JEE Advance FT - 2 (Paper - 2)

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JEE Advance Test |FT - 2 | Paper – 2 | JEE 2025

Date : 07-07-2024 Timing: Maximum Marks: 198

2:00 PM to 5:00 PM Duration: 3.0 Hours

General Instructions
1. The question paper consists of 3 Subject (Subject I: Physics, Subject II: Chemistry, Subject III: Mathematics). Each
Part has four sections (Section 1, Section 2 and Section 3).

2. Section 1 contains 6 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which
ONLY ONE CHOICE is correct.
Section 2 contains 4 Multiple Correct Answers Type Questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D),
out of which ONE OR MORE THAN ONE CHOICE is correct.
Section 3 contains 8 Non-Negative Integer Type Questions. The answer to each question is a NON-NEGATIVE
INTEGER.

3. For answering a question, an ANSWER SHEET (OMR SHEET) is provided separately. Please fill your Test Code, Roll
No. and Group properly in the space given in the ANSWER SHEET.

Syllabus:
Physics : Current and Capacitors

Chemistry : Chemical Kinetics and Electrochemistry

Mathematics : Inverse Trigonometry and Functions


MARKING SCHEME

SECTION – 1 | (Maximum Marks: 12)


 This section contains Six (06) Multiple Choice Questions.
 Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct
answer.
 For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct answer.
 Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme.
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
Negative Marks : −1 In all other cases.

SECTION – 2 | (Maximum Marks: 16)


 This section consists of Four (04) Questions. Each question has FOUR options. ONE OR MORE THAN
ONE of these four option(s) is(are) correct answer(s).
 Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks: +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is(are) chosen
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
Negative Marks : −1 In all other cases.

SECTION – 3 | (Maximum Marks: 32)


 This section contains Eight (08) Questions.
 The answer to each question is a NON-NEGATIVE INTEGER
 Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme.
Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct integer is entered;
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.
JEE ADVANCE TEST | FT - 2 | JEE 2025 (PAPER -2)

PART – I: PHYSICS 66 MARKS


SECTION-1
This section consists of 6 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of
which ONLY ONE CHOICE is correct.

1. Consider the current configuration as shown. The curved parts are quarter circles, lying in three
mutually perpendicular planes. Magnetic field at O is

µ0i  ˆ  2  µ0i  ˆ ˆj  2 − 1 


(A)  i − kˆ + ˆj 1 −   (B) i + kˆ +
8R   π  8 R  π 

µi
(C) 0 iˆ − ˆj + kˆ  (D) Zero
8R  

2. A bar magnet of magnetic moment m and moment of inertia l (about an axis passing through centre
of mass and perpendicular to the magnet) is turned through 90o about the axis of suspension, to be at
right angle to a uniform magnetic field B and then released. The angular velocity of the magnet while
passing through the direction of the field is
2mB l 3mB mB
(A) (B) (C) (D)
l mB 2l 2l

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3. Loops 1, 2, 3 carry same current. Torque on loop 1 is τ and on loop 2 is zero. Torque on loop 3 is

 π  π
(A) τ (B) τ 1 +  (C) τ 1 −  (D) Zero
 2  2

4. In the circuit shown the switch is closed at t = 0 . Reading of ammeter at t = 0 and t = ∞


respectively are

3ε 2ε 3ε 2ε 3ε ε 2ε
(A) , (B) Zero, (C) , (D) ,
4 R 3R 4R 3R 4 R 3R 3R

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JEE ADVANCE TEST | FT - 2 | JEE 2025 (PAPER -2)

5. Shown in the figure is a RLC circuit, In steady state, the ratio of energy stored in the inductor to that
in the capacitor is equal to

L L 16R 2C
(A) (B) (C) 1 (D)
16 R 2C 16 RC L

6. In this figure, reading of voltmeter V is

(A) Zero (B) 90 V (C) 10 V (D) 45 V

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JEE ADVANCE TEST | FT - 2 | JEE 2025 (PAPER -2)

SECTION-2
This section consists of 4 Multiple Correct Answers Type Questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D), out of which ONE OR MORE THAN ONE CHOICE is correct.

