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PTS 2023 | CSAT Simulator Test 4 - Solutions |
Q.1)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
The passage states that ‘Despite various policies and initiatives undertaken by the government to
encourage women to enter the workforce, the ratio has remained disappointingly low.’ So it assumes that
‘The government initiatives have not been successful to encourage women to participate in the
workforce’, hence statement 1 is a valid assumption.
The passage mentions ‘deeply ingrained patriarchal mindset prevalent in the society. Women are often
expected to take care of the household and the family, while men are considered the primary
breadwinners’. So it assumes that women are to stay inside the house and take care of the family, and it
does not want women to step outside. Hence statement 2 is a valid assumption.
The passage states that ‘lack of “adequate” child care facilities and flexible work arrangements, makes it
difficult for women to pursue their careers. From this we can’t assume that Indian employers in general
do it provide healthcare facilities. Adequate means not enough. Hence statement 3 is an invalid
assumption.
In the passage it’s stated that ‘Even those who manage to complete their education often lack the
necessary skills and training required for the job market.’ So the skill set is mentioned here but not higher
education’. Hence statement 4 is an invalid assumption.
Q.2)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
The passage mentions that ‘Another factor that contributes to the low female workforce ratio is the
inadequate education and training opportunities available to women’ so ‘Providing access to vocational
training, apprenticeship and higher education can help women overcome the barriers’. Hence Statement 1
is correct.
Since statement 2 is a valid suggestion in general ,but telecommuting at the workplace is nowhere
Implicitly or explicitly hinted at in the passage. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 3 is a good suggestion, but not based on the passage, Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
Cultural norms and Patriarchal mindset have been mentioned as obstacles, so Statement 4 is a valid
suggestion based on passage. Hence Statement four is correct.
The passage mentions discrimination in the workplace and obscene behavior as one of the factors, so
statement 5 is a valid suggestion based on the passage.
Q.3)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
The passage states that ‘One of the biggest challenges is the lack of understanding of human trafficking
among the general people and policymakers’, so public awareness and education about human trafficking
will help in combating the trafficking. So, option a reflects the best corollary to the passage. Hence,
option a is correct.
Passage does not talk that existing laws are ineffective or their delay in the criminal justice system to
combat crime, so option b does not reflect the best corollary to the passage. Hence option b is incorrect.
The passage mentions that ‘victims are moved across borders to avoid detection’, but sealing of borders
can’t be the best solution. Hence option c is incorrect.
The passage nowhere implicitly or explicitly talks about victim support. Hence option d is incorrect.
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Q.4)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Given, S20 = 420 and Sn(sum of n terms) = n/2{2a+(n-1)d} ⇒ 20/2{2a+19d} = 420
⇒ 420 = 10(2a + 19d)—— (1)
S50 = 2550
50/2{2a+49d} = 2550 ⇒ 2550 = 25(2a+ 49d) ——-(2)
Solving (1) and (2):
d = 2, a = 2
So, the first term of geometric progression(A) = 2 and common ratio(R) is 2
So 11th term of the geometric progression = A{(R ^(11 -1)} = 2 {2^10} = 2048
Q.5)
Ans) d
Let’s begin with the last option, the minimum number.
In such type of question, it’s easier to proceed with
Given, there is a 90% probability that the bomb dropped will destroy the territory,
So, there is a 10% probability that a bomb dropped will not destroy the territory.
Let three bombs were dropped:
Probability of destruction of territory:
(1st miss x 2nd hit x 3rd hit) + (1st hit x 2nd hit) + (1st hit x 2nd miss x 3rd hit) =
(0.1x0.9x0.9) + (0.9x0.9) + (0.9x0.1x0.9) = (0.081+0.81+0.081) = 0.972 = (0.972x100) = 97.02 %
So, when three bombs are dropped there is 97.02% probability that the territory will be destroyed.
Q.6)
Ans) a
The total time for which Karachi Express traveled = 1.5+1= 2.5 hour
Total distance traveled by Karachi Express = (2.5x16) = 40km
When Karimabad express begins, the relative speed of both the buses = (28-16)= 12 km/h
The time taken to overtake = Total distance traveled by Karachi Express in 4 hours/ relative speed
= 40/12 hours
Distance covered by Karimabad express = {28x(40/12)} = 93.33 km
Q.7)
Ans) b
Let’s find the odd number of days in a century.
Since leap year has two odd days and ordinary year has one odd day.
100 years = 24 leap years + 76 ordinary years= (24x2)+(76x1) = 124 odd days, dividing it by 7 gives 5 as
remainder .implies 100 years have 5 odd days.
400 years will have = ( 5x4)+1 = 21 = 0 odd days ( 1 is added because 400 is a leap year itself)
2000 years will have 0 odd days.
Now in 2001, there will be 1 odd day.
Now from January 2002 we need to calculate :
(31 days in January + 28 days in February + 31 days in March + 1 day in April) =91 days = 0 odd days (as 91 is
divisible by 7)
So, on April 1st 2002, it will be Monday.
So, 2nd April will be Tuesday.
Hence 2nd, 9th, 16th, 23th, 30th April will be Tuesday.
Q.8)
Ans) d
990= 11x 3x3x2x5
The highest power of 990, which would divide 1090! would be the power of 11 available in 1090.
This can be found by getting quotient for : (1090/11) + {1090/(11)^2} = 99 + 9 = 108
Hence (990)^108 will exactly divide 1090!
Q.9)
Ans) c
1152 = 2x2x2x2x2x2x2x3x3 = 2^7 x 3^2
In ( 2! )^3, it is 2^3.
In (3!)^3 it is (3x2)^3 = (3^3) x (2^3)
In (4!)^3 it is (4x3x2x1)^3 = (4^3) x (3^3) x (2^3) = (2^2)^3 x (3^3) x (2^3) = (2^6)x (2^3) x (3^3) =
(2^9) x (3^3)
So starting from (4!)^3 , each term would be perfectly divisible by 1152
Thus, the required remainder is got by the first three terms:
{(1!)^3}+ {(2!)^3} + {(3!)^3} = 225/1152 = 225 is the required remainder.
