2025-JEE Main - 3_Paper_10 July (1)

JEE Main - 3 | JEE - 2025
Date: 10/07/2024 Maximum Marks: 300
Timing: 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM Duration: 3.0 Hours
General Instructions
1. The test is of 3 hours duration and the maximum marks is 300.
2. The question paper consists of 3 Parts (Part I: Physics, Part II: Chemistry, Part III: Mathematics). Each Part
has two sections (Section 1 & Section 2).
3. Section 1 contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of
which ONLY ONE CHOICE is correct.
4. Section 2 contains 10 Numerical Value Type Questions Out of which ONLY 5 (any) questions have to be
attempted. You will NOT be allowed to attempt the sixth question. If you wish to attempt any other
question apart from the five already attempted, then you will have to delete any one response from the
five previously answered and then proceed to answer the new one.
The answer to each of these questions is an Integer ranging from 0 to 999 (Both Inclusive).
5. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile
phone, any electronic device, etc. inside the examination room/hall.
6. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the
Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
Marking Scheme
1. Section – 1: +4 for correct answer, –1 (negative marking) for incorrect answer, 0 for all other cases.
2. Section – 2: +4 for correct answer, –1 (negative marking) for incorrect answer, 0 for all other cases.
Name of the Candidate (In CAPITALS) :
Roll Number :
OMR Bar Code Number :

Candidate's Signature : Invigilator's Signature
Syllabus
Physics: Magnetism, EMI
Chemistry: Liquid Solutions, Chemical Kinetics, Electrochemistry (Both Part A and B)
Mathematics: DC – I, DC - II
Vidyamandir Classes : Innovating For Your Success
PART I: PHYSICS MARKS: 100

SECTION-1
This section contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which
ONLY ONE CHOICE is correct.
1. A current carrying wire is placed in the grooves of an insulating semi-circular disc of radius 'R', as
shown. The current enters at point A and leaves from point B. Determine the magnetic field at point D.
0 I 0 I 30 I 0 I
(A) (B) (C) (D)
8R 3 4R 3 4R 4R
2. Two identical short magnetic dipoles of magnetic moments 1.0 A − m 2 each are placed at a separation of
2m with their axes perpendicular to each other. The resultant magnetic field at a point midway between
the dipoles is:
(A) 5 10−7 T (B) 5 10−7 T (C) 10−7 T (D) 2 10−7 T

3. A coil has 20 turns and area of each turn is 0.2m2 . If the plane of the coil makes an angle of 60º with the
direction of magnetic field of 0.1 Tesla, then the magnetic flux associated with the coil will be:
(A) 0.4 Wb (B) 0.346 Wb (C) 0.2 Wb (D) 0.02 Wb
4. If the length and area of cross-section of an inductor remain same but the number of turns is doubled, its
self-inductance will become:
(A) half (B) four times (C) double (D) one-fourth
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
Code A | Page 2 JEE Main – 3 | JEE-2025

5. An inductor of inductance L = 200 mH and resistor of resistances

R1 = 4 and R2 = 2 are connected to a battery of emf 12 V as shown
in the figure. The internal resistance of the battery is negligible. The
switch S is closed at t = 0. The potential drop across L as a function of
time is:
12 −3t
(A) 12e−10tV (B) e V (C) 6 (1 − e−t /0.2 )V (D) 12e−5tV
t
6. In a uniform magnetic field of induction B, a wire in the form of semi-circle of radius r rotates about the
diameter of the circle with angular frequency  . Initially the plane of loop is perpendicular to the
magnetic field. Find the net charge flown in the loop in half rotation.
Br 2 Br 2 2Br 2 Br 2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
R 2R R 3R
7. Match List I with List II.
List I List II
(Current configuration) (Magnitude of Magnetic Field at point O)
0 I
P I. B0 =   + 2
4r
0 I
Q II. B0 =
4 r
0 I
R III. B0 =   − 1
2r
0 I
S IV. B0 =   + 1
4r
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) P – I, Q – III, R – IV, S – II (B) P – II, Q – I, R – IV, S – III
(C) P – III, Q – IV, R – I, S – II (D) P – III, Q – I, R – IV, S – II

