(ii)
(1) This cell organelle was named by Camillo Golgi
(3) a(ii), b(iii), c(i)
Its cis face is the forming face and trans face is the
(4) a(i), b(iii), c(ii) (2)
maturing face
122.State true (T) or false (F) statements w.r.t. plasma (3) Its cis and trans faces are interconnected
membrane
a. The non-polar tail of saturated hydrocarbons is It consists of many cisternae stalked parallel to each
(4)
other
protected from the aqueous environment.
b. In human beings, the membrane of the erythrocyte has 128.Select the correct statement(s) from the following.
approximately 40 percent protein and 52 percent lipids. (a) There is only one difference between plant cell and
c. The quasi-fluid nature of proteins enables lateral animal cell that is presence or absence of plastids
movement of lipids within the overall bilayer. (b) All eukaryotic cells are fundamentally similar
(1) a(T), b(F), c(T) (c) Centrioles are found only in multicellular organisms

(2) a(F), b(T), c(T) (1) (a) and (b)

(3) a(T), b(F), c(F) (2) (b) only

(4) a(F), b(T), c(F) (3) (a) and (c)

(4) (c) only
123.Consider the following statements and choose the
correct option. 129.Select the incorrect match.
Statement A: The interphase nucleus has a loose and
extended network of nucleo-protein fibres called (1) Contractile vacuole Excretion
chromatin.
(2) Ribosome Protein synthesis
Statement B: Sometimes a few chromosomes have non-
staining secondary constriction at a constant location. (3) Cell wall Selectively permeable
(1) Only statement A is incorrect (4) Cell membrane Passive transport
(2) Only statement B is incorrect
(1) (1)
(3) Both the statements are correct
(2) (2)
(4) Both the statements are incorrect
(3) (3)
(4) (4)
130.Match the following and select the correct answer. 133.Match the following columns and select the correct
Column I Column II option.
a. Centriole (i) Present in thylakoids Column I Column II
b. Chlorophyll (ii) Form spindle fibres a. β-oxidation of fats (i) Microtubules
c. Primary cell (iii) Increases the surface area b. Cytoskeleton of cilia (ii) Lysosomes
wall Provide support to plasma
c. (iii) Mitochondira
d. Cristae (iv) Thin, elastic and capable of membrane
expansion d. Activity of hydrolytic enzymes (iv) Microfilaments
(1) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) (1) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)
(2) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i)
(2) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
(3) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
(3) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
(4) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i) (4) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
131.Match the Column-I with Column-II and choose correct
134.Read the following statements carefully
option. A. Particles of Fernandez and Moran occur in
Column-I Column-II mitochondria.
B. High G ≡ C content is found in dsDNA of chloroplast.
a. Polysome (i) Leucoplast C. Mitochondria are sausage-shaped double membraned
b. Fat storage (ii) Vacuole organelles that divide by fission.
(1) Only B is correct
Ribosome chain on a
c. Tonoplast (iii)
common m-RNA (2) B & C are correct, but A is incorrect
Colourless (3) B & C are incorrect
d. (iv) Elaioplast
plastid
(4) A, B & C are correct
(1) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) 135.Select the incorrect match.
(2) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv) Centriole – Helps in the formation of basal body of
(1)
flagella
(3) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)
Eukaryotic flagella – ‘9+0’ arrangement of
(4) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i) (2)
microtubules
132.Select the incorrect match from the following. (3) Smooth ER – Lipid synthesis
(1) Perinuclear space – The space around the nucleus
(4) Vacuole – Surrounded by tonoplast
(2) Chromatin – Contains DNA and RNA
(3) Nucleoli – Present in nucleoplasm
(4) Nuclear pore – Passage for RNA and proteins

(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)

ATTEMPT 10 OUT OF 15

136.Select wrong statement. 137.Read the following statements and select the correct
option.
(1) Parenchymatous cells have primary cell wall only. Statement A : Peripheral proteins of plasma membrane
(2) Plasmodesmata is living component of cell wall. are partially or totally buried in the membrane.
Statement B : Neutral solutes may move across the
(3) Secondary cell wall is laid during cell differentiation. plasma membrane by the process of simple diffusion
Adjacent cells in a plant tissue are held together by a along the concentration gradient.
(4)
thick sticky layer of middle lamella (1) Only A is incorrect
(2) Only B is incorrect
(3) Both A and B are correct
(4) Both A and B are incorrect
138.Examine the given figure and select the incorrect 142.Match the following columns and select the correct
statement w.r.t the figure and its labelled parts (A, B and option.
C). Column-I Column-II
a. Ribozyme (i) Infoldings in mitochondria
b. Cristae (ii) Single membrane bound
c. Chromatophores (iii) Photosynthesis
d. Lysosome (iv) Nucleic acid