Q.10)
Ans) b
He wants to make distinct rows. In one row only Mahogany should be there, in other only Bamboo, in
other only tulsi and so on.
and equal numbers of such rows implies in each row the number of trees should be the same.
So, for this we need to find HCF of the given number of trees first.
HCF of 74, 111, 148 is 37
Now to find the number of minimum rows to fulfill such arrangement = (74/37)+(111/37)+(148/37) = 2+3+4
=9
Q.11)
Ans) c
The passage begins with the line that there is a mental health crisis in the world and goes on explaining
how to overcome it, so this is the aspect being discussed, but not the central idea of the passage. Hence
option a is incorrect.
The passage explains how the pandemic has worsened the situation, so this is again one aspect about
mental health in present scenario being discussed, but not the central idea. Hence option b is incorrect.
The passage discusses the crisis of mental health in the modern world and how mindfulness meditation
can help to promote mental well-being. It explains how mindful meditation can be done. Problem
discussed is the mental health crisis and the solution is mindfulness meditation which is of prime
importance. Therefore, this is the central idea of the passage. Hence option c is correct.
The passage mentions that incorporating mindfulness in daily life is not tough, this is not the central idea,
hence option d is incorrect.
Q.12)
Ans) d
The passage states that ‘The increase in the production of shale oil in the United States has contributed
to the oversupply of oil in the global market and led to the decline in prices of traditional oil’, so this
assumes that it adversely affects the economies of oil producing nations. Hence statement 1 is a valid
assumption.
In the passage it’s mentioned that ‘The COVID-19 has exacerbated the “weak” oil market’. It implies that
the oil market was already weak before COVID 19. Hence Statement 2 is a valid assumption.
The passage states that ‘But cutting oil production can result in layoffs and job losses in the oil industry.’
So, it assumes that reducing oil production will adversely affect the nation’s economy. Hence Statement 3
is a valid assumption.
Q.13)
Ans) c
The passage mentions that Some may argue that they cannot spare the price to cut production, as oil
exports may be their primary source of revenue. This implies that Reducing oil production is unaffordable
for many countries. Statement 1 is correct.
The passage mentions geopolitical factors determine the price of the oil but this does not mean that
there is a geopolitical instability in the world. Hence statement two is incorrect.
In the Passage it is stated that ‘But reducing oil production requires shutting down oil wells, which can be
a complex and time-consuming process’, so it implies that Oil production can’t be turned on and off
according to one's own whims and fancies. Hence statement 3 is correct.
The passage states that ‘reducing production levels can result in a decline in the grade of oil’, so it says
that “it can”, we can’t be sure that it does impact the quality of oil.
Q.14)
Ans) b
The passage states that such countries need to invest in other sectors, so it implies that other sectors
such as “ manufacturing, tourism, and services to reduce their dependence on oil export”, so statement 1
is correct.
The passage mentions that “Inviting external powers to infuse money in the economy can be a great
assistance”, so attracting foreign investment will help in gaining revenue. Hence statement 2 is correct.
The passage states that “Providing training for SMEs can be helpful in this.”, so SMEs are equivalent to
promoting entrepreneurship. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Statement 4 is nowhere implicitly or explicitly stated in the passage. Hence statement 4 is incorrect.
Q.15)
Ans) d
Beginning distance between tiger and deer = 25 leaps of tiger
1 leap of tiger = 2 leaps of deer.
In every minute deer takes 6 leaps which is equal to 3 leaps of tiger.
In every minute tiger takes 5 leaps.
Relative speed of tiger and deer = 5-3 = 2 leaps
Total distance to be covered = 25 leaps
Time taken = 25/2 = 12.5 minutes
Hence in 12.5 minutes deer will be caught.
Q.16)
Ans) a
The set of letters
ABCD EFGH IJKL MNOP QRST UVWX YZ
We have to find the letters at the middle of the series. Implies we have to find the letter at the 13th and
14th position.
We observe that M and N are the 13th and 14th letters.
Given that first four moves back (ABCD)
Next four moves ahead (EFGH)
Next four moves back(IJKL)
Next four moves ahead (MNOP)
So these two letters will move ahead three places .
M+3 = P
N+3= Q
So, the middle letter in the new series are PQ
Q.17)
Ans) b
The Chess Board consists of (nine parallel lines x nine parallel lines).
For a rectangle, we need to select (two parallel lines x two other parallel lines that are perpendicular to
the first set)
First two points can be selected from ninth parallel lines in C(9,2) ways
Next two points can be selected from nine parallel lines in C(9,2) ways
Total number of rectangles that can be formed out of a chessboard= C(9,2) x C(9x2) =1296
Q.18)
Ans) a
Since Andy’s class has to be before Brik, Brik’s class has to be before Cany. So this can be done in only one
way.
We can decide which three classes these three will take in C(8,3) ways.
In remaining 5 classes rest five lecturers can be arranged in 5! Ways.
So total number of ways for such arrangements = C(8,3) x 5! = {8! /(3!x5!)} x 5! = 6720 ways
Q.19)
Ans) d
Let the two number be x and y
Given(x^2) - (y^2) = 45
(x-y) (x+y) = 45
We have to find the factors of 45: (15,3) (9,5) and (45,1)
The set of numbers such possible are :-
(1) 9 and 6 : (x+y) = 15, (x-y)= 3
(2) 7 and 2 : (x+y) =9: (x-y)=5
(3) 23 and 22 : (x+y) =45: (x-y)=1
Hence total such three pairs of numbers are there.
Q.20)
Ans) c
Let the population be 90, 80 and 30 of the blocks A, B and C.
Total population = 90+80+30 = 200
Number of female in Block A = (90x0.8) = 72
In block B, 30% is male, so 70% is female
Number of female in Block B = (80x0.7) = 56
Number of female in Block C= (30x0.9) = 27
Total number of female = 72+56+27 = 155
Percentage of female =( 155/200)x100 = 77.5%
Q.21)
Ans) b
The passage states that ‘the real estate sector, which has a significant black money component’, It doesn't
assume that the majority of the black money is invested in the real estate sector. Hence statement 1 is an
invalid assumption.