7. Consider two horizontal parallel rails connected by a movable conducting connector. Terminals of
the rails are connected by a resistor and a capacitor. A uniform magnetic field perpendicular to the
plane of horizontal rails exists in the region. At any general instant, currents in various branches and
charge on the capacitor are shown. Initially the connector is moving towards right. A constant force
starts acting on the rod towards left. Assuming the rails to be long enough, choose the correct
alternative

(A) Initially i, is in same direction to as shown, i2 is in opposite direction to as shown, q is negative


i1 0,=
(B) At the instant direction of motion of rod reverses,= q 0, i2 ≠ 0
(C) After a long time, i2 = 0, i1 is constant and is in opposite direction to as shown
(D) i3 is in opposite direction to as that shown finally and equals i2

8. In a series LCR circuit, when an alternating voltage of peak value 500 V and angular frequency 100
rad/s is applied, the peak voltage drops across L, C and R could be respectively
(A) 200 V, 300 V, 0 (B) 800 V, 500 V, 400 V
(C) 600 V, 200 V, 300 V (D) 1200 V, 1600 V, 300 V
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JEE ADVANCE TEST | FT - 2 | JEE 2025 (PAPER -2)

9. Consider the circuit as shown in diagram. In steady state

(A) Current through inductor L1 is 25 A (B) Potential difference across L2 is zero


(C) Energy stored in inductor L2 is 1.25 J (D) Current through L2 is zero

10. A rectangular loop made of flexible conducting wire carrying clockwise current is placed in uniform
magnetic field as shown. Choose the correct alternative

(A) The loop develops induced anti clockwise current for a short time
(a + b)
2

(B) The loop finally has area equal to


4
B  ( a + b ) − ab 
2

(C) Induced charge flown through the loop is   , where R is resistance of the loop
R  π 
(D) Centre of mass of the loop does not change its position.
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JEE ADVANCE TEST | FT - 2 | JEE 2025 (PAPER -2)

SECTION-3
This section consists of 8 NON-NEGATIVE INTEGER Type Questions. The answer to each question is a NON-
NEGATIVE INTEGER

1. The diagram here shows two inductors having self inductance 5 mH


each, have been wound on the same core. The mutual inductance
between the two coils is also equal to 5 mH. At to = 0, key k is closed.
The resistance of the each coil is 5 Ω . If final magnetic energy stored in
the inductors is x ×10−2 joule, then find out the value of x .

2. The diagram shows two rail rods lying in horizontal plane


and connected by a resistance of 5 Ω . A uniform
transverse inward magnetic field 2.0 tesla has been
applied inside the plane. A slider starts moving at t = 0 ,
with constant velocity 2 m/s. At t = 5 s, the current in
circuit is 1A and self inductance of loop is 5 H. The rail rods are separated by a distance of 50 cm.
Find out the total charge flown through the galvanometer in time interval of t = 0 to t = 5 s.

3. Consider the diagram. The two conducting rail rods are


separated by a distance 20 cm. The rail rods are connected
with three capacitors, each have the same capacitance
30 µ F . A slider is moving on rail rod with velocity
v
= ( 2t + 1) m / s where t is time in second. A uniform
transverse inward magnetic field 1.5 tesla has been applied
into the plane of rod and slider. Find out the charge on any of the capacitor in micro coulomb at
t =1s .

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4. A charged capacitor of capacitance 2 C is connected with another


uncharged capacitor of capacitance C and an inductor as shown in figure.
The charge on the positive plate of the capacitor of capacitance C, when
q
current through inductor will be maximum, is found to be 0 . Find the
n
n
value of .

