31/05/2023 Code-A

Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005,

Ph.011-47623456

MM : 720 Fortnightly Test Series 2023-24_RM(P1)-Test-01A Time : 200 Min.

Topics Covered:
Physics: Physical World, Units & Measurements, Motion in a Straight Line
Chemistry: Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry
Botany: Cell : The Unit of Life
Zoology: Structural Organisation in Animals– Animal Tissues

General Instructions :
1. Read each question carefully.
2. It is mandatory to use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen to darken the appropriate circle in the answer sheet.
3. Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
4. Rough work must not be done on the answer sheet.
5. Do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on answer sheet. No change in the answer once marked is allowed.
6. Student cannot use log tables and calculators or any other material in the examination hall.
7. Before attempting the question paper, student should ensure that the test paper contains all pages and no page is
missing.
8. Each correct answer carries four marks. One mark will be deducted for each incorrect answer from the total score.
9. Before handing over the answer sheet to the invigilator, candidate should check that Roll No. and Centre Code have
been filled and marked correctly.
10. Immediately after the prescribed examination time is over, the answer sheet to be returned to the invigilator.
11. There are two sections in each subject i.e., Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions from Section-A
& only 10 questions out of 15 from Section-B.

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

1. The displacement-time (x-t) graph of two 2. Velocity v is given by v = at + b, where t is

moving objects A and B are shown in the time. The dimensions of a and b respectively
figure. Choose the incorrect statement. are
(1) [LT–2 ], [LT]
(2) [LT–2 ], [LT–1 ]
(3) [LT], [LT–2 ]
(4) [LT–1 ], [LT–1 ]

(1) A is moving with constant velocity

(2) B is moving with increasing speed
(3) The acceleration of B may be constant
(4) A is moving with non-zero constant
acceleration

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Fortnightly Test Series 2023-24_RM(P1)-Test-01A

3. Motion of a particle is given by the equation 7. For equation x = 3t3 – 6t acceleration vs time
s = (2t3 + 3t2 + 4t + 2) m, where s is graph will be
displacement in meter and t is time in (1)
second. The value of acceleration of particle
at time t = 1 s is
(1) 12 m/s2
(2) 18 m/s2
(3) 6 m/s2
(2)
(4) Zero

4. A ball is thrown vertically upward with some

speed from the ground. Ball passes a point h
height above the ground at time 6 s and 10 s
respectively. The speed with which ball is (3)
thrown up from the ground is (g = 10 m/s2 )
(1) 60 m/s
(2) 75 m/s
(3) 80 m/s
(4) 82.5 m/s
(4)

5. When Rahul walks up a stationary escalator,

then he takes 20 s to reach the top. While
when he walks up a moving escalator, he
takes 10 s to reach the top. The time taken
by him to reach the top when stand still on
the moving escalator is
(1) 40 s 8. The distance travelled by an object starting
from rest and moving with an acceleration
(2) 10 s 2
m/s , in the 3rd second is
3

(3) 20 s 4

(4) 30 s (1) 15
m
8

(2) 15
m
6. An object is initially at x = –2 m. It starts 7

moving with variable velocity and its v-t (3) 10

m
graph is shown in the figure. What is the 3

position of particle at t = 4 s? (4) 13

m
3

9. Two identical balls A and B are thrown from

the top of a tower. Ball A is thrown upwards
with speed v and ball B is thrown
downwards with speed v, then
(1) Speed of ball A will be more than ball B
at the ground
(2) Speed of ball B will be more than ball A
at the ground
(1) 10.5 m (3) Both balls A and B strike the ground
with same speed
(2) 15.5 m
(4) Speed of ball A may be greater or less
(3) 13.5 m than speed of ball B at the ground
(4) 19.5 m

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Fortnightly Test Series 2023-24_RM(P1)-Test-01A

10. The velocity versus time curve of moving 14. A balloon is going up with constant speed
particle is given below. Find the ratio of 15 ms–1 . A stone is dropped from balloon
distance and displacement of the particle. after reaching at a height of 20 m. The
maximum height attained by stone with
respect to ground is
(1) 20 m
(2) 11.25 m
(3) 8.75 m
(4) 31.25 m

15. If y = x sin (
x
), then
dy
at x = π will be
2 dx

equal to
(1) 4
(1) 1
1

(2) 5 (2) Zero

3
(3) –1
(3) 4

5
(4) 2
(4) 3

5
16. The velocity of a particle moving along x-
axis varies with displacement x as shown in
11. Two trains each of length 75 m are moving the figure.
parallel to each other in same direction at
speed 20 m/s and 15 m/s respectively. The
time taken by one train to overtake the other
will be
(1) 6 s
(2) 10 s
(3) 15 s
(4) 30 s

The acceleration of the particle at x = 4 m is

12. A car moves from X to Y with two different (1) 6 m/s2
speed. For first half distance its speed is v1
and for next half distance its speed is v2 . (2) –6 m/s2
Now, car takes a U-turns and moves from Y (3) 8 m/s2
to X with two different speed v1 for first half
(4) –8 m/s2
time and v2 for next half time. The ratio of
average speed of car from X to Y to the Y to
X is 17. Which of the following graphs are physically
(1) v +v 1 2 not possible (Symbols have their usual
2v1 −2v2
meanings)
(2) (v1 +v2 )
2
(1)
2v1 v2

(3) 4v1 v2

2
(v1 +v2 )

(4) v1 +v2
( )
v1 −v2

(2)
13. A body of mass m is projected upwards. Its
acceleration at its highest point is (g is
acceleration due to gravity)
(1) Zero
(2) g
(3) g
4
(3)
(4) g