(1) a(iv), b(i), c(ii) d(iii)

(2) a(ii), b(iv), c(i) d(iii)
(3) a(iv), b(i), c(iii) d(ii)
(4) a(iv), b(ii), c(i) d(iii)
143.Which of the following statements are incorrect
The given figure is of fluid mosaic model of plasma
(1) regarding animal cells?
membrane
(I) Almost all animal cells lack centrosome and centrioles.
‘A’ is integral protein which lies on the surface of the (II) Most of the animal cells have permanent large sap
(2)
membrane vacuoles.
(III) They have prominent Golgi apparatus.
(3) ‘B’ represents lipid bilayer
(IV) They have various types of plastids, except
(4) ‘C’ moves laterally within the overall lipid bilayer chloroplast.

139.Mark the following statements as true (T) or false (F) and (1) (I), (II) and (IV)
select the correct option. (2) (I) and (III)
A. Outer mitochondrial membrane is more permeable
than inner one. (3) (II), (III) and (IV)
B. Inner membrane of mitochondria contains ATP (4) (III) and (IV) only
synthase enzyme.
C. Mitochondrial matrix contains enzymes of Krebs cycle 144.Which of the given is/are not true for lipid component of
and 80S ribosomes. plasma membrane?
A B C a. Tail is made up of saturated hydrocarbons
b. Head is hydrophobic
(1) T T T c. It gives quasi fluid nature to plasma membrane
(2) T F F d. In human erythrocyte membrane, lipid fraction is more
than proteins
(3) T T F
(4) F T F (1) Only b
(2) Only b & d
(1) (1)
(3) Only a & b
(2) (2)
(4) Only a & c
(3) (3)
(4) (4)
140.Select the incorrect statement about salivary gland
chromosomes.
(1) Also known as polytene chromosomes
(2) Balbiani rings are sites of lipid synthesis
(3) Seen in salivary gland cells of some insects.
(4) Show somatic pairing
141.Presence of which one of the following structures in
bacteria confers certain unique phenotypic characters
like resistance to antibiotics?
(1) Plasmid DNA
(2) Cell wall
(3) Genomic DNA
(4) Fimbriae
145.Identify the labels A, B & C in the given diagram and 148.Some features of cells are listed below. Categorise these
choose the option that has their correct features. features w.r.t. prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells and choose
the option accordingly.
(i) Plasmids are generally absent
(ii) Nuclear region is poorly defined
(iii) Chromatophores , if present, perform photosynthesis
(iv) Nucleolus is present
(v) Nuclear material is not in direct contact with cytoplasm
Eukaryotic cell Prokaryotic cell
(1) (ii), (iii) & (v) (i) & (iv)
A B C
(2) (i), (iii) & (iv) (ii) & (v)
Increases (3) (i), (iv) & (v) (ii) & (iii)
Rich in Contains 70 S
(1) surface area for (4) (ii) & (v) (i), (iv) & (iii)
cardiolipins ribosomes
enzyme action
(1) (1)
More
permeable Have Has small (2) (2)
(2)
than inner oxysomes circular ds DNA
membrane (3) (3)
(4) (4)
More
Possesses ds
permeable 149.The lipid component of the plasma membrane is
(3) Crista DNA with low G
than inner
≡C content
membrane (1) Polar tail and nonpolar head