5. In the given circuit diagram


= F ; L 11 H charge in the capacitor is 4 C at t = 0 and it is
C 1=

decreasing at the rate of 3 C/second. The maximum charge on the capacitor is x C . Fill the value
of ‘x’

6. An inductor coil, a capacitor and an A. C. source V = 24 2 cos ωt are connected in series. Now the
frequency of source is varied, and a maximum rms current 12 A is obtained. Suppose this inductor
coil is connected to battery of emf 12 volt and internal resistance 1 Ω . If self inductance of inductor
is 1 H, then find out the final energy in joule stored in the inductor.
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7. Consider a solid sphere of mass 2 kg and radius 1 m. A current carrying wire is wrapped over
diameter of the sphere in the form of closely spaced circular turns as shown. The are 4 turns and
current in each turns is 2 A. The sphere is place on a sufficiently rough surface. Neglect the mass of
the wire. At t = 0 , a uniform magnetic field B= 2iˆ + 3 ˆj T is switched on. The initial angular
8
acceleration of the sphere is found to be n π rad / s 2 . Find the value of n .
7

8. An LCR circuit consist of a resistor = R 200Ω , capacitor C = 2.00 µ F , and inductor L = 0.900 H
attached to an a.c. source of amplitude 150 V. What is the rms current (i) at resonance? Fill the value
of 100i.

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JEE ADVANCE TEST | FT - 2 | JEE 2025 (PAPER -2)

PART – II: CHEMISTRY 66 MARKS


SECTION-1
This section consists of 6 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of
which ONLY ONE CHOICE is correct.

1. Which of the following is not correctly ordered for resonance stability ?


CH = N = O CH CH = N O
CH2 CH2 = CH N=O
2 (II > I > III)
(I) (II) (III)
(A)
= = NH =
NH2 C O 2 C O NH2 C O (I > III > II)

(B) (I) (II) (III)

H3C C O H3C C O (I > II)


(C) (I) (II)

O O
CH3 HC CH3 HC (I = II)
O O
(D) (I) (II)

2. Among the following pairs, in which pairs is the first one a weaker base than the second?
,CH
(A) CH3 CH2 C
(B) OH, SH

O O
CH3 C
O
NH2,CH3
(C) (D)

3. How many products are formed, including stereoisomers for the following reaction ?
HBr (1 eq.)
CH3 (CH2)3C CH ROOR

(A) 6 (B) 4 (C) 3 (D) 2

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JEE ADVANCE TEST | FT - 2 | JEE 2025 (PAPER -2)

4. What is true about the stereochemistry of the product formed in this reaction?
Cl2
H3C CH2 CH CH3 H3C CH2 CH CH2 Cl
hv
Cl Cl
(A) Racemised product (B) Inverted product
(C) Retained product (D) More inverted than retained

5. The following carbocation rearranges to:


CH3 CH3

H2C C C CH C CH3
H

CH3 CH3
CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3
H2C C CH CH CH CH3 C C CH2 C CH3
H2C
CH3 CH2 CH3 CH3
(A) (B) .
CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3

H2C C C CH C CH3 H2C C C CH C CH3


H
CH3 CH3 H CH3 CH3
(C) (D)

6. The para to ortho product ratio is highest when X is:


Cl Cl Cl

X +

X X
+
(A) NO 2 (B) Cl + (C) Br + (D) SO3

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JEE ADVANCE TEST | FT - 2 | JEE 2025 (PAPER -2)

SECTION-2
This section consists of 4 Multiple Correct Answers Type Questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D), out of which ONE OR MORE THAN ONE CHOICE is correct.

7. When the following compound is subjected to isomerisation upon treatment with dilute mineral acid,
which of the following is/are not formed ?
CHCH3

CHCH3
CH2CH3

CH3

CH2CH2CH3 CH2CH3
(A) (B)
CH3

CH2CH3

CH3

CH2CH3 CH2CH3
(C) (D)

8. Which of the following groups can either donate or with draw a pair of electrons in resonance
depending upon situation:
(A) – NO2 (B) – NO (C) – CH = CH2 (D) – CHO

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9. Among the following which one is having conjugated system:

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

10.
Among the following which statement(s) is/are true:
(A) Both N of pyrimidine are of same basic strength
(B) In imidazole protonation takes places on N–3.
(C) Purine has 3 basic N.
(D) Pyrimidine imidazole and purine all are aromatic

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JEE ADVANCE TEST | FT - 2 | JEE 2025 (PAPER -2)

SECTION-3
This section consists of 8 NON-NEGATIVE INTEGER Type Questions. The answer to each question is a NON-
NEGATIVE INTEGER

1. How many molecules has high π electron density in the ring.

(i) (ii)