In the passage it’s stated that ‘As consumer demand fell for new housing projects many people lost their
jobs making unemployment a major problem for the government’. Hence statement 2 is a valid
assumption.
From the statement ‘overall growth rate of the economy took a hit’, it assumes that with decline in growth
rate of real estate sector, economy declined, not vice versa. Hence statement 3 is an invalid assumption.
Q.22)
Ans) d
The passage states that ‘The move was intended to curb corruption, black money, fake currency’, but
from this it can’t be assumed that there was huge accumulation of fake currency.
In the passage it’s stated that ‘The move was widely appreciated by some sections of the public who
believed that it would help in rooting out black money and corruption from the economy’ but from this it
can’t be concluded that persons with integrity appreciated it. Hence statement 2 is an invalid Assumption.
Q.23)
Ans) c
The passage states that ‘the move led to a significant increase in the number of people using digital
modes of payment.’ But from this we can’t assume that Prior to demonetisation there were insignificant
online transactions. Hence statement 1 is an invalid assumption.
In the passage it’s stated that ‘The informal economy, which relies heavily on cash transactions, was also
severely affected.’ The passage doesn't talk about formal economy. So statement 2 is an invalid
assumption.
The passage states that ‘demonetisation had significant short-term impact. But from this we can’t assume
that it didn’t have a long-term impact. Hence statement 3 is an invalid assumption.
In the passage it’s mentioned that ‘86% of the currency in circulation became invalid,’ and the passage
also mentions that “the government's decision to demonetise high-value currency notes” so this assumes
that High currency notes dominated the economy before demonetisation. Hence statement 4 is a valid
assumption.
Q.24)
Ans) b
Deciding one place for the digits ‘2’: this can be done in C(4,1) ways
Rest digits = 7
The remaining digits for three places can be selected in C(7,3) ways. And three digits can be reshuffled
among themselves in 3! Ways
The number has to be _ _ _ _
So the total number of such numbers = C(4,1) x C(7,3)x3! = {4! /(3!x1!)} x {7!/(4!x3!)} x 3! = 840
Q.25)
Ans) a
Based on the sum of ages of the couple and the children, we first need to find the time gap between the
birth of each child!
Sum of the ages of the couple = 24 * 2 = 48
After the 1st and 2nd children, sum = 13.5 * 4 = 54
Difference in sum = 54 – 48 = 6 years
Or after 6/2 = 3 years, the twin were born to the couple (Ages of children at the time of birth is 0)
After 3rd child, sum = 13.2 * 5 = 66 yrs
Difference = 66 – 54 = 12
Or after 12/4 = 3 yrs, 3rd child was born (Couple + 2 children were already present. So 4)
After 4th child, sum = 16 * 6 = 96 yrs
Difference = 96 – 66 = 30
Or after 30/5 = 6 yrs, 4th child was born
Current sum = 19 * 6 = 114 yrs
Difference 114 – 96 = 18 yrs
Or after 18/6 = 3 yrs
The gap between the children are as follows: 3 yrs, 6 yrs and 3 yrs
Age of eldest ones = 3 + 6 + 3 = 12
The question is "What is the current age of the twin children?"
Hence, the answer is "12 years".
Q.26)
Ans) c
Lets assume, Ahmedabad as A, Bhopal as B and Cuttack as C and create a visual of where the three cars
are and how they travel between the points.
Let V1, V2 and V3 be the speeds of the cars.

AB/V1 - AB/V2 = AB/V2 - AB/V3
240/V1 - 240/V2 = 1
V3 = 2V1
Condition I states that the cars leave in equal intervals of time and arrive at the same time. Or, the
difference in the time taken between cars 1 and 2 should be equal to the time taken between cars 2 and 3.
We get AB/V1 - AB/V2 = AB/V2 - AB/V3
As the second car arrived at C an hour earlier than the first, we get a second equation.
240/V1 - 240/V2 = 1
The third car covered 240 + 80 kms when the first one covered 240 – 80 kms.
Therefore, 320/V3 = 160/V1
This gives us V3 = 2V1
From condition 1, we have AB/V1 - AB/V2 = AB/V2 - AB/V3
Substituting V3 = 2V1, this gives us AB/V1 - AB/V2 = AB/V2 - AB/2V1
or 3AB/2V1 = 2AB/V2
or V2 = 4V1/3
Solving 240/V1 - 240/V2 = 1 , we get 60/V1 = 1 or V1 = 60 kmph
=> V2 = 80 kmph and V3 = 120 kmph
The question is "What is the difference between the speed of the first and the third car?"
Hence, the answer is 60 kmph.
Q.27)
Ans) a
200 runs can be scored by scoring only fours or combination of fours and sixes.
Possibilities are : 0 sixes and 50 fours
There has to be six in the multiple of 2, so that the number of fours can be adjusted accordingly.
So, 2 sixes, 47 fours
4 sixes, 44 fours
6 sixes, 41 fours
8 sixes, 38 fours
10sixes, 35 fours
12 sixes, 32 fours
14 sixes, 29 fours
16 sixes, 26 fours
18 sixes, 23 fours
20 sixes, 20 fours
22 sixes, 17 fours
24 sixes, 14 fours
26 sixes, 11 fours
28 sixes, 8 fours
30 sixes, 5 fours
32 sixes, 2 fours
Total 17 ways.
Q.28)
Ans) c
The combination of 2 and 5 gives 10.
So we need to search for such pairs : 122 x 125 is one such pair.
So, the last two digit for such pair is 50, so the last digit is confirmed zero’0’
Now for remaining numbers, there is no 2,4,6,8 in the units digit, hence 0 can’t be there in second last
digit. And any other digits multiplied by 5 will give 5, so five will be the second last digit,
Hence the last two digits will be 50.
Q.29)
Ans) d
The sequence is {(n^2)+(n+1)^3}, Where n begins with 1
1^2+2^3 = 9
2^2+3^3 = 31
3^2+4^3 = 73
4^2+5^3= 141
5^2+6^3= 241
6^2+7^3= 379
7^2+8^3= 561
Q.30)
Ans) a
Step 1: Aman and Grey have to be seated at the extreme right : so they will be at seat 7/6
Step 2: Bob sits at the center. So he will sit at Seat 4
Step 3: Cyrus and Derek are seated as far apart from each other. So they will be seated at Seat 1/Seat5.