8. Two coils are at fixed locations. When coil 1 has no current and the current in coil 2 increases at the rate
15.0 A/s, the emf in coil 1 is 25.0 mV. When coil 2 has no current and coil 1 has a current of 3.6 A, flux
linkage in coil 2 is:
(A) 16 mWb (B) 10 mWb (C) 4.00 mWb (D) 6.00 mWb
9. A square frame of side 10 cm and a long straight wire carrying current 1A
are in the plane of the paper. Starting from close to the wire, the frame
moves towards right with a constant speed of 40 m/s. The induced emf in
the frame at the time the left arm is at x =10cm from the wire is:
(A) 4 V (B) 1V
(C) 0.75 V (D) 0.5 V
10. A metal conductor of length 1 m rotates vertically about one of its ends at an angular velocity of 10
radians per second. If the horizontal component of Earth’s magnetic field is 0.2 10−4 T, then the e.m.f.
developed between the two ends of the conductor is:
(A) 5mV (B) 50 V (C) 5 V (D) 100 V
11. A uniform magnetic field B = (3iˆ + 4 ˆj + kˆ) exists in region of space. A semicircular wire of radius 1 m
carrying current 1 A having its centre at (2, 2, 0) is placed in x-y plane as shown in figure. The force on
semicircular wire will be:
(A) 2(iˆ + ˆj + kˆ) (B) 2(iˆ − ˆj + kˆ) (C) 2(iˆ + ˆj − kˆ) (D) 2(−iˆ + ˆj + kˆ)

12. A current I ampere flows along an infinitely long straight thin walled tube, then the magnetic induction
at any point inside the tube is:
0 2 I 2I
(A) Infinite (B) Zero (C)  T (D) T
4 r r
13. A square loop is carrying a steady current I and the magnitude of its magnetic dipole moment is m. If this
square loop is changed to an equilateral triangle and it carries the same current, the magnitude of the
magnetic dipole moment of equilateral triangle will be:
4 3m 4 3m 2 3m 3m
(A) (B) (C) (D)
9 7 9 9
14. Proton, deuteron and alpha particles of same momentum are moving in circular trajectories in a constant
magnetic field. The radii of proton, deuteron and alpha particle are respectively rp , rd and r . Which
one of the following relation is correct?
(A) r = rp = rd (B) r  rp = rd (C) r  rd  rp (D) r = rd  rp
15. A charged particle moves in a magnetic field B = 10 iˆ with initial velocity u = 5iˆ + 4 ˆj . The ratio of
radius to pitch of helix is:
7 55 4 5
(A) (B) (C) (D)
55 7 5 4
16. Dimensions of coefficient of self-induction are:
(A) MLT −2 A−2 (B) ML−2T −2 A−2 (C) ML2T −2 A−2 (D) M 2 LT −2 A−2
17. A charged particle with charge q enters a region of constant, uniform and mutually orthogonal fields E
and B with a velocity v perpendicular to both E and B and comes out without any change in
magnitude or direction of v . Then:
B E B E
(A) v =E (B) v =B (C) v =E (D) v = B
B2 B2 E2 E2

18. A long conducting wire having a current I flowing through it, is bent into a circular coil of N turns. Then
it is bent into a circular coil of n turns. The magnetic field is calculated at the centre of coils in both the
cases. The ratio of the magnetic field in first case to that of second case is:
(A) n2 : N 2 (B) N 2 : n2 (C) N :n (D) n:N
19. A current carrying wire AB of the length 2R is turned along a circle, as shown in figure. The magnetic
field at the centre O is:
2
 0i  2  −    0i  2  −    0i 0i
(A)   (B)   (C) ( 2 −  ) (D) ( 2 +  ) 2
2 R  2  2 R  2  2R 2R
20. A coil of radius 1 cm and 100 turns is placed coaxially at the centre of a long solenoid of radius 5 cm and
8 turn/cm. The value of coefficient of mutual induction will be:
(A) 3.15 10−5 H (B) 6 10−5 H (C) 9 10−5 H (D) zero