(iii) (iv)

2. The total number of cyclic isomers possible for a hydrocarbon with the molecular formula C4H6 is

3. Find out the total no. of products (inclusing stereo) in the given reaction :
CH3

NBS CCL
Products
Peroxide,

4. How many stereoisomers are possible for Gorlic acid (C18H30O2)


HC CH
CH2(CH2)6CH CH(CH2)4COOH
CH2 CH2

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JEE ADVANCE TEST | FT - 2 | JEE 2025 (PAPER -2)

5. Structure of Blotin, (C10H16N2O3S) is as follows


CO
NH NH

H2C CH

CH2 C(CH2)4COOH

S
No. of chiral carbon + D.U. (degree of unsaturation) for Biotin are

6. How many total enolic forms (only structural) are possible for
O O
H2 H2
C C C C CH3

7. How many hydrogen’s will be replaced by deuterium of the given compound if D2O is allowed to
react with the compound for long time.
O
D2O
CH3 C CH3 Product
long time

8. In the given molecule the sites undergoes deprotonation and protonation most readily respectively
are x & y then x + y ?
1 3 5
H2N C NH CH2 CH2 CH2 CH COOH
4
NH NH2
2

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JEE ADVANCE TEST | FT - 2 | JEE 2025 (PAPER -2)

PART – III: MATHEMATICS 66 MARKS


SECTION-1
This section consists of 6 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of
which ONLY ONE CHOICE is correct.

1. The curve y = f ( x ) which satisfies the condition f ′ ( x ) > 0 and f ′′ ( x ) < 0 for all real x, is

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

1 1
2. a cos θ
A curve is given by the equations x =+ b cos 2θ , y =
sin θ + b sin 2θ , then the points for
2 2
d2y
which = 0 is given by
dx 2
2a 2 + b 2 3a 2 + 2b 2
(A) sin θ = (B) tan θ =
5ab 4ab

(C) cos θ =
(
− a 2 + 2b 2 ) (D) cos θ =
(a 2
− 2b 2 )
3ab 3ab

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3. For the curve y = 5x – 2x3, if x increases at the rate of 2 units/sec, then at x = 3 the
(A) Slope of curve increases at 36 units/sec
(B) Slope of curve is decreasing at 36 units/sec
(C) Slope of curve decreasing at 72 units/sec
(D) Slope of curve increases at 75 units/sec

If f ( x ) a=
4. =
{a x

; g ( x ) a 
sgn x}  a x sgn x 

for a > 1, a ≠ 1 and x ∈ R , where {*} & [*] denote the fractional
part and integral part functions respectively, then which of the following statements holds good for
the function h ( x ) , where (ln a) h(x) = (ln f(x) + ln g(x)).
(A) ‘h’ is even and increasing (B) ‘h’ is odd and decreasing
(C) ‘h’ is even and decreasing (D) ‘h’ is odd and increasing

 x + y  f ( x) + f ( y)
5. Let f : R → R be a differentiable function satisfying f  =  ∀ x, y ∈ R . If
 2  2
f ( 0 ) = 1 and f ′ ( 0 ) = −1 , then which of the following is (are) correct ?
(A) f ( x ) is discontinuous at one point
(B) Number of solution of the equation f ( x ) = f −1 ( x ) is exactly one
10

∑ ( f ( r ))
2
(C) = 280
r =0

(D) tan −1 ( f ( x ) ) is derivable ∀x ∈ R


6. Let f ( x) =
cot x − tan x − 2 tan 2 x − 4 tan 4 x − 8cot 8 x, x ≠ ,n∈ I and g ( x ) = x3 + 6 x − 1 . One
8
 nπ 
more function h ( x ) is defined as h : R −  , n ∈ I  → R, h ( x=
) f ( x ) + g ( x ) then identify the
 8 
correct statement(s).
π  π
(A) h′′   =
 24  4
(B) h ( x ) is odd function
(C) h ( x ) is decreasing in the domain
(D) If the equation h ( x ) = λ has a solution in ( 0,1) then number of integral values of λ is 7

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JEE ADVANCE TEST | FT - 2 | JEE 2025 (PAPER -2)

SECTION-2
This section consists of 4 Multiple Correct Answers Type Questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D), out of which ONE OR MORE THAN ONE CHOICE is correct.