Outer Has enzymes (2) Nonpolar tail and polar head

(4) F1 particles
membrane for dark reaction Hydrophobic part inner side and hydrophilic part outer
(3)
side
(1) (1)
(4) All except (A)
(2) (2)
150.When a chromosome is observed at anaphase, it is found
(3) (3) that the p-arm of that chromosome has a satellite
(4) (4) Based on the above information, which of the following
statements should be correct?
146.In plants, secondary cell wall is formed
(1) This chromosome has only one constriction
(1) Inside the cell membrane
The length of the arm which has no satellite is
(2) Towards the outerside of the primary cell wall (2)
comparatively longer
(3) Between the primary cell wall and plasma membrane (3) This chromosome lacks centromere
(4) Between the primary cell walls of two adjacent cells The centromere in this chromosome is present at the
(4)
terminal end
147.State the following statements as True (T) or False (F)
regarding the cell membrane and select the correct
option.
(a) In human beings, the membrane of the erythrocyte
has approximately 40 percent lipids and 52 percent
proteins.
(b) Integral and peripheral proteins lie on the surface of
the membrane.
(c) Quasi-fluid nature of lipids enables lateral movement
of proteins within the overall bilayer.
(d) The fluid nature of the membrane helps in functions
like cell growth, cell division and formation of intercellular
junctions.
(1) (a)-T, (b)-T, (c)-F, (d)-T
(2) (a)-T, (b)-F, (c)-T, (d)-T
(3) (a)-T, (b)-F, (c)-F, (d)-F
(4) (a)-F, (b)-T, (c)-T, (d)-T

ZOOLOGY

ATTEMPT ALL QUESTIONS

151.Select the option which identifies A and 156.Read the statements given below w.r.t. cell junctions.
B correctly.
¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯ A. Tight junction helps to stop substances from leaking
¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯
across a tissue.
B. Gap junctions facilitate the cells to communicate with
each other by connecting the cytoplasm of adjoining
cells.
C. Adhering junctions facilitate rapid transfer of ions
among adjacent cells.
D. Cell junctions are present in all epithelial tissues only.
Select the option with incorrect statement(s) only
(1) A - Lymph, B – Muscle tissue (1) B and C
(2) A - Neural tissue, B - Blood (2) A, B and D
(3) A - Areolar tissue, B - Blood
(3) C and D
(4) A - Areolar tissue, B - Neural tissue
(4) D only
152.The entire body of cockroach is covered by a hard
157.Which of the following tissue acts as shock absorber due
chitinous exoskeleton. In each segment, exoskeleton has to presence of solid and pliable matrix and cushions
hardened plates called A that are joined to each other articular surfaces of tibia and femur where they come
¯¯¯¯¯¯
by a thin and flexible B . together?
¯¯¯¯¯¯
Select the option to fill the blanks correctly. (1) Tendon
A B
(2) Muscle
(1) Tentorium Arthrodial membrane
(3) Ligament
(2) Sclerites Arthrodial membrane
(4) Cartilage
(3) Tegmina Articular membrane
(4) Tegmina Cementing glue 158.White adipose tissue serves as a reservoir of energy
when a person gains weight. What is true about fats?
(1) (1) (1) White fat converts into brown fat
(2) (2) (2) The number of mitochondria in adipocytes increase
(3) (3) The adipocytes become larger as the size of the fat
(3)
(4) (4) globule increases

153.Choose the correct option w.r.t cardiac muscles. Catabolism of triglycerides stored in fat cells comes to
(4)
a stop
Communication junctions between cardiac muscle
(1) fibres allow the cells of atria to contract as a single 159.Fallopian tubes are lined by
unit (1) Ciliated epithelium
Z-lines of cardiac muscles are composed of actin (2) Brush bordered cuboidal epithelium
(2)
proteins
(3) Squamous epithelium
Molecular basis for contraction of heart muscles is
(3) (4) Pseudostratified epithelium
Ca2+ – calmodulin binding
Multinucleated fibres are held together at intercalated 160.Select the correct statement.
(4)
discs Nissl’s granules are small and regular masses of
(1)
mitochondria and SER.
154.A : Stratified non-keratinised squamous epithelium covers
the dry surface of skin. Dendrites are long and unbranched processes arising
R : Non-Keratinised stratified epithelium can prevent (2)
from the axon
water loss.
Nerve impulses pass between neurons through the
Both Assertion and Reason are true but the reason is (3)
(1) synapse
not the correct explanation of the assertion
Complete length of axon is covered by myelin sheath
Both Assertion and Reason are true and the reason is (4)
(2) in continuous manner in PNS
the correct explanation of the assertion
161.In sebaceous glands, cells are completely disintegrated
(3) Both Assertion and Reason are false statement to secrete their product. This type of gland is known as
(4) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false (1) Eccrine gland
155.Leptin is a hormone produced by (2) Merocrine gland
(1) Fibroblasts (3) Apocrine gland
(2) Plasma cells (4) Holocrine gland
(3) Adipocytes 162.Skin is not related to the presence of
(4) Mast cells (1) Simple epithelium for its protective function
(2) Compound epithelium on its dry surface
(3) Areolar tissue beneath it
(4) Dense irregular connective tissue beneath it
163.Match column I with column II w.r.t. tissue and their 166.Choose the odd one w.r.t. exocrine secretions
location.
(1) Saliva
Column I Column II
a. Cuboidal (i) Inner surface of fallopian (2) Milk
epithelium tube (3) Hormones
b. Columnar (ii) Tubular parts of nephron
(4) Earwax
epithelium
c. Squamous (iii) Air sacs of lungs 167.Glial cells in humans are
epithelium
(1) Excitable cells present in muscles
d. Ciliated (iv) Lining of intestine
epithelium (2) Structural and functional units of neural tissue
Choose the correct option. Make up less than one-third the volume of neural
(3)
(1) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i) tissue in our body