SECTION-2
Section 2 contains 10 Numerical Value Type Questions Out of which ONLY 5 (any) questions have to be attempted.
1. A copper wire having resistance 0.01 ohm in each metre is used to wind a 400 turns solenoid of radius
1.0 cm and length 20 cm. Then the emf of a battery (in volt) which when connected across the solenoid
will cause a magnetic field of 1.0 10−2 T near the centre of the solenoid.
2. A charged particle is accelerated through a potential difference of 24 kV and acquires a speed of
2  106 m / s. It is then injected perpendicularly into a magnetic field of strength 0.2 T. The radius
(in cm) of the circle described by it is x. Find x.
3. A magnetic field of strength 1.0 T is produced by a strong electromagnet in a cylindrical region of
diameter 4.0 cm as shown in figure. A wire, carrying a current of 2.0 A, is placed perpendicular to and
intersecting the axis of the cylindrical region. If the magnitude of the force acting on the wire is
x  10−2 N , then find the value of x.
4. The coil of a galvanometer consists of 100 turns of total resistance 5 and effective area of 1 cm2. The
restoring couple is 10−8 Nm rad −1 . The magnetic field between poles is of 5 T. Voltage sensitivity of
−1
this galvanometer is x 10 radV . Find x.
6
5. An experimenter’s diary reads as following; “a charged particle is projected in a magnetic field of

(7.0 iˆ − 3.0 ˆj ) 10−3T . The acceleration of the particle is found to be ( xiˆ + 7.0 ˆj ) 10−6 m / s2 ” .
Then the value of x is ____________.

6. A uniform magnetic field given by B = 3iˆ + 4 ˆj + 5kˆ exists in a region. A rod of length 6 m placed along
y-axis is moved along x-axis with constant speed 1 m/sec. Then induced e.m.f in the rod will be xV.
Find x.
7. Figure shows a coil placed in decreasing magnetic field applied
perpendicular to the plane of coil. The magnetic field is
decreasing at a rate of 10T / s . Find the current (in ampere)
induced in the coil.
8. For the given circuit the current through battery of 6 V just after closing the switch ‘S’ will be_____ A.
9. A long straight wire of radius a carries a steady current I. The current is uniformly distributed across its
a
cross-section. The ratio of the magnetic field at and 3a is x. Find x.
3
10. A capacitor of capacitance 500F is charged completely using a dc supply of 100V. It is now
connected to an inductor of inductance 50 mH to form an LC circuit. The maximum current in LC circuit
will be______ A.

PART II: CHEMISTRY MARKS: 100
SECTION-1
1. The unit of rate constant for second order reaction is:
(A) s−1 (B) mol L−1 s −1 (C) mol−1 L s −1 (D) mol2 L−2 s −1
2. The decomposition of H2O2 can be followed by titration with KMnO4 and is found to be a first order
reaction. The rate constant is 4.5 10−2 min −1 . In an experiment, the initial titre value was 25 mL. The
titre value will be 5 mL after a lapse of:
log e 5
(A) 4.5 10−2  5 min (B) min
4.5 10−2
log e 5 / 4 log10 5
(C) min (D) min
4.5 10−2 4.5 10−2
3
3. Starting with one mol of a compound A, it is found that the reaction is th completed in 1 hour.
4
Calculate the rate constant if the half-life of the reaction does not depend on concentration.
(A) 1.386 hr −1 (B) 1.892 hr −1 (C) 2 hr −1 (D) 0.5 hr −1

4. 20 mL of KOH solution was titrated with 0.20 M H2SO4 solution in a conductivity cell. The data
obtained were plotted to give the graph shown below.
The concentration of the KOH solution was:

(A) 0.30 mol L−1 (B) 0.15 mol L−1
(C) 0.12 mol L−1 (D) 0.075 mol L−1
5. In the formation of HBr from H2 and Br2, following mechanism is observed:
I. Br2 2Br • (Equilibrium step)
II. H 2 + Br • → HBr + H• (Slow step)
III. H• + Br2 → HBr + Br • (Fast step)
The rate law for the above reaction is:
(A) r = k[H2 ][Br2 ] (B) r = k[H2 ][Br2 ]1/2
(C) r = k[H2 ]1/2 [Br2 ] (D) r = k[H2 ]1/2 [Br2 ]1/2
6. The partial pressure of ethane over a saturated solution containing 6.56 10−2 g of ethane is 1 bar. If the
solution contains 5  10−2 g of ethane, then what shall be the partial pressure of the gas in bar?
(A) 0.76 (B) 0.84 (C) 0.66 (D) 0.92

