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 Preface
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U Questions designed on the latest UPSC Pattern
 Contents
POLITY
1. POLITICAL THEORY AND KEY CONCEPTS 3—15
2. DEMOCRACY AND DIVERSITY 16—20
3. INDIAN CONSTITUTION AND ITS PHILOSOPHY 21—29
4. CITIZENSHIP 30—32
5. RIGHTS IN THE INDIAN CONSTITUTION (FRs AND DPSPs) 33—37
6. ELECTION AND REPRESENTATION 38—42
7. EXECUTIVE 43—47
8. LEGISLATURE 48—53
9. JUDICIARY 54—58
10. FEDERALISM 59—63
11. LOCAL GOVERNMENT 64—68
12. MARGINALISED SECTIONS 69—71
13. MISCELLANEOUS 72

MODERN HISTORY
1. INTRODUCTION: HOW, WHEN AND WHERE 75—77
2. FROM TRADE TO TERRITORY 78—85
3. COLONIALISM AND COUNTRYSIDE 86—92
4. REVOLT OF 1857 93—104
5. WOMEN, CASTE AND REFORMS 105—110
INDIAN NATIONAL MOVEMENT AND MAHATMA
6. 111—121
GANDHI’S CONTRIBUTION
7. EDUCATING THE NATION 122—127

8. FRAMING THE CONSTITUTION 128—136

Polity
 Political Theory
1 and Key Concepts
OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS FOR PRACTICE

1. Which of the following are the three (a) Both Statement I and Statement-II are
dimensions of ‘Equality’? correct and Statement-II is the correct
1. Social Equality explanation for Statement-I
2. Political Equality (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II
are correct and Statement-II is not the
3. Economic Equality correct explanation for Statement-I
Select the correct answer using the code
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II
given below: is incorrect
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only (d) Statement-I is incorrect but
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only Statement-II is correct
2. With reference to the concept of Equality, 4. Which of the following is the correct
consider the following pairs: connotation for the “political ideal of equality”?
Concept Appropriate Instance (a) Possession of equal worth by all human
beings regardless of their colour,
1. A
 ffirmative Banks offer higher
gender, race, or nationality.
action: rates of interest to
senior citizens (b) Every citizen should enjoy equal economic
rights without any discrimination.
2. E
 quality of Every child should get
(c) Decisions of government affect every
opportunity: free education
individual either men or women equally.
(d) Equal access to basic goods, such as
3. Equal Rights: Every adult citizen can
education, health care, safe housing.
vote in elections
5. Liberty means the absence of constraints
How many of the above pairs are correctly
on individuals. In this context consider the
matched?
following statements about Liberty.
(a) Only one (b) Only two 1. Positive Liberty means no external
(c) All three (d) None authority can interfere in the exercise
3. Consider the following statements: of free will.
Statement-I: The natural inequalities 2. Negative Liberty means Freedom as an
emerge due to differences in personal traits expansion of opportunities to express
either physical or mental. one’s self.
Statement-II: All social inequalities Which of the statements given above is/are
emerged as a result of natural inequalities. correct?
Which one of the following is correct in (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
respect of the above statements? (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
 6. Consider the following statements with 9. Which of the following features fall under the
WORKBOOK POLITY respect to “Negative” concept of Liberty: purview of Secularism in a broader context?
1. It implies the absence of restraints and 1. Theocratic State
rights to do whatever one likes. 2. 
No formal and legal alliance with any
2. It refers to the society in which adequate religion
facilities are available for each and every 3. 
Absence of separation between the
section of society to enjoy desirable State and Religion
rights. 4. Equal respect to all religions
3. It ensures the growth of poor, weak and Select the correct answer from the codes
downtrodden people. given below:
Which of the statements given above is/are (a) 2 and 4 only (b) 1 and 3 only
incorrect?
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 3 and 4 only
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only
10. With reference to the Indian Concept of
(c) 2 only (d) 2 and 3 only Secularism, consider the following statements:
7. In the context of Indian Polity, consider the 1. The term ‘Secular’ was added to the
following statements: Preamble by the 44th Constitution
Statement-I: The principles of Liberty, Amendment Act.
Equality and Justice are part of the trinity 2. Indian Constitution reflects a Negative
of Democracy. concept of Secularism.
Statement-II: Without equality, liberty 3. The secular state allows equal disrespect
would produce the supremacy of the few for some aspects of organised religions.
over the many and Equality without liberty, Which of the statements given above are
would kill individual initiative. incorrect?
Which one of the following is correct in (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
respect of the above statements?
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of the above
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct and Statement-II is the correct 11. Consider the following statements:
explanation for Statement-I 1. Secularism is a basic feature of the
Constitution.
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II
are correct and Statement-II isnot the 2. Indian Secularism is excessively
correct explanation for Statement-I interventionist in nature.
(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II 3. Secularism is reflected in the
is incorrect Fundamental Rights of the Constitution.
(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Which of the above given statements are
correct?
Statement-II is correct
(a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3
8. Consider the following statements:
(c) 1 and 3 (d) All of the above
1. 
The Indian State may engage with
religion negatively to oppose religious 12. With reference to the ‘Human Rights’,
tyranny. consider the following statements:
2. Secularism is a doctrine that opposes 1. They are universal entitlements that
all forms of inter-religious domination. apply to all individuals solely by virtue
of being human.
3. 
Indian secularism is based on the
concept of Principled distance. 2. They encompass only civil and political
liberties, excluding economic and social
Which of the statements given above is/are rights.
incorrect?
3. They ensure that the authority of the
(a) Only one (b) Only two state is exercised without violating the
(c) Only three (d) None sanctity of individual liberty.

