Micro Para Questionnaire

ONLINE MTLE REVIEW ASSESSMENT EXAM #1 – MICROPARA QUESTIONNAIRE
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MARCH 2021 ONLINE MTLE REVIEW

SECTION A
ASSESSMENT EXAM 1 – MICROBIOLOGY & PARASITOLOGY
1. Which mechanism is responsible for botulism in infants caused by Clostridium botulinum?

a. Ingestion of spores in food or liquid c. Virulence of the organism
b. Ingestion of preformed toxin in food d. Lipase activity of the organism
2. Which Bacteroides sp. is noted for “pitting” of the agar and is sensitive to penicillin (2-unit disks)?
a. B. vulgatus b. B. ovatus c. B. thetaiotaomicron d. B. ureolyticus
3. Antimicrobial susceptibility testing of anaerobes is done by which of the following methods?
a. Broth disk elution c. Microtube broth dilution
b. Disk agar diffusion d. Beta-lactamase testing
4. Mycobacteria stained with the Ziehl-Neelsen or Kinyoun methods using a methylene blue counterstain, are seen
microscopically as:
a. Bright red rods against a blue background
b. Bright yellow rods against a yellow background
c. Orange-red rods against a black background
d. Bright blue rods against a pink background
5. Which of the following Mycobacterium spp. are used as controls for rapid growers and slow growers?
a. M. fortuitum and M. tuberculosis c. M. chelonei and M. fortuitum
b. M. avium and M. tuberculosis d. M. kansasii and M. tuberculosis
6. All of the following mycobacteria are associated with skin infections except:
a. M. marinum b. M. haemophilum c. M. ulcerans d. M. kansasii
7. The catalase test for mycobacteria differs from that used for other types of bacteria by using:
a. 1% hydrogen peroxide and 10% Tween 80
b. 3% hydrogen peroxide and phosphate buffer, pH 6.8
c. 10% hydrogen peroxide and 0.85% saline
d. 30% hydrogen peroxide and 10% Tween 80
8. A culture of a skin (hand) wound from a manager of a tropical fish store grew on Lowenstein-Jensen agar slants at 30qC in
10 days, but did not grow on the same medium at 37qC in 20 days. Given the results below, what is the most likely
identification?
Photochromogen = + Niacin = 0
Urease = + Heat stable catalase (68qC) = 0
Nitrate reduction = 0 Tween 80 hydrolysis = +
a. Mycobacterium marinum c. Mycobacterium avium complex
b. Mycobacterium kansasii d. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
9. Rapid method for identifying classic infection with Mycobacterium tuberculosis include:
a. Gas-liquid chromatography c. Acid-fast smears
b. Nucleic acid probes d. All of the above
10. Which of the following Mycobacterium spp. is best differentiated by the rapid hydrolysis of Tween 80?
a. M. fortuitum b. M. chelonae c. M. kansasii d. None of these
ACTS REVIEW CENTER | 2021 March - Online MTLE Review 1

11. Cornmeal agar with Tween 80 is used to identify which characteristic of an unknown yeast isolate?
a. Hyphae (true and pseudo) c. Chlamydospores
b. Blastospores and arthrospores d. All of the above
12. A laboratory provides the following services for identification of mycobacteria:
1. Acid-fast staining of clinical specimens
2. Inoculation of cultures
3. Shipment of positive cultures to a reference laboratory for identification
According to the American Thoracic Society’s definition for levels of service this laboratory is:
a. Level I b. Level II c. Level III d. Level IV
13. Arthrospore (arthroconidia) production is used to differentiate which two yeast isolates?
a. Candida albicans and Candida stellatoidea
b. Trichosporon pullulants and Cryptococcus neoformans
c. Candida albicans and Candida tropicalis
d. Saccharomyces cerevisiae and Candida (Torulopsis) glabrata
14. Ascospores are formed by which yeast isolate?
a. Saccharomyces cerevisiae c. Cryptococcus neoformans
b. Candida albicans d. All of the above
15. Chlamydospore production is demonstrated by which Candida sp.?
a. C. glabrata b. C. krusei c. C. albicans d. C. tropicalis
16. A blood agar plate inoculated with sputum from a patient with diabetes mellitus grew very few bacterial flora and a
predominance of yeast. Given the following results, what is the most likely identification of the yeast isolate?
Cornmeal Tween 80 agar
Germ tube = 0 Blastoconidia = +
Pseudohyphae = + Arthrospores = 0
Chlamydospores = 0
Arranged along pseudohyphae
a. Candida tropicalis c. Trichsporon beigelii
b. Candida pseudotropicalis d. Geotrichum condidum
17. Which Microsporum sp. causes an epidemic form of tinea capitis in children?
a. M. canis b. M. audouinii c. M. gypseum d. All of the above
18. A mold that produces colonies with a dark-brown, green-black, or black appearance of both the surface and reverse side is
classified as a:
a. Dematiaceous mold c. Hyaline mold
b. Dermatophyte d. Dimorphic fungus
19. Which dematiaceous mold forms flask-shaped phialides each with a flask-shaped collarette?
a. Phialophora spp. b. Exophila spp. c. Wangiella spp. d. All of the above
20. A hyaline mold recovered from a patient with AIDS produced rose-colored colonies with lavender centers on Sabouraud’s
dextrose agar. Microscopic examination showed multiseptate macroconidia appearing as sickles or canoes. What is the
most likely identification?
a. Fusarium spp. b. Wangiella spp. c. Exophiala spp. d. Phialophora spp.
21. A rapidly growing nonseptate mold produced colonies with a gray surface resembling cotton candy that covered the entire
plate. Microscopic examination revealed sporangiophores arising between the rhizoids and not opposite them and
producing pear-shaped sporangia. What is the most likely identification?
a. Absidia spp. b. Penicillium spp. c. Rhizopus spp. d. Aspergillus spp.

22. A very small, single-stranded DNA virus that causes a febrile illness with a rash and is called the fifth childhood disease
after rubeola, rubella, varicella, and roseola is:
a. Rotavirus b. Adenovirus type 40 c. Coxsackie A virus d. Parvovirus B19
23. Which technique is most widely used for the confirmation of infection with human immunodeficiency virus?
a. Western blot (immunoblot) assay c. Complement fixation
b. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) d. Polymerase chain reaction
24. A 65-year-old female was admitted to the hospital with acute respiratory distress, fever, myalgia, and headache. Influenza
A or B was suspected after ruling out bacterial pneumonia. Which of the following methods could be used to confirm
influenza infection?
a. Influenza virus culture in Madin-Darby canine kidney
b. Heamgglutination inhibition test for antibodies in the patient’s serum
c. Direct examination of nasal epithelium for virus using fluorescent antibody stain
d. All of the above
25. In a patient with diarrhea, occassionally Entamoeba histolytica (four nucleated cysts, no chromatoidal bars) are identified
as being present; however, these cells, which are misdiagnosed as protozoa, are really:
a. Macrophages b. Polymorphonuclear leukocytes c. Epithelial cells d. Eosinophils
26. A 12-year-old female is brought to the emergency room with meningitis and a history of swimming in a warm-water
spring. Motile amoebae that measure 10 Pm in size are seen in the CSF and are most likely:
a. Iodamoeba butschlii trophozoites c. Dientamoeba fragilis trophozoites
b. Endolimax nana trophozoites d. Naegleria fowleri trophozoites
27. Visceral larva migrans is associated with which of the following organisms and test for identification?
a. Toxocara – serology c. Dracunculus – skin biopsy
b. Onchocerca – skin snips d. Angiostrongylus – CSF examination
28. In infections with Taenia solium, humans can serve as the:
a. Definitive host c. Either the definitive or the intermediate host
b. Intermediate host d. None of the above
29. Organisms that should be considered in a nursery school outbreak of diarrhea include:
a. Endolimax nana, Giardia lamblia, and Entamoeba coli
b. Giardia lamblia, Dientamoeba fragilis, and Cryptosporidium parvum
c. Cryptosporidium parvum, Trichomonas vaginalis, and Entamoeba coli
d. Trichomonas hominis, Dientamoeba fragilis, and Endolimax nana
30. The use of the bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL) specimen has become much more widely used in:
a. Any suspect patient with both toxoplasmosis and cryptosporidiosis
b. Pediatric patients with pulmonary paragonimiasis
c. AIDS patients with suspected Pneumocystis pneumonia
d. Immunocompromised patients with disseminated strongyloidiasis
31. When staining Isospora belli oocysts with modified acid-fast stains, the important difference between these methods and
the acid-fast stains used for acid-fast bacilli (AFB) is:
a. The staining time is much longer with regular AFB acid-fast stains
b. The decolorizer is weaker than acid alcohol used for AFB decolorizing
c. A counterstain must be used for the modified methods
d. The stain is more concentrated when staining for AFB
32. Patients with severe diarrhea should use “stool precautions” to prevent nosocomial infections with:
a. Giardia lamblia c. Cryptosporidium parvum
b. Ascaris lumbricoides d. Isospora belli

33. The incorrect match between organism and characteristic is:

a. Chilomastix mesnili and shepher’s crook and lemon shape
b. Plasmodium malariae and “band troph”
c. Hymenolepis nana and striated shell
d. Wuchereria bancrofti and sheathed microfilariae
a. Dientamoeba fragilis and tetrad karyosome in the nucleus
b. Toxoplasma gondii and diagnostic serology
c. Echinococcus granulosus and daughter cysts
d. Schistosoma mansoni and egg with terminal spine
35. An immunosuppressed male had several episodes of pneumonia, intestinal pain, and sepsis with gram-negative rods, and
a history of military service in Southeast Asia 20 years earlier. The organism is:
a. Trypanosoma cruzi c. Naegleria fowleri
b. Strongyloides stercoralis d. Paragonimus westermani
36. “Cultures of parasites are different from bacterial cultures; no quality control is needed.” This statement is:
a. True, if two tubes of media are set up on each patient
b. True, if the medium is checked every 24 hours
c. False, unless two different types of media are used
d. False, and organism and media controls need to be set up
37. When humans have hydatid disease, the causative agent and host classification are?
a. Echinococcus granulosus – accidental intermediate host
b. Echinococcus granulosus – definitive host
c. Taenia solium – accidental intermediate host
d. Taenia solium – definitive host
38. A transplant patient on immunosuppressive drugs developed increasing shortness of breath and cyanosis. The most likely
combination of disease and diagnostic procedure is:
a. Strongyloidiasis and trichrome stain c. Toxoplasmosis and Gram stain
b. Pneumocystosis and silver stain d. Paragonimiasis and wet preparation
39. In an outbreak of diarrheal disease traced to a municipal water supply, the most likely causative agents are:
a. Cryptosporidium parvum and Giardia lamblia
b. Giardia lamblia and Isospora belli
c. Isospora belli and Entamoeba histolytica
d. Entamoeba histolytica and Dientamoeba fragilis
40. The most prevalent helminth to infect humans is:
a. Enterobius vermicularis, the pinworm
b. Ascaris lumbricoides, the large intestinal roundworm
c. Taenia saginata, the beef tapeworm
d. Schistosoma mansoni, one of the blood flukes
41. Which organism is commonly mistaken for Salmonella and will agglutinate in Salmonella polyvalent antiserum?
a. Citrobacter freundii strains c. Shigella sonnei strains
b. Proteus mirabilis strains d. Alkalencens-dispar group
42. A 4-year old was bitten on her hand by her pet cat. Two days later, the bite area was swollen and had some drainage. A
Gram’s stain of the exudates revealed a small gram-negative coccobacillus. The most likely identity of this organism is:
a. Brucella species c. Pasteurella multocida
b. Vibrio vulnificus d. Francisella tularensis

43. The term internal autoinfection can be associated with which of the following parasites?
b. Isospora belli and Stronglyoides stercoralis
c. Cryptosporidium parvum and Strongyloides stercoralis
d. Giardia lamblia and Isospora belli
44. Which procedure is appropriate for culture of genital specimens in order to recover Chlamydia spp?
a. inoculate cycloheximide treated McCoy’s cells
b. plate onto blood and chocolate agar
c. inoculate into thioglycollate broth
d. Plate onto modified Thayer-Martin agar within 2 hours
45. Biochemically, the Enterobacteriaceae are gram-negative rods that:
a. Ferment glucose, reduce nitrate to nitrite, and are usually motile
b. Ferment glucose, produce indophenol oxidase, and form gas
c. Ferment lactose, reduce nitrite to nitrogen gas
d. Ferment lactose, produce indophenol oxidase
46. The malonate test is most useful in differentiating which members of the Enterobacteriaceae?
a. Salmonella and Enterobacter c. Salmonella subgroups 2,3 and Shigella
b. Proteus and Providencia d. Serratia and Yersinia
47. Which genera of Enterobacteriaceae are usually nonmotile at 36qC?
a. Shigella, Klebsiella, and Yersinia c. Proteus, Providencia, and Salmonella
b. Escherichia, Edwardsiella, and Enterobacter d. Serratia, Morganella, and Hafnia
48. Which group of tests best identifies the Morganella and Proteus genera?
a. Motility, urease, and phenylalanine deaminase
b. Malonate, glucose fermentation, and DNase
c. Indole, oxidase, MR, and VP
d. Indole, citrate, and urease
49. A stool specimen demonstrated growth on Campylobacter blood agar at 42qC but not at 25qC. The isolate was tested, and
the following results were obtained: oxidase positive, catalase positive, nalidixic acid susceptible, hippurate hydrolysis
positive, hydrogen sulfide negative. The most likely identity of this isolate is:
a. Vibrio alginolyticus c. Campylobacter jejuni
b. Campylobacter coli d. Pleisomonas
50. A sputum specimen was processed for mycobacteria. After 20 days of incubation at 37qC, orange colonies were seen on
Lowenstein-Jensen slants that had been incubated in the light. Tubes incubated in the dark also showed orange colonies.
Biochemical testing gave the following results: niacin negative, nitrate negative, Tween hydrolysis positive, catalase
positive, urease negative, iron uptake negative, no growth on 5% sodium chloride agar. The most likely identity of this
organism is:
a. Mycobacterium scrofulaceum
b. Mycobacterium szulgai
c. Mycobacterium gordonae
d. Mycobacterium flavescens
51. Select the primary and differential media of choice for recovery of most fecal pathogens.
a. MacConkey, blood, birdseed, and Campy agars
b. Hektoen, MacConkey, Campy, colistin-nalidixic acid (CNA) agars
c. CNA and Christensen urea agars and thioglycollate media
d. Blood, Campy, Mueller-Hinton agars, and thioglycolate media

52. A sputum specimen from an AIDS patient was processed for mycobacteria. After 14 days incubation at 37qC, buff-colored
colonies were seen on Lowenstein-Jensen slants that had been incubated in the dark also showed buff-colored colonies.
Biochemical testing gave the following results: niacin negative, nitrate negative, Tween hydrolysis negative, catalase
negative, urease positive, no growth at 5% sodium chloride agar. What is the most likely identity of the organism?
a. Mycobacterium tuberculosis c. Mycobacterium fortuitum
b. Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare d. Mycobacterium simiae
53. A culture of a skin (hand) wound from a manager of a tropical fish store grew on Lowenstein Jensen agar slants at 30qC in
10 days, but did not grow on the same medium after 20 days at 37qC. Biochemical testing yielded the following results:
photochromogen, niacin negative, urease positive, catalase negative, nitrate negative, Tween hydrolysis positive. What is
the most likely identification of this organism?
a. Mycobacterium kansasii
b. Mycobacterium marinum
c. Mycobacterium avium
d. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
54. Chocolate agar and modified Thayer-Martin agar are used for the recovery of:
a. Haemophilus spp. and Neisseria spp respectively
b. Haemophilus spp. and Neisseria gonorrhoeae respectively
c. Neisseria spp. and Streptococcus spp. respectively
d. Streptococcus spp and Staphylococcus spp. respectively
55. A sheep blood agar plate is used as a primary isolation medium when all of the following organisms are to be recovered
from a wound specimen except:
a. Beta hemolytic Streptococcus and coagulase positive Staphylococcus
b. Haemophilus influenzae and H. parainfluenzae
c. Proteus spp. and Escherichia coli
d. Pseudomonas spp. and Acinetobacter spp
56. A large gram positive, spore forming rod growing on blood agar as large, raised, beta hemolytic colonies that spread and
appear as frosted green-gray glass is most likely which one of the following organisms?
a. Bacillus
b. Pseudomonas
c. Corynebacterium
d. Listeria
57. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) should be cultured immediately, but if delayed the specimen should be:
a. Refrigerated at 4-6qC
b. Frozen at -20qC
c. Stored at room temperature for not longer then 24 hours
d. Incubated at 37qC and cultured as soon as possible
58. The ortho-nitrophenyl E-galactopyronoside (ONPG) test is most useful when differentiating.
a. Salmoella spp. from Pseudomonas spp. c. Klebsiella spp. from Enterobacter spp.
b. Shigella spp. from some strains of E. coli d. Proteus vulgaris from Salmonella spp.
59. Which genera of the Enterobacteriaceae are known to cause diarrhea and are considered enteric pathogens?
a. Enterobacter, Klebsiella, and Providencia
b. Escherichia, Salmonella, Shigella, & Yersinia
c. Pseudomonas and Moraxella
d. Enterobacter, Citrobacter, and Morganella