7. For a given hypothetical elementary parallel reaction,
k1 1
where, =
k2 2
Initially only 2 moles of A are present. The total number of moles of A, B and C at the end of 75%
reaction are:
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 3.5
8. Which of the following cannot form an azeotrope?
(A) H2O + C2H5OH (B) CHCl3 + C2H5OH
(C) HCl + H2O (D) Benzene + Toluene
9. The rate constant for a first order reaction becomes six times when the temperature is raised from 350 K
to 400 K. Calculate the activation energy for the reaction.
 R = 8.3 J K −1 mol−1, ln 6 = 1.8
 
(A) 41.8 kJ mol−1 (B) 418.0 kJ mol−1
(C) 4.18 kJ mol−1 (D) 4180 kJ mol−1
10. In the electrolysis of 7.2 L aqueous solution of CuSO4, a current of 9.65 A passed for 2 hours
Calculate the weight of Cu deposited at cathode.  Given : (M 0 )Cu = 63.5gm / mol
(A) 24.32 g (B) 35.68 g (C) 22.86 g (D) 30 g

11. 5 moles of liquid X and 10 moles of liquid Y make a solution having a total vapour pressure 70 torr. The
vapour pressure of pure X and pure Y are 64 torr and 76 torr respectively. Which of the following is true
regarding the described solution?
(A) The solution shows positive deviation
(B) The solution shows negative deviation
(C) The solution is ideal
(D) The solution has volume greater than the sum of individual volumes
12. In a given cell, the overall cell reaction is: Mg(s) + 2Ag + (0.0001M) → Mg 2+ (0.1M) + 2Ag(s)
 2.303RT 
Calculate its Ecell if Ecell = 3.21V. Given : = 0.06
 F 
(A) 4.96 V (B) 3V (C) 3.46 V (D) 4.04 V
13. The diagram given below depicts the boiling point as the function of composition of the mixture of CCl 4
and SiCl4. Which of the following statements about the diagram is incorrect?
(I) The point a represents the composition of solution and the point b that of the vapour at
equilibrium
(II) The proportion of CCl4 in the solution is smaller than that in the vapour at equilibrium
(III) bc represents the condensation of the vapour
(IV) The point c represents the composition of solution and the point b that of the vapour at
equilibrium
(A) I, II and III (B) I and II (C) II and IV (D) Only IV

k k
14. For the consecutive unimolecular-type first order reaction A ⎯⎯
1 → R ⎯⎯
2 → S, the concentration of
A, (At) at any time t is given by:

[Where A0 is the initial concentration]
At = A0e( 1 2 ) t A t = A0e ( 1 2 ) t
k +k − k +k
(A) (B)
(C) At = A0e−k1t (D) At = A0ek1t

15. The forward rate constant for the elementary reversible gaseous reaction:
C2H6 (g) 2CH3 (g) is 1.57 10−3 s−1 at 100K
What is the rate constant for the backward reaction at this temperature if 10−4 moles of CH3 and 10
moles of C2H6 are present in a 10 litre vessel at equilibrium.
(A) 1.57 109 L mol−1 s −1 (B) 1.57 1010 L mol−1 s −1
(C) 1.57 1011 L mol−1 s −1 (D) 1.57 107 L mol−1 s −1
16. Find the EMF of the concentration cell represented as given below:
Pt, H2 (2 atm)| H2SO4 (0.01 M)||HCl(0.1M)|H2 (1 atm), Pt
Given: (log 2 = 0.3 )
(A) 0.05 V (B) 0.10 V (C) 0.27 V (D) 0.54 V

17. The rate of radioactive decay of a sample are 3 108 dps and 3107 dps after time 20 min and 43.03
min respectively. The fraction of radioactive sample decaying per second is equal to:
1
(A) (B) 1 (C) 0.5 (D) 0.001
600
18. In a lead storage battery:
(I) Pb is oxidized to PbSO4 at the anode while discharging
(II) PbO2 is reduced to PbSO4 at the cathode while discharging
(III) Both electrodes are immersed in the same aqueous solution of H2SO4
(IV) Density of H2SO4 solution remain unchanged during discharging
Identify correct statement(s):
(A) I, II and III (B) I and II (C) II and IV (D) I and III
19. Dry air was passed successively through a solution of 5 gm of solute in 180 gm of water and then
through pure water. The loss in the weight of solution was 2.50 gm and that of pure solvent was 0.04 gm.
The molecular weight of the solute (in gm) is:
(A) 31.25 (B) 62.5 (C) 312.5 (D) None of these