4
 Which of the statements given above is/are 17. Consider the following statements:

Political Theory and Key Concepts

correct? 1. Civilisational continuity is an important
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only feature of a national identity.
(c) 2 only (d) 1 and 3 only 2. Territorial connection of a population does
not contribute to the national feeling.
13. Which of the following not only delineate
the affirmative actions that the Indian state 3. The vision of an independent political
should undertake but also imply limitations existence is an important feature of a
on the state's involvement? national identity.
(a) Fundamental Rights How many of the statements given above
are correct?
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy
(a) Only one (b) Only two
(c) Concurrent List of the Constitution
(c) All three (d) None
(d) State Legislature's Powers
18. Consider the following statements:
14. Consider the following:
1. Pluralism is the recognition of diversity
1. Magna Carta (1215 ) within a political body.
2. Geneva Conventions (1949) 2. Indian society is pluralistic in nature.
3. Universal Declaration of Human Rights Which of the statements given above is/are
(1948) incorrect?
4. World Trade Organization Agreement (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(1995) (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
How many of the above can be considered 19. Consider the following statements:
as landmarks in the Development of Human
Rights? 1. Rabindranath Tagore preferred the
concept of nationalism and patriotism
(a) Only one (b) Only two over all other ideals and values.
(c) Only three (d) All four 2. Tagore made a clear distinction between
15. The ‘dignity of the individual’ and ‘unity and opposing western imperialism and
integrity of the nation’ both are explicitly rejecting western civilisation.
mentioned in which of the following in the 3. Rabindranath Tagore was a fierce
Indian Constitution? critique of the western civilization and
(a) Directive Principle of State Policy values.
(b) Fundamental Rights How many of the statements given above
are correct?
(c) Preamble
(a) Only one (b) Only two
(d) Fundamental Duties
(c) All three (d) None
16. With reference to the essential elements
20. With reference to the ‘Social Justice’,
in the formation of a Nation, consider the
consider the following statements:
followings:
1. It primarily focuses on ensuring the
1. Face-to-face relationships with each
equal distribution of wealth among all
member.
citizens.
2. Ties of marriage and descent with each 2. The concept of social justice is defined
member. in the Constitution of India.
3. Collective beliefs, aspirations and 3. The 20th February is celebrated annually
imaginations of its members. as the World Day of Social Justice.
How many of the elements given above are How many of the above statements are
correct? correct?
(a) Only one (b) Only two (a) Only one (b) Only two
(c) All three (d) None (c) All three (d) None