(2) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (4) Non-excitable cells of neural tissue

(3) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii) 168.Stratum germinativum is basal layer of dividing cells of
compound epithelium. This is present at which of the
(4) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) following locations?
164.Read the following statements. (a) Palm of hand & soles
(b) Surfaces that resist abrasive influence of environment
a. Columnar or cuboidal cells get specialised for (c) Tubular parts of nephron
secretion and are called glandular epithelium.
(d) Surfaces involved in diffusion
b. Exocrine glands secrete mucus, saliva, milk insulin, Choose the correct option.
enzymes etc.
c. Goblet cells are unicellular glands while salivary (1) (a) & (b)
glands are multicellular glands.
d. Tight junctions cement the neighbouring cells together. (2) (b) & (c)
How many above statements are correct? (3) (c) & (d)
(1) 2 (4) (a), (c) & (d)
(2) 3 169.Heparin and histamine are released by
(3) 4 (1) Fibroblasts
(4) 1 (2) Mast cells
165.Observe the tissue represented by the below given (3) Osteocytes
diagram and read the given statements
(4) Adipocytes

170.Following are the statements with some blanks. Find the

correct option which fills blanks correctly.
a. Fibres and fibroblasts are compactly packed in the
(i) .

b. (ii) which connect or attach one bone to another.

c. Connective tissue are classified into (iii) types.

d. (iv) is a fluid connective tissue.

(i) Dense connective tissue

a. It has a hard and non-pliable ground substance rich in (ii) Tendon
(1)
calcium salts. (iii) Four
b. Cells of this tissue are enclosed in small cavities within (iv) Lymph
the matrix secreted by them. (i) Loose connective tissue
c. It forms supportive skeletal structures in the human (ii) Ligament
external ears and in the nose tip. (2)
(iii) Three
d. These tissues interact with visceral muscles attached to (iv) Blood
them to bring about movements.
Choose the option that represents correct statements (i) Dense connective tissue
w.r.t. the tissue represented in the above diagram (ii) Ligament
(3)
(iii) Three
(1) a, c and d (iv) Blood
(2) b, c and d (i) Loose connective tissue
(3) b and c (ii) Tendon
(4)
(iii) Four
(4) c and d (iv) Blood
171.Many animals have been often seen chewing discarded 178.Select the incorrect option w.r.t. the type of muscle tissue,
bones. These bones could possibly supplement their its location and action.
need for Muscle Location Action
(1) Essential fatty acids tissue
(2) Minerals such as calcium and phosphate (1) Skeletal Triceps of Voluntary
upper arms
(3) Essential amino acids
(2) Smooth Wall of Involuntary
(4) Nitrogenous compounds intestine
172.Select the false statement (3) Cardiac Only in heart Involuntary
(4) Smooth All visceral Involuntary
In mammary glands, the product of secretion is shed
(1) organs
with the whole cell leading to its destruction
Leptin helps regulate body fat and weight of an (1) (1)
(2)
individual
(2) (2)
Brown fat is particularly found in new-born babies and
(3) (3) (3)
hibernating mammals.
White fat cells have lesser number of mitochondria as (4) (4)
(4)
compared to brown fat cells. 179.Junctions that help to stop substances from leaking
173.Choose the incorrect match. across the tissue are

(1) Simple cuboidal epithelium - Lining of trachea (1) Tight junctions

(2) Transitional epithelium - Lining of pelvis (2) Macula adherens

(3) Stratified epithelium - Lining of buccal cavity (3) Hemidesmosomes

(4) Brush bordered cuboidal epithelium - PCT of nephron (4) Desmosomes

174.Collagen fibres are secreted by 180.Read the following statements.