60. Fever, abdominal cramping, watery stools, fluid and electrolyte loss preceded by bloody stools two to three days before is
characteristic of shigellosis, but may also result from infection with:
a. Campylobacter spp. b. Salmonella spp c. Proteus spp d. Yersinia spp
61. A routine complete stool culture procedure should include media for the isolation of:
a. Salmonella, Shigella, Yersinia, Campylobacter, and Staphylococcus aureus
b. Vibrio cholerae, E. coli, and Yersinia spp
c. Staph. Aureus, group B Streptococcus, and group D Streptococcus
d. Clostridium difficile, C. perfringens, and Yersinia spp.
62. A gram-negative rod is recovered from a catheterized urine from a nursing home patient. The lactose-negative isolate
tested positive for indole, urease, KCN, ornithine decarboxylase, and phenylalanine deaminase. The most probable
identification is:
a. Edwardsiella spp c. Ewingella spp
b. Morganella spp d. Shigella spp
63. A bloody stool from a 26-year-old female after 3 days of severe diarrhea showed the following results at 48 hours:
MacConkey agar—little normal flora with many non-lactose-fermenting colonies
Hektoen enteric agar—many blue-green colonies
Campylobacter blood agar and Clostridium difficile agar—no growth
Clear colonies (from MacConkey agar) tested negative for oxidase, indole, urea, motility and H 2S. The most likely
identification is:
a. Shigella spp. b. Salmonella spp. c. Proteus spp. d. E. coli
64. A leg wound culture from a nursing-home patient grew gram-negative rods on MacConkey agar as pink to dark pink
oxidase-negative colonies. Given the following results, which is the most likely organisms?
TSI = A/A Indole = 0 MR = 0
VP = + Citrate = + H 2S = 0
Urea = + Motility = 0
Antibiotic susceptibility: carboxicillin and ampicillin resistant, all others sensitive
a. Serratia marcescens c. Enterobacter cloacae
b. Proteus vulgaris d. Klebsiella pneumoniae
65. A stool culture from a 3-month-old male suffering from bloody mucoid diarrhea gave the following results on differential
enteric media:
MacConkey agar = clear colonies
XLD agar = clear colonies
Hektoen agar = green colonies
Salmonella-Shigella agar = small clear colonies
Which tests are most appropriate for identification of this enteric pathogen?
a. TSI, motility, indole, urea, Shigella typing with polyvalent sera
b. TSI, motility, indole, lysine, Salmonella typing with polyvalent sera
c. TSI, indole, MR, VP, citrate
d. TSI, indole, MR and urea
66. Which test group best differentiates Acinetobacter spp. from Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
a. Oxidase, motility, 42qC growth c. Blood agar growth, oxidase, catalase
b. MacConkey growth, 37qC growth, catalase d. Oxidase, TSI, MacConkey growth
67. A yellow pigment-producing organism that is oxidase positive, nonmotile, and does not grow on MacConkey agar is:
a. Acinetobacter calcoaceticus c. Pseudomonas cepacia
b. Acinetobacter lwoffi d. Flavobacterium meningosepticum

68. Three blood cultures taken from a 30-year-old cancer patient receiving chemotherapy and admitted with a urinary tract
infection grew lactose-negative, motile, gram-negative rods prior to antibiotic therapy. Given the biochemical reactions
below, which is the most likely organism?
H2S (TSI) = 0 indole = + MR = +
Phenylalanine Deaminase = + Urea = + Ornithine decarboxylase = +
Citrate = + Gelatin hydrolysis = + VP = 0
a. Proteus vulgaris c. Serratia marcescens
b. Proteus mirabilis d. Klebsiella pneumoniae
69. The presumptive tests used for identification of Pseudomonas spp. are:
a. Oxidase, OF glucose (open), OF glucose (sealed), motility, pigment production
b. Growth on BAP and EMB agars, lysine decarboxylation, catalase
c. Growth on MacConkey, EMB and XLD agars and motility
d. Growth on mannitol salt agar and flagellar stain
70. An NFB recovered from an eye wound is oxidase positive, motile with polar monotrichous flagella, and fails to grow at
42qC. Colonies are dry, wrinkled, and smooth, and buff to light brown in color. In which DNA homology group should this
organism be placed?
a. Pseudomonas stutzeri c. Pseudomonoas alcaligenes
b. Pseudomonas fluorescens d. Pseudomonas diminuta
71. The following results are obtained from a pure culture of gram-negative rods recovered from the pulmonary secretions of
a 10-year-old cystic fibrosis patient with pneumonia:
Oxidase = + Motility = +
Glucose OF (open) = + Gelatin = +
Pgment = red (nonfluorescent) Arginine dihydrolase = +
Growth at 42qC = + Flagella = + (polar monotrichous)
Which is the most likely organism?
a. Pseudomonas pseudomallei c. Pseudomonas cepacia
b. Pseudomonas stutzeri d. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
72. A gram-negative coccobacillus was recovered on chocolate agar from the CSF of an immunosuppressed patient. The
organism was nonmotile and positive for indophenol oxidase, but failed to grow on MacConkey agar. The organism was
highly susceptible to penicillin. The most probable identification is:
a. Acinetobacter spp. c. Pseudomonas stutzeri
b. Pseudomonas aeruginosa d. Moraxella lacunata
73. A culture from an intra-abdominal abscess produced orange-tan colonies on blood agar, which gave the following results
Oxidase = + Nitrate reduction = + Motility = + (polar flagella)
KIA = Alk/Alk (H2S) + DNAse = +
Ornithine decarboxylase = + Growth at 42qC = 0
The most likely identification is:
a. Shewanella (Pseudomonas) putrefaciens c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
b. Acinetobacter spp d. Flavobacterium spp
74. Which genera of small gram-negative coccobacilli is associated mainly with animals but may cause endocarditis,
bacteremia, and wound and dental infections in humans?
a. Actinobacillus b. Pseudomonas c. Campylobacter d. Vibrio
75. Kingella kingae can best be differentiated from Eikenella corrodens using which media?
a. Sheep blood agar c. MacConkey agar
b. Chocolate agar d. Xylose lysine deoxycholate agar

76. A curved gram-negative rod producing oxidase positive colonies on blood agar was recovered from a stool culture. Given
the results below, what is the most likely identification?
Lysine = + Arginine = 0 Indole = +
KIA = Alk/Acid VP = 0 Lactose = 0
Urease = r String test = 0 TCBS agar = green colonies
a. Vibrio cholerae c. Shigella spp.
b. Vibrio parahaemolyticus d. Salmonella spp
77. Which atmospheric condition is needed to recover Campylobacter spp. from specimens inoculated onto a Campy-selective
agar at 35-37qC and 42qC?
a. 5% O2, 10% CO2, and 85% N2 c. 20% O2, 20% CO2, and 60% N2
b. 10% O2, 10% CO2, and 80% N2 d. 20% O2, 5% CO2, and 75% N2
78. A Gram’s stain of the CSF of a 33-year old man revealed many polymorphonuclear leukocytes and intra- and extracellular
gram negative diplococcic. Culture and tests were as follows: small, flat, gray colonies on chocolate agar, oxidase positive;
cystine trypticase agar (CTA) maltose positive; CTA lactose negative. The most likely identity of this isolate is:
a. Neisseria gonorrhoeae c. Moraxella catarrhalis
b. Neisseria meningitidis d. Acinetobacter species
79. Thiosulfate-citrate bile salts-sucrose (TCBS) agar is used to isolate and identify which one of the following genera?
a. Aeromonas c. Campylobacter
b. Pseudomonas d. Vibrio
80. An isolate from a urine culture demonstrated the following characteristics: gray, spreading colonies on blood agar, cream-
colored colonies on MacConkey agar, indole negative; hydrogen sulfide positive, phenylalanine deaminase positive,
ornithine decarboxylase positive; urea positive; citrate negative. The most likely identity of this isolate is:
a. Escherichia coli c. Proteus vulgaris
b. Morganella morganii d. Proteus mirabilis
81. Obligate anaerobic gram negative bacilli that do not form spores, grow well in 20% bile, and are resistant to kanamycin
are most likely which one of the following organism?
a. Porphyromonas spp.
b. Bacteroides spp.
c. Fusobacterium spp.
d. Prevotella spp.
82. A flexible calcium alginate nasopharyngeal swab is the collection device of choice for recovery of which organism from the
nasopharynx?
a. Staphylococcus aureus c. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
b. Streptococcus pneumoniae d. Bacteroides fragilis
83. All of the following are appropriate when attempting to isolate Neisseria gonorrhoeae from genital specimen except:
a. Transport the genital swab in charcoal transport media
b. Plate the specimen on modified Thayer-Martin media
c. Plate the specimen on New York City or Martin-Lewis agar
d. Culture specimens in ambient oxygen at 37qC
84. Xylose lysine deoxycholate agar (XLD) is a highly selective medium used for the recovery of which bacteria?
a. Staphyloccus spp from normal flora c. Enterobacteriaceae from gastrointestinal specimens
b. Yersinia spp. that do not grow on Hektoen agar d. Streptococcus spp from stool cultures
85. Which of the following tests best differentiate Shigella species from E. coli?
a. Hydrogen sulfide, VP, citrate, and urea c. Hydrogen sulfide, MR, citrate, and urea
b. Lactose, indole, ONPG, and motility d. Gas, citrate, and VP

86. A gram positive, spore-forming bacillus growing on blood agar anaerobically produces a double zone of beta hemolysis
and is positive for lecithinase. What is the presumptive identification of this isolate?
a. Bacteroides ureolyticus
b. Bacteroides fragilis
c. Clostridium perfringens
d. Clostridium difficile
87. Select the method of choice for recovery of anaerobic bacteria from a deep abscess.
a. Cotton fiber swab of the abscess area
b. Skin snip of the surface tissue
c. Needle aspirate after surface decontamination
d. Swab of the scalpel used for debridement
88. According to the Kirby-Bauer standard antimicrobial susceptibility testing method, what should be done when
interpreting the zone size of a motile, swarming organism such as a Proteus species?
a. The swarming area should be ignored
b. The results of the disk diffusion method are invalid
c. The swarming area should be measured as the growth boundary
d. The isolate should be retested after diluting to 0.05 McFarland’s standard
89. Kligler’s iron agar (KIA) differs from triple sugar iron agar (TSI) in the:
a. Ratio of lactose to glucose
b. Ability to detect hydrogen sulfide production
c. Use of sucrose in the medium
d. Color reaction denoting production of acid
90. Which group of tests, along with colonial morphology on primary media, aids most in the rapid identification of the
Enterobacteriaceae?
a. TSI, MR, and VP, urea and blood agar plate
b. KIA, phenylalanine deaminase, urea and CDC agar plate
c. TSI, bacitracin, beta-lactamase, and MacConkey agar plate
d. Indole, oxidase, MacConkey, and blood agar plates
91. Which group of tests best differentiates Enterobacter aerogenes and Edwardsiella tarda?
a. Motility, citrate, and urease
b. H2S production, sucrose fermentation, indole, and VP
c. Lysine decarboxylase, urease, and arginine dihydrolase
d. Motility, H2S production, and DNAse
92. Which agar is the medium of choice for the isolation of Yersinia strains from stool specimens?
a. Salmonella-Shigella agar c. MacConkey agar
b. Hektoen enteric agar d. CNA
93. The drugs of choice for treatment of infections with Enterobacteriaceae are
a. Aminoglycosides, trimethoprim-sulfamethexazole, third-generation cephalosporins
b. Ampicillin and naladixic acid
c. Streptomycin and isoniazid
d. Chloramphenicol, ampicillin, and colistin
94. In addition to CO2 requirements and biochemical characteristics, Brucella melitensis and Brucella abortus are
differentiated by growth on media containing which two dyes?
a. Basic fuchsin and thionine c. Carbol fuchsin and iodine
b. Methylene blue and crystal violet d. Safranin and methylene blue

95. Four blood cultures were taken over a 24-hour period from a 20-year-old female with severe diarrhea. The cultures grew
motile gram-negative rods at room temperature. Urine obtained by catheterization also showed gram-negative rods,
100,000 col/mL. Given the results below, which is the most likely organism?
TSI = A/A Indole = + VP = 0 MR = + H2S = 0
Citrate = 0 Urea = 0 Phenylalanine deaminase = 0
Lysine decarboxylase = +
a. Proteus vulgaris c. Yersinia enterocolitica
b. Salmonella typhi d. Escherichia coli
96. A leg wound culture from a hospitalized 70-year-old diabetic male grew motile, lactose-negative colonies on MacConkey
agar. Given the following biochemical reactions at 24 hours, what is the most probable organism?
H2S (TSI) = 0 Indole = 0 Citrate = +
MR = 0 VP = + Urea = 0
Phenylalanine deaminase = 0 DNAse = + Gelatin = +
Ornithine and lysine decarboxylase = + Arginine decarboxylase = 0
a. Proteus vulgaris c. Proteus mirabilis
b. Serratia marcescens d. Enterobacter cloacae
97. What are the most appropriate screening tests to presumptively differentiate and identify the nonfermatative gram-
negative bacilli (NFB) from the Enterobacteriaceae?
a. Catalase, decarboxylation of arginine, growth on blood agar
b. Motility, urease, morphology on blood agar
c. Oxidase, TSI, nitrate reduction, growth on MacConkey agar
d. Oxidase, indole, and growth on blood agar
98. Which biochemical tests are needed to differentiate Pseudomonas cepacia from Xanthomonas maltophilia?
a. Pigment on blood agar, oxidase, DNAse
b. Pigment on MacConkey agar, flagellar stain, motility
c. Glucose, maltose, lysine decarboxylase
d. TSI, motility, oxidase
99. Flavobacterium spp. are easily distinguished from Acinetobacter spp. by which of the following two tests?
a. Oxidase, growth on MacConkey agar c. TSI and urea hydrolysis
b. Oxidase and OF (glucose) d. TSI and VP
100. After debridement, a culture was obtained from 15-year-old female burn patient and the following results were
obtained
Oxidase = + Catalase = +
Motility = + Lysine decarboxylase = 0
Ornithine decarboxylase = 0 Glucose = + for oxidation (open tube)
Arginine dihydrolase = + Maltose = 0 for oxidation (open tube)
Penicillin = resistant Aminoglycosides = susceptible
Colistin (Polymixin B) = susceptible
These results indicate which of the following organisms?
a. Acinetobacter calcoaceticus c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
b. Moraxella lacunata d. Acinetobacter lwoffi
101. Which group of tests best differentiates Helicobacter pylori from Campylobacter jejuni?
a. Catalase, oxidase, and gram stain c. Catalase, oxidase, and nalidixic acid sensitivity
b. Catalase, oxidase, and cephalothin sensitivity d. Urease, nitrate and hippurate hydrolysis
102. Which tests are most appropriate to differentiate between Pseudomonas aeruginosa and Pseudomonas putida?