(4) All of the above

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Fortnightly Test Series 2023-24_RM(P1)-Test-01A

18. Acceleration-time graph of a body is given . 20. Zero error in an instrument introduces
The corresponding velocity-time graph of the (1) Systematic error
body should be
(2) Random error
(3) Personal error
(4) Least count error

21. If in vernier callipers 4 VSD coincides with 2

MSD, then least count of vernier calliper is
[given 1 MSD = 1 mm]
(1) 0.2 mm
(2) 0.1 mm
(3) 0.3 mm
(1) (4) 0.5 mm

22. 20 vernier divisions of a vernier scale is

equal to 19 main scale divisions. The
smallest division on the main scale is 1 mm.
While measuring the length of a ruler, the
zero mark of the vernier scale lies between
5.3 cm and 5.4 cm with the fourth division of
vernier scale coinciding with a main scale
division. The length of the ruler is
(1) 5.32 cm
(2)
(2) 5.35 cm
(3) 5.38 cm
(4) 5.34 cm

23. If linear momentum (p), acceleration (a) and

time (T) are taken to be fundamental
quantities, then dimensional formula for
mass is
(1) [p–1 a–1 T –1 ]
(2) [p1 a–1 T –1 ]
(3)
(3) [p–1 a1 T 1 ]
(4) [p–2 a1 T 2 ]

24. Pressure P is given P = AT + BT .

2

(Where T is time). Dimensional formulae of

constants A and B are
(1) ML −1 T−3 & ML −1 T−4
(2) ML
−1
T
3
& ML
−1 4
T
(4)
(3) MLT
−3
& MLT
−4

(4) MLT
3
& MLT
4

25. Which of the following relation can be

deduced using dimensional analysis?
(Symbols have their usual meanings)
(1) y = Acosωt
(2) y = A(cosωt + sinωt)
(3) v2 = u2 + 2as

19. Total number of supplementary fundamental (4) U = mgh

units in SI system is
(1) 1
(2) 7
(3) 2
(4) 8

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Fortnightly Test Series 2023-24_RM(P1)-Test-01A

26. The temperature of two bodies measured by 31. Value of 5 N in C.G.S. unit will be
a thermometer are t1 = (20 ± 0.5)°C and t2 = (1) 105
(60 ± 0.5)°C. What is the maximum
(2) 5 × 105
percentage error in the measurement of
temperature difference? (3) 5 × 107
(1) 2.5% (4) 107
(2) 1.5%
(3) 4%
32. If time (T), force (F) and velocity (V) are
(4) 1% chosen as fundamental quantities then
dimensional formula of power is
27. If A = 2.691 cm and B = 1.2 cm, then A + B is (1) [FVT0 ]
equal to (2) [FVT]
(1) 3.8 cm
(3) [FV2 T]
(2) 3.9 cm
(4) [FVT–1 ]
(3) 3.891 cm
(4) 3.89 cm
33. The scientific principle on which electron
microscope is based, is
28. A quantity Q is defined as the ratio of heat
(1) Bernoulli’s Principle
and thermal capacity of a body. Q has
dimensions of (2) Wave nature of matter
(1) Mass (3) Photoelectric Effect
(2) Length (4) Superconductivity
(3) Temperature
(4) Time 34. Gravitational Force is mediated by
(1) Gravitons
29. Which of the following is a unitless quantity? (2) Photons
(1) Pressure gradient (3) Boson
(2) Velocity gradient (4) π -Meson
(3) Force gradient
(4) Displacement gradient 35. Which of the following force is the strongest
in nature?
(1) Gravitational force
30. Dimensional formula of power is given by
(1) [ML2 T–2 ] (2) Electromagnetic force
(3) Strong nuclear force
(2) [MLT–2 ]
(4) Weak nuclear force
(3) [ML2 T–3 ]
(4) [ML–2 T–3 ]

SECTION-B

36. A stone is thrown vertically downward with 37. A car moving along x-axis with speed 72
10 m/s from the top of a tower. If it hits the km/h is brought to rest after travelling a
ground with a velocity of 60 m/s, then the distance of 20 m. If retardation is uniform
height of the tower is (g = 10 m/s2 ) then time taken (in s) in stopping this car is
(1) 100 m (1) 1
(2) 150 m (2) 2
(3) 175 m (3) 3
(4) 225 m (4) 4

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Fortnightly Test Series 2023-24_RM(P1)-Test-01A

38. Two bodies A and B are moving on a same 42. A ball is thrown upward from ground with a
straight line with velocity-time (v-t) relation speed 50 m/s and at the same time another
as shown in the graph. The ratio of ball is released from a height 100 m. They
accelerations of A and B is will collide at t =
(1) 5 s
(2) 2 s
(3) 7 s
(4) 4 s

43. A force F is given by : F = xt2 + yt, where t is

x
time. The dimensions of y is
(1) [M0 L0 T0 ]
(1) 1 : 3
(2) [M0 L–1 T0 ]
(2) 3 : 2
(3)
–
√3
(3) [M0 L0 T–1 ]

(4)
–
√3 : 2
(4) [M–1 L0 T0 ]

39. Velocity-time (v-t) graph for a moving object 44. The total number of insignificant zeroes in
is shown in the figure. The net displacement the measurement of a quantity x = 0.003270
of the object, during the time interval when is
there is non zero acceleration, will be (1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 1