20. The limiting ionic conductivity (0 ) values (in mS m 2 mol−1 ) for different ions in aqueous solutions
are given below:
Ions Ag + K+ Na + H+ NO− 3 Cl− SO2− 4 OH− CH COO− 3
0 6.2 7.4 5.0 35.0 7.2 7.6 16.0 19.9 4.1
For different combinations of titrates and titrants given in List-I, the graphs of ‘conductance’ versus
‘volume of titrant’ are given in List-II.
Match each entry in List-I with the appropriate entry in List-II and choose the correct option.
List-I List-II
(P) Titrate : KCl (1)
Titrant : AgNO3
(Q) Titrate : AgNO3 (2)

Titrant : KCl
(R) Titrate : NaOH (3)

Titrant : HCl
(S) Titrate : NaOH (4)

Titrant : CH3COOH
(A) P → 3,Q → 2, R → 1,S → 4 (B) P → 1,Q → 3, R → 2,S → 4

(C) P → 2,Q → 3, R → 1,S → 4 (D) P → 1,Q → 3, R → 4,S → 2

SECTION-2
1. A 20% solution of cane sugar having dextrorotation of 60, inverted by 0.5 N lactic acid at 298 K. The
optical rotations determined are as follows:
Time (min) 0 15 
Rotation () 60 40 –10
The value of rate constant k is ___________ 10−3 . [Nearest Integer]

[Given log 7 = 0.85, log 5 = 0.7]
2. Consider the electrode: Ag(s) | AgCl(s), Cl− (aq.)(0.1M), i.e., sliver electrode in contact with 0.1 M
KCl solution saturated with AgCl. If it is combined with the electrode Ag(s) | Ag + (aq.) (0.1M) to form
a complete cell, the EMF of this cell is a 10−2 . Find the value of a ___________.
 −10 RT 
 Given : Ksp of AgCl = 10 at 25C and ln x = 0.06log10 x 
 F 
3. Two liquids A and B form an ideal solution. At 300 K, the vapour pressure of a solution containing 1
mole of A and 3 mole of B is 550 mm of Hg. At the same temperature, if one more mole of B is added to
this solution, the vapour pressure of the solution increases by 10 mm of Hg. The sum of vapour pressures
of A and B in their pure states is a 102 (mm of Hg). Find the value of a ___________.
4. The Ecell for a given cell is 1.2346 V and 1.2340 V at 300 K and 310 K, respectively. Calculate the
magnitude of change in entropy (in J K–1 ) during the cell reaction if the electron change is three in the
reaction. [Given 1F = 96500 C] [Nearest Integer]
5. 1 F of electricity is passed through 10 L of an aqueous solution of NaCl. Calculate the pH of the solution.

6. 224 mL of HCl(g) at 1 atm and 298 K is passed through 100 mL of 0.1 M NaOH solution. The non-
volatile solute produced is dissolved in 36 g of water. The lowering of vapour pressure of solution
(assuming the solution is dilute) is x 10−2 mm of Hg, the value of X is ___________.
(Po
(H 2O) = 24 mm of Hg )
7. The molar conductivity of acetic acid at infinite dilution is 390.7 Scm 2 mol−1 and for 0.01 M acetic
acid is 3.907 S cm 2 mol−1. Calculate the pH of solution.
8. Gadolinium-153, which is used to detect osteoporosis, has a half life of 245 days. Find the average life of
the nucleus in days? (Use ln 2 = 0.7)
9. The resistance of 0.01 N solution of an electrolyte is 210  at 298 K with a cell constant of
0.84 cm −1. Calculate the equivalent conductivity of the solution in S cm 2 eq −1 .
10. 1.4 g of acetone dissolved in 100 g of benzene gave a solution which freezes at 277.12 K. Pure benzene
freezes at 278.4 K. 2.8 g of solid (A) dissolved in 100 g of benzene gave a solution which freezes at
277.76 K. Calculate the molecular mass of solid (A).