Step 4: Now Eden and Fig are left out , and seats 2 and 3 are left out, so they will be seated at Seat 2 or
seat 3.
From the below arrangement it’s evident that Eden and Aman can’t be seated together.
Left Right
Seat 1 Seat Seat 3 Seat 4 Seat 5 Seat 6 Seat 7

2
Cyrus Eden Fig/Eden Bob Derek/Cyrus Grey/Aman Aman/Grey

/Dere /Fig
k
Q.31)
Ans) b
The passage states that as the world population continues to grow, there is an increase in man animal
conflict, so the passage refers to the increase. Man animal conflict is not the outcome of the explosion of
the human population. Thus statement 1 is invalid assumption.
Passage says that it is a challenge to accommodate the interest of men and humans. So, it assumes that it
is difficult to reconcile the interests of man and human. Hence statement 2 is a valid assumption..
The passage mentions that humans often view wild animals as a threat to their lives and livelihoods. But
from this we can’t assume that there is a shortage of livelihood opportunities for humans. Hence
statement 3 is an invalid assumption.
Q.32)
Ans) c
The passage states that Another challenge is the lack of reliable data on the extent and nature of man-
animal conflict; lack of reliable data does not imply that Agencies collecting wildlife data have failed to
work effectively. So, statement 1 is incorrect.
The passage states that ‘There is a need for more research to better understand the causes and
consequences of man-animal conflict’, but this does not mean that the government has not spent enough
on wildlife research. It might mean that the research which has been done was not proper. Hence
statement 2 is incorrect.
The passage mentions that Another challenge is the lack of reliable data on the extent and nature of man-
animal conflict. This makes it difficult to develop effective solutions and to monitor the effectiveness of
existing interventions. So, it implies that ‘Monitoring of wildlife initiatives of the government is a difficult
task’. Hence statement 3 is correct.
The passage states that ‘The interactions between humans and animals are often unpredictable and can
vary greatly depending on a range of factors, including the species involved, the location of the conflict,
and the behavior of the individual animals’, but from this we can’t conclude Individual animal behavior has
not been studied properly. Hence statement 4 is incorrect.
Q.33)
Ans) a
The passage states that geofencing is used at various reserves. Hence it is inferred that technology can
be used. Hence statement 1 is correct.
The passage nowhere mentions that the existing conservation strategies are insufficient. Hence
statement 2 is incorrect.
Animals should never be confined. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
The passage states that there is need for more research but from this we cannot infer that there is no
research wing existing in the department. Hence statement 4 is incorrect.
Q.34)
Ans) d
In the passage it’s mentioned that ‘As the night wears on, the rustling continues, the creatures below
unaware of the watchful eye above’ so it implies that small creatures are unaware of the threat. Hence
option a is incorrect.
The passage mentions the owl's keen senses, which suggest that it is a predator that preys on small
animals, but the passage does not explicitly state that the owl preys on the creatures in the underbrush.
Hence option b is incorrect.
Additionally, there is no evidence in the passage to suggest that the small creatures and the owl can’t
coexist peacefully, as the owl is described as a solitary predator. Hence option c is incorrect.
The passage mentions that ‘The small creatures are nocturnal and only come out at night to forage for
food. This inference is supported by the passage's description of the creatures scurrying about at night in
search of food and shelter.’ Hence option d is correct.
Q.35)
Ans) b
After 4:56, the next hour digit will be 5:xy
But for any value of xy, the time can’t be in ascending order. As minute digit can’t be more than 60.
Similarly, this will be true for, hour digit 6,7,8,9,10,11
So, for hour digit 12 this situation will hold true for 12:34
So, the time elapsed will be = (4 minutes to 5:00) + (7x60 minutes to 12:00) + (34 minutes to 12:34)
= 458 minutes
Q.36)
Ans) a
Here, the lady is the grandmother of Vijay’s sister’s son.
i.e., the mother of the mother of Vijay’s sister’s son.
ie., the mother of Vijay’s sister.
So, the lady is Vijay’s mother. Hence option a is correct.
Q.37)
Ans) c
Let's denote, Pineapple as P, Orange as O, and Grapes as G
So, using statement 1 alone, 2P + G < P + 2G => P < G Using statement 2 alone, P + 2O = O + 2G => P + O =
2G So, using either statement alone, we cannot find the answer to the question. However, by using both
statements together, we can determine that P < G < O So, option c is the answer.
Q.38)
Ans) d
Given: Ratio of male to female in 2000 was ⅓
So, let’s suppose male was x and female was 3x
Statement 1: 100 more males started residing in the apartment in 2001 than in 2000.
New number of males : (x+100)
Number of females in 2001 is not given,
So, the ratio of male to female in 2001 can’t be answered using statement 1 alone.
Statement 2: 150 more females were residing in 2001 than in 2000.
New number of females = 3x+150
Now here in this statement number of males is not known in 2001,
So, the ratio of male to female in 2001 can’t be answered using statement 2 alone.
Using both the statements:
New number of males = x+100
New number of females = 3x+150
ratio of male to female in 2001 = (x+100)/(3x+150)
Again, here the value of x is not known,
So even both statements are not sufficient to answer the question.
Q.39)
Ans) a
Given : number of fish which are four consecutive even integers.
Statement 1: The average number of fish caught is the first prime number greater than 10.
Total number of fish caught = 11x4 =44 (as 11 the first prime number greater than 10)
So, four consecutive even integers’ sum is 44.
Let the even number he x,x+2,x+4,x+6
x+x+2+x+4+x+6 = 44
x=8
So, the numbers of fish caught are 8, 10, 12, 14
So, the largest number of fish caught = 14.
Hence, Statement- 1 alone is sufficient to answer the question.
Statement 2: The ratio between the number of largest fish caught and the smallest number of fish caught
is less than 10.
Given they are consecutive even integers.
So let’s suppose they are x,x+2,x+4,x+6
From statement 2: (x+6)/x < 10
(x+6)< 10x
9x<6
x< 6/9
So, from this we can’t get the answer.