45. Dimensions of pressure multiplied with

volume is same as that of
(1) Young's modulus
(2) Power
(1) 9 m
(3) Energy
(2) 18 m
(4) Force
(3) 6 m
(4) 12 m
46. If power (P), length (L) and time (T) are taken
as fundamental quantities, then the
40. A ball starts falling freely from rest. The ratio dimensions of force are
of distance travelled by the particle in first (1) [PL–1 T]
half second and in next half second is
(2) [PLT]
(1) 1 : 1
(3) [P–1 LT]
(2) 1 : 2
(4) [PL–2 T–1 ]
(3) 1 : 3
(4) 1 : 4
47. Amplitude (A) of a damped oscillator of mass
m varies with time (t) as
41. A : A particle is moving with constant velocity −bt/2m
A = A0 e
may have acceleration.
R : Acceleration is defined as rate of change The dimension of b are same as that of
of speed. (1) Force

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and Displacement

the reason is the correct explanation of (2) Force

the assertion Velocity
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but (3) Force
the reason is not the correct Acceleration
explanation of the assertion
(4) Force
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
statements

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Fortnightly Test Series 2023-24_RM(P1)-Test-01A

48. A: Solid angle and plane angle have same 50. The symmetry of the law of nature with
dimensional formula. respect to translation in space gives rise to
R: Both solid and plane angles have same conservation of
unit. (1) Energy
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and (2) Linear momentum
the reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion (3) Charge
(4) Angular momentum
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
the reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
statements

49. Who stated ‘The most incomprehensible

thing about the world is that it is
comprehensible’?
(1) Newton
(2) Maxwell
(3) Faraday
(4) Einstein

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

51. Law of conservation of mass is not 54. Calculate the molality of 1 L solution of 80%
applicable for (W/V) H2 SO4 If the density of solution is 1.8
(1) Nuclear reactions gmL–1 .
(2) Decomposition reactions (1) 8.16 m
(3) Neutralization reactions (2) 8.6 m
(4) Displacement reactions (3) 1.02 m
(4) 10.8 m
52. 300 g of C2 H6 is burnt in excess of oxygen.
Mass of CO2 produced is 55. Which has maximum number of atoms?
(1) 110 g (1) 16 g of O3
(2) 220 g (2) 44 g of CO2
(3) 440 g (3) 1 g of H2
(4) 880 g
(4) 23 g of NO2

53. The number of significant figures in 6.00 cm

is 56. 100 g solution of urea in water has 10 g of
(1) 3 urea (molar mass = 60 g mol–1 ). The
molality of solution is
(2) 2
(1) 3.12 m
(3) 1
(2) 1.85 m
(4) Zero
(3) 1.11 m
(4) 2.5 m

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Fortnightly Test Series 2023-24_RM(P1)-Test-01A

57. 3.01 × 1022 molecules of sucrose are 63. The incorrect statement according to
present in 200 ml of its solution. The Dalton’s atomic theory is
concentration of the solution is (1) Atoms of different elements may
(1) 0.5 M combine with each other in a fixed
simple whole number ratio to form
(2) 1.5 M
compounds
(3) 1 M
(2) Atoms of different elements differ in
(4) 0.25 M mass
(3) Atoms of a given element are identical
58. The number of atoms present in 1 ml of in all respect
water (d = 1 g/ml) is (NA = 6 × 1023 ) (4) Atoms can be created in a chemical
reaction
(1) 1022
(2) 1023
64. Which of the following term is unitless?
(3) 1021 (1) Molarity
(4) 1024 (2) Molality
(3) Mole fraction
59. One g-molecule of CO2 is equal to (4) Normality
(1) 44 u
(2) 44 × 6.022 × 1023 molecules 65. The volume of water added to 500 mL, 0.5 M
NaOH so that its strength becomes 10 mg
(3) 44 g NaOH per mL is
(4) 1
g (1) 250 mL
44

(2) 500 mL
60. 25 g of calcium carbonate (CaCO3 ) (3) 750 mL
completely reacts with sulphuric acid to (4) 1000 mL
produce 11 g of carbon dioxide. The
percentage purity of calcium carbonate will
66. Copper has two naturally occurring isotopes
be 63 Cu and 65 Cu. If the average atomic mass
(1) 60.3%
of copper is 63.546 u, then natural
(2) 42.6% abundance of lighter isotope of Cu will be
(3) 54.5% (1) 46.4%
(4) 100% (2) 27.3%
(3) 54.2%
61. In which of the following formula mass is (4) 72.7%
preferred over molecular mass?
(1) KCl
67. A biomolecule contains 0.2 % Fe by mass.
(2) C2 H6 The minimum molecular mass possible for
(3) N2 the biomolecule is (At. Mass of Fe = 56 u)
(4) H2 O (1) 14000 u
(2) 28000 u
(3) 5600 u
62. Incorrect statement among the following is
(4) 2800 u
(1) Isotopes of an element have equal
relative abundances
(2) Many naturally occuring elements exist 68. Identify the incorrect match
as more than one isotopes (1) 1018 : atto
(3) 1 amu is equal to 1 times of mass of (2) 10–15 : femto
12

one carbon-12 atom (3) 10–12 : pico

(4) The percentage composition of
(4) 10–18 : atto
elements in a compound is definite

69. A gas has a vapour density 11.2. The

volume occupied by 1 g of the gas at STP is
(1) 1 L
(2) 11.2 L
(3) 22.4 L
(4) 4 L

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Fortnightly Test Series 2023-24_RM(P1)-Test-01A