5
 21. In the context of polity, which one of the
WORKBOOK POLITY following would you accept as the most
appropriate element of social justice?
(a) Equal distribution of resources
and opportunities to all citizens,
disregarding their social backgrounds.
(b) Providing preferential treatment to
historically marginalized communities
to compensate for past injustices.
(c) Maintaining the status quo to avoid
disrupting societal harmony while
ensuring individual rights.
(d) Prioritizing economic growth over
social welfare to ensure a stable and
prosperous nation.
22. With reference to the ‘principles of Justice’,
consider the following statements:
1. Treating equals equally
2. Recognition of diverse efforts and skills
while determining rewards and burdens
3. Provision of minimum standard of living
Which of the statements given above are
correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
23. In India, which one of the following
Constitutional Amendments was primarily
enacted to introduce reservations in
educational institutions and government
jobs for economically disadvantaged
groups?
(a) 42nd Amendment (b) 73rd Amendment
(c) 86th Amendment (d) 103rd Amendment

SUBJECTIVE QUESTIONS FOR PRACTICE

1. What are the practical benefits of studying political theory?
2. Discuss the various ways in which the fundamental aim of Political theory can be achieved?
3. In what ways is Indian secularism different from that of other democratic countries?
4. What is a social constraint? Are constraints of any kind necessary for enjoying freedom?
5. Explain the concept of 'Swaraj' in the freedom struggle of India.
6. Explain how political science as a discipline is different from other disciplines of social science.
7. Elaborate the principles and values that shape political thought and action.
8. Give a brief distinction between concepts of positive and negative liberty.
9. How does the concept of liberalism relate to the idea of tolerance within society?
10. Explain the idea of freedom expressed by JS Mill.
11. Examine how society shapes and limits individual freedoms.

ANSWER KEY
1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (d) 6. (d) 7. (d) 8. (d) 9. (a) 10. (a)
11. (c) 12. (d) 13. (a) 14. (c) 15. (c) 16. (a) 17. (b) 18. (d) 19. (a) 20. (a)
21. (b) 22. (d) 23. (d)