a. Oxidase, motility, pyoverdin c. Oxidase, ONPG, DNAse

b. Oxidase, motility, lactose d. Mannitol, nitrate reduction, growth at 42qC
103. The most noted differences between Psuedomonoas aeruginosa and Xanthomonas maltophilia are:
a. Oxidase, catalase, and TSI c. Oxidase, 42qC growth, polar tuft of flagella
b. Oxidase, catalase and ONPG d. Catalase, TSI, and pigment
104. Which reagent(s) is are used to develop the red color indicative of a positive reaction in the nitrate reduction test?
a. Sulfanilic acid and alpha-naphthylamine c. o-nitrophenyl-E-D-galactopyranoside
b. Ehrlich’s reagent d. Kovac’s reagent
105. A visitor to South America returns with diarrhea and infection with Vibrio cholerae is suspected. Select the best
media for recovery and identification of this organism.
a. MacConkey agar c. Thiosulfate citrate bile sucrose (TCBS) agar
b. Blood agar d. Xylose lysine deoxycholate (XLD) agar
106. A gram-negative S-shaped rod recovered from selective media for Campylobacter species gave the following results:
Catalase = + Oxidase = +
Motility = + Hippurate hydrolysis = +
Growth at 42qC = positive Naladixic acid = susceptible
Cephalothin = resistant
a. Pseudomonas aeruginosa c. Campylobacter fetus
b. Campylobacter jejuni d. Pseudmonas putida
107. A mixture of slender gram-negative rods and coccobacilli with rounded ends was recovered from blood cultures from
a patient following root canal surgery. Given the following results after 48 hours, what is the most likely organism?
Catalase = 0 Oxidase = +
Lysine decarboxylase = 0 Indole = 0
Urease = 0 X and V requirement = 0
Ornithine decarboxylase = + Growth on blood agar = +
Carbohydrates = 0 (no acid produced)
Growth on MacConkey agar = 0 (with pitting of agar)
a. Eikenella corrodens c. Cardiobacterium hominis
b. Actinobacillus sp d. Proteus sp
108. Cultures obtained from a dog bite wound produced yellow, tan, and slightly pink colonies on blood and chocolate agar
with a margin of fingerlike projections appearing as a film around the colonies. Given the following results at 24 hours,
which is the most likely organism?
Oxidase = 0 Catalase = 0
Growth on MacConkey agar = 0 Motility = + (“gliding” appearance)
a. Actinobacillus spp c. Capnocytophaga spp.
b. Eikenella spp d. Pseudomonas spp
109. Haemophilus influenzae, which requires X and V factors for growth, can be differentiated from Haemophilus aegyptius
by which two tests?
a. Indole and xylose c. Oxidase and catalase
b. Glucose and urease d. Indole and oxidase
110. Methods other than packaged microsystems used to identify anaerobes include:
a. Antimicrobial susceptibility testing c. special staining
b. Gas-liquid chromatography d. Enzyme immunoassay

111. Smooth gray colonies showing no hemolysis are recovered from an infected cat scratch on blood and chocolate agar,
but fail to grow on MacConkey agar. The organisms are gram-negative pleomorphic rods that are both catalase and
oxidase positive and strongly indole positive. The most likely organism is:
a. Capnocytophaga spp c. Proteus spp
b. Pasteurella spp d. Pseudomonas spp
112. Which medium should be used to recover Bordetella pertussis from a nasopharyngeal specimen?
a. Chocolate agar c. MacConkey agar
b. Blood agar d. Bordet-Gengou agar
113. Which media is recommended for the recovery of Brucella spp. from blood and bone marrow specimens?
a. Biphasic Castenada bottles with Brucella broth
b. Blood culture bottles with Brucella broth
c. Bordet-Gengou agar plates and thioglycolate broth
d. Blood culture bottles with thioglycolate broth
114. Which of the following plates should be used in order to identify Haemophilus haemolyticus and Haemophilus
parahaemolyticus?
a. Sheep blood agar and chocolate agar
b. Horse blood agar and Mueller-Hinton agar with X and V strips
c. Brain-heart infusion agar with sheep red cells added
d. Chocolate agar and Mueller-Hinton agar with X factor added
115. Which of the following is a characteristic of strains of Haemophilus influenzae that are resistant to ampicillin?
a. Production of beta-lactamase enzymes c. Hydrolysis of urea
b. Hydrolysis of chloramphenicol d. All of the above
116. A small, gram-negative coccobacillus recovered from CSF of a 2-year-old child have the following results:
Indole = + Glucose = + (acid) Hemolysis = 0
X requirement = + V requirement = + Sucrose = 0
Urease = + Lactose = 0
Which is the most likely identification?
a. H. parainfluenzae b. H. influenzae c. H. ducreyi d. H. aphrophilus
117. Strains of Staphylococcus spp. resistant to the beta-lactam antibiotics by standardized disk diffusion and broth
microdilution susceptibility methods are called:
a. Heteroresistant c. Cross-resistant
b. Bacteriophage group 52A d. Plasmid altered
118. The following results were observed by using a tube coagulase test:
Coagulase at 4 hours = + Coagulase at 18 hours = 0
Novobiocin (16-mm zone) = sensitive Hemolysis on blood agar = beta
DNAse = + Mannitol salt plate (acid production) = +
What is the most probable identification?
a. Staph. saprophyticus c. Staph. aureus
b. Staph. epidermidis d. Staph. hominis
119. A gram-positive coccus recovered from a wound ulcer from a 31-year-old diabetic patient showed pale yellow,
creamy, beta-hemolytic colonies on blood agar. Given the following test results, what is the most likely identification?
Catalase = + Glucose OF: positive open tube, negative sealed tube
Mannitol salt = 0 Slide coagulase = 0
a. Staph. aureus c. Micrococcus spp.
b. Staph. epidermidis d. Streptococcus spp.

120. Streptococcus spp. exhibit which of the following properties?

a. Aerobic, oxidase, and catalase positive
b. Facultative anaerobe, oxidase negative, catalase negative
c. Facultative anaerobe, beta-hemolytic, catalase positive
d. May be alpha, beta, or gamma hemolytic, catalase positive
121. Beta-hemolytic streptococci not of Group A or B usually exhibit which of the following reactions?
Bacitracin SXT
a. Susceptible Resistant
b. Resistant Resistant
c. Resistant Susceptible
d. Susceptible Indeterminant
122. The bile solubility test causes the lysis of:
a. Streptococcus bovis colonies on a blood agar plate
b. Streptococcus pneumoniae colonies on a blood agar plate
c. Group A streptococci in broth culture
d. Group B streptococci in broth culture
123. A pure culture of beta-hemolytic streptococci recovered from a leg wound ulcer gave the following reactions:
CAMP test = 0 Hippurate hydrolysis = 0
Bile esculin = 0 6.5% salt = 0
PYR = 0 Bacitracin = R
Optochin = R SXT = S
a. Group A streptococci
b. Group B streptococci
c. Group D streptococci
d. Non-Group A, non-Group B, non-Group D streptococci
124. Alpha-hemolytic streptococci recovered from a wound were found to be penicillin resistant. Given the following
results, what is the most likely identification?
Bile esculin = + Bile solubility = 0
6.5% salt = + Hippurate hydrolysis = +
PYR = + SXT = R
a. Enterococcus faecalis c. Streptococcus bovis
b. Streptococcus pneumoniae d. Group B streptococci
125. Which two tests best differentiate Strep. bovis (Grou D streptococci, nonenterococci) from Strep. salivarius?
a. Bile esculin and 6.5% salt broth
b. Starch hydrolysis and acid production from mannitol
c. Bacitracin and PYR
d. SXT susceptibility and PYR
126. Cystine-tryptic digest agar (CTA) media used for identification of Neisseria spp. should be inoculated and cultured in:
a. A CO2 incubator at 35qC for 24 hours
b. A CO2 incubator at 42qC for up to 72 hours
c. A nonCO2 incubator at 35qC for up to 72 hours
d. An anaerobic incubator at 35qC for up to 72 hours

127. A sputum sample from a patient with pneumonia produced many colonies of gram-negative diplococci on a chocolate
plate that were also present in fewer numbers on MTM after 48 hours. Given the results below, what is the most likely
identification?
Catalase = + Oxidase = + DNAse = +
Tributyrin hydrolysis = + Glucose = 0 Sucrose = 0
Lactose = 0 Maltose = 0 Fructose = 0
a. Moraxella (Neisseria) catarrhalis c. Neisseria sicca
b. Neisseria flavescens d. Neisseria elongata
128. A suspected Bacillus anthracis culture obtained from a wound specimen produced colonies that had many outgrowth
(Medusa-head appearance), but were not beta-hemolytic on sheep blood agar. Which test should be performed next?
a. Penicillin (10-unit) susceptibility test c. Glucose test
b. Lecithinase test d. Motility test
129. Which of the following tests should be performed for initial differentiation of Listeria monocytogenes from Group B
streptococci?
Catalase Motility CAMP H 2S Bile esculin
L. monocytogenes + + + 0 +
Group B streptococci 0 0 + 0 0
a. Gram’s stain, motility at room temperature, catalase
b. Gram’s stain, CAMP test, H2S/TSI
c. Oxidase, CAMP test, glucose
d. Oxidase, bacitracin
130. A presumptive diagnosis of Gardnerella vaginalis can be made using which of the following findings?
a. Oxidase and catalase tests
b. Pleomorphic bacilli heavily colonized on vaginal epithelium
c. Hippurate hydrolysis test
d. All of the above
131. A gram-positive (gram-variable) beaded organism with delicate branching was recovered from the sputum of a 20-
year-old patient with leukemia. The specimen produced orange, glabrous, waxy colonies on Middlebrook agar that
showed partial acid-fast staining with the modified Kinyoun stain. What is the most likely identification?
a. Rhodococcus spp. c. Streptomyces spp.
b. Actinomadura spp. d. Norcardia spp.
132. A direct smear from a nasopharyngeal swab stained with Loeffler’s methylene blue stain showed various letter shapes
and deep blue, metachromatic granules. The most likely identification is:
a. Corynebacterium spp. c. Listeria spp.
b. Norcardia spp. d. Gardnerella spp.
133. Which broth is used for the cultivation of anaerobic bacteria in order to detect volatile fatty acids as an aid to
identification?
a. Prereduced peptone-yeast extract-glucose (PYG) c. Gram-negative broth (GN)
b. Thioglycolate broth (Thio) d. Selenite-F broth (SEL)
134. Staphylococcus aureus recovered from a wound culture gave the following antibiotic sensitivity pattern by the
standardized Kirby-Bauer method (S = sensitive and R = resistant)
Penicillin = R Ampicillin (moderate) = S Vancomycin (moderate) = S
Cephalothin = R Cefoxitin = R Methicillin = R
Which is the drug of choice for treating this infection?
a. Penicillin b. Ampicillin c. Cephalothin d. Vancomycin

135. A gram-positive spore-forming bacillus growing on blood agar anaerobically produces a double zone of beta-
hemolysis and is positive for lecithinase. What is the presumptive identification?
a. Bacteroides ureolyticus c. Clostridium perfringens
b. Bacteroides fragilis d. Clostridium difficile
136. Which spore type and location is found on C. tetanii
a. Round, terminal spores c. Ovoid, subterminal spores
b. Round, subterminal d. Ovoid, terminal spores
137. Gram-positive bacilli recovered from two blood cultures from a 60-year-old diabetic patient gave the following
results:
Spore-former Motility = 0
Lecithinase = + Hemolysis = + (double zone)
Volatile acids by GLC = acetic acid (A) and butyric acid (B)
What is the most likely identification?
a. C. tetani b. C. Perfringens c. C. novyi (B) d. C. sporogenes
138. Urine cultured from the catheter of an 18-year-old female patient produced greater than 100,000 col/mL on a colistin-
nalidixic acid (CNA) plate. Colonies were catalase positive, coagulase negative by the latex agglutination slide method. The
best single test for identification is:
a. Lactose fermentation c. Tube coagulase
b. Urease d. Novobiocin susceptibility
139. A false-positive CAMP test for the presumptive identification of Group B streptococci may occur if the plate is
incubated in a:
a. Candle jar or CO2 incubator c. 35qC incubator
b. Ambient air incubator d. 37qC incubator
140. Beta-hemolytic streptococci, greater than 50,000 col/mL, were isolated from a urinary tract catheter. Given the
following reactions what is the most likely identification?
CAMP test = 0 Hippurate hydrolysis = r
Bile solubility = 0 6.5% salt = +
PYR = + Bile esculin = +
Bacitracin = R Optochin = R
SXT = R
a. Group A streptococci c. Group D streptococci (enterococcus)
b. Group B streptococci d. Non-group A, non-Group B, non-Group D streptococci
141. Blood cultures (two) on a newborn grew beta-hemolytic streptococci with the following reactions:
CAMP test = + Hippurate hydrolysis = +
PYR = 0 Bile esculin = 0
Bacitracin = R SXT = R
a. Group A streptococci c. Group D streptococci
b. Group B streptococci d. Non-Group A, non-Group B, non-Group D streptococci
142. A Gram stain smear taken from the periodontal pockets of a 30-year-old male with poor dental hygiene showed sulfur
granules containing gram-positive rods (short diphtheroids and some unbranched filaments). Colonies on blood agar
resembled “molar teeth” in formation. The most likely organism is:
a. Actinomyces israelii c. Streptococcus intermedius
b. Proprionibacterium acnes d. Peptostreptococcus anaerobius

143. Identification of Clostridium tetani is based upon:

a. Gram stain of the wound site c. Blood culture results
b. Anaerobic culture of the wound site d. Clinical findings
144. Obligate anaerobic Gram-negative bacilli that do not form spores, grow well in 20% bile, and are resistant to penicillin
(2-unit disks) are most likely:
a. Prophyromonas spp. c. Fusobacterium supp.
b. Bacteroides spp. d. Prevotella spp.
145. The following characteristics of an obligate anaerobic gram-negative bacilli best describe which of the genera below?
Gram stain: long slender rods with pointed ends
Colonial appearance: Dry bread crumbs or “fried egg” appearance
Penicillin 2-unit disk test = susceptible
a. Bacteroides spp. c. Prevotella spp.
b. Fusobacterium spp. d. Porpyromonas spp.
146. Which is the most appropriate nonselective medium for recovery of mycobacteria from a heavily contaminated
specimen?
a. Lowenstein-Jensen agar c. Petragnani agar
b. Middlebrook 7H10 agar d. American Thoracic Society medium
147. Acid-fast staining of a smear prepared from a digested sputum showed slender, slightly curved, beaded, red
mycobacterial rods. Growth on Middlebrook 7H10 slants produced buff-colored microcolonies with a serpentive pattern
after 14 days at 37qC. Niacin and nitrate reduction tests were positive. What is the most probable presumptive
identification?
a. Mycobacterium tuberculosis c. Mycobacterium kansasii
b. Mycobacterium ulcerans d. Mycobacterium avium complex
148. Which of the following mycobacteria produces pigmented colonies in the dark (is a scotochromogen)?
a. M. szulgai b. M. kansasii c. M. tuberculosis d. All of the above
149. All of the following Mycobacterium spp. produce the enzyme required to convert niacin to niacin ribonucleotide
except:
a. M. kansasii b. M. tuberculosis c. M. avium complex d. M. szulgai
150. Grown inhibition by thiophene-2-carboxylic hydrazide (T2H) is used to differentiate Mycobacterium tuberculosis from
which other Mycobacterium sp.?
a. M. bovis b. M. avium complex c. M. kansasii d. M. marinum
151. Mycobacteria isolated from the hot-water system of a hospital grew at 42qC. Colonies on Lowenstein-Jensen medium
were not pigmented after exposure to light and negative for niacin accumulation and nitrate reduction. The most likely
identification is:
a. M. xenopi b. M. marinum c. M. ulcerans d. M. haemophilum
152. A Mycobacterium sp. recovered from a patient with AIDS gave the following results:
Niacin = 0 T 2H = +
Tween 80 hydrolysis = 0 Heat-stable catalase (68qC) = r
Nitrate reduction = 0 Nonphotochromogen
a. M. gordonae b. M. bovis c. M. avium complex d. M. kansasii
153. An isolate produced a constriction that was interpreted as a positive germ tube, but Candida albicans was ruled out
when confirmatory test were performed. Which of the following fungi is the most likely identification?
a. Candida tropicalis c. Candida glabrata
b. Cryptococcus neoformans d. Rhodotorula rubra