70. 1 L volume is equivalent to 76. If 56 g N2 and 64 g CH4 are mix with 80 g

(1) 1 dm3 SO3 gas, then mole fraction of CH4 is
(2) 100 mL (1) 0.52
(3) 100 cm3 (2) 0.57
(4) 1000 m3 (3) 0.42
(4) 0.24

71. A jug contains 10 L of milk. Calculate the

77. Mass percentage of solute in 1 molal
volume of milk in m3 .
aqueous glucose solution is approximately
(1) 1 m3 (1) 20.0%
(2) 10–2 m3 (2) 15.2%
(3) 10 m3 (3) 22.0%
(4) 10–1 m3 (4) 25.8%

78. Number of urea molecules present in 400

72. A mixture of 2.3 g formic acid and 4.5 g
mL of 2.5 M aqueous solution of urea is
oxalic acid is treated with conc. H2 SO4 . The
evolved gaseous mixture is passed through (1) 3.01 × 1022
KOH pellets. Weight (in g) of the remaining (2) 6.02 × 1023
gaseous product at STP will be
(3) 6.02 × 1026
(1) 1.4
(2) 3.0 (4) 3.01 × 1024
(3) 4.4
(4) 2.8 79. Calculate the atomic mass of ‘X’ whose one
atom weighs 1.8 × 10–22 g
73. 500 mL of 1 M HCl is diluted to get 0.2 M (1) 98.8
aqueous solution. The amount of water (2) 54.18
added is (3) 108.39
(1) 2 L (4) 111
(2) 1 L
(3) 1.5 L 80. The ratio of molecular formula mass to
(4) 2.5 L empirical formula mass of acetic acid is
(1) 1 : 2
74. Suppose the elements X and Y combine to (2) 2 : 1
form two compounds X2 Y and X3 Y4 . 0.1 (3) 2 : 3
mole of X2 Y weighs 10 g and 0.05 mole of (4) 3 : 2
X3 Y4 weighs 15 g, the atomic masses of X
and Y respectively are
81. Which among the following is not a pure
(1) 20 u and 60 u
substance?
(2) 50 u and 30 u
(1) Air
(3) 60 u and 20 u
(2) Copper
(4) 30 u and 50 u
(3) Gold
(4) Glucose
75. 10 L Hydrogen gas and 20 L Chlorine gas
combine in suitable conditions to produce
hydrogen chloride gas. The composition of 82. 200 ml of 3 M NaOH solution is diluted by
resultant gaseous mixture is 400 ml water. The molarity of the resulting
(1) 5 L Chlorine and 25 L Hydrogen solution is
Chloride (1) 1 M
(2) 5 L Hydrogen, 10 L Chlorine and 10 L (2) 2 M
Hydrogen Chloride (3) 1.5 M
(3) 10 L Hydrogen and 20 L Hydrogen (4) 2.25 M
Chloride
(4) 10 L Chlorine and 20 L Hydrogen 83. Ten days is equal to
Chloride
(1) 60 s × 60 s
(2) 10 × 60 × 60 s
(3) 24 × 60 × 60s
(4) 10 × 24 × 60 × 60s

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Fortnightly Test Series 2023-24_RM(P1)-Test-01A

84. The percentage of an element M is 60 in its

oxide of molecular formula MO. The atomic
mass of element is
(1) 8
(2) 12
(3) 24
(4) 27

85. Mass of CaCO3 required to react completely

with 100 mL of 0.5 M H2 SO4 is
(1) 10 g
(2) 5 g
(3) 15 g
(4) 25 g

SECTION-B

86. Number of atoms present in 120 a.m.u. of Ca 91. The correct scientific notation for 231.508 is
is (1) 2.31508 × 102
(1) 3 NA
(2) 2.31508 × 10–2
(2) 6 NA
(3) 0.231508 × 103
(3) 3
(4) 0.231508 × 10–3
(4) 6

87. The number of atoms in 67.2 L of NH3 (g) at 92. In the Haber's process of synthesis of
ammonia, 28 g of N2 is mixed with 10 g of
STP is
hydrogen. Maximum number of moles of
(1) 9 NA ammonia produced in the reaction is
(2) 12 NA (1) 1.5
(3) 3 NA (2) 3.5
(4) 4 NA (3) 2
(4) 0.5
88. Law of multiple proportion is not applicable
for the pair 93. A 2.5 molal solution of a compound in a
(1) CO & CO2 given solvent has mole fraction of solute
equal to 0.2. The molecular mass of the
(2) H2 O & H2 O2 solvent is
(3) CH4 & C2 H6 (1) 60
(4) O2 & H2 O (2) 75
(3) 100
89. 1 amu is equal to (4) 50
(1) 6.02 × 10–23 g
(2) 1.66 × 10–24 g 94. One atom of an element X weighs 6.64 ×
10–23 g. The number of moles of X atoms in
(3) 1 g
40 kg of it is
(4) 1 mg (NA = 6.02 × 1023 )
(1) 500
90. 104 °F is equal to (2) 100
(1) 40 K (3) 1000
(2) 40°C (4) 602
(3) 318 K
(4) 318°C

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Fortnightly Test Series 2023-24_RM(P1)-Test-01A

95. If mass ratio of H2 and O2 is 4 : 1 then their 98. From 440 mg of CO2 , 6.02 × 1020 molecules
mole ratio will be are removed. The remaining moles of CO2
(1) 8 : 1 will be
(2) 64 : 1 (1) 9 × 10–2
(3) 1 : 4 (2) 5 × 10–4
(4) 16 : 1
(3) 8 × 10–6
(4) 9 × 10–3
96. Compound which contains 80% carbon by
mass is
(1) C2 H4 99. 4.4 g of a gas occupies 2240 ml at STP. The
gas may be
(2) C2 H6
(1) NO2
(3) C3 H6
(2) CO2
(4) C6 H6
(3) SO2
(4) NO
97. SI Unit of amount of substance is
(1) Mole
100. Concentration term which is independent of
(2) Kilogram
temperature is
(3) Kelvin
(1) Molality
(4) Candela
(2) Molarity
(3) Normality
(4) (w/V)%