7. Let g ' ( x ) > 0 and f ' ( x ) < 0, ∀x ∈ R , then


(A) g ( f ( x + 1) ) > g ( f ( x − 1) ) (B) f ( g ( x − 1) ) > f ( g ( x + 1) )
(C) g ( f ( x + 1) ) < g ( f ( x − 1) ) (D) g ( g ( x + 1) ) < g ( g ( x − 1) )

8.  sin x + cos x  and x 2 + y 2 =


Find the angle of intersection of curves, y = 5 where [.] denotes
greatest integral function.
 1   2 
(A) tan −1 ( 2 ) (B) sin −1   (C) sin −1   (D) tan −1 (10 )
 101   5

9. Which of the following statements is/are correct?


(A) If f ( x=
) x 2 + 10sin x , then there exists a real number c such that f ( c ) = 1000
d 2
(B) x + x= 2 x + 1 ∀x ∈ R
dx
 d2y 
 2
d 2 x  dx  dy
(C) If y = f ( x ) and x = g ( y ) , where g = f ,=
−1
then , ≠ 0.
dy 2  dy 3 dx
 
 dx 
(D) Let f : ( 0,5 ) → R − Q be a continuous function such that f ( 2 ) = π , then f (π ) = π
[Note : Q denotes the set of rational numbers]

10. Let f ( x ) be double differentiable function such that f ′′ ( x ) ≤ 5∀x ∈ [ 0, 4] and f takes its largest

value at an interior point of this interval. Then the value of f ′ ( 0 ) + f ′ ( 4 ) can be


(A) 18 (B) 19 (C) 20 (D) 21
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JEE ADVANCE TEST | FT - 2 | JEE 2025 (PAPER -2)

SECTION-3
This section consists of 8 NON-NEGATIVE INTEGER Type Questions. The answer to each question is a NON-
NEGATIVE INTEGER

1. (
Let P ( x0 , y0 ) be a point on the curve C : x 2 − 11 ( y + 1) + 4 = )
0 where x0 , y0 ∈ N . If area of the
a
triangle formed by the normal drawn to the curve ‘C’ at P and the co-ordinate axes is   , a, b ∈ N
b
then find the least value of ( a – 6b ) .

2. Let f ( x ) = 2 tan −1 x and g ( x) be a differentiable function satisfying


 x + 2 y  g ( x) + 2g ( y )
g =  ) 1, g ( 0=) 2
∀x, y ∈ R g ′ ( 0=
 3  3
Find the number of integers satisfying f 2 ( g ( x ) ) − 5 f ( g ( x ) ) + 4 > 0 where x ∈ ( −10,10 )

3. For the function f ( x ) = lim


( )
ln 1 + 9 x 2  − 9n x 2 cos 9 x 2 ( ) number of points of discontinuity in
n →∞ 1 + 9n x 2 n
( –3,3) is: (where [.] represents greatest integer function)

f ( x) ( ln x ) + 2 ln x and A ( a, f ( a ) ) , B ( b, f ( b ) ) where ( a < b ) are the points


2
4. Let C be the curve =
of tangency of two tangents drawn from origin to the curve C. The value of the product ab is equal to
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5. The smallest integral value of P for which the function f ( x ) = 6 Px – P sin 4 x – 5 x – sin 3 x is
monotonically increasing and has no critical point on R is:

2x −1
6. Let f ( x) be a real valued function such that ( x)
f= ∀x ∈ ( 2, ∞ ) and
x−2
x2 + 1 ( f ( x )) + 1
2

( x)
g= + ∀x > 2 , then minimum value of g ( x ) is _______ .
x f ( x)

7. x ) a ( a ≠ 0 ) , then lim x 2 f ′′ ( x ) is
Let f : R → R be a twice differentiable function such that lim f (=
x →∞ x →∞

equal to

8. A continuous and differentiable function y = f ( x ) is such that it’s graph cuts line =
y mx + c at 11
distinct points. Then the minimum number of points at which f ′′ ( x ) = 0 is

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