Q.40)
Ans) a
Step 1: Gupta is the author of Physics book
Dev owns the book written by Edgar
Chiku owns the Math book.
Eden has the English book.
Biology book is written by D’Souza
Studen Subject Author

t
Physics Gupta
Dev Edgar
Chiku Math
Eden English
Biology D’Souza
Step 2:
Now we have two authors left, Khanna and Harishnand two subjects for which the author is not known
are Math and English.
Given, the English book is not written by Khanna. So, it is written by Harish.
And English book is owned by Eden, so Eden owns the book written by Harish
Q.41)
Ans) a
The passage discusses exhaustively the principle of social proof and its influence on people's behavior,
particularly emphasizing how marketers can leverage this principle to promote their products and
messages effectively.
Q.42)
Ans) b
Statement 1 is incorrect: This assumption is not valid because the passage suggests the opposite. It
states that people assume that others have more knowledge or experience than they do and that they
have made the right choice. This assumption leads people to follow the lead of others in uncertain
situations, indicating that people may be less capable individually than in groups when they are uncertain.
Statement 2 is correct: The passage clearly mentions that "the principle of social proof states that people
are more likely to follow the lead of others when they are uncertain about what to do." This means that
when people are uncertain about what decision to make or action to take, they are more likely to follow
others who they perceive as having more knowledge or experience.
Q.43)
Ans) c
Statement 1 is correct: The passage has explicitly states that “the lean startup flips that idea on its head
by acknowledging that startups are inherently uncertain and that the path to success is through a series
of experiments that help to refine the product, the market, and the strategy.” This reflects that there are
lot of elements of unknown in the process of building a start-ups.
Statement 2 is correct: The following lines clearly highlight the given assumption, “The key principles of
the lean startup include the use of a minimum viable product to test early assumptions, validated learning
to measure progress and adjust course, and a focus on innovation accounting to quantify the impact of
experiments.”
Q.44)
Ans) c
Statement 1 is correct: This statements is valid because the passage explicitly states that an individual
cannot be compelled to act against their own good, either physical or moral, and that their independence
in the part of their conduct that concerns only themselves is absolute.
Statement 2 is correct: The passage states that the only purpose of exercising power over an individual is
to prevent harm to others. Thus, it clearly outlines that the there are situations where an individual's
conduct can be justifiably controlled
Q.45)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer
The key message of the author in the passage is that power can be rightfully exercised over an individual
in a civilized society to prevent harm to others, but not for promoting their own good or the opinions of
others. The passage argues that an individual's conduct that concerns only themselves is not subject to
control by society, and that their independence in such matters is absolute. However, if an individual's
conduct is calculated to produce evil to someone else, society has the right to control it.
Q.46)
Ans) c
For Athlete A:
1) Swimming: 2.5 km / 4 km/h = 0.625 h
2) Cycling: 40 km / 36 km/h = 1.111 h
3) Running: 10 km / 12 km/h = 0.833 h
4) Transition time: 2 * 10 min = 20 min = 0.333 h Total time for Athlete A: 0.625 + 1.111 + 0.833 + 0.333
= 2.902 hours
For Athlete B:
1) Swimming: 2.5 km / 5 km/h = 0.5 h
2) Cycling: 40 km / 30 km/h = 1.333 h
3) Running: 10 km / 15 km/h = 0.667 h
4) Transition time: 2 * 10 min = 20 min = 0.333 h Total time for Athlete B: 0.5 + 1.333 + 0.667 + 0.333
= 2.833 hours
So, Athlete B finishes the race ahead of Athlete A by a margin of 2.902 - 2.833 = 0.069 hours
To express the margin in minutes, we can multiply by 60
0.069 x 60 minutes
Or
To express the margin in seconds, we can multiply by 60
0.069 x 60 x 60 seconds
= 248.4 seconds
= Roughly 4 minutes and 8 seconds
Q.47)
Ans) a
To find the smallest area of land that each resident can receive, we need to find the greatest common
divisor (GCD) of the two plot sizes.
First, find the area of both types of plots:
Plot A: 9 meters × 12 meters = 108 square meters
Plot B: 15 meters × 20 meters = 300 square meters
Now, find the GCD of the two areas:
GCD (108, 300)
To find the GCD, we can use the prime factorization method:
Prime factors of 108: 2² × 3³
Prime factors of 300: 2² × 3 × 5²
Find the common prime factors and their lowest powers:
2² and 3
Calculate the GCD by multiplying the common prime factors: GCD = 2² × 3 = 12
The smallest area of land that each resident can receive is equal to the GCD, which is 12 square meters.
Q.48)
Ans) b
From the information given, we can deduce the following equations:
V = 4G (Vishal is 4 times as old as Gaurav)
V + 6 = 2(G + 6) (In 6 years, Vishal will be twice as old as Gaurav)
Now we can solve the equations to find the current ages of Vishal and Gaurav:
Using Equation 1, substitute V with 4G in Equation 2:
4G + 6 = 2(G + 6)
4G + 6 = 2G + 12
2G = 6
G=3
Now, we know the current age of Gaurav is 3 years old. Let's find Vishal's age using Equation 1:
V = 4G
V=4*3
V = 12
So, the current age of Vishal is 12 years old.
Q.49)
Ans) c
 A is sitting next to B.
 C is sitting next to D.
 D is not sitting with E, who is on the right end of the bench.
 C is on the second position from the left.
 A is to the left of B and E.
 A and C are sitting together.
Arrangement would be
D C A B E
Q.50)
Ans) c
Let's start by placing Hyundai at one end, as stated in the fourth condition:
Hyundai _ _ _ _ _
Now, let's use the second condition. Since Ford is fourth to the right of Hyundai, we place Ford
accordingly:
Hyundai _ _ _ Ford _
Now we know that Tata is next to the right of Ford, so we can place Tata:
Hyundai _ _ _ Ford Tata
We also know that Hyundai is third to the left of Mahindra. So, we can place Mahindra:
Hyundai _ Mahindra Ford Tata
Lastly, Maruti Suzuki is between Mahindra and Hyundai. We can place Maruti Suzuki:
Hyundai Maruti Suzuki Mahindra Ford Tata
The cars on both sides of the Tata car are Ford and Mahindra.