154. According to the College of American Pathologists (CAP) guidelines, which services for mycobacteria would be
performed by a Level II laboratory?
a. No procedures would be performed
b. Acid-fast staining, inoculation, and referral to a reference laboratory
c. Isolation and identification of M. tuberculosis; preliminary identification of other species
d. Definitive identification of all mycobacteria
155. Which of the following Mycobacterium spp. would be most likely to grow on a MacConkey agar plate?
a. M. chelonae-fortuitum complex c. M. marinum
b. M. ulcerans d. M. avium-intracellulare complex
156. Blastospores (blastoconidia) are the beginning of which structures?
a. Arthrospores b. Germ tubes c. Pseudohyphae d. True hyphae
157. An isolate from CSF growing on cornmeal agar produces the following structures:
Blastospores = + Pseudohyphae = 0
Chlamydospores = 0 Arthrospores = 0
Which tests should be performed next?
a. Birdseed agar and urease c. India ink and germ tube
b. Germ tube and glucose d. All of the above
158. Which of the following yeasts produces only blastospores on cornmeal Tween 80 agar?
a. Candida spp. b. Trichosporon spp. c. Geotrichum spp. d. Cryptococcus spp.
159. A germ-tube negative, pink yeast isolate was recovered from the respiratory secretions and urine of a patient with
AIDS. Given the results below, what is the most likely identification?
Urease = + Blastospores = +
Pseudohyphae = 0 Arthrospores = 0
a. Candida albicans b. Rhodotorula spp. c. Cryptococcus spp. d. Trichosporon spp.
160. Carbohydrate assimilation tests are used for the identification of yeast isolates by inoculating media:
a. Free of carbohydrates c. Containing carbohydrates
b. Free of niger seed d. Containing yeast extract
161. Yeast recovered from the urine of catheterized patient receiving chemotherapy for cancer have the following results:
Germ tube = + Blastospores = +
Chlamydospores = +
What further testing is necessary?
a. Carbohydrate assimilation and urease
b. Urease and niger seed
c. Nitrate reductase and carbohydrate fermentation
d. No further testing is needed for identification
162. The mycelial form of Histoplasma capsulatum seen on agar resembles:
a. Sepedonium spp. b. Penicillium spp. c. Sporothrix spp. d. Coccidioides spp.
163. An organism cultured from the skin produces colonies displying a cherry red color on Sabouraud’s dextrose agar after
3-4 weeks, and teardrop-shaped microconidia along the sides of the hyphae. The most likely identification is:
a. Trichophyton rubrum c. Trichophyton schoenleinii
b. Trichophyton tonsurans d. Trichophyton violacium

164. Microscopic examination of a fungus cultured from a patient with athlete’s foot showed large, smooth-walled, club-
shaped macroconidia appearing singly or in clusters of two to three from the tips of short conidiophores. The colonies did
not produce microconidia. What is the most likely identification?
a. Trichophyton spp. c. Epidermophyton spp.
b. Alternaria spp. d. Microsporum spp.
165. A rapidly growing hyaline mold began as a white colony, but soon developed a black “pepper” effect on the agar
surface. The older colony produced a black matte making it resemble a dematiaceous mold. What is the most likely
identification?
a. Penicillium notatum b. Aspergillus niger c. Paecilomyces spp. d. Scopulariopsis spp.
166. Which Aspergillus sp., recovered most often from sputum or bronchial mucus, is the cause of allergic pulmonary
aspergillosis and invasive disease?
a. A. niger b. A. flavus c. A. fumigatus d. All of the above
167. Material from a fungus-ball infection produced colonies with a green surface on Sabouraud’s agar in 5 days at 30qC.
Microscopic exam showed club-shaped vesicles with sporulation only from the top half of the vesicle. This hyaline mold is
most probably:
a. Aspergillus niger c. Aspergillus flavus
b. Aspergillus fumigatus d. Aspergillus terreus
168. The most common viral syndrome of pericarditis and myocarditis and pleurodynia (pain upon breathing) is caused
by:
a. Herpes simplex c. Epstein-Barr virus
b. Respiratory syncytial virus d. Coxsackie B virus
169. Which virus has been implicated in adult gastroenteritis resulting from ingestion of contaminated food (especially
shellfish) and water?
a. Norwalk-like viruses b. Rotavirus c. Hepatitis C virus d. Coronavirus
170. A 13-year-old male was admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of viral encephalitis. History revealed that the boy
harbored wild raccoons from a nearby woods. What is the best method to determine if the boy has contracted rabies?
a. Remove the brainstems from all of the raccoons and examine for cytopathic effects
b. Immunofluorescent test for antibody on the saliva from all of the raccoons
c. Immunofluorescent test for antigen in cutaneous nerves obtained by nuchal biopsy of the patient
d. Isolate the virus from the saliva of both the animals and the patient
171. The most rapid definitive diagnosis of a genital herpes simplex (HSV-2) infection in a 20-year-old male is made by
which method?
a. Direct immunofluorescence test for viral antigen in vesicle fluid
b. Titer of serum and seminal fluid for antibodies to herpes simplex
c. Detection of anti-herpes simplex in seminal fluid
d. Cell culture of vesicle fluid
172. This condition results from the accidental ingestion of parasite eggs. In this instance the human becomes the
intermediate rather than the definitive host. The correct answer is:
a. Trichinosis b. Cysticercosis c. Ascariasis d. Strongyloidiasis
173. After returning from a 2-year stay in India, the patient had eosinophilia, an enalrge left spermatic cord, and bilateral
inguinal lymphadenopathy. The most, likely clinical specimen and organism match is:
a. Thin blood films and leishmania
b. Urine and concentration for Trichomonas vaginalis
c. Thin blood films and Babesia
d. Thick blood films and microfilariae

174. The incorrect match between organism and the appropriate diagnostic procedure is:
a. Onchocerca volvulus – examination of skin snips
b. Cryptosporidium – modified acid-fast stain
c. Echinococcus granulosus – routine ova and parasite examination
d. Schistosoma haematobium – examination of urine sediment
175. A Gram stain from a gum lesion showed what appeared to be amoebae. A trichrome smear showed amoebae with a
single nucleus and partially digested PMNs. The correct identification is:
a. Trichomonas tenax c. Entamoeba gingivalis
b. Entamoeba histolytica d. Entamoeba polecki
176. Eosinophilic meningoencephalitis is a form of larva migrans, causing fever, headache, stiff neck, and increased cells in
the spinal fluid. It is generally a mild and self-limited infection and is caused by:
a. Necator americanus c. Ancylostoma braziliense
b. Angiostrongylus cantonensis d. Strongyloides stercoralis
177. Characteristics of the rhabditiform (noninfective) larvae of Strongyloides stercoralis include a:
a. Short buccal capsule and large genital primordium
b. Long buccal capsule and pointed tail
c. Short buccal capsule and small genital primordium
d. Small genital primordium and notch in tail
178. Toxoplasma gondii is characterized by:
a. Possible congenital infection and ingestion of oocysts
b. Cosmopolitan distribution and possible difficulties with interpretation of serological results
c. None of the above
d. Both A and B
179. The incorrect match between symptoms and disease is:
a. Dysentery and amebiasis
b. Malabsorption syndrome and giardiasis
c. Cardiac involvement and chronic Chagas disease
d. Myalgias and trichuriasis
180. There are few procedures considered stat in parasitology. The most obvious situation would be:
a. Ova and parasite examination for giardiasis
b. Baemann concentration for strongyloidiasis
c. Blood film for malaria
d. Culture for amebic keratitis
181. A 60-year-old Brazilian with cardiac irregularities and congestive heart failure suddenly dies. Examination of the
myocardium revealed numerous amastigotes an indication that the cause of death was most likely:
a. Leishmaniasis with Leishmania donovani
b. Leishmaniasis with Leishmania braziliense
c. Trypanosomiasis with Trypanosoma gambiense
d. Trypanosomiasis with Trypanosoma cruzi
182. Why should both red and pink colonies from an initial stool culture on MacConkey agar be subcultured and tested
further
a. Most Shigella strains are lactose positive
b. Most Salmonella strains are maltose negative
c. Most Proteus spp. are lactose negative
d. Pathogenic E. coli can be lactose positive or negative

183. Which of the following statements is true regarding onchocerciasis?

a. The adult worm is present in the blood.
b. The microfilariae are in the blood during the late evening hours
c. The diagnostic test of choice is the skin snip
d. The parasite resides in the deep lymphatics
184. Plasmodium vivax and Plasmodium ovale are similar because they:
a. Exhibit Schuffner’s dots and have a true relapse in the life cycle
b. Have no malarial pigment and multiple rings
c. Commonly have applique forms in the red cells
d. Have true stippling, do not have a relapse stage, and infect old red cells
185. Cold enrichment of feces (incubation at 4qC) in phosphate-buffered saline prior to subculture onto enteric media
enhances the recovery of:
a. Enterotoxigenic E. coli c. Hafnia alvei
b. Salmonella paratyphi A d. Yersinia enterocolitica
186. The aseptic collection of blood cultures requires that the skin be cleansed with:
a. 2% iodine and then 70% alcohol
b. 80-95% alcohol and then 2% iodine or an idophor
c. 70% alcohol and then 95% alcohol
d. 95% alcohol only
187. A positive Simons citrate test is seen as a:
a. Blue color in the medium after 24-hour incubation at 35qC
b. Red color in the medium after 18-hour incubation at 35qC
c. Yellow color in the medium after 24-hour incubation at 37qC
d. Green color in the medium after 18-hour incubation at 37qC
188. Members of the family Enterobacteriaceae demonstrate which one of the combinations of characteristics?
a. ferment glucose, oxidase negative, reduce nitrates
b. reduce nitrates, oxidize glucose, oxidase negative
c. oxidase negative, ferment glucose, polar flagella
d. oxidase positive, oxidized glucose, peritrichous flagella
e. ferment glucose, oxidize glucose, polar flagella
189. An Entamoeba histolytica trophozoite is usually characterized by the following:
a. Central karyosome in the nucleus, ingested RBCs, clear pseudopodia
b. Ingested RBCs, clear pseudopodia, uneven chromatin on the nuclear membrane
c. Ingested RBCs, clear pseudopodia, large glycogen vacuoles in cytoplasm
d. Large, blotlike karyosome, ingested WBCs, granular pseudopods
190. The breakpoint of an antimicrobial drug refers to:
a. The amount needed to cause bacteriostasis
b. A minimum inhibitory concentration of 16Pg/mL or greater
c. A minimum inhibitory concentration of 64 Pg/mL or greater
d. The level of drug that is achievable in serum
191. Enterobacter sakazakiii can best be differentiated from Enterobacter cloacae by its:
a. Yellow pigmentation and negative sorbitol fermentation
b. Pink pigmentation and positive arginine dihydrolase
c. Yellow pigmentation and positive urease
d. H2S production on TSI

192. In a non-AIDS patient, the recommended clinical specimen for recovery of Pneumocystis carinii is the:
a. Tracheobronchial aspirate c. Bronchial brushings
b. Bronchoalveolar lavage d. Open lung biopsy
193. An isolate of E. coli recovered from the stool of a patient with severe bloody diarrhea should be tested for which sugar
before sending to a reference laboratory for serotyping?
a. Sorbitol (fermentation) c. Raffinose (fermentation)
b. Mannitol (oxidation) d. Sucrose (fermentation)
194. Two helminth eggs that may resemble one another are:
a. Diphyllobothrium latum and Paragonimus westermani
b. Opisthorchis sinensis and Fasciolopsis buski
c. Taenia saginata and Hymenolepis nana
d. Ascaris lymbricoides and Trichostrongylus
195. Organisms that should be considered in a waterborne outbreak of diarrhea disease include:
a. Giardia lamblia and Cryptosporidium parvum
b. Endolimax nana and Entamoeba histolytica
c. Blastocytocystis hominis and Trichomonas vaginalis
d. Toxoplasma gondii and Schistosoma mansoni
196. The microsporidia are protozoans that have been implicated in human disease primarily in:
a. Immunocompromised patients
b. Pediatric patients under the age of 5
c. Adult patients with congenital immunodeficiencies
d. Patients who have been traveling in the tropics
197. The incorrect match between method and method objective is:
a. Direct wet examination and detection of organism motility
b. Knott concentration and the recovery of operculated helminth eggs
c. Baermann concentration and the recovery of Strongyloides
d. Permanent stained fecal smear and confirmation of protozoa
198. Protozoan cysts are seen in a concentrated sediment and tentatively identified as Entamoeba coli. However, the
organisms were barely visible on the permanent stained smear because:
a. The organisms were actually not present in the concentate sediment
b. There were too few cysts to allow identification on the stained smear.
c. Entamoeba coli cysts were present, but poorly fixed.
d. The concentrate and permanent stained smear were not from the same patient.
199. The incorrect match between the organism and one method of acquiring the infection is:
a. Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense – bite of sand fleas
b. Giardia lamblia – ingestion of water contaminated with cysts
c. Hookworm – skin penetration of larvae from soil
d. Toxoplasma gondii – ingestion of raw or rare meats
200. Select the most sensitive recovery method for Acanthamoeba spp. from lens care solutions or corneal biopsies:
a. The trichrome staining method
b. The use of monoclonal reagents for the detection of antibody
c. The use of nonnutrient agar cultures seeded with Escherichia coli
d. The Giemsa staining method
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SECTION A
ASSESSMENT EXAM 1 – MICROBIOLOGY & PARASITOLOGY
1. Which mechanism is responsible for botulism in infants caused by Clostridium botulinum?

a. Ingestion of spores in food or liquid c. Virulence of the organism
b. Ingestion of preformed toxin in food d. Lipase activity of the organism
2. Which Bacteroides sp. is noted for “pitting” of the agar and is sensitive to penicillin (2-unit disks)?
a. B. vulgatus b. B. ovatus c. B. thetaiotaomicron d. B. ureolyticus
3. Antimicrobial susceptibility testing of anaerobes is done by which of the following methods?
a. Broth disk elution c. Microtube broth dilution
b. Disk agar diffusion d. Beta-lactamase testing
4. Mycobacteria stained with the Ziehl-Neelsen or Kinyoun methods using a methylene blue counterstain, are seen
microscopically as:
a. Bright red rods against a blue background
b. Bright yellow rods against a yellow background
c. Orange-red rods against a black background
d. Bright blue rods against a pink background
5. Which of the following Mycobacterium spp. are used as controls for rapid growers and slow growers?
a. M. fortuitum and M. tuberculosis c. M. chelonei and M. fortuitum
b. M. avium and M. tuberculosis d. M. kansasii and M. tuberculosis
6. All of the following mycobacteria are associated with skin infections except:
a. M. marinum b. M. haemophilum c. M. ulcerans d. M. kansasii
7. The catalase test for mycobacteria differs from that used for other types of bacteria by using:
a. 1% hydrogen peroxide and 10% Tween 80
b. 3% hydrogen peroxide and phosphate buffer, pH 6.8
c. 10% hydrogen peroxide and 0.85% saline
d. 30% hydrogen peroxide and 10% Tween 80
8. A culture of a skin (hand) wound from a manager of a tropical fish store grew on Lowenstein-Jensen agar slants at 30qC in
10 days, but did not grow on the same medium at 37qC in 20 days. Given the results below, what is the most likely
identification?
Photochromogen = + Niacin = 0
Urease = + Heat stable catalase (68qC) = 0
Nitrate reduction = 0 Tween 80 hydrolysis = +
a. Mycobacterium marinum c. Mycobacterium avium complex
b. Mycobacterium kansasii d. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
9. Rapid method for identifying classic infection with Mycobacterium tuberculosis include:
a. Gas-liquid chromatography c. Acid-fast smears
b. Nucleic acid probes d. All of the above
10. Which of the following Mycobacterium spp. is best differentiated by the rapid hydrolysis of Tween 80?
a. M. fortuitum b. M. chelonae c. M. kansasii d. None of these