PART III: MATHEMATICS MARKS: 100
SECTION-1
1. Let the function f ( x) be defined as
 ln x − 1
 , xe
f ( x) =  x − e
k , x=e
The value of k, for which the function is continuous at x = e, is equal to:
1
(A) e (B) (C) e2 (D) −e
e
2. Let f ( x) = | x |sin x + | x 2 − 2 |cos x, then the number of points where y = f ( x) is NOT
differentiable is/are:
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3
x3 x2
3. If all real values of m for which the function f ( x) = − (m − 3) + mx − 2020 is strictly increasing
3 2
for x  R is [a, b] then a + b is:
(A) 9 (B) 10 (C) 11 (D) 12
 x
4. Let g ( x) = 3 f   + f (3 − x) and f "( x)  0 for all x  (0, 3). If g is decreasing in (0, ) and
3
increasing in (, 3), then 8 is:
(A) 24 (B) 0 (C) 18 (D) 20

 3sin x   4 x 
5. lim  + is ([.] denotes greatest integer function).
x→0  x    tan x 
(A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 7 (D) Does not exist
6. The acute angle of intersection of the curves x 2 y = 1 & y = x 2 in the first quadrant is  , then tan  is
the root of the equation _________.
(A) 3x2 + x − 4 = 0 (B) 3x2 + 7 x + 4 = 0

(C) 3x2 − x − 4 = 0 (D) 4 x2 − 7 x + 3 = 0
7. If f ( x) = 2 x + cot −1 x + log ( 1+ x − x),

2
then f (x)
(A) increases in [0, ) (B) decreases in [0, )

(C) neither increases not decreases in (0, ) (D) increases in (−, )
8. Let f ( x) = 1 + 3 x 2 + 32 x 4 + .......... + 330 x 60 then f ( x) has:

(A) atleast one maxima (B) exactly one maxima
(C) atleast one minima (D) exactly one minima
9. ( )
The range of values of k for which the function f ( x) = k − 7k + 12 cos x + 2(k − 4) x + log 2 does
2
not posses the critical points is:

(A) (1, 5) (B) (1, 5) – {4} (C) (0, 4) (D) (0, 5)

10. A wire of length 20 m is to be cut into two pieces. A piece of length l1 is bent to make a square of area
A1 and the other piece of length l2 is made into a circle of area A2 . If 2 A1 + 3 A2 is minimum then
(l1): l2 is equal to:
(A) 6:1 (B) 3:1 (C) 1:6 (D) 4:1
11. The function, in which Rolle’s Theorem is verified, is:
 x2 + ab 
f ( x) = log 
 ( a + b ) x 
(A) in [a, b] (where 0 < a < b)
 
(B) f ( x) = ( x − 1) (2 x − 3) in [1, 3]
(C) f ( x) = 2 + ( x − 1) 2/3 in [1, 3]

1
(D) f ( x) = cos in [−1, 1]
x
The sum of the absolute maximum and minimum values of the function f ( x) = x − 5 x + 6 − 3x + 2 in
2
12.
the interval [–1, 3] is equal to:

(A) 10 (B) 12 (C) 13 (D) 24


 2n , n = 2, 4, 6, 8, ____

13. Let a function f : N → N be defined by f (n) =  n − 1, n = 3, 7, 11, 15, ____ then, f is:
 n +1
 , n = 1, 5, 9, 13, ____
 2
(A) one-one but not onto (B) onto but not one-one
(C) neither one-one nor onto (D) one-one and onto
14. The greatest value of f ( x) = ( x + 1)1/3 − ( x − 1)1/3 on [0, 1] is:

1
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D)
3
ax + b
15. If the function y = has an extremum at P(2, − 1) , then the value of a and b are:
( x − 4)( x − 1)
(A) a = 0, b = 1 (B) a = 0, b = −1 (C) a = 1, b = 0 (D) a = −1, b = 0
  5 
16. The value of c in Langarange’s Theorem for the function f ( x) = log sin x in the interval  ,  is:
6 6 
  2
(A) (B) (C) (D) No value of ‘c’
4 2 3