BOTANY

SECTION-A

101. Mesosome helps in all, except 104. Identify the correct option regarding the
(1) Cell wall formation shapes of the different cells.
(2) Respiration and secretion process Red Blood
Nerve Cell A tracheid
Cells
(3) Nucleotide synthesis
Round and Long and
(4) Increasing the surface area of plasma (1) Elongated
conave narrow
membrane
Round and Long and
(2) Amoeboid
oval narrow
102. Nucleus as a cell organelle was first Round and Branched
described by (3) Elongated
biconcave and long
(1) Fleming
Round and Branched Round and
(2) Robert Brown (4)
oval and short oval
(3) George Palade (1) (1)
(4) Camillo Golgi (2) (2)
(3) (3)
103. Cell organelle(s) having RNA is/are (4) (4)
(a) Nucleus
(b) Mitochondria
(c) Chloroplast 105. Choose the incorrect w.r.t. nucleolus.
(d) Ribosomes (1) Spherical structure found in
(1) (b) and (c) only nucleoplasm
(2) (d) only (2) Separated from rest of the nucleoplasm
(3) (b), (c) and (d) only by membrane
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) (3) May be larger and more numerous in
cells actively involved in protein
synthesis
(4) It is site for ribosomal RNA synthesis

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Fortnightly Test Series 2023-24_RM(P1)-Test-01A

106. Which organelle is the important site for the 113. Select the incorrect match.
formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids? (1) Na+/K+ pump - Active transport
(1) Endoplasmic reticulum
(2) Movement of neutral molecules across
(2) Ribosomes the membrane - Can be a passive
(3) Golgi apparatus transport
(4) Mitochondria (3) Bulk intake of solid substances -
Endocytosis
(4) Movement of polar molecules across
107. All of the following are the functions of cell
wall, except the membrane - Simple diffusion
(1) Maintains the shape of the cells
(2) Protects the cells from mechanical 114. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t.
injury lysosomes.
(3) Outermost living rigid structure (1) They are rich in hydrolytic enzymes
(4) Provides barrier to undesirable (2) They do not contain lipases
macromolecules (3) They contain enzymes which become
active at acidic pH
(4) These are formed by the process of
108. The plasmid DNA
packaging in Golgi apparatus
(1) Acts as genomic DNA
(2) Is double stranded and linear
115. The following functions are performed by
(3) Is found in prokaryotes a. Maintenance of the shape of cell
(4) Is found inside the nucleoid b. Mechanical support
c. Motility
109. On the basis of his studies, who concluded (1) Cilia and Flagella
that the presence of cell wall is a unique (2) Microbodies
character of the plant cells. (3) Cytoskeleton
(1) Rückert (4) ER
(2) Theodor Schwann
(3) George Palade 116. Organelle ‘X’ is a densely stained reticular
(4) Nicolson structure, usually present near the nucleus
and is known as dictyosomes in plants. In
animals, this organelle is called
110. Arrangement of microtubules is '9 + 0' in
(1) RER
(1) Cilia
(2) Peroxisome
(2) Flagella
(3) Golgi body
(3) Pili
(4) SER
(4) Centriole

117. The fluid nature of cell membrane helps to

111. The type of ER which is found in the cells
perform all given functions, except.
that are actively involved in protein synthesis
and secretion is (1) Formation of intercellular junction
(1) Continuous with the inner membrane of (2) Cell growth
nucleus (3) Secretion
(2) Associated with packaging of lipids (4) Detoxification of drugs
(3) Associated with 80 S ribosomes
(4) The main site for the synthesis of 118. Polysome is a chain of
steroidal hormones (1) Many mRNA and a single ribosome
(2) Many ribosomes on a common mRNA
112. Primary constriction of a chromosome is (3) A single mRNA and a single ribosome
known as
(4) Many ribosomes attached to many
(1) Centromere mRNA
(2) Kinetochore
(3) Centrosome 119. Telocentric chromosome has
(4) Satellite (1) Terminal centromere
(2) Centromere in the middle
(3) Centromere close to its one end
(4) Centromere slightly away from
centromere

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Fortnightly Test Series 2023-24_RM(P1)-Test-01A

120. Non-staining secondary constriction in some 127. How many of the given structure(s) is/are
chromosomes gives the appearance of a present in higher plant cells?
small fragment called Cell wall, Plastid, Centriole, Large
(1) Microbody
central vacuole
(2) Telomere
(1) One
(3) Heterochromatin
(2) Two
(4) Satellite
(3) Three
(4) Four
121. The living connection of two adjacent plant
cells is formed by
(1) Middle lamella 128. How many centrioles are present in a
centrosome?
(2) Carrier proteins
(1) One
(3) Plasmodesmata
(2) Two
(4) Cell wall
(3) Three
(4) Four
122. Select the feature which is not true for the
outermost layer of bacterial cell envelope.
(1) It is made up of mucous or 129. Read the following statements regarding
polysaccharide macromolecules Golgi complex and mark the correct ones.
A. It is present near the nucleus of a cell.
(2) It protects the cell from loss of water B. The cis and trans faces of the organelle
and nutrients are entirely different and are not
(3) It helps in adhesion interconnected.
(4) Its thickness and chemical composition C. Golgi vacuoles are produced at maturing
are same in all bacterial cells face.
D. It is closely associated with ER in
structural as well as functional aspects.
123. Cilia and flagella emerge from (1) A and B
(1) Centriole-like basal bodies (2) B, C and D
(2) Spherosomes (3) A, C and D
(3) Golgi bodies (4) C and D only
(4) Ribosomes