6
 HINTS & SOLUTION
1. Answer (a)
While identifying different kinds of
inequalities that exist in society, various
thinkers and ideologies have highlighted
three main dimensions of equality:
political, social, and economic. Only by
addressing each of these three different
dimensions of equality can we move towards
a more just and equal society.
Option (a) is correct: Social equality
aims to minimise the effects of social
and economic inequalities and guarantee
certain minimum conditions of life to all
the members of society — adequate health
care, the opportunity for good education,
adequate nourishment, and a minimum
wage, among other things. In the absence of
such facilities, it is exceedingly difficult for
all members of society to compete on equal
terms.
Option (b) is correct: In democratic
societies, political equality would
normally include granting equal
citizenship to all members of the state.
Certain basic rights, such as the right to
vote, freedom of expression, movement,
association, and belief. These are rights that
are considered necessary to enable citizens
to develop themselves and participate in the
affairs of the state.
Option (c) is correct: The degree of
economic inequality in a society would
be the measure of the relative difference
between the richest and poorest groups.
Marxists and socialists feel that economic
inequality provides support for other forms
of social inequality such as differences of
rank or privilege.
2. Answer (c)
●  ffirmative action: Banks offer higher
A is implicit in all faiths and religions which
rates of interest to senior citizens
because senior citizens have contributed
to the development and service of
society throughout their age. Their age
increases but their income decreases
due to medical needs and social needs.
● Equality of opportunity: Every child
should get free education because every
7
Political Theory and Key Concepts
child should get an equal opportunity
to get education, i.e. no one should be
discriminated against on any ground. This
type of inequality is against the principle
of equality.
● Equal Rights: Every adult citizen has
a right to vote. This principle is based
on one person one vote one value, i.e.
every adult citizen enjoys the right to
vote. No citizen should be discriminated
against on any ground to be exempt from
enjoying the right to vote.
3. Answer (c)
Statement-I is correct: Some people argue
that inequality is natural while others
maintain that it is equality which is natural
and the inequalities which we notice around
us are created by the society. People are not
equal by birth as they differ in traits, ability
and talents. Human beings differ physically,
mentally and intellectual strengths. But
these natural differences cannot be changed
also. These inequalities are the result of
different characteristics and abilities of
inborn qualities of a man.
Statement-II is incorrect: Socially
produced inequalities emerge as a result
of unequal opportunities (not natural
inequalities), i.e. family background,
educational factors, economic support
etc. Social differences reflect the values of
society, which may appear to be unjust. The
discrimination’s based on gender, colour,
race, etc. have been made by society rather
than based on inborn characteristics.
4. Answer (a)
Option (a) is correct: Equality is a powerful
moral and political ideal that has inspired and
guided human society for many centuries. It
proclaim all human beings to be the creation
of God. As a political ideal the concept of
equality invokes the idea that all human
beings have an equal worth regardless of
their colour, gender, race, or nationality.
It maintains that human beings deserve
equal consideration and respect because
of their common humanity.
 5. Answer (d)
WORKBOOK POLITY Statement 1 is incorrect: Positive liberty
is to provide opportunities by enabling
positive conditions in material, political
and social domains for the development
of an individual. It means freedom as the
expansion of opportunities to express one’s
self.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Negative liberty
seeks to define and defend an area in which
the individual would be inviolable, in which
he or she could ‘do, be or become’ whatever
he or she wished to ‘do, be or become’. This
is an area in which no external authority
can interfere in the exercise of free will.
6. Answer (d)
Statement 1 is correct: Negative conception
of liberty implies the absence of restraints
and rights to do whatever one likes. It may
make the powerful person more powerful to
keep the weaker ones at their mercy.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Positive
conception of liberty refers to the society
in which adequate facilities are available
for each and every section of society
to enjoy desirable rights. It believes that
any individual or section should not hinder
the progress of others. People can enjoy all
freedoms which are permissible by laws.
The Positive liberty ensures the growth
of poor, weak and downtrodden
people also. It interprets that liberty
lies in the removal of hindrances.
Hence statement 3 is about the Positive
conception of liberty.
7. Answer (d)
Statement-I is incorrect: Democracy
means a way of life which recognizes liberty,
equality and fraternity. The principles of
liberty, equality and fraternity are not to be
treated as separate items in a trinity. They
form a union of trinity in the sense that to
divorce one from the other is to defeat the
very purpose of democracy.
Statement-II is correct: Liberty cannot
be divorced from equality, equality cannot
be divorced from liberty. Nor can liberty
and equality be divorced from fraternity.
Without equality, liberty would produce
the supremacy of the few over the many.
Equality without liberty, would kill