11. Cornmeal agar with Tween 80 is used to identify which characteristic of an unknown yeast isolate?
a. Hyphae (true and pseudo) c. Chlamydospores
b. Blastospores and arthrospores d. All of the above
12. A laboratory provides the following services for identification of mycobacteria:
1. Acid-fast staining of clinical specimens
2. Inoculation of cultures
3. Shipment of positive cultures to a reference laboratory for identification
According to the American Thoracic Society’s definition for levels of service this laboratory is:
a. Level I b. Level II c. Level III d. Level IV
13. Arthrospore (arthroconidia) production is used to differentiate which two yeast isolates?
a. Candida albicans and Candida stellatoidea
b. Trichosporon pullulants and Cryptococcus neoformans
c. Candida albicans and Candida tropicalis
d. Saccharomyces cerevisiae and Candida (Torulopsis) glabrata
14. Ascospores are formed by which yeast isolate?
a. Saccharomyces cerevisiae c. Cryptococcus neoformans
b. Candida albicans d. All of the above
15. Chlamydospore production is demonstrated by which Candida sp.?
a. C. glabrata b. C. krusei c. C. albicans d. C. tropicalis
16. A blood agar plate inoculated with sputum from a patient with diabetes mellitus grew very few bacterial flora and a
predominance of yeast. Given the following results, what is the most likely identification of the yeast isolate?
Germ tube = 0 Blastoconidia = +
Chlamydospores = 0
Arranged along pseudohyphae
a. Candida tropicalis c. Trichsporon beigelii
b. Candida pseudotropicalis d. Geotrichum condidum
17. Which Microsporum sp. causes an epidemic form of tinea capitis in children?
a. M. canis b. M. audouinii c. M. gypseum d. All of the above
18. A mold that produces colonies with a dark-brown, green-black, or black appearance of both the surface and reverse side is
classified as a:
a. Dematiaceous mold c. Hyaline mold
b. Dermatophyte d. Dimorphic fungus
19. Which dematiaceous mold forms flask-shaped phialides each with a flask-shaped collarette?
a. Phialophora spp. b. Exophila spp. c. Wangiella spp. d. All of the above
20. A hyaline mold recovered from a patient with AIDS produced rose-colored colonies with lavender centers on Sabouraud’s
dextrose agar. Microscopic examination showed multiseptate macroconidia appearing as sickles or canoes. What is the
most likely identification?
a. Fusarium spp. b. Wangiella spp. c. Exophiala spp. d. Phialophora spp.
21. A rapidly growing nonseptate mold produced colonies with a gray surface resembling cotton candy that covered the entire
plate. Microscopic examination revealed sporangiophores arising between the rhizoids and not opposite them and
producing pear-shaped sporangia. What is the most likely identification?
a. Absidia spp. b. Penicillium spp. c. Rhizopus spp. d. Aspergillus spp.

22. A very small, single-stranded DNA virus that causes a febrile illness with a rash and is called the fifth childhood disease
after rubeola, rubella, varicella, and roseola is:
a. Rotavirus b. Adenovirus type 40 c. Coxsackie A virus d. Parvovirus B19
23. Which technique is most widely used for the confirmation of infection with human immunodeficiency virus?
a. Western blot (immunoblot) assay c. Complement fixation
b. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) d. Polymerase chain reaction
24. A 65-year-old female was admitted to the hospital with acute respiratory distress, fever, myalgia, and headache. Influenza
A or B was suspected after ruling out bacterial pneumonia. Which of the following methods could be used to confirm
influenza infection?
a. Influenza virus culture in Madin-Darby canine kidney
b. Heamgglutination inhibition test for antibodies in the patient’s serum
c. Direct examination of nasal epithelium for virus using fluorescent antibody stain
d. All of the above
25. In a patient with diarrhea, occassionally Entamoeba histolytica (four nucleated cysts, no chromatoidal bars) are identified
as being present; however, these cells, which are misdiagnosed as protozoa, are really:
a. Macrophages b. Polymorphonuclear leukocytes c. Epithelial cells d. Eosinophils
26. A 12-year-old female is brought to the emergency room with meningitis and a history of swimming in a warm-water
spring. Motile amoebae that measure 10 Pm in size are seen in the CSF and are most likely:
a. Iodamoeba butschlii trophozoites c. Dientamoeba fragilis trophozoites
b. Endolimax nana trophozoites d. Naegleria fowleri trophozoites
27. Visceral larva migrans is associated with which of the following organisms and test for identification?
a. Toxocara – serology c. Dracunculus – skin biopsy
b. Onchocerca – skin snips d. Angiostrongylus – CSF examination
28. In infections with Taenia solium, humans can serve as the:
a. Definitive host c. Either the definitive or the intermediate host
b. Intermediate host d. None of the above
29. Organisms that should be considered in a nursery school outbreak of diarrhea include:
a. Endolimax nana, Giardia lamblia, and Entamoeba coli
b. Giardia lamblia, Dientamoeba fragilis, and Cryptosporidium parvum
c. Cryptosporidium parvum, Trichomonas vaginalis, and Entamoeba coli
d. Trichomonas hominis, Dientamoeba fragilis, and Endolimax nana
30. The use of the bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL) specimen has become much more widely used in:
a. Any suspect patient with both toxoplasmosis and cryptosporidiosis
b. Pediatric patients with pulmonary paragonimiasis
c. AIDS patients with suspected Pneumocystis pneumonia
d. Immunocompromised patients with disseminated strongyloidiasis
31. When staining Isospora belli oocysts with modified acid-fast stains, the important difference between these methods and
the acid-fast stains used for acid-fast bacilli (AFB) is:
a. The staining time is much longer with regular AFB acid-fast stains
b. The decolorizer is weaker than acid alcohol used for AFB decolorizing
c. A counterstain must be used for the modified methods
d. The stain is more concentrated when staining for AFB
32. Patients with severe diarrhea should use “stool precautions” to prevent nosocomial infections with:
a. Giardia lamblia c. Cryptosporidium parvum
b. Ascaris lumbricoides d. Isospora belli


a. Chilomastix mesnili and shepher’s crook and lemon shape
b. Plasmodium malariae and “band troph”
c. Hymenolepis nana and striated shell
d. Wuchereria bancrofti and sheathed microfilariae
a. Dientamoeba fragilis and tetrad karyosome in the nucleus
b. Toxoplasma gondii and diagnostic serology
c. Echinococcus granulosus and daughter cysts
d. Schistosoma mansoni and egg with terminal spine
35. An immunosuppressed male had several episodes of pneumonia, intestinal pain, and sepsis with gram-negative rods, and
a history of military service in Southeast Asia 20 years earlier. The organism is:
a. Trypanosoma cruzi c. Naegleria fowleri
b. Strongyloides stercoralis d. Paragonimus westermani
36. “Cultures of parasites are different from bacterial cultures; no quality control is needed.” This statement is:
a. True, if two tubes of media are set up on each patient
b. True, if the medium is checked every 24 hours
c. False, unless two different types of media are used
d. False, and organism and media controls need to be set up
37. When humans have hydatid disease, the causative agent and host classification are?
a. Echinococcus granulosus – accidental intermediate host
b. Echinococcus granulosus – definitive host
c. Taenia solium – accidental intermediate host
d. Taenia solium – definitive host
38. A transplant patient on immunosuppressive drugs developed increasing shortness of breath and cyanosis. The most likely
combination of disease and diagnostic procedure is:
a. Strongyloidiasis and trichrome stain c. Toxoplasmosis and Gram stain
b. Pneumocystosis and silver stain d. Paragonimiasis and wet preparation
39. In an outbreak of diarrheal disease traced to a municipal water supply, the most likely causative agents are:
b. Giardia lamblia and Isospora belli
c. Isospora belli and Entamoeba histolytica
d. Entamoeba histolytica and Dientamoeba fragilis
40. The most prevalent helminth to infect humans is:
a. Enterobius vermicularis, the pinworm
b. Ascaris lumbricoides, the large intestinal roundworm
c. Taenia saginata, the beef tapeworm
d. Schistosoma mansoni, one of the blood flukes
41. Which organism is commonly mistaken for Salmonella and will agglutinate in Salmonella polyvalent antiserum?
a. Citrobacter freundii strains c. Shigella sonnei strains
b. Proteus mirabilis strains d. Alkalencens-dispar group
42. A 4-year old was bitten on her hand by her pet cat. Two days later, the bite area was swollen and had some drainage. A
Gram’s stain of the exudates revealed a small gram-negative coccobacillus. The most likely identity of this organism is:
a. Brucella species c. Pasteurella multocida
b. Vibrio vulnificus d. Francisella tularensis

43. The term internal autoinfection can be associated with which of the following parasites?
b. Isospora belli and Stronglyoides stercoralis
c. Cryptosporidium parvum and Strongyloides stercoralis
d. Giardia lamblia and Isospora belli
44. Which procedure is appropriate for culture of genital specimens in order to recover Chlamydia spp?
a. inoculate cycloheximide treated McCoy’s cells
b. plate onto blood and chocolate agar
c. inoculate into thioglycollate broth
d. Plate onto modified Thayer-Martin agar within 2 hours
45. Biochemically, the Enterobacteriaceae are gram-negative rods that:
a. Ferment glucose, reduce nitrate to nitrite, and are usually motile
b. Ferment glucose, produce indophenol oxidase, and form gas
c. Ferment lactose, reduce nitrite to nitrogen gas
d. Ferment lactose, produce indophenol oxidase
46. The malonate test is most useful in differentiating which members of the Enterobacteriaceae?
a. Salmonella and Enterobacter c. Salmonella subgroups 2,3 and Shigella
b. Proteus and Providencia d. Serratia and Yersinia
47. Which genera of Enterobacteriaceae are usually nonmotile at 36qC?
a. Shigella, Klebsiella, and Yersinia c. Proteus, Providencia, and Salmonella
b. Escherichia, Edwardsiella, and Enterobacter d. Serratia, Morganella, and Hafnia
48. Which group of tests best identifies the Morganella and Proteus genera?
a. Motility, urease, and phenylalanine deaminase
b. Malonate, glucose fermentation, and DNase
c. Indole, oxidase, MR, and VP
d. Indole, citrate, and urease
49. A stool specimen demonstrated growth on Campylobacter blood agar at 42qC but not at 25qC. The isolate was tested, and
the following results were obtained: oxidase positive, catalase positive, nalidixic acid susceptible, hippurate hydrolysis
positive, hydrogen sulfide negative. The most likely identity of this isolate is:
a. Vibrio alginolyticus c. Campylobacter jejuni
b. Campylobacter coli d. Pleisomonas
50. A sputum specimen was processed for mycobacteria. After 20 days of incubation at 37qC, orange colonies were seen on
Lowenstein-Jensen slants that had been incubated in the light. Tubes incubated in the dark also showed orange colonies.
Biochemical testing gave the following results: niacin negative, nitrate negative, Tween hydrolysis positive, catalase
positive, urease negative, iron uptake negative, no growth on 5% sodium chloride agar. The most likely identity of this
organism is:
a. Mycobacterium scrofulaceum
b. Mycobacterium szulgai
c. Mycobacterium gordonae
d. Mycobacterium flavescens
51. Select the primary and differential media of choice for recovery of most fecal pathogens.
a. MacConkey, blood, birdseed, and Campy agars
b. Hektoen, MacConkey, Campy, colistin-nalidixic acid (CNA) agars
c. CNA and Christensen urea agars and thioglycollate media
d. Blood, Campy, Mueller-Hinton agars, and thioglycolate media

52. A sputum specimen from an AIDS patient was processed for mycobacteria. After 14 days incubation at 37qC, buff-colored
colonies were seen on Lowenstein-Jensen slants that had been incubated in the dark also showed buff-colored colonies.
Biochemical testing gave the following results: niacin negative, nitrate negative, Tween hydrolysis negative, catalase
negative, urease positive, no growth at 5% sodium chloride agar. What is the most likely identity of the organism?
a. Mycobacterium tuberculosis c. Mycobacterium fortuitum
b. Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare d. Mycobacterium simiae
53. A culture of a skin (hand) wound from a manager of a tropical fish store grew on Lowenstein Jensen agar slants at 30qC in
10 days, but did not grow on the same medium after 20 days at 37qC. Biochemical testing yielded the following results:
photochromogen, niacin negative, urease positive, catalase negative, nitrate negative, Tween hydrolysis positive. What is
the most likely identification of this organism?
a. Mycobacterium kansasii
b. Mycobacterium marinum
c. Mycobacterium avium
d. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
54. Chocolate agar and modified Thayer-Martin agar are used for the recovery of:
a. Haemophilus spp. and Neisseria spp respectively
b. Haemophilus spp. and Neisseria gonorrhoeae respectively
c. Neisseria spp. and Streptococcus spp. respectively
d. Streptococcus spp and Staphylococcus spp. respectively
55. A sheep blood agar plate is used as a primary isolation medium when all of the following organisms are to be recovered
from a wound specimen except:
a. Beta hemolytic Streptococcus and coagulase positive Staphylococcus
b. Haemophilus influenzae and H. parainfluenzae
c. Proteus spp. and Escherichia coli
d. Pseudomonas spp. and Acinetobacter spp
56. A large gram positive, spore forming rod growing on blood agar as large, raised, beta hemolytic colonies that spread and
appear as frosted green-gray glass is most likely which one of the following organisms?
a. Bacillus
b. Pseudomonas
c. Corynebacterium
d. Listeria
57. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) should be cultured immediately, but if delayed the specimen should be:
a. Refrigerated at 4-6qC
b. Frozen at -20qC
c. Stored at room temperature for not longer then 24 hours
d. Incubated at 37qC and cultured as soon as possible
58. The ortho-nitrophenyl E-galactopyronoside (ONPG) test is most useful when differentiating.
a. Salmoella spp. from Pseudomonas spp. c. Klebsiella spp. from Enterobacter spp.
b. Shigella spp. from some strains of E. coli d. Proteus vulgaris from Salmonella spp.
59. Which genera of the Enterobacteriaceae are known to cause diarrhea and are considered enteric pathogens?
a. Enterobacter, Klebsiella, and Providencia
b. Escherichia, Salmonella, Shigella, & Yersinia
c. Pseudomonas and Moraxella
d. Enterobacter, Citrobacter, and Morganella