17. The f ( x) = [ x]2 − [ x]2 , (where [.] denotes the greatest integer function) is continuous at ________.
(A) all integers (B) all integers except 0 and 1
(C) all integers except 0 (D) all integers except 1
 x + y  f ( x) + f ( y )
18. Let f : R → R be a function such that f  = , f (0) = 0 and f '(0) = 3 , then:
 3  3
(A) f ( x) is quadratic function (B) f ( x) is continuous but not differentiable
(C) f ( x) is differentiable in R (D) f ( x) is bounded in R
d2y 
19. If x = 2sin t − sin 2t , y = 2cos t − cos 2t , then the value of 2
at t = is:
dx 2
1 3 3
(A) 2 (B) − (C) − (D) −
2 4 2
20. f ( x) = tan −1 (sin x + cos x)3 is an increasing function in:
        
(A)  0,  (B)  0,  (C) − ,  (D)  , 
 4  2  4 4 4 2

SECTION-2
1. If f ( x) = f (1 − x) and f ( x) differentiable at every real value of x, then the value of
1 1  3
f '   + f '   + f '   is _______.
2  4  4
2. The number of points where g ( x) = min  x − 3 , 9 − x2  ( x  R) is not differentiable is _______.
3. If f is a differentiable function for all real x and f '( x)  5  x  R . If f (2) = 0 and f (5) = 15 value of
f (3) is _______.
4. The natural number n for which lim

( 27 x − 9 x − 3x + 1)( cos x − e x )
is a finite non-zero number, then
x→0 x 2n+1
n is _______.
5. The left-hand derivative of f ( x) = [ x]sin(x) at x = −5 is k  , then k _______.
([.] denotes greatest integer function) ________.

6. If the curves x = y 4 and xy = k cut at right angles, then (4k )6 is equal to ________.
1
7. For a positive value k, ke x − x = 0 has only one root, the find  
k 
([.] denotes greatest integer function)

 x
3/5
if x  1
8. Let f ( x) =  . Then the number of critical points on the graph of the function

 −( x − 2)3
if x  1
is _________.
 [ x] ; 0 x3
9. If f ( x) =  , where [.] denotes greatest integer function, then number of point at
 [ x] + 1 ; −3  x  0
which f ( x) is discontinuous in (−3, 3) , is equal to ______.
3 +  sin x +  cos x + log e (1 − x) 1
10. If lim 2
= , then 2 − is equal to ______.
x→0 3tan x 3
••• End of JEE Main – 3 | JEE – 2025 •••

2025-JEE Main - 3_Paper_10 July (1)

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JEE Main - 3 | JEE - 2025

Date: 10/07/2024 Maximum Marks: 300

Timing: 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM Duration: 3.0 Hours

Name of the Candidate (In CAPITALS) :

OMR Bar Code Number :

PART I: PHYSICS MARKS: 100

(A) 5 10−7 T (B) 5 10−7 T (C) 10−7 T (D) 2 10−7 T

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5. An inductor of inductance L = 200 mH and resistor of resistances

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5. An experimenter’s diary reads as following; “a charged particle is projected in a magnetic field of

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PART II: CHEMISTRY MARKS: 100

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The concentration of the KOH solution was:

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A, (At) at any time t is given by:

(C) At = A0e−k1t (D) At = A0ek1t

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(Q) Titrate : AgNO3 (2)

(R) Titrate : NaOH (3)

(S) Titrate : NaOH (4)

(A) P → 3,Q → 2, R → 1,S → 4 (B) P → 1,Q → 3, R → 2,S → 4

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The value of rate constant k is ___________ 10−3 . [Nearest Integer]

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PART III: MATHEMATICS MARKS: 100

1. Let the function f ( x) be defined as

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(A) 3x2 + x − 4 = 0 (B) 3x2 + 7 x + 4 = 0

7. If f ( x) = 2 x + cot −1 x + log ( 1+ x − x),

(A) increases in [0, ) (B) decreases in [0, )

8. Let f ( x) = 1 + 3 x 2 + 32 x 4 + .......... + 330 x 60 then f ( x) has:

not posses the critical points is:

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(C) f ( x) = 2 + ( x − 1) 2/3 in [1, 3]

the interval [–1, 3] is equal to:

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