A and these fibres are
¯
¯¯¯
¯
A. Diverse type of connective tissue binds together,
oriented differently in B connective tissue. support, strengthen and insulate other tissues.
¯
¯¯¯
¯
Choose the option that correctly identifies A and B B. Soft connective tissue includes bone and cartilage.
respectively. C. Blood is a fluid connective tissue which helps in
transport.
(1) Mast cells, skeletal D. Connective tissue has very less intercellular material.
(2) Fibroblasts, dense regular A B C D
(3) Fibroblasts, dense irregular (1) T T F T
(2) T F T F
(4) Macrophages, dense irregular
(3) F F F T
175.Which of the following is not absent at the node of (4) T T F F
Ranvier in a myelinated neuron of CNS?
(1) (1)
(1) Myelin sheath
(2) (2)
(2) Axolemma
(3) (3)
(3) Nissl bodies
(4) (4)
(4) Both (1) & (3)
181.Select the option which identifies A and
176.Select the correct statement w.r.t. neural tissue. ¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯
B correctly.
(1) All neuroglial cells are excitable in nature ¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯

Neurons are unit of neural system that respond to

(2)
stimulus
Muscles constitute less than one-half the volume of
(3)
neural tissue in our body
In adult humans, neural tissue consists of actively
(4)
dividing cells called neurons and glial cells
(1) A - Lymph, B – Muscle tissue
177.Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. cockroach. (2) A - Neural tissue, B - Blood
A ring of 6-8 pair of blind tubules called gastric (3) A - Areolar tissue, B - Blood
(1) caecae is present at the junction of foregut and
hindgut (4) A - Areolar tissue, B - Neural tissue
Respiratory system consists of 10 pairs of spiracles 182.Intercalated disc in a cardiac muscle is
(2)
present on lateral side of body
(1) Responsible for light and dark bands of the muscle
(3) This insect is uricotelic
(2) Dark line seen along the long axis of the muscle fibre
Compound eye consists of nearly 2000 hexagonal
(4) (3) Responsible for cells to contract as a unit
ommatidia
Present in structures or organs of the body subjected
(4)
to high stresses
183.The entire body of cockroach is covered by a hard 185.Choose the correct match from the table below.
chitinous exoskeleton. In each segment, exoskeleton has Cell junction Glycoprotein Presence of plaque
hardened plates called A that are joined to each other
¯¯¯¯¯¯
(i) Hemidesmosome A Present
by a thin and flexible B .
¯¯¯¯¯¯
(ii) Adherens B Present
A B
(1) Tentorium Arthrodial membrane (iii) Desmosome Cadherin C

(2) Sclerites Arthrodial membrane

(iv) Gap junction D Absent
(3) Tegmina Articular membrane
(4) Elytra Cementing glue (1) A = Integrin, B = Cadherin, C = Present, D = Connexin

(1) (1) (2) A = Cadherin, B = Integrin, C = Absent, D = Connexin

(2) (2) (3) A = Connexin, B = Cadherin, C = Present, D = Integrin

(3) (3) (4) A = Cadherin, B = Connexin, C = Present, D = Integrin

(4) (4)
184.The mucus secreting goblet cells of the alimentary canal
are represented by

(1) A : Multicellular consisting of cluster of cells

(2) B : Unicellular consisting of isolated glandular cells
(3) A : Columnar cells producing exocrine secretions
(4) B : Cuboidal cells also known as glandular epithelium

ATTEMPT 10 OUT OF 15

186.Long bones of the humans consist of 189.Which is not a function of white adipose tissue?
(1) Trabeculae mostly filled with yellow bone marrow (1) Acting as food reserve in cells
(2) Spongy bone only as they are rich in lacunae (2) Providing insulation to animals
(3) Compact bone only as they lack lamellae (3) Acting as shock absorber around sensitive organs
Both spongy and compact bone rich in bone marrow Producing heat and keeping body warm in
(4) (4)
and calcium phosphate salts hibernating mammals and neonates