Q.51)
Ans) a
Statement 1 is correct: The passage suggests that there is evidence to support the idea that spending
time in nature can have a range of positive effects on our mental and physical health, including decreased
activity in a region of the brain associated with depression, improved concentration and impulse control
in children with ADHD, and better cognitive abilities.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The passage highlights the positive effects of green spaces on cognitive
functioning in children, but it does not address the issue of access to green spaces.
Q.52)
Ans) a
The passage states that women in their later years face unique challenges and vulnerabilities and the
passage begins with ‘The feminisation of old age in India is a growing concern’ so this assumes that Old
women are more vulnerable to age related factors. Hence statement 1 is a valid assumption.
The passage mentions that ‘their lower participation in the formal workforce’ so it assumes that In formal
sector there is less opportunities for jobs for women. Hence statement 2 is a valid assumption.
The passage mentions that ‘the societal norms dictate their caregiving responsibilities’, this implies that
society dictates their care giving roles, but from this we can’t assume that Care giving is prime job of
women in our society. Hence statement 3 is an invalid assumption.
The passage mentions that ‘significant proportion of older women in India are financially dependent,
socially isolated’, but not all older women are isolated. Hence statement 4 is an invalid assumption.
Q.53)
Ans) a
The passage states that the concern of old age women is fueled as India has dismal female labour force
participation ratio, so more job opportunities will be the best corollary to the passage. Hence option a is
correct.
The passage does mention that old-age woman are financially dependent but the old-age pension scheme
is not a tool to make financially independent but rather it is an aid by the government to help the old age
people survive. Hence option b is incorrect.
The passage mentions that ‘The lack of support for older women limits their potential contribution to the
workforce and society, leading to a “loss of skills”, implies women lose their skills due to non-utilisation. It
does not mean that they don’t have skills. So, option c is incorrect.
The passage states that the patriarchal nature of Indian society often renders them invisible and
disregards their voices and opinions. So, community mobilisation programs are not needs to make
women more vocal, but for society to be more attentive to women’s voice. Hence option d is incorrect.
Q.54)
Ans) a
If there are n people and they shake hand with each other.
Number of handshakes = n(n-1)/2
1) the host shakes hand with each participant once in 10 ways.
2) The host shakes hands with each qualifier (3 finalists) amongst the participants twice more in 3+3 ways
= 6 ways
3) The participants are required to shake hands once with each other, this is done in 10x10/2= 45 ways
4) the winner, and the host shakes hands with all the guests (60 spectators) once in 60+60 ways =120
ways
5) Total number of handshakes = 10+6+45+120 =181 ways
Q.55)
Ans) c
For a number to be divisible by 4, the last two digits has to be divisible by 4
Such last two digits are 12, 16, 24, 32, 36, 52, 56, 64, (total 8 such possibilities)
Now for these possibilities remaining two places can be chosen from remaining 4 digits in 4x3 = 12 ways
Total such numbers are 12x 8 = 96
Q.56)
Ans) b
The following words will appear before NILCPE:
All words starting with C: C fixed other five places can be arranged with five letters in 5! Ways = 120 ways
All words starting with E: E fixed other five places can be arranged with five letters in 5! Ways = 120 ways
All words starting with I: I fixed other five places can be arranged with five letters in 5! Ways = 120 ways
All words starting with L : L fixed other five places can be arranged with five letters in 5! Ways = 120 ways
Words starting with N and C fixed : rest four places can be arranged in 4! = 24 ways
Words starting with N and E fixed : rest four places can be arranged in 4! = 24 ways
Words with N and I and C fixed : rest three places can be arranged in 3! Ways = 6 ways
Words with N and I and E fixed : rest three places can be arranged in 3! Ways = 6 ways
Words with N and I and L fixed : NIL CEP, = 1 ways
Total words above = 120+120+120+120 +24+24+6+6+1 = 540
NI L CPE (required word) = 541 th word.
Q.57)
Ans) d
When both of them work together, they finish it in 6 minutes.
Let the two typist be A and B.
Implies,
6 minutes of work of A + 6 minutes of work of B = 100% of the work
4 minutes of work of A + 6 minutes of work of B = 80 % of the work ( since ⅕ of the work is left, it means
20% of the work is done)
Implies 2 minutes of work of A = 20% of the work
So, 10 minutes of work of A = 100% of the work.
So, in 1 minute A does 1/10 of the work
In 1 minutes both A and B does ⅙ of the work
1 minute work of B = ⅙ - 1/10 = 1/15
So, B does the work in 15 minutes.
So, he is the slower typist.
Q.58)
Ans) c
Marked price = Rs. 25000 Formula for successive discounts is
Total Discount = D1 + D2. – D1xD2/100
= 20 + 10 -20x10/100
= 30 – 2
= 28%
Since 100% = 25000
After applying 28% discount, 72% of 25000 = 18000.
Amount spent on repair = 3000.
Total cost price is = 18000 + 3000 = 21000.
Given that selling price is 28000.
Since SP > CP it is profit.
Profit = SP – CP = 28000-21000 = Rs 7000
Profit%= (Profit/CP) x 100
= (7000/21000)x100
= 33.33%
Q.59)
Ans) a
The entire dial of the clock = 360 degree
Every 5 minutes = 360/12 = 30 degrees
Radius of clock = 14 cm
So, the angle swept between 9am to 9:35 am (total 35 minutes) θ= 30x7 = 210 degrees.
Area covered =π (r^2) θ
(22/7) x 14x 14 x (210/360) = 359.99 square cm.
Q.60)
Ans) b
Total tickets to be bought = 25
Maximum discount will ensure minimum price of ticket.
Maximum discount is for a set of 18 tickets, that is 25%, then remaining 7 can be bought in a set of 6 and 1.