individual initiative.
8. Answer (d)
● Statement 1 is correct: The Indian
State may engage with religion negatively
to oppose religious tyranny. This is
reflected in actions such as the ban
on untouchability. The State may also
choose a positive mode of engagement.
Indian Secularism does not require a
total separation of religion from the state
of affairs. It rejects non-interference in
religion. But it is also not excessively
interventionist.
● Statement 2 is correct: Secularism is
first and foremost a doctrine that opposes
all forms of institutionalised religious
domination.It challenges not merely
interreligious but also intra-religious
domination. Put positively, it promotes
freedom within religions, and equality
between, as well as within, religions.
● Statement 3 is correct: Indian
secularism is based on the concept of
principled distance between the state
and the religion. This means that the
state gives equal preference to every
religion and respects them all equally.
However, the state may interfere if such
interference is deemed necessary.
9. Answer (a)
Some of the features of secularism include:
No official religion in a secular state; No
special status to any religion; Prohibition
of discrimination on the basis of religion;
All individuals and communities have been
given freedom to practice, profess and
propagate any religion; Equal respect and
recognition for all religions by the state;
Non-interference in the functioning of any
religion by the state; No official religion
in India; An individual has the right to
practise, propagate and profess any religion.
To be truly secular, a State must not only
refuse to be theocratic but also have no
formal, legal alliance with any religion;
8
 the nature and extent of separation may
take different forms, depending upon the
specific values it is meant to promote
and the way in which these values are
spelt out.
10. Answer (a)
● Statement 1 is incorrect: Secularism
is one of the basic features of the
Constitution. The term ‘Secular’ was
added to the preamble by the forty-
second constitution Amendment
Act of 1976 (not 44th constitutional
amendment act). As per the Indian
Constitution, India is a secular country
which has no State religion.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: The Indian
Constitution reflects a Positive
concept of Secularism. The Indian
constitution has more power than any
religion in the country and the State acts
as an enabler in the religious freedoms
of all communities.
● Statement 3 is correct: The Secular
State does not have to treat every aspect
of every religion with equal respect.
It allows equal disrespect for some
aspects of organised religions.
11. Answer (c)
● Statement 1 is correct: In Kesavananda
Bharati v. State of Kerala judgement,
1973 the Supreme Court of India held
that Secularism is a part of the basic
structure of the Constitution.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: Indian
secularism rejects non-interference
in religion. But it is not excessively
interventionist. Indian secularism
follows the concept of principled
distance. Besides, interference need
not automatically mean coercive
intervention.
● Statement 3 is correct: In India,
Secularism is reflected in the Preamble
of India. The term ‘Secular’ was added to
the preamble by the 42nd constitution
Amendment Act of 1976. This is also
reflected in the fundamental rights
especially from Article 25-28.
9
12. Answer (d)
Political Theory and Key Concepts
● Statement 1 is correct: Human Rights
are inherent to individuals by virtue
of being human. Every individual has
the prerogative to live a life imbued with
dignity and humanity, striving collectively
for its realization. These rights remain
impervious to being withheld based on
factors such as caste, color, religion, and
gender.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: These
rights encompass a wide range of
civil, political, economic, social, and
cultural rights, aiming to ensure that
all individuals have a life of dignity and
respect.
● Statement 3 is correct: The rights
ensure that the authority of the state
is exercised without violating the
sanctity of individual life and liberty.
The state may be the sovereign authority;
the laws it makes may be enforced with
force, but the sovereign state exists not
for its own sake but for the sake of the
individual.
13. Answer (a)
● Option (a) is correct: Rights not only
indicate what the state must do, they
also suggest what the state must
refrain from doing. The Constitution of
India duly recognizes the importance of
human rights and guarantees certain
Fundamental Rights in Part-III, It
includes:
1. Right of equality,
2. Right to freedom
3. Right against exploitation,
4. Right to freedom of religion, cultural
and educational right
5. The right to constitutional remedies
Article 32 gives the right to constitutional
remedy in the form of original jurisdiction
of the Supreme Court of India for the
enforcement of these Fundamental
Rights.
● Option (b) is incorrect: Directive
Principles of State Policy are guidelines
and principles in the Indian Constitution
that suggest the ideal framework
 for governance. They are not legally
WORKBOOK POLITY enforceable but serve as a moral and
political compass for the state.
● Option (c) is incorrect: The Concurrent
List comprises subjects on which both
the central and state governments can
legislate. It indicates areas of shared
jurisdiction. While it defines the extent
to which both levels of government
can make laws, it doesn't necessarily
prescribe limitations on state action as
directly as Fundamental Rights do.
● Option (d) is incorrect: State
legislatures have the authority to make
laws on subjects mentioned in the State
List of the Constitution. These powers