187.Cell junctions which join epithelial cells to basal lamina 190.How many of the following given below are normally
i.e., the upper layer of basement membrane are present in areolar connective tissue?
(1) Interdigitations
(2) Intercellular bridges
(3) Desmosomes
Select the correct option.
(4) Hemidesmosomes
(1) 4
188.Choose the correct match w.r.t. type of epithelium and its (2) 5
location.
(3) 3
Ciliated columnar epithelium – PCT of nephrons of
(1) (4) 2
kidney
(2) Cuboidal epithelium with microvilli – Bronchioles
(3) Simple cuboidal epithelium – Walls of blood vessels
Columnar epithelium with microvilli – Inner lining of
(4)
intestine
191.Match the tissue with their location and select the 196.Choose an incorrect statement w.r.t connective tissue.
correct option.
In higher animals, connective tissues are most
Tissue Location (1)
abundantly distributed in their body
a. Ciliated epithelium (i) PCT of nephron
Collagen or elastin are the fibres of structural proteins
Squamous Moist surface of buccal (2) which provide strength, flexibility and elasticity to the
b. (ii)
epithelium cavity tissues
c. Cuboidal epithelium (iii) Walls of blood vessels
Ground substance or matrix consists of modified
Compound (3) polysaccharides secreted by the same cells which are
d. (iv) Inner lining of oviduct
epithelium responsible for the secretion of collagen or elastin
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii) Connective tissue are classified into two types i.e. soft
(4)
(2) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii) connective tissue and specialized connective tissue

(3) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv) 197.Consider the following four statements and select the
correct option from below
(4) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii) a. Tight junctions help to stop substances from leaking
across a tissue.
192.Select the incorrect match : b. Transitional epithelium lines the alimentary canal.
(1) Os cardis – snout of pig c. Pseudostratified epithelium consists of stratified
columnar epithelium.
(2) Os falciparum – Palm of mole d. Salivary glands, sweat glands and sebaceous glands
(3) Os penis – Penis of rat are examples of multicellular glands

(4) Os palbebrae – Eye lids of crocodile (1) a(T), b(F), c(T), d(F)
(2) a(F), b(T), c(F), d(T)
193.Match column A and B. Choose the correct option.
(3) a(T), b(T), c(F), d(F)
Column
Column B
A (4) a(T), b(F), c(F), d(T)
a. I-band (i) Has only myosin filaments 198.Pseudostratified epithelium is found at all of the following
locations in human body except
b. A-band (ii) Has only actin filaments
(1) Male urethra
Has both actin and myosin
c. H-zone (iii) (2) Trachea
filaments

A membrane to which actin (3) Large bronchi

d. Z-line (iv)
filaments are attached (4) Wall of Bowman's capsule

(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) 199.Consider the following four statements and select the
correct option from below
(2) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) a. Tight junctions help to stop substances from leaking
across tissue.
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
b. Transitional epithelium lines the alimentary canal.
(4) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii) c. Pseudostratified epithelium consists of stratified
columnar epithelium.
194.Find out the correct statement w.r.t epithelial tissues. d. Salivary glands, sweat glands and sebaceous glands
Basement membrane of epithelial tissues is a cellular are examples of multicellular glands
(1)
layer (1) a(T), b(F), c(T), d(F)
(2) Glands are composed of epithelial tissues (2) a(F), b(T), c(F), d(T)
There is an abundant intercellular material between (3) a(T), b(T), c(F), d(F)
(3)
the epithelial cells
(4) a(T), b(F), c(F), d(T)
Simple epithelium is present in Buccal cavity, pharynx
(4)
and in urinary bladder 200.Mark the odd one w.r.t origin.
195.Read the following statements and choose the option (1) Neuron
with all correct statements.
(2) Oligodendrocytes
a. When a neuron is suitably stimulated, an electrical
disturbance is generated which travels along its plasma (3) Astrocytes
membrane.
(4) Microglia
b. Cardiac muscle cells contract as a unit due to presence
of adhering junctions at some fusion points.
c. Specialized junctions in nearly all animal tissues
provide both structural and functional links between the
individual cells.
d. Most of the bones in vertebrate embryos are replaced
by cartilages in adults.
(1) a and b
(2) b and c
(3) c and d
(4) a and c