So, he will buy a set of 18 tickets, set of 6 tickets, 1 ticket
18 tickets at discount of 25% = 18x(40x0.75) = Rs 540
6 tickets at a discount of 10% = 6x (40 x 0.9) = Rs 216
Rest 1 ticket at Rs40
Total money spent = Rs (540+216+40) = Rs 796
Money spent per ticket = Rs 796/25 = Rs 31.84
Q.61)
Ans) c
The passage states that International sanctions are becoming powerless as countries enjoy the right to
pursue their own security interests’, which implies that they have national sovereignty to pursue their
interest, so it’s difficult to impose external restrictions on sovereign countries. Hence statement 1 is
correct.
The passage mentions that ‘Some countries neither confirm nor deny the possessions of nuclear
weapons.’ So, this is nothing but strategic ambiguity. Hence statement 2 is correct.
The passage states that ‘The enforcement of NPT and CTBT depend heavily on willingness of states to
comply’, implies there is limited option for enforcement of international treaties, as it can’t be enforced
forcefully. So, statement 3 is correct.
The passage mentions that ‘Some countries may view nuclear weapons as essential to their national
security.’ But the statement 4 says all the countries, which is not true. Hence statement 4 is incorrect.
Q.62)
Ans) d
The passage states that ‘Offensive nuclear expansion refers to a strategy where a nation seeks to expand
its nuclear arsenal and capabilities as a means of exercising influence and power in the globe’, hence
statement 1 is a valid assumption.
The passage mentions that ‘This approach involves not only the acquisition of new nuclear weapons but
also the development of new delivery systems’ so this assumes that new(contemporary) nuclear weapons
can’t rely(use) old delivery system. Hence statement 2 is a valid assumption.
The passage states that ‘This can create a dangerous cycle of competition and escalation, which can
ultimately lead to the use of nuclear weapons.’, so this assumes that it is dangerous for world peace.
Hence statement 3 is valid assumption.
Q.63)
Ans) c
The passage states that ‘Despite the overwhelming evidence and warnings from experts, there are still
individuals and groups who deny the reality of climate change’, so it assumes that the scientific consensus
has been questioned. hence statement 1 is an invalid assumption.
The passage mentions various arguments of people who do not believe in the reality of climate change.
So, there are arguments being put forth, hence statement 2 is an invalid assumption.
The passage states that ‘poor countries might be unable to switch to them’, but this is just about poor
countries, we can’t infer that many countries can’t afford them. Hence statement 3 is an invalid
assumption.
The passage explains that ‘Fossil fuels emit too much greenhouse gas emissions which are strenuous to
contain’, so it assumes that Reducing greenhouse gas emissions is not an easy task. Hence statement 4 is
a valid assumption.
Q.64)
Ans) d
Weekly wages earlier = Rs 1200 for total hours 50.
Hourly wages = Rs 1200/50 = Rs 24 per hour
Increase in hourly wage = 12.5 %
New hourly wage = {24x(100+12.5)/100} = Rs 27 per hour.
Weekly working hour reduced by 8%
So the new weekly working hours = {50x(100-8)/100} = 46 hours.
So now the new wages he will receive = Rs 27 x 46 = Rs 1242
Increase in wages = Rs 1242-1200 = Rs 42
Percentage change = (42/1200)x 100 = 3.5%
Q.65)
Ans) c
LCM of 2,3,4 = 12
The number will be of the form 12n + 1
As when divided by 2,3,4 it leaves a remainder of 1.
The highest three digit number is 999.
999 divided by 12 gives 3, implies (999-3= 996) is divisible by 12.
So, the highest three digit number which when divided by 2,3,4 leaves a remainder of 1 is (996+1) = 997
Q.66)
Ans) d
The six-digit number = 469xy5
Divisibility rule of 125 -> The number formed by the hundred, tens, and units digit of the number must be
divisible by 125
Thus, 3-digit multiples of 125 = 125, 250, 375, 500, 625, 750, 875,
As we have 5 in the unit digit
So, here xy5 cannot be 250, 500, 750
So, Possible values of xy5 = 125, 375, 625, 875
Possible values of xy = 12, 37, 62, 87
Thus, there are 4 such digit six-digit.
Q.67)
Ans) a
Average of twelve number = 42
Average of last five number = 40
Average of first four number = 44
Sum of twelve number = 42 × 12 = 504
Sum of last five number = 40 × 5 = 200
Sum of first four number = 44 × 4 = 176
Sum of 5th, 6th and 7th number = 504 - (200 + 176) = 128
Let the 6th number = x
 5th number = × + 6
 7th number = x + 5
 x + (x + 6) + (x + 5) = 128
 3x = 117
 x = 39
 6th number = 39
 7th number = 39 + 5 = 44
Average of 6th and 7th number = (39+44)/2 = 41.5
Q.68)
Ans) a
The clock loses 16 minutes in 24 hours.
This clock shows 23 Hour 44mins = Actual correct clock time is 24 Hours
23 + 44/60 Hours(minutes converted into Hours) = 24 Hours 23 + 11/15 Hours = 24 Hours
Now, for 1 Hour = 24 × 15/(15 × 23 + 11) = 24 × 15/(356)
So, for 89 Hours = 24 × 15/(356) × 89 = 6 × 15 = 90 Hours
The true time of clock is (90 - 89 = 1Hour) more than the current showing time
= 10 p.m. on 4th day + 1 Hour
= 11 p.m. on 4th day.
Q.69)
Ans) d
Amount of water and milk in the solution = 25% and 75%
The total amount of solution = 100 L
New percentage of milk or water in the required mixture = 50%
Amount of water in the initial solution = 25% × 100 L = 25 L
Amount of milk in the initial solution = 75% × 100 L = 75 L
Let x liter of water is added.
Hence,
 (25 + ×/ (100 + ×) × 100 = 50
 (25 + ×/ (100 + ×) = ½
 50 + 2x = 100 + x
x = 50 It
Q.70)
Ans) b
Let total number be students be 100
Number of boys = 100 × (60/100) = 60
Number of girls = 100 - 60 = 40
Number of passed boys = 60 × (80/100) = 48
Number of passed girls = 40 × (65/100) = 26
Total passed students = 48 + 26 = 74
Required percentage = (74/100\ × 100 = 74%
Q.71)
Ans) d
The passage emphasizes that the production process in agriculture is complex, involving multiple
dimensions such as selecting appropriate technologies, allocating resources over time, and adapting to
dynamic conditions. It also discusses the various risks farmers face and the role of government policy in
shaping agricultural markets. Therefore, the most logical inference that can be drawn is that
understanding the theory of agricultural production necessitates analyzing both microeconomic and
macroeconomic factors.