outline the legislative scope of state
governments within their territories.
While they define the areas in which
state legislatures can act, they don't
inherently suggest restrictions on state
action similar to Fundamental Rights.
14. Answer (c)
Major Landmarks in the Development of
Human Rights—
● 1215 Magna Carta: This document
guarantees Barons their ancient rights
i.e. All free men have the right to justice
and a fair trial with a jury, All free citizens
can own and inherit property etc.
● 1776 American Declaration
Independence and Bill of Rights
● 1787 Constitution of the United States
● 1789 French Declaration of the Rights of
man
● 1946 UN Commission on Human Rights
● 1948 Universal Declaration of Human
Rights: In 1946, the UN Commission
on Human Rights was established and
in less than two years it had drafted the
Universal Declaration of Human Rights
which was adopted by the UN General
Assembly (UNGA) in 1948.
● 1949 Geneva Conventions: This
Convention represents the fourth
updated version of the Geneva
Convention on the wounded and sick,
following those adopted in 1864, 1906
and 1929.
● 1950 European Convention for the
Protection of Human Rights and
Fundamental Freedoms
● 1961 European Social Charter
● 1993 Vienna Declaration and Programme
of Action adopted at the World Conference
on Human Rights.
The WTO’s main purpose is to ensure
that trade flows as smoothly,
predictably, and freely as possible. It
operates through various agreements
negotiated and signed by its member
countries.
15. Answer (c)
● Option (c) is correct: The Preamble of the
Indian Constitution outlines the ideals
and objectives of the Constitution. It
emphasizes the importance of securing
justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity
while maintaining individual dignity
and promoting the unity and integrity
of the nation. These represent both the
social and individual aspects of human
rights.
16. Answer (a)
Statement 1 is incorrect: A nation is
different from a family which is based
on face-to-face relationships with each
member having direct personal knowledge
of of the identity and character of others.
Statement 2 is incorrect: A nation is also
different from tribes and clans and other
kinship groups in which ties of marriage
and descent link members to each other
so that even if one does not personally know
all the members, one can trace the links
that bind them to one another.
Statement 3 is correct: It is commonly
believed that a nation is constituted by a group
of people who share certain features such
as descent, language, religion, or ethnicity.
But they are not essential characteristics
that are present in all nations. Many nations
do not have a common language, race or
religion to unite their people. A nation is
an ‘imagined’ community, held together
by the collective beliefs, aspirations and
imaginations of its members.
10
17. Answer (b)
Statement 1 is correct: Nations think of
themselves as having connections to the
past as well as reaching into the future.
They articulate for themselves a sense of
their own history by drawing on collective
memories, stories and historical records, to
outline the continuing identity of the nation.
The nationalists in India invoked its ancient
civilisation and cultural heritage to claim
that this civilisational continuity and unity
is the basis of the Indian nation.
Statement 2 is not correct: Nations
identify themselves with a particular
territory. Sharing a common past and living
together on a particular area or territory over
a long period of time gives people a sense of
collective identity. It helps them to imagine
themselves as one people.
Statement 3 is correct: It is a shared
vision of the future and the aspiration to
have an independent political existence
that distinguishes groups from nations.
Members of a nation share a vision of the
type of state they want to build. They affirm
a set of values and principles such as
democracy, secularism and liberalism.
18. Answer (d)
Nationalism and pluralism:
Statement 1 is correct: It is necessary to
consider ways by which different cultures
and communities can survive and flourish
within a country. It is in pursuit of this
goal that many democratic societies today
have introduced measures for recognising
and protecting the identity of cultural
minority communities living within their
territory. Thus, the political philosophy of
Pluralism is the recognition of diversity
within a political body to permit the
peaceful coexistence of different interests,
communities and lifestyles.
Statement 2 is correct: In a nation, some
small groups may demand a separate
statehood as a right to self determination.
To avoid excessive demands of such types,
different groups need to be recognised as a
part of the national community. This means
that the national identity has to be defined
in an inclusive manner which can recognise
11
the importance and unique contribution
Political Theory and Key Concepts
of all the cultural communities within the
state. The kinds of group rights include
constitutional protection for the language,
cultures and religion, of minority groups and
their members. The Indian constitution also
has an elaborate set of provisions for the
protection of religious, linguistic and cultural
minorities. This makes the indian polity and
society pretty much pluralistic in nature.
19. Answer (a)
“Patriotism cannot be our final spiritual
shelter; my refuge is humanity. I will not
buy glass for the price of diamonds, and I
will never allow patriotism to triumph over
humanity as long as I live.”
 Rabindranath Tagore.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Rabindranath
was not a blind follower of patriotism. He was
very critical of the narrow expressions of
nationalism. Rather he was a worshipper of