60. Fever, abdominal cramping, watery stools, fluid and electrolyte loss preceded by bloody stools two to three days before is
characteristic of shigellosis, but may also result from infection with:
a. Campylobacter spp. b. Salmonella spp c. Proteus spp d. Yersinia spp
61. A routine complete stool culture procedure should include media for the isolation of:
a. Salmonella, Shigella, Yersinia, Campylobacter, and Staphylococcus aureus
b. Vibrio cholerae, E. coli, and Yersinia spp
c. Staph. Aureus, group B Streptococcus, and group D Streptococcus
d. Clostridium difficile, C. perfringens, and Yersinia spp.
62. A gram-negative rod is recovered from a catheterized urine from a nursing home patient. The lactose-negative isolate
tested positive for indole, urease, KCN, ornithine decarboxylase, and phenylalanine deaminase. The most probable
identification is:
a. Edwardsiella spp c. Ewingella spp
b. Morganella spp d. Shigella spp
63. A bloody stool from a 26-year-old female after 3 days of severe diarrhea showed the following results at 48 hours:
MacConkey agar—little normal flora with many non-lactose-fermenting colonies
Hektoen enteric agar—many blue-green colonies
Campylobacter blood agar and Clostridium difficile agar—no growth
Clear colonies (from MacConkey agar) tested negative for oxidase, indole, urea, motility and H 2S. The most likely
identification is:
a. Shigella spp. b. Salmonella spp. c. Proteus spp. d. E. coli
64. A leg wound culture from a nursing-home patient grew gram-negative rods on MacConkey agar as pink to dark pink
oxidase-negative colonies. Given the following results, which is the most likely organisms?
TSI = A/A Indole = 0 MR = 0
VP = + Citrate = + H 2S = 0
Urea = + Motility = 0
Antibiotic susceptibility: carboxicillin and ampicillin resistant, all others sensitive
a. Serratia marcescens c. Enterobacter cloacae
b. Proteus vulgaris d. Klebsiella pneumoniae
65. A stool culture from a 3-month-old male suffering from bloody mucoid diarrhea gave the following results on differential
enteric media:
MacConkey agar = clear colonies
XLD agar = clear colonies
Hektoen agar = green colonies
Salmonella-Shigella agar = small clear colonies
Which tests are most appropriate for identification of this enteric pathogen?
a. TSI, motility, indole, urea, Shigella typing with polyvalent sera
b. TSI, motility, indole, lysine, Salmonella typing with polyvalent sera
c. TSI, indole, MR, VP, citrate
d. TSI, indole, MR and urea
66. Which test group best differentiates Acinetobacter spp. from Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
a. Oxidase, motility, 42qC growth c. Blood agar growth, oxidase, catalase
b. MacConkey growth, 37qC growth, catalase d. Oxidase, TSI, MacConkey growth
67. A yellow pigment-producing organism that is oxidase positive, nonmotile, and does not grow on MacConkey agar is:
a. Acinetobacter calcoaceticus c. Pseudomonas cepacia
b. Acinetobacter lwoffi d. Flavobacterium meningosepticum

68. Three blood cultures taken from a 30-year-old cancer patient receiving chemotherapy and admitted with a urinary tract
infection grew lactose-negative, motile, gram-negative rods prior to antibiotic therapy. Given the biochemical reactions
below, which is the most likely organism?
H2S (TSI) = 0 indole = + MR = +
Phenylalanine Deaminase = + Urea = + Ornithine decarboxylase = +
Citrate = + Gelatin hydrolysis = + VP = 0
a. Proteus vulgaris c. Serratia marcescens
b. Proteus mirabilis d. Klebsiella pneumoniae
69. The presumptive tests used for identification of Pseudomonas spp. are:
a. Oxidase, OF glucose (open), OF glucose (sealed), motility, pigment production
b. Growth on BAP and EMB agars, lysine decarboxylation, catalase
c. Growth on MacConkey, EMB and XLD agars and motility
d. Growth on mannitol salt agar and flagellar stain
70. An NFB recovered from an eye wound is oxidase positive, motile with polar monotrichous flagella, and fails to grow at
42qC. Colonies are dry, wrinkled, and smooth, and buff to light brown in color. In which DNA homology group should this
organism be placed?
a. Pseudomonas stutzeri c. Pseudomonoas alcaligenes
b. Pseudomonas fluorescens d. Pseudomonas diminuta
71. The following results are obtained from a pure culture of gram-negative rods recovered from the pulmonary secretions of
a 10-year-old cystic fibrosis patient with pneumonia:
Oxidase = + Motility = +
Glucose OF (open) = + Gelatin = +
Pgment = red (nonfluorescent) Arginine dihydrolase = +
Growth at 42qC = + Flagella = + (polar monotrichous)
Which is the most likely organism?
a. Pseudomonas pseudomallei c. Pseudomonas cepacia
b. Pseudomonas stutzeri d. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
72. A gram-negative coccobacillus was recovered on chocolate agar from the CSF of an immunosuppressed patient. The
organism was nonmotile and positive for indophenol oxidase, but failed to grow on MacConkey agar. The organism was
highly susceptible to penicillin. The most probable identification is:
a. Acinetobacter spp. c. Pseudomonas stutzeri
b. Pseudomonas aeruginosa d. Moraxella lacunata
73. A culture from an intra-abdominal abscess produced orange-tan colonies on blood agar, which gave the following results
Oxidase = + Nitrate reduction = + Motility = + (polar flagella)
KIA = Alk/Alk (H2S) + DNAse = +
Ornithine decarboxylase = + Growth at 42qC = 0
a. Shewanella (Pseudomonas) putrefaciens c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
b. Acinetobacter spp d. Flavobacterium spp
74. Which genera of small gram-negative coccobacilli is associated mainly with animals but may cause endocarditis,
bacteremia, and wound and dental infections in humans?
a. Actinobacillus b. Pseudomonas c. Campylobacter d. Vibrio
75. Kingella kingae can best be differentiated from Eikenella corrodens using which media?
a. Sheep blood agar c. MacConkey agar
b. Chocolate agar d. Xylose lysine deoxycholate agar

76. A curved gram-negative rod producing oxidase positive colonies on blood agar was recovered from a stool culture. Given
the results below, what is the most likely identification?
Lysine = + Arginine = 0 Indole = +
KIA = Alk/Acid VP = 0 Lactose = 0
Urease = r String test = 0 TCBS agar = green colonies
a. Vibrio cholerae c. Shigella spp.
b. Vibrio parahaemolyticus d. Salmonella spp
77. Which atmospheric condition is needed to recover Campylobacter spp. from specimens inoculated onto a Campy-selective
agar at 35-37qC and 42qC?
a. 5% O2, 10% CO2, and 85% N2 c. 20% O2, 20% CO2, and 60% N2
b. 10% O2, 10% CO2, and 80% N2 d. 20% O2, 5% CO2, and 75% N2
78. A Gram’s stain of the CSF of a 33-year old man revealed many polymorphonuclear leukocytes and intra- and extracellular
gram negative diplococcic. Culture and tests were as follows: small, flat, gray colonies on chocolate agar, oxidase positive;
cystine trypticase agar (CTA) maltose positive; CTA lactose negative. The most likely identity of this isolate is:
a. Neisseria gonorrhoeae c. Moraxella catarrhalis
b. Neisseria meningitidis d. Acinetobacter species
79. Thiosulfate-citrate bile salts-sucrose (TCBS) agar is used to isolate and identify which one of the following genera?
a. Aeromonas c. Campylobacter
b. Pseudomonas d. Vibrio
80. An isolate from a urine culture demonstrated the following characteristics: gray, spreading colonies on blood agar, cream-
colored colonies on MacConkey agar, indole negative; hydrogen sulfide positive, phenylalanine deaminase positive,
ornithine decarboxylase positive; urea positive; citrate negative. The most likely identity of this isolate is:
a. Escherichia coli c. Proteus vulgaris
b. Morganella morganii d. Proteus mirabilis
81. Obligate anaerobic gram negative bacilli that do not form spores, grow well in 20% bile, and are resistant to kanamycin
are most likely which one of the following organism?
a. Porphyromonas spp.
b. Bacteroides spp.
c. Fusobacterium spp.
d. Prevotella spp.
82. A flexible calcium alginate nasopharyngeal swab is the collection device of choice for recovery of which organism from the
nasopharynx?
a. Staphylococcus aureus c. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
b. Streptococcus pneumoniae d. Bacteroides fragilis
83. All of the following are appropriate when attempting to isolate Neisseria gonorrhoeae from genital specimen except:
a. Transport the genital swab in charcoal transport media
b. Plate the specimen on modified Thayer-Martin media
c. Plate the specimen on New York City or Martin-Lewis agar
d. Culture specimens in ambient oxygen at 37qC
84. Xylose lysine deoxycholate agar (XLD) is a highly selective medium used for the recovery of which bacteria?
a. Staphyloccus spp from normal flora c. Enterobacteriaceae from gastrointestinal specimens
b. Yersinia spp. that do not grow on Hektoen agar d. Streptococcus spp from stool cultures
85. Which of the following tests best differentiate Shigella species from E. coli?
a. Hydrogen sulfide, VP, citrate, and urea c. Hydrogen sulfide, MR, citrate, and urea
b. Lactose, indole, ONPG, and motility d. Gas, citrate, and VP

86. A gram positive, spore-forming bacillus growing on blood agar anaerobically produces a double zone of beta hemolysis
and is positive for lecithinase. What is the presumptive identification of this isolate?
a. Bacteroides ureolyticus
b. Bacteroides fragilis
c. Clostridium perfringens
d. Clostridium difficile
87. Select the method of choice for recovery of anaerobic bacteria from a deep abscess.
a. Cotton fiber swab of the abscess area
b. Skin snip of the surface tissue
c. Needle aspirate after surface decontamination
d. Swab of the scalpel used for debridement
88. According to the Kirby-Bauer standard antimicrobial susceptibility testing method, what should be done when
interpreting the zone size of a motile, swarming organism such as a Proteus species?
a. The swarming area should be ignored
b. The results of the disk diffusion method are invalid
c. The swarming area should be measured as the growth boundary
d. The isolate should be retested after diluting to 0.05 McFarland’s standard
89. Kligler’s iron agar (KIA) differs from triple sugar iron agar (TSI) in the:
a. Ratio of lactose to glucose
b. Ability to detect hydrogen sulfide production
c. Use of sucrose in the medium
d. Color reaction denoting production of acid
90. Which group of tests, along with colonial morphology on primary media, aids most in the rapid identification of the
Enterobacteriaceae?
a. TSI, MR, and VP, urea and blood agar plate
b. KIA, phenylalanine deaminase, urea and CDC agar plate
c. TSI, bacitracin, beta-lactamase, and MacConkey agar plate
d. Indole, oxidase, MacConkey, and blood agar plates
91. Which group of tests best differentiates Enterobacter aerogenes and Edwardsiella tarda?
a. Motility, citrate, and urease
b. H2S production, sucrose fermentation, indole, and VP
c. Lysine decarboxylase, urease, and arginine dihydrolase
d. Motility, H2S production, and DNAse
92. Which agar is the medium of choice for the isolation of Yersinia strains from stool specimens?
a. Salmonella-Shigella agar c. MacConkey agar
b. Hektoen enteric agar d. CNA
93. The drugs of choice for treatment of infections with Enterobacteriaceae are
a. Aminoglycosides, trimethoprim-sulfamethexazole, third-generation cephalosporins
b. Ampicillin and naladixic acid
c. Streptomycin and isoniazid
d. Chloramphenicol, ampicillin, and colistin
94. In addition to CO2 requirements and biochemical characteristics, Brucella melitensis and Brucella abortus are
differentiated by growth on media containing which two dyes?
a. Basic fuchsin and thionine c. Carbol fuchsin and iodine
b. Methylene blue and crystal violet d. Safranin and methylene blue

95. Four blood cultures were taken over a 24-hour period from a 20-year-old female with severe diarrhea. The cultures grew
motile gram-negative rods at room temperature. Urine obtained by catheterization also showed gram-negative rods,
100,000 col/mL. Given the results below, which is the most likely organism?
TSI = A/A Indole = + VP = 0 MR = + H2S = 0
Citrate = 0 Urea = 0 Phenylalanine deaminase = 0
Lysine decarboxylase = +
a. Proteus vulgaris c. Yersinia enterocolitica
b. Salmonella typhi d. Escherichia coli
96. A leg wound culture from a hospitalized 70-year-old diabetic male grew motile, lactose-negative colonies on MacConkey
agar. Given the following biochemical reactions at 24 hours, what is the most probable organism?
H2S (TSI) = 0 Indole = 0 Citrate = +
MR = 0 VP = + Urea = 0
Phenylalanine deaminase = 0 DNAse = + Gelatin = +
Ornithine and lysine decarboxylase = + Arginine decarboxylase = 0
a. Proteus vulgaris c. Proteus mirabilis
b. Serratia marcescens d. Enterobacter cloacae
97. What are the most appropriate screening tests to presumptively differentiate and identify the nonfermatative gram-
negative bacilli (NFB) from the Enterobacteriaceae?
a. Catalase, decarboxylation of arginine, growth on blood agar
b. Motility, urease, morphology on blood agar
c. Oxidase, TSI, nitrate reduction, growth on MacConkey agar
d. Oxidase, indole, and growth on blood agar
98. Which biochemical tests are needed to differentiate Pseudomonas cepacia from Xanthomonas maltophilia?
a. Pigment on blood agar, oxidase, DNAse
b. Pigment on MacConkey agar, flagellar stain, motility
c. Glucose, maltose, lysine decarboxylase
d. TSI, motility, oxidase
99. Flavobacterium spp. are easily distinguished from Acinetobacter spp. by which of the following two tests?
a. Oxidase, growth on MacConkey agar c. TSI and urea hydrolysis
b. Oxidase and OF (glucose) d. TSI and VP
100. After debridement, a culture was obtained from 15-year-old female burn patient and the following results were
obtained
Oxidase = + Catalase = +
Motility = + Lysine decarboxylase = 0
Ornithine decarboxylase = 0 Glucose = + for oxidation (open tube)
Arginine dihydrolase = + Maltose = 0 for oxidation (open tube)
Penicillin = resistant Aminoglycosides = susceptible
Colistin (Polymixin B) = susceptible
These results indicate which of the following organisms?
a. Acinetobacter calcoaceticus c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
b. Moraxella lacunata d. Acinetobacter lwoffi
101. Which group of tests best differentiates Helicobacter pylori from Campylobacter jejuni?
a. Catalase, oxidase, and gram stain c. Catalase, oxidase, and nalidixic acid sensitivity
b. Catalase, oxidase, and cephalothin sensitivity d. Urease, nitrate and hippurate hydrolysis
102. Which tests are most appropriate to differentiate between Pseudomonas aeruginosa and Pseudomonas putida?

a. Oxidase, motility, pyoverdin c. Oxidase, ONPG, DNAse

b. Oxidase, motility, lactose d. Mannitol, nitrate reduction, growth at 42qC
103. The most noted differences between Psuedomonoas aeruginosa and Xanthomonas maltophilia are:
a. Oxidase, catalase, and TSI c. Oxidase, 42qC growth, polar tuft of flagella
b. Oxidase, catalase and ONPG d. Catalase, TSI, and pigment
104. Which reagent(s) is are used to develop the red color indicative of a positive reaction in the nitrate reduction test?
a. Sulfanilic acid and alpha-naphthylamine c. o-nitrophenyl-E-D-galactopyranoside
b. Ehrlich’s reagent d. Kovac’s reagent
105. A visitor to South America returns with diarrhea and infection with Vibrio cholerae is suspected. Select the best
media for recovery and identification of this organism.
a. MacConkey agar c. Thiosulfate citrate bile sucrose (TCBS) agar
b. Blood agar d. Xylose lysine deoxycholate (XLD) agar
106. A gram-negative S-shaped rod recovered from selective media for Campylobacter species gave the following results:
Catalase = + Oxidase = +
Motility = + Hippurate hydrolysis = +
Growth at 42qC = positive Naladixic acid = susceptible
Cephalothin = resistant
a. Pseudomonas aeruginosa c. Campylobacter fetus
b. Campylobacter jejuni d. Pseudmonas putida
107. A mixture of slender gram-negative rods and coccobacilli with rounded ends was recovered from blood cultures from
a patient following root canal surgery. Given the following results after 48 hours, what is the most likely organism?
Catalase = 0 Oxidase = +
Lysine decarboxylase = 0 Indole = 0
Urease = 0 X and V requirement = 0
Ornithine decarboxylase = + Growth on blood agar = +
Carbohydrates = 0 (no acid produced)
Growth on MacConkey agar = 0 (with pitting of agar)
a. Eikenella corrodens c. Cardiobacterium hominis
b. Actinobacillus sp d. Proteus sp
108. Cultures obtained from a dog bite wound produced yellow, tan, and slightly pink colonies on blood and chocolate agar
with a margin of fingerlike projections appearing as a film around the colonies. Given the following results at 24 hours,
which is the most likely organism?
Oxidase = 0 Catalase = 0
Growth on MacConkey agar = 0 Motility = + (“gliding” appearance)
a. Actinobacillus spp c. Capnocytophaga spp.
b. Eikenella spp d. Pseudomonas spp
109. Haemophilus influenzae, which requires X and V factors for growth, can be differentiated from Haemophilus aegyptius
by which two tests?
a. Indole and xylose c. Oxidase and catalase
b. Glucose and urease d. Indole and oxidase
110. Methods other than packaged microsystems used to identify anaerobes include:
a. Antimicrobial susceptibility testing c. special staining
b. Gas-liquid chromatography d. Enzyme immunoassay