130. Consider the given statements stating them

124. Prokaryotic ribosomes are made up of two true (T) or false (F) and select the correct
subunits which are option.
(1) 20 S and 30 S A. Cytoplasm is the main arena of cellular
(2) 30 S and 50 S activities.
B. Eukaryotic cells have two envelope
(3) 30 S and 60 S system.
(4) 20 S and 40 S C. Cell wall maintains shape of the cells.
D. In Amoeba, contractile vacuole provides
buoyancy.
125. Both prokaryotic and eukaryotic flagella are
similar in (1) A-(F), B-(T), C-(F), D-(T)
(1) Internal structures (2) A-(F), B-(F), C-(F), D-(F)
(2) The protein they are composed of (3) A-(T), B-(T), C-(T), D-(T)
(3) Origin (4) A-(T), B-(T), C-(T), D-(F)
(4) Function

126. Select the pair of single membrane bound

organelles
(1) ER, Nucleus
(2) Lysosome, Golgi apparatus
(3) Mitochondria, Golgi apparatus
(4) Lysosome, Chloroplast

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Fortnightly Test Series 2023-24_RM(P1)-Test-01A

131. Read the statements stating true (T) or false 133. Reserve material in prokaryotic cells are
(F) and select the correct option. stored in the cytoplasm in the form of
(A) Elaioplasts store fats and oils (1) Inclusion bodies
(B) The orange colour of carrot is due to
(2) Sap vacuoles
amyloplast
(C) Stroma of chloroplast contains enzyme (3) Polysome
required for synthesis of carbohydrates and (4) Membrane bound vesicles
proteins.
A B C 134. Which of the following has nucleus?
(1) F T T (1) Mycoplasma
(2) Yeast
(2) T T F
(3) Blue green algae
(3) T F T (4) PPLO
(4) T F F
135. The two ribosomal subunits remain united
(1) (1)
with each other due to a specific
(2) (2) concentration of
(3) (3) (1) Mn2+
(4) (4) (2) Mg2+
(3) Ca2+
132. Chromatin contains
(a) DNA (4) Fe3+
(b) Histone proteins
(c) RNA
(d) Non-histone proteins
(1) (a) & (b) only
(2) (a), (b) & (d) only
(3) (a), (b) & (c) only
(4) All (a), (b), (c) & (d)

SECTION-B

136. In all organisms, basic unit of life is 138. Select the correct statement from the
(1) DNA following w.r.t. cell membrane.
(2) Cell (1) The polar heads cannot interact with
water
(3) Protoplasm
(2) Membrane of RBC has about 52
(4) Cytoplasm
percent proteins and 40 percent lipids
(3) Lipids are either integral or peripheral
137. Which of the given structures provides (4) The detailed structure of membrane
motility to bacterial cells? was studied only after the invention of
(1) Cilia light microscope.
(2) Pili
(3) Flagella 139. Eukaryotic cell differs from prokaryotic cell in
(4) Fimbriae having
(1) Plasmids
(2) Single envelope system
(3) Only 70S types of ribosomes
(4) True vacuoles and true nucleus

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Fortnightly Test Series 2023-24_RM(P1)-Test-01A
140. In addition to phospholipids, cell membrane
contains all of the following molecules,
except
(1) Cellulose
(2) Protein
(3) Cholesterol
(4) Carbohydrate
141. Kinetochores are
(1) Terminal ends of chromosomes
(2) Present around primary constriction
and help in crossing over
(3) Present near nuclear envelope and
take part in spindle formation
(4) Present around centromere and
provide a site for attachment to the
spindle fibers
142. The function of polysome is to
(1) Translate the mRNA into protein
(2) Synthesise lipids in eukaryotic cells
(3) Replicate DNA during cell division
(4) Store various hydrolytic enzymes
143. Thick and tough glycocalyx found in some
bacteria is called
(1) Slime layer
(2) Mesosome
(3) Capsule
(4) Lamellae
144. The infoldings of inner membrane
mitochondria are called
(1) Matrix
(2) Cisternae
(3) Cristae
(4) Pili
145. Cell theory
(1) Was first formulated by Rudolf Virchow
(2) States that all living organisms
including prions are composed of cells
and product of cells
(3) Was formulated by Matthias Schleiden
and Theodore Schwann
(4) Was later modified by Singer and
Nicolson
146. Middle lamella of plant cell
(1) Is composed of cellulose only
(2) Is composed of galactans and
mannans
(3) Holds the two neighbouring cells
together
(4) Is composed of hemicellulose mainly
147. Organelles within an organelle are
(1) Mitochondria
(2) Chloroplasts
(3) Vacuoles
(4) Ribosomes
148. The chromosome having p and q arm
(1) Appear V-shaped during anaphase
(2) Is sub-metacentric chromosome
(3) Is telocentric chromosome
(4) Has centromere at its one end
149. Peripheral triplets in centriole are connected
to central proteinaceous hub by
(1) Spindle fibres
(2) Radial spokes
(3) Central Sheath
(4) Pericentriolar satellites
150. Euchromatin is
(1) Darkly stained region of chromatin
(2) Genetically inactive
of (3) The part of DNA that undergo
transcription
(4) Tightly packed region of DNA
ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A
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Fortnightly Test Series 2023-24_RM(P1)-Test-01A