Q.72)
Ans) b
Statement 1 is incorrect: This assumption is not valid in the text because the passage explicitly states
that algorithmic analysis requires the use of sophisticated mathematical tools, including combinatorics,
probability theory, and graph theory. These advanced tools are necessary to precisely characterize the
performance and correctness of algorithms. By stating that sophisticated mathematical tools are
required, the passage implies that basic mathematical tools alone would not be sufficient for accurately
analyzing algorithms.
Statement 2 is correct: This assumption is valid in the text because the passage mentions that the study
of algorithms is a constantly evolving field. As new problems and applications emerge, they require
innovative solutions, which implies that the field is in a constant state of change and advancement. The
passage further states that to stay at the forefront of algorithmic research and development, one must be
committed to lifelong learning and continuous exploration of new ideas and techniques. This emphasizes
the importance of staying updated and adaptable in a field that is continuously evolving.
Q.73)
Ans) c
Exp) option c is the correct answer.
The central idea of the given passage focuses on the requirements for mastering algorithm design and
analysis. The passage highlights the importance of understanding fundamental principles such as
recursion, iteration, and dynamic programming. Additionally, it emphasizes the need for sophisticated
mathematical tools, familiarity with various algorithmic paradigms, and a commitment to continuous
learning.
Q.74)
Ans) c
The passage clearly states that in order to make progress in understanding consciousness, a
multidisciplinary approach that draws on insights from various fields such as neuroscience, psychology,
philosophy, and others is necessary. This is because consciousness is a complex phenomenon that resists
objective analysis and cannot be directly observed or measured.
Q.75)
Ans) b
Let the 5 consecutive integers be 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5.
The average of 5 consecutive integers from 1 to 5 is 3.
Therefore, the value of m is 1 and the value of n is 3.
So, m + 2 = 3
9 consecutive integers starting from m + 2 will be 3, 4, ... , 11
Their average is 7.
We know that, n = 3.
So, 7 has to be (n + 4)
Q.76)
Ans) d
For three digit lock the possible combination can be 10 x 10 x 10 = 1000
For each combination 6 seconds are needed
Total time needed is 6000 seconds or
 6000/60
100 minutes
Q.77)
Ans) b
Let the sum be P.
Given, rate = 20%, T = 2 years
SI = (P × 20 × 2)/100
= SI = 0.4P
For Compound interest
=> A= P (1+20/100)2
 A = P × 1.22
 A= 1.44P
 CI = A – P
 CI = 1.44P - P = 0.44P
Given difference between Cl and SI is Rs 48
 0.44P - 0.4P = 48
 0.04P = 48
P = 1200
Q.78)
Ans) a
It is given that, a1, a2, a3,..... Shakti, Rashmi, ...., a22 write an examination.
Also given that, Average score of the 21 students other than Rashmi = 61
So, the (Total Score - Rashmi's score) = 61 x 21 ------------------ (1)
Given that Shakti scored 81 —————————(2)
and when Shakti leaves, the average score drops down by 1 mark (“The average score of all the 22
students is one more than the average score of the 21 students if we drop Shakti”).
This means that Shakti scored more than the Overall class average.
Since his departure has resulted in the decrease of the overall class average by 1, his score is 21 more than
the average.
So shakti’s marks = Overall Class average + 21
Using equation 2:
Overall Class average = 81 - 21 = 60 marks
So Total Score = 60 x 22————————————————(3)
From equation 1,
Total Score - Rashmi's score = 61 x 21
Using equation 1, 2 and 3,
60 x 22 - 61 x 21 = Rashmi's score
1320 - 1281 = Rashmi's score
Rashmi's score = 39 marks
Q.79)
Ans) a
Bill of Chinese items = Rs 126, and Chinese items are marked up at 40%,
So, using formula for Cost price and sale price,
The cost price for Chinese items are = (126X100)/140 = Rs 90
The bill for Tandoor items are Rs 180 and the Tandoor items are marked up at 50%.
So, the cost price for the Tandoor items are = (180x100)/ 150 = Rs 120
The bill for Indian items are Rs.300 and Indian items are marked up at 25%
So, the cost price for Indian items are (300x100)/125 = Rs 240
The price for Thai items are marked up at 75% and the bill paid for thai item is Rs.245
So, the cost price for Thai items are (245x100)/ 175 = Rs 140
The bill paid for Mexican items are Rs.210 and the Mexican items are marked up at 75%.
So, the cost price for Mexican items are (210x100)/175 = Rs 120
So, now the cost price for all the items are = Rs (90+120+240+140+120) = Rs 710
Bill paid = Rs (126+180+300+245=210) = Rs 1061
Profit % = [(1061-710)/710]x 100 = 49.43%
Q.80)
Ans) a
To find the first possible day when the mayor can organize the special event, we need to consider the
schedules of the three parks, and find a prime number that doesn't coincide with their usual flag days.
Park A puts up flags every 2 days, so the days are: 2, 4, 6, 8, 10, ..., 50
Park B puts up flags every 3 days, so the days are: 3, 6, 9, 12, ..., 48
Park C puts up flags every 5 days, so the days are: 5, 10, 15, 20, ..., 50
We need to find a prime number that doesn't belong to any of these sets within the range of 1 to 50.
Prime numbers in the range of 1 to 50 are: 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, 23, 29, 31, 37, 41, 43, 47
Now we can exclude the prime numbers that coincide with the flag days of the parks:
Since 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 are already taken
The first free date is 7th which is not part of any park's flag day schedule.
Therefore, the mayor can organize the special event on the 7th day.

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PTS 2023 | CSAT Simulator Test 4 - Solutions |

Let V1, V2 and V3 be the speeds of the cars.

Seat 1 Seat Seat 3 Seat 4 Seat 5 Seat 6 Seat 7

Cyrus Eden Fig/Eden Bob Derek/Cyrus Grey/Aman Aman/Grey

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