111. Smooth gray colonies showing no hemolysis are recovered from an infected cat scratch on blood and chocolate agar,
but fail to grow on MacConkey agar. The organisms are gram-negative pleomorphic rods that are both catalase and
oxidase positive and strongly indole positive. The most likely organism is:
a. Capnocytophaga spp c. Proteus spp
b. Pasteurella spp d. Pseudomonas spp
112. Which medium should be used to recover Bordetella pertussis from a nasopharyngeal specimen?
a. Chocolate agar c. MacConkey agar
b. Blood agar d. Bordet-Gengou agar
113. Which media is recommended for the recovery of Brucella spp. from blood and bone marrow specimens?
a. Biphasic Castenada bottles with Brucella broth
b. Blood culture bottles with Brucella broth
c. Bordet-Gengou agar plates and thioglycolate broth
d. Blood culture bottles with thioglycolate broth
114. Which of the following plates should be used in order to identify Haemophilus haemolyticus and Haemophilus
parahaemolyticus?
a. Sheep blood agar and chocolate agar
b. Horse blood agar and Mueller-Hinton agar with X and V strips
c. Brain-heart infusion agar with sheep red cells added
d. Chocolate agar and Mueller-Hinton agar with X factor added
115. Which of the following is a characteristic of strains of Haemophilus influenzae that are resistant to ampicillin?
a. Production of beta-lactamase enzymes c. Hydrolysis of urea
b. Hydrolysis of chloramphenicol d. All of the above
116. A small, gram-negative coccobacillus recovered from CSF of a 2-year-old child have the following results:
Indole = + Glucose = + (acid) Hemolysis = 0
X requirement = + V requirement = + Sucrose = 0
Urease = + Lactose = 0
a. H. parainfluenzae b. H. influenzae c. H. ducreyi d. H. aphrophilus
117. Strains of Staphylococcus spp. resistant to the beta-lactam antibiotics by standardized disk diffusion and broth
microdilution susceptibility methods are called:
a. Heteroresistant c. Cross-resistant
b. Bacteriophage group 52A d. Plasmid altered
118. The following results were observed by using a tube coagulase test:
Coagulase at 4 hours = + Coagulase at 18 hours = 0
Novobiocin (16-mm zone) = sensitive Hemolysis on blood agar = beta
DNAse = + Mannitol salt plate (acid production) = +
What is the most probable identification?
a. Staph. saprophyticus c. Staph. aureus
b. Staph. epidermidis d. Staph. hominis
119. A gram-positive coccus recovered from a wound ulcer from a 31-year-old diabetic patient showed pale yellow,
creamy, beta-hemolytic colonies on blood agar. Given the following test results, what is the most likely identification?
Catalase = + Glucose OF: positive open tube, negative sealed tube
Mannitol salt = 0 Slide coagulase = 0
a. Staph. aureus c. Micrococcus spp.
b. Staph. epidermidis d. Streptococcus spp.

120. Streptococcus spp. exhibit which of the following properties?

a. Aerobic, oxidase, and catalase positive
b. Facultative anaerobe, oxidase negative, catalase negative
c. Facultative anaerobe, beta-hemolytic, catalase positive
d. May be alpha, beta, or gamma hemolytic, catalase positive
121. Beta-hemolytic streptococci not of Group A or B usually exhibit which of the following reactions?
Bacitracin SXT
a. Susceptible Resistant
b. Resistant Resistant
c. Resistant Susceptible
d. Susceptible Indeterminant
122. The bile solubility test causes the lysis of:
a. Streptococcus bovis colonies on a blood agar plate
b. Streptococcus pneumoniae colonies on a blood agar plate
c. Group A streptococci in broth culture
d. Group B streptococci in broth culture
123. A pure culture of beta-hemolytic streptococci recovered from a leg wound ulcer gave the following reactions:
CAMP test = 0 Hippurate hydrolysis = 0
Bile esculin = 0 6.5% salt = 0
PYR = 0 Bacitracin = R
Optochin = R SXT = S
a. Group A streptococci
b. Group B streptococci
c. Group D streptococci
d. Non-Group A, non-Group B, non-Group D streptococci
124. Alpha-hemolytic streptococci recovered from a wound were found to be penicillin resistant. Given the following
results, what is the most likely identification?
Bile esculin = + Bile solubility = 0
6.5% salt = + Hippurate hydrolysis = +
PYR = + SXT = R
a. Enterococcus faecalis c. Streptococcus bovis
b. Streptococcus pneumoniae d. Group B streptococci
125. Which two tests best differentiate Strep. bovis (Grou D streptococci, nonenterococci) from Strep. salivarius?
a. Bile esculin and 6.5% salt broth
b. Starch hydrolysis and acid production from mannitol
c. Bacitracin and PYR
d. SXT susceptibility and PYR
126. Cystine-tryptic digest agar (CTA) media used for identification of Neisseria spp. should be inoculated and cultured in:
a. A CO2 incubator at 35qC for 24 hours
b. A CO2 incubator at 42qC for up to 72 hours
c. A nonCO2 incubator at 35qC for up to 72 hours
d. An anaerobic incubator at 35qC for up to 72 hours

127. A sputum sample from a patient with pneumonia produced many colonies of gram-negative diplococci on a chocolate
plate that were also present in fewer numbers on MTM after 48 hours. Given the results below, what is the most likely
identification?
Catalase = + Oxidase = + DNAse = +
Tributyrin hydrolysis = + Glucose = 0 Sucrose = 0
Lactose = 0 Maltose = 0 Fructose = 0
a. Moraxella (Neisseria) catarrhalis c. Neisseria sicca
b. Neisseria flavescens d. Neisseria elongata
128. A suspected Bacillus anthracis culture obtained from a wound specimen produced colonies that had many outgrowth
(Medusa-head appearance), but were not beta-hemolytic on sheep blood agar. Which test should be performed next?
a. Penicillin (10-unit) susceptibility test c. Glucose test
b. Lecithinase test d. Motility test
129. Which of the following tests should be performed for initial differentiation of Listeria monocytogenes from Group B
streptococci?
Catalase Motility CAMP H 2S Bile esculin
L. monocytogenes + + + 0 +
Group B streptococci 0 0 + 0 0
a. Gram’s stain, motility at room temperature, catalase
b. Gram’s stain, CAMP test, H2S/TSI
c. Oxidase, CAMP test, glucose
d. Oxidase, bacitracin
130. A presumptive diagnosis of Gardnerella vaginalis can be made using which of the following findings?
a. Oxidase and catalase tests
b. Pleomorphic bacilli heavily colonized on vaginal epithelium
c. Hippurate hydrolysis test
d. All of the above
131. A gram-positive (gram-variable) beaded organism with delicate branching was recovered from the sputum of a 20-
year-old patient with leukemia. The specimen produced orange, glabrous, waxy colonies on Middlebrook agar that
showed partial acid-fast staining with the modified Kinyoun stain. What is the most likely identification?
a. Rhodococcus spp. c. Streptomyces spp.
b. Actinomadura spp. d. Norcardia spp.
132. A direct smear from a nasopharyngeal swab stained with Loeffler’s methylene blue stain showed various letter shapes
and deep blue, metachromatic granules. The most likely identification is:
a. Corynebacterium spp. c. Listeria spp.
b. Norcardia spp. d. Gardnerella spp.
133. Which broth is used for the cultivation of anaerobic bacteria in order to detect volatile fatty acids as an aid to
identification?
a. Prereduced peptone-yeast extract-glucose (PYG) c. Gram-negative broth (GN)
b. Thioglycolate broth (Thio) d. Selenite-F broth (SEL)
134. Staphylococcus aureus recovered from a wound culture gave the following antibiotic sensitivity pattern by the
standardized Kirby-Bauer method (S = sensitive and R = resistant)
Penicillin = R Ampicillin (moderate) = S Vancomycin (moderate) = S
Cephalothin = R Cefoxitin = R Methicillin = R
Which is the drug of choice for treating this infection?
a. Penicillin b. Ampicillin c. Cephalothin d. Vancomycin

135. A gram-positive spore-forming bacillus growing on blood agar anaerobically produces a double zone of beta-
hemolysis and is positive for lecithinase. What is the presumptive identification?
a. Bacteroides ureolyticus c. Clostridium perfringens
b. Bacteroides fragilis d. Clostridium difficile
136. Which spore type and location is found on C. tetanii
a. Round, terminal spores c. Ovoid, subterminal spores
b. Round, subterminal d. Ovoid, terminal spores
137. Gram-positive bacilli recovered from two blood cultures from a 60-year-old diabetic patient gave the following
results:
Spore-former Motility = 0
Lecithinase = + Hemolysis = + (double zone)
Volatile acids by GLC = acetic acid (A) and butyric acid (B)
a. C. tetani b. C. Perfringens c. C. novyi (B) d. C. sporogenes
138. Urine cultured from the catheter of an 18-year-old female patient produced greater than 100,000 col/mL on a colistin-
nalidixic acid (CNA) plate. Colonies were catalase positive, coagulase negative by the latex agglutination slide method. The
best single test for identification is:
a. Lactose fermentation c. Tube coagulase
b. Urease d. Novobiocin susceptibility
139. A false-positive CAMP test for the presumptive identification of Group B streptococci may occur if the plate is
incubated in a:
a. Candle jar or CO2 incubator c. 35qC incubator
b. Ambient air incubator d. 37qC incubator
140. Beta-hemolytic streptococci, greater than 50,000 col/mL, were isolated from a urinary tract catheter. Given the
following reactions what is the most likely identification?
CAMP test = 0 Hippurate hydrolysis = r
PYR = + Bile esculin = +
Bacitracin = R Optochin = R
SXT = R
a. Group A streptococci c. Group D streptococci (enterococcus)
b. Group B streptococci d. Non-group A, non-Group B, non-Group D streptococci
141. Blood cultures (two) on a newborn grew beta-hemolytic streptococci with the following reactions:
CAMP test = + Hippurate hydrolysis = +
PYR = 0 Bile esculin = 0
Bacitracin = R SXT = R
a. Group A streptococci c. Group D streptococci
b. Group B streptococci d. Non-Group A, non-Group B, non-Group D streptococci
142. A Gram stain smear taken from the periodontal pockets of a 30-year-old male with poor dental hygiene showed sulfur
granules containing gram-positive rods (short diphtheroids and some unbranched filaments). Colonies on blood agar
resembled “molar teeth” in formation. The most likely organism is:
a. Actinomyces israelii c. Streptococcus intermedius
b. Proprionibacterium acnes d. Peptostreptococcus anaerobius

143. Identification of Clostridium tetani is based upon:

a. Gram stain of the wound site c. Blood culture results
b. Anaerobic culture of the wound site d. Clinical findings
144. Obligate anaerobic Gram-negative bacilli that do not form spores, grow well in 20% bile, and are resistant to penicillin
(2-unit disks) are most likely:
a. Prophyromonas spp. c. Fusobacterium supp.
b. Bacteroides spp. d. Prevotella spp.
145. The following characteristics of an obligate anaerobic gram-negative bacilli best describe which of the genera below?
Gram stain: long slender rods with pointed ends
Colonial appearance: Dry bread crumbs or “fried egg” appearance
Penicillin 2-unit disk test = susceptible
a. Bacteroides spp. c. Prevotella spp.
b. Fusobacterium spp. d. Porpyromonas spp.
146. Which is the most appropriate nonselective medium for recovery of mycobacteria from a heavily contaminated
specimen?
a. Lowenstein-Jensen agar c. Petragnani agar
b. Middlebrook 7H10 agar d. American Thoracic Society medium
147. Acid-fast staining of a smear prepared from a digested sputum showed slender, slightly curved, beaded, red
mycobacterial rods. Growth on Middlebrook 7H10 slants produced buff-colored microcolonies with a serpentive pattern
after 14 days at 37qC. Niacin and nitrate reduction tests were positive. What is the most probable presumptive
identification?
a. Mycobacterium tuberculosis c. Mycobacterium kansasii
b. Mycobacterium ulcerans d. Mycobacterium avium complex
148. Which of the following mycobacteria produces pigmented colonies in the dark (is a scotochromogen)?
a. M. szulgai b. M. kansasii c. M. tuberculosis d. All of the above
149. All of the following Mycobacterium spp. produce the enzyme required to convert niacin to niacin ribonucleotide
except:
a. M. kansasii b. M. tuberculosis c. M. avium complex d. M. szulgai
150. Grown inhibition by thiophene-2-carboxylic hydrazide (T2H) is used to differentiate Mycobacterium tuberculosis from
which other Mycobacterium sp.?
a. M. bovis b. M. avium complex c. M. kansasii d. M. marinum
151. Mycobacteria isolated from the hot-water system of a hospital grew at 42qC. Colonies on Lowenstein-Jensen medium
were not pigmented after exposure to light and negative for niacin accumulation and nitrate reduction. The most likely
identification is:
a. M. xenopi b. M. marinum c. M. ulcerans d. M. haemophilum
152. A Mycobacterium sp. recovered from a patient with AIDS gave the following results:
Niacin = 0 T 2H = +
Tween 80 hydrolysis = 0 Heat-stable catalase (68qC) = r
Nitrate reduction = 0 Nonphotochromogen
a. M. gordonae b. M. bovis c. M. avium complex d. M. kansasii
153. An isolate produced a constriction that was interpreted as a positive germ tube, but Candida albicans was ruled out
when confirmatory test were performed. Which of the following fungi is the most likely identification?
a. Candida tropicalis c. Candida glabrata
b. Cryptococcus neoformans d. Rhodotorula rubra

154. According to the College of American Pathologists (CAP) guidelines, which services for mycobacteria would be
performed by a Level II laboratory?
a. No procedures would be performed
b. Acid-fast staining, inoculation, and referral to a reference laboratory
c. Isolation and identification of M. tuberculosis; preliminary identification of other species
d. Definitive identification of all mycobacteria
155. Which of the following Mycobacterium spp. would be most likely to grow on a MacConkey agar plate?
a. M. chelonae-fortuitum complex c. M. marinum
b. M. ulcerans d. M. avium-intracellulare complex
156. Blastospores (blastoconidia) are the beginning of which structures?
a. Arthrospores b. Germ tubes c. Pseudohyphae d. True hyphae
157. An isolate from CSF growing on cornmeal agar produces the following structures:
Blastospores = + Pseudohyphae = 0
Chlamydospores = 0 Arthrospores = 0
Which tests should be performed next?
a. Birdseed agar and urease c. India ink and germ tube
b. Germ tube and glucose d. All of the above
158. Which of the following yeasts produces only blastospores on cornmeal Tween 80 agar?
a. Candida spp. b. Trichosporon spp. c. Geotrichum spp. d. Cryptococcus spp.
159. A germ-tube negative, pink yeast isolate was recovered from the respiratory secretions and urine of a patient with
AIDS. Given the results below, what is the most likely identification?
Urease = + Blastospores = +
Pseudohyphae = 0 Arthrospores = 0
a. Candida albicans b. Rhodotorula spp. c. Cryptococcus spp. d. Trichosporon spp.
160. Carbohydrate assimilation tests are used for the identification of yeast isolates by inoculating media:
a. Free of carbohydrates c. Containing carbohydrates
b. Free of niger seed d. Containing yeast extract
161. Yeast recovered from the urine of catheterized patient receiving chemotherapy for cancer have the following results:
Germ tube = + Blastospores = +
Chlamydospores = +
What further testing is necessary?
a. Carbohydrate assimilation and urease
b. Urease and niger seed
c. Nitrate reductase and carbohydrate fermentation
d. No further testing is needed for identification
162. The mycelial form of Histoplasma capsulatum seen on agar resembles:
a. Sepedonium spp. b. Penicillium spp. c. Sporothrix spp. d. Coccidioides spp.
163. An organism cultured from the skin produces colonies displying a cherry red color on Sabouraud’s dextrose agar after
3-4 weeks, and teardrop-shaped microconidia along the sides of the hyphae. The most likely identification is:
a. Trichophyton rubrum c. Trichophyton schoenleinii
b. Trichophyton tonsurans d. Trichophyton violacium