151. Consider the following connective tissue. 157. Identify the structures which are not
a. Bone available in all connective tissue
b. Cartilage a. Fibroblasts
c. Areolar tissue b. Fibres
d. Tendon c. Macrophages
e. Ligaments d. Matrix
How many among the above can have (1) a and c only
collagen fibres?
(2) a and b only
(1) Only one
(3) a , b and c only
(2) Only two
(4) a, b and d only
(3) Only four
(4) All five
158. Neuroglial cells are
(1) Excitable cells
152. Brush bordered epithelium is present in
(2) Always a macrophage which destroy
(1) Fallopian tube foreign structure
(2) Bronchioles (3) Structural unit of neural tissue
(3) PCT (4) Protecting and supporting structures of
(4) Lungs alveoli neurons

153. ______ facilitate the cells to communicate 159. Complete the analogy
with each other by connecting the cytoplasm Blood: Specialized connective tissue : :
of adjoining cells, for rapid transfer of ions, Areolar tissue :
small molecules and sometimes big (1) Dense regular connective tissue
molecules.
(2) Dense irregular connective tissue
Choose the option that correctly fills the
blank. (3) Loose connective tissue
(1) Tight junctions (4) Specialized connective tissue
(2) Gap junctions
(3) Adhering junctions 160. Select the common characteristic for bones
(4) Zonula occludens and cartilages.
(1) Presence of Ca+2 salts in matrix

154. Tendon and ligament are (2) Canaliculi

(1) Specialised connective tissue
(2) Loose connective tissue
(3) Dense regular connective tissue
(4) Dense irregular connective tissue
155. The wall of internal organs such as the
intestine and stomach contain
(1) Striated and branched muscle fibers
(2) Non-striated and voluntary muscle
fibers
(3) Fusiform shaped, non-striated muscle
fibers
(4) Striated and involuntary muscle fibers
156. Study the following statements.
a. Skeletal muscle fibres are voluntary and
are striated.
b. Cardiac muscle fibres are involuntary and
are non-striated.
c. Smooth muscle fibres are involuntary and
lack striations.
d. Cell junctions are present in smooth
muscles.
How many above statements are correct?
(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four
(3) Solid and pliable intercellular material
(4) Present in limbs
161. Microvilli are microscopic projections of
epithelial cells. They help in
(1) Providing protection against abrasions
(2) Engulfing the foreign matter
(3) Increasing the absorptive surface area
(4) Insulating the cells from heat
162. Nissl’s granules are seen in which parts of a
neuron?
(1) Cell body and dendrites
(2) Cell body and axon
(3) Dendrites and nerve endings
(4) Dendrites and nodes of Ranvier
163. A joins skeletal muscle to bone whereas B
connects one bone to another. Here A and B
are
(1) A – Areolar tissue, B – Ligament
(2) A – Tendon, B – Areolar tissue
(3) A – Tendon, B – Ligament
(4) A – Ligament, B – Tendon

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Fortnightly Test Series 2023-24_RM(P1)-Test-01A

164. Cardiac muscle fibres differ from skeletal 171. ____ perform cementing to keep
muscle fibres as former are neighbouring cells together.
(1) Able to contract Fill the blank with a suitable option.
(2) Striated (1) Tight junctions
(3) Involuntary (2) Adhering junctions
(4) Unstriated (3) Gap junctions
(4) Zonula occludens
165. Which of the following junctions prevents
leakage of substances across a tissue? 172. In all connective tissues, the cells secrete
(1) Gap junction fibres of structural proteins called collagen
or elastin, except
(2) Tight junction
(1) Loose connective tissue
(3) Desmosomes
(2) Dense connective tissue
(4) Macula adherens
(3) Skeletal connective tissue
(4) Fluid connective tissue
166. The specialised connective tissue, present
at the ends of long bones has slightly pliable
matrix due to the presence of 173. On the basis of structural modification of
(1) Calcium carbonate cells, simple epithelium is divided into how
many types?
(2) Chondroitin salts
(1) One
(3) Calcium phosphate
(2) Two
(4) Hydroxyapatite
(3) Three
(4) Four
167. Choose the odd one w.r.t. compound
epithelium.
(1) Pharynx 174. Complete the analogy
Salivary gland : Multicellular gland : : Goblet
(2) Inner lining of ducts of salivary glands cell : _______
(3) Pancreatic ducts Choose the option which correctly fills the
(4) Glomerulus blank.
(1) Endocrine gland
168. Simple squamous epithelium lines all the (2) Ductless gland
following surfaces except (3) Unicellular gland
(1) Alveolar wall (4) Heterocrine gland
(2) Bowman’s capsule
(3) Capillary wall 175. Read the following statements (A-D) w.r.t.
(4) Ducts of glands epithelium and choose the option which
correctly states each statement as true (T) or
false (F).
169. The type of connective tissue present just A. The cells are compactly packed with little
beneath the skin is intercellular matrix.
(1) Dense irregular B. Free surface of cells faces either a body
(2) Dense regular fluid or the outside environment.
C. It is always composed of a single layer of
(3) Areolar tissue cells.
(4) Cartilage D. It is highly vascular.
A B C D
170. Intercalated discs which allow the cells to (1) T T F F
contract as a unit are characteristic of
(2) T F F F
(1) Skeletal muscle tissue
(3) F F F F
(2) Smooth branched muscle tissue
(3) Cardiac muscle tissue (4) T F T F
(4) Striated voluntary muscle (1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)

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Fortnightly Test Series 2023-24_RM(P1)-Test-01A

176. 180. Consider the following features:

a. Muscle fibres are bundled together in a
connective tissue sheath
b. Cell junctions hold them together
c. Do not show striations
Which of the following structures possess
muscle fibres showing all the above
mentioned features?
(1) Heart
(2) Stomach
(3) Tongue
Choose the correct statement(s) w.r.t. the (4) Diaphragm
given figure
i. It is a contractile tissue present only in
heart 181. The name simple is given to the epithelium,
ii. It is closely attached to skeletal bones when
iii. It has striations (1) It carries microvilli over the free surface
iv. Cell junction fuse the plasma membrane of cells
of these cells and make them stick together (2) It mainly performs the function of
(1) i, iii, iv protecting underlying structures
(2) i, ii, iii (3) It is composed of single layer of cells
(3) ii, iv only (4) It is non-secretory
(4) i, ii, iii and iv
182. A group of similar cells, having same origin
177. Choose the correct statement w.r.t. dense and performing a specific function forms
irregular connective tissue from the options a/an
given below. (1) Organ
(1) Fibroblasts and collagen fibres are (2) Organ system
oriented differently in this tissue (3) Body
(2) Tendons that attach skeletal muscles to (4) Tissue
bones are examples of this tissue
(3) It is a type of specialised connective
tissue 183. In connective tissue, the major part of matrix
is secreted by
(4) Often this tissue serves as a support
framework for epithelium (1) Histiocytes
(2) Mast cells
178. Communication junctions are (3) Fibroblasts
(1) Present in cardiac muscles and help in (4) Macrophages
blocking impulse transmission from
one muscle fibre to another 184. The excess of nutrients which are not used
(2) Absent in all visceral muscles and immediately are converted into fats and are
prevent the transfer of impulses stored in
(3) Present in all skeletal muscles and (1) Adipocytes
connect one fibre with other (2) Fibroblasts
(4) Present in cardiac muscles and are (3) Mast cells
involved in transfer of signal from one
(4) Macrophages
muscle fibre to neighbouring muscle
fibres
185. Glandular property is observed in one
amongst the following tissues
179. The process of a neuron that carries
impulses towards its cell body is (1) Connective tissue
(1) Dendrite (2) Muscle tissue
(2) Axon (3) Epithelial tissue
(3) Terminal arborisation (4) Nervous tissue
(4) Axon terminal

SECTION-B

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Fortnightly Test Series 2023-24_RM(P1)-Test-01A

186. Which of the given products of glands are 192. Hardest tissue in the body among the
released through ducts? following is
(a) Saliva (1) Cartilage
(b) Ear wax
(2) Fibrous connective tissue
(c) Oil
(d) Insulin (3) Adipose tissue
(e) Adrenaline (4) Bone
(f) Milk
(1) a, b, c only
193. How many of the following structures are
(2) a, c, f only related to bone?
(3) c, d, e only Lacunae, Lamellae, Calcium phosphate,
(4) a, b, c, f only Fluid matrix, Pliable matrix, Haversian canal
(1) 3
(2) 4
187. Neuroglial cells make up more than ____
percent the volume of neural tissue in our (3) 5
body. (4) 6
Choose the option which fills the blank
correctly.
194. Centrally located single nucleus is seen in
(1) 10
all of the following muscle fibres, except
(2) 20 (1) Skeletal muscle fibres
(3) 40 (2) Spindle shaped muscle fibres
(4) 50 (3) Involuntary unstriated muscle fibres
(4) Involuntary striated muscle fibres
188. Read the following statements and choose
the correct option.
Statement A : The structure of a cell varies 195. Dense irregular connective tissue has
according to its function. fibroblasts and many fibres that are oriented
Statement B : Depending on location, differently and is present in/beneath
structure and function, the animal tissues (1) Ligament
have been broadly classified into four (2) Tendon
general types.
(3) Dentine
(1) Both statements are incorrect
(4) Dermis of skin
(2) Only statement A is correct
(3) Only statement B is correct
196. Mast cells of areolar connective tissue
(4) Both statements are correct secrete all of the following, except
(1) Melatonin
189. The most abundant and widely distributed (2) Serotonin
tissue in the body of complex animals is:
(3) Histamine
(1) Epithelium
(4) Heparin
(2) Connective
(3) Muscular
197. Select the option where secretion is the
(4) Neural product of a unicellular gland.
(1) Cerumen
190. Presence of which of the following cells is (2) Hormones
exclusive character of bones?
(3) Sweat
(1) Thrombocytes
(4) Mucus
(2) Erythrocytes
(3) Leucocytes
198. Which of the following features is not
(4) Osteocytes
applicable to intercellular material of
cartilage?
191. In humans, ciliated epithelial cells required (1) Semi-solid having inorganic salts
to move particles or mucus in a specific (2) Pliable
direction and are mainly present in
(3) Has collagen fibres
(1) Bronchioles
(4) Resists compression
(2) Intestinal mucosa
(3) Pancreatic duct
(4) Salivary duct

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Fortnightly Test Series 2023-24_RM(P1)-Test-01A

199. A type of tissue which exerts greatest control

over the body’s responsiveness to changing
conditions is
(1) Specialised connective tissue
(2) Fluid connective tissue
(3) Neural tissue
(4) Muscular tissue

200. Glial cells are related with

(1) Skeletal system
(2) Muscular system
(3) Bone
(4) Nervous system

20