164. Microscopic examination of a fungus cultured from a patient with athlete’s foot showed large, smooth-walled, club-
shaped macroconidia appearing singly or in clusters of two to three from the tips of short conidiophores. The colonies did
not produce microconidia. What is the most likely identification?
a. Trichophyton spp. c. Epidermophyton spp.
b. Alternaria spp. d. Microsporum spp.
165. A rapidly growing hyaline mold began as a white colony, but soon developed a black “pepper” effect on the agar
surface. The older colony produced a black matte making it resemble a dematiaceous mold. What is the most likely
identification?
a. Penicillium notatum b. Aspergillus niger c. Paecilomyces spp. d. Scopulariopsis spp.
166. Which Aspergillus sp., recovered most often from sputum or bronchial mucus, is the cause of allergic pulmonary
aspergillosis and invasive disease?
a. A. niger b. A. flavus c. A. fumigatus d. All of the above
167. Material from a fungus-ball infection produced colonies with a green surface on Sabouraud’s agar in 5 days at 30qC.
Microscopic exam showed club-shaped vesicles with sporulation only from the top half of the vesicle. This hyaline mold is
most probably:
a. Aspergillus niger c. Aspergillus flavus
b. Aspergillus fumigatus d. Aspergillus terreus
168. The most common viral syndrome of pericarditis and myocarditis and pleurodynia (pain upon breathing) is caused
by:
a. Herpes simplex c. Epstein-Barr virus
b. Respiratory syncytial virus d. Coxsackie B virus
169. Which virus has been implicated in adult gastroenteritis resulting from ingestion of contaminated food (especially
shellfish) and water?
a. Norwalk-like viruses b. Rotavirus c. Hepatitis C virus d. Coronavirus
170. A 13-year-old male was admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of viral encephalitis. History revealed that the boy
harbored wild raccoons from a nearby woods. What is the best method to determine if the boy has contracted rabies?
a. Remove the brainstems from all of the raccoons and examine for cytopathic effects
b. Immunofluorescent test for antibody on the saliva from all of the raccoons
c. Immunofluorescent test for antigen in cutaneous nerves obtained by nuchal biopsy of the patient
d. Isolate the virus from the saliva of both the animals and the patient
171. The most rapid definitive diagnosis of a genital herpes simplex (HSV-2) infection in a 20-year-old male is made by
which method?
a. Direct immunofluorescence test for viral antigen in vesicle fluid
b. Titer of serum and seminal fluid for antibodies to herpes simplex
c. Detection of anti-herpes simplex in seminal fluid
d. Cell culture of vesicle fluid
172. This condition results from the accidental ingestion of parasite eggs. In this instance the human becomes the
intermediate rather than the definitive host. The correct answer is:
a. Trichinosis b. Cysticercosis c. Ascariasis d. Strongyloidiasis
173. After returning from a 2-year stay in India, the patient had eosinophilia, an enalrge left spermatic cord, and bilateral
inguinal lymphadenopathy. The most, likely clinical specimen and organism match is:
a. Thin blood films and leishmania
b. Urine and concentration for Trichomonas vaginalis
c. Thin blood films and Babesia
d. Thick blood films and microfilariae

174. The incorrect match between organism and the appropriate diagnostic procedure is:
a. Onchocerca volvulus – examination of skin snips
b. Cryptosporidium – modified acid-fast stain
c. Echinococcus granulosus – routine ova and parasite examination
d. Schistosoma haematobium – examination of urine sediment
175. A Gram stain from a gum lesion showed what appeared to be amoebae. A trichrome smear showed amoebae with a
single nucleus and partially digested PMNs. The correct identification is:
a. Trichomonas tenax c. Entamoeba gingivalis
b. Entamoeba histolytica d. Entamoeba polecki
176. Eosinophilic meningoencephalitis is a form of larva migrans, causing fever, headache, stiff neck, and increased cells in
the spinal fluid. It is generally a mild and self-limited infection and is caused by:
a. Necator americanus c. Ancylostoma braziliense
b. Angiostrongylus cantonensis d. Strongyloides stercoralis
177. Characteristics of the rhabditiform (noninfective) larvae of Strongyloides stercoralis include a:
a. Short buccal capsule and large genital primordium
b. Long buccal capsule and pointed tail
c. Short buccal capsule and small genital primordium
d. Small genital primordium and notch in tail
178. Toxoplasma gondii is characterized by:
a. Possible congenital infection and ingestion of oocysts
b. Cosmopolitan distribution and possible difficulties with interpretation of serological results
c. None of the above
d. Both A and B
179. The incorrect match between symptoms and disease is:
a. Dysentery and amebiasis
b. Malabsorption syndrome and giardiasis
c. Cardiac involvement and chronic Chagas disease
d. Myalgias and trichuriasis
180. There are few procedures considered stat in parasitology. The most obvious situation would be:
a. Ova and parasite examination for giardiasis
b. Baemann concentration for strongyloidiasis
c. Blood film for malaria
d. Culture for amebic keratitis
181. A 60-year-old Brazilian with cardiac irregularities and congestive heart failure suddenly dies. Examination of the
myocardium revealed numerous amastigotes an indication that the cause of death was most likely:
a. Leishmaniasis with Leishmania donovani
b. Leishmaniasis with Leishmania braziliense
c. Trypanosomiasis with Trypanosoma gambiense
d. Trypanosomiasis with Trypanosoma cruzi
182. Why should both red and pink colonies from an initial stool culture on MacConkey agar be subcultured and tested
further
a. Most Shigella strains are lactose positive
b. Most Salmonella strains are maltose negative
c. Most Proteus spp. are lactose negative
d. Pathogenic E. coli can be lactose positive or negative

183. Which of the following statements is true regarding onchocerciasis?

a. The adult worm is present in the blood.
b. The microfilariae are in the blood during the late evening hours
c. The diagnostic test of choice is the skin snip
d. The parasite resides in the deep lymphatics
184. Plasmodium vivax and Plasmodium ovale are similar because they:
a. Exhibit Schuffner’s dots and have a true relapse in the life cycle
b. Have no malarial pigment and multiple rings
c. Commonly have applique forms in the red cells
d. Have true stippling, do not have a relapse stage, and infect old red cells
185. Cold enrichment of feces (incubation at 4qC) in phosphate-buffered saline prior to subculture onto enteric media
enhances the recovery of:
a. Enterotoxigenic E. coli c. Hafnia alvei
b. Salmonella paratyphi A d. Yersinia enterocolitica
186. The aseptic collection of blood cultures requires that the skin be cleansed with:
a. 2% iodine and then 70% alcohol
b. 80-95% alcohol and then 2% iodine or an idophor
c. 70% alcohol and then 95% alcohol
d. 95% alcohol only
187. A positive Simons citrate test is seen as a:
a. Blue color in the medium after 24-hour incubation at 35qC
b. Red color in the medium after 18-hour incubation at 35qC
c. Yellow color in the medium after 24-hour incubation at 37qC
d. Green color in the medium after 18-hour incubation at 37qC
188. Members of the family Enterobacteriaceae demonstrate which one of the combinations of characteristics?
a. ferment glucose, oxidase negative, reduce nitrates
b. reduce nitrates, oxidize glucose, oxidase negative
c. oxidase negative, ferment glucose, polar flagella
d. oxidase positive, oxidized glucose, peritrichous flagella
e. ferment glucose, oxidize glucose, polar flagella
189. An Entamoeba histolytica trophozoite is usually characterized by the following:
a. Central karyosome in the nucleus, ingested RBCs, clear pseudopodia
b. Ingested RBCs, clear pseudopodia, uneven chromatin on the nuclear membrane
c. Ingested RBCs, clear pseudopodia, large glycogen vacuoles in cytoplasm
d. Large, blotlike karyosome, ingested WBCs, granular pseudopods
190. The breakpoint of an antimicrobial drug refers to:
a. The amount needed to cause bacteriostasis
b. A minimum inhibitory concentration of 16Pg/mL or greater
c. A minimum inhibitory concentration of 64 Pg/mL or greater
d. The level of drug that is achievable in serum
191. Enterobacter sakazakiii can best be differentiated from Enterobacter cloacae by its:
a. Yellow pigmentation and negative sorbitol fermentation
b. Pink pigmentation and positive arginine dihydrolase
c. Yellow pigmentation and positive urease
d. H2S production on TSI

192. In a non-AIDS patient, the recommended clinical specimen for recovery of Pneumocystis carinii is the:
a. Tracheobronchial aspirate c. Bronchial brushings
b. Bronchoalveolar lavage d. Open lung biopsy
193. An isolate of E. coli recovered from the stool of a patient with severe bloody diarrhea should be tested for which sugar
before sending to a reference laboratory for serotyping?
a. Sorbitol (fermentation) c. Raffinose (fermentation)
b. Mannitol (oxidation) d. Sucrose (fermentation)
194. Two helminth eggs that may resemble one another are:
a. Diphyllobothrium latum and Paragonimus westermani
b. Opisthorchis sinensis and Fasciolopsis buski
c. Taenia saginata and Hymenolepis nana
d. Ascaris lymbricoides and Trichostrongylus
195. Organisms that should be considered in a waterborne outbreak of diarrhea disease include:
a. Giardia lamblia and Cryptosporidium parvum
b. Endolimax nana and Entamoeba histolytica
c. Blastocytocystis hominis and Trichomonas vaginalis
d. Toxoplasma gondii and Schistosoma mansoni
196. The microsporidia are protozoans that have been implicated in human disease primarily in:
a. Immunocompromised patients
b. Pediatric patients under the age of 5
c. Adult patients with congenital immunodeficiencies
d. Patients who have been traveling in the tropics
197. The incorrect match between method and method objective is:
a. Direct wet examination and detection of organism motility
b. Knott concentration and the recovery of operculated helminth eggs
c. Baermann concentration and the recovery of Strongyloides
d. Permanent stained fecal smear and confirmation of protozoa
198. Protozoan cysts are seen in a concentrated sediment and tentatively identified as Entamoeba coli. However, the
organisms were barely visible on the permanent stained smear because:
a. The organisms were actually not present in the concentate sediment
b. There were too few cysts to allow identification on the stained smear.
c. Entamoeba coli cysts were present, but poorly fixed.
d. The concentrate and permanent stained smear were not from the same patient.
199. The incorrect match between the organism and one method of acquiring the infection is:
a. Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense – bite of sand fleas
b. Giardia lamblia – ingestion of water contaminated with cysts
c. Hookworm – skin penetration of larvae from soil
d. Toxoplasma gondii – ingestion of raw or rare meats
200. Select the most sensitive recovery method for Acanthamoeba spp. from lens care solutions or corneal biopsies:
a. The trichrome staining method
b. The use of monoclonal reagents for the detection of antibody
c. The use of nonnutrient agar cultures seeded with Escherichia coli
d. The Giemsa staining method
***NOTHING FOLLOWS***

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ONLINE MTLE REVIEW ASSESSMENT EXAM #1 – MICROPARA QUESTIONNAIRE

ACTS REVIEW CENTER

MARCH 2021 ONLINE MTLE REVIEW

1. Which mechanism is responsible for botulism in infants caused by Clostridium botulinum?

ACTS REVIEW CENTER | 2021 March - Online MTLE Review 1

ACTS REVIEW CENTER | 2021 March - Online MTLE Review 2

ACTS REVIEW CENTER | 2021 March - Online MTLE Review 3

33. The incorrect match between organism and characteristic is:

ACTS REVIEW CENTER | 2021 March - Online MTLE Review 4

ACTS REVIEW CENTER | 2021 March - Online MTLE Review 5

ACTS REVIEW CENTER | 2021 March - Online MTLE Review 6

ACTS REVIEW CENTER | 2021 March - Online MTLE Review 7

ACTS REVIEW CENTER | 2021 March - Online MTLE Review 8

ACTS REVIEW CENTER | 2021 March - Online MTLE Review 9

ACTS REVIEW CENTER | 2021 March - Online MTLE Review 10

ACTS REVIEW CENTER | 2021 March - Online MTLE Review 11

a. Oxidase, motility, pyoverdin c. Oxidase, ONPG, DNAse

ACTS REVIEW CENTER | 2021 March - Online MTLE Review 12

ACTS REVIEW CENTER | 2021 March - Online MTLE Review 13

120. Streptococcus spp. exhibit which of the following properties?

ACTS REVIEW CENTER | 2021 March - Online MTLE Review 14

ACTS REVIEW CENTER | 2021 March - Online MTLE Review 15

ACTS REVIEW CENTER | 2021 March - Online MTLE Review 16

143. Identification of Clostridium tetani is based upon:

ACTS REVIEW CENTER | 2021 March - Online MTLE Review 17

ACTS REVIEW CENTER | 2021 March - Online MTLE Review 18

ACTS REVIEW CENTER | 2021 March - Online MTLE Review 19

ACTS REVIEW CENTER | 2021 March - Online MTLE Review 20

183. Which of the following statements is true regarding onchocerciasis?

ACTS REVIEW CENTER | 2021 March - Online MTLE Review 21

ACTS REVIEW CENTER

MARCH 2021 ONLINE MTLE REVIEW

1. Which mechanism is responsible for botulism in infants caused by Clostridium botulinum?

ACTS REVIEW CENTER | 2021 March - Online MTLE Review 1

ACTS REVIEW CENTER | 2021 March - Online MTLE Review 2

ACTS REVIEW CENTER | 2021 March - Online MTLE Review 3

33. The incorrect match between organism and characteristic is:

ACTS REVIEW CENTER | 2021 March - Online MTLE Review 4

ACTS REVIEW CENTER | 2021 March - Online MTLE Review 5

ACTS REVIEW CENTER | 2021 March - Online MTLE Review 6

ACTS REVIEW CENTER | 2021 March - Online MTLE Review 7

ACTS REVIEW CENTER | 2021 March - Online MTLE Review 8

ACTS REVIEW CENTER | 2021 March - Online MTLE Review 9

ACTS REVIEW CENTER | 2021 March - Online MTLE Review 10

ACTS REVIEW CENTER | 2021 March - Online MTLE Review 11

a. Oxidase, motility, pyoverdin c. Oxidase, ONPG, DNAse

ACTS REVIEW CENTER | 2021 March - Online MTLE Review 12

ACTS REVIEW CENTER | 2021 March - Online MTLE Review 13

120. Streptococcus spp. exhibit which of the following properties?

ACTS REVIEW CENTER | 2021 March - Online MTLE Review 14

ACTS REVIEW CENTER | 2021 March - Online MTLE Review 15

ACTS REVIEW CENTER | 2021 March - Online MTLE Review 16

143. Identification of Clostridium tetani is based upon:

ACTS REVIEW CENTER | 2021 March - Online MTLE Review 17

ACTS REVIEW CENTER | 2021 March - Online MTLE Review 18

ACTS REVIEW CENTER | 2021 March - Online MTLE Review 19

ACTS REVIEW CENTER | 2021 March - Online MTLE Review 20

183. Which of the following statements is true regarding onchocerciasis?

ACTS REVIEW CENTER | 2021 March - Online MTLE Review 21

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