truth and valued the principles of Humanity.
Tagore made a distinction between
opposing western imperialism and
rejecting western civilisation. He thought
that while Indians should be rooted in
their own civilization and cultural heritage,
they should not resist learning freely and
profitably from the west. He was afraid
that a rejection of the west in favour of
Indian traditions was limiting in itself and
It could also easily turn into hostility to
other influences from abroad, including
Christianity, Judaism, Zoroastrianism and
Islam. He was not a fierce critique of the
western civilization and values. Instead
he wanted to learn from the west. Thus,
Statement 2 is correct and the statement
3 is not correct.
20. Answer (a)
● Statement 1 is incorrect: Social justice
is a political and philosophical theory
centered around ensuring fairness in
interactions among individuals within a
society, as well as guaranteeing equitable
access to wealth, opportunities, and
social privileges for all members of
that society. Wealth distribution is just
one component of the broader concept
of social justice. Therefore, it is not
solely focused on ensuring the equal
distribution of wealth among all citizens.
 ● Statement 2 is incorrect: Dr. Ambedkar
WORKBOOK POLITY was the chief architect of the Indian
Constitution He was fully aware of the
pattern and problems of Indian society
and the conflicting interests. Though
social justice is not directly defined in
the Indian Constitution, the Preamble,
the directive principles of state policy and
the fundamental rights clearly illustrate
the philosophy of social justice.
● Statement 3 is correct: On 26 November
2007, the U.N General Assembly
declared that, starting from the sixty-
third session of the General Assembly, 20
February will be celebrated annually
as the World Day of Social Justice.
21. Answer (b)
Option (b) is correct: Social justice can
be seen through various views, such as
patterned, historical, processual, procedural
or entitlement views.
Joe R. Feagin states: ‘Social justice requires
resource equity, fairness, and respect for
diversity, as well as the eradication of
existing forms of social oppression. Social
justice entails a redistribution of resources
from those who have unjustly gained them
to those who justly deserve them, and it also
means creating and ensuring the processes
of truly democratic participation in decision-
making’.
Providing preferential treatment to
historically marginalized communities to
compensate for past injustices highlights
the principle of affirmative action,
where special measures are taken to uplift
historically disadvantaged groups. It
recognizes the need to address historical
inequalities and promote social equity.
The Constitution of India brings a
renaissance in the concept of social justice
when it weaves the trinity of the Preamble,
the fundamental rights, and the directive
principles of state policies. This trinity is
the core of the commitments to the social
revolution.
22. Answer (d)
The principles of justice are:
1. Equal treatment for equals
2. Recognition of different efforts and skills
while determining rewards and burdens
3. Provision of minimum standard of living
and equal opportunities to the needy
● Statement 1 is correct: One of the
principles is the principle of treating
equals equally. It is considered that all
individuals share certain characteristics
as human beings. Therefore they deserve
equal rights and equal treatment.
● Statement 2 is correct: There are
situations where treating all individuals
equally might be deemed unfair. To
establish societal justice, the principle
of equal treatment must harmonize
with the principle of proportionality.
Equitable and just practices might
involve varying rewards for distinct types
of labor, provided we consider factors
like the level of effort, required skills,
potential risks associated with the work,
and other relevant considerations.
● Statement 3 is correct: A third principle
of justice that we recognise is for a society
to take into account the special needs
of people while distributing rewards or
duties. It is believed that if people who
enjoy very different standards of living
and opportunities are treated equally in
all respects with those who have been
deprived of even the basic minimum need
to live a healthy and productive life, the
result is likely to be an unequal society,
not an egalitarian one. Minimum wage
laws are designed to address economic
inequalities, promote social fairness,
and contribute to a more just society
by setting a baseline level of income
that employers must provide to their
employees.
23. Answer (d)
● Option (d) is correct: In India, lack of
access to good education or health care
and other such facilities is often found
combined with social discrimination
on grounds of caste. The Constitution
therefore allowed for reservations
of government jobs and quotas for
admissions to educational institutions
for people belonging to the Scheduled
Castes and Tribes.
12
 ● The 103rd Amendment inserted Articles constitutionally given rights. “Emergency

Political Theory and Key Concepts

15(6) and 16(6) in the Constitution to
provide up to 10 per cent reservation
to the economically weaker sections
(EWS) among non-OBC and non-
SC/ST sections of the population. It
introduces 10% reservation for the EWS
for admission to government as well as
private, unaided education institutions
(except for minority educational
institutions).
● Option (a) is incorrect: The 42nd
Constitutional Amendment Act is
noted for its inconsistent revisions and
additions (1976). The 42nd Amendment
provides a provision to temporarily
suspend basic rights. In an external
emergency, Article 358 suspends
legislation” is exempt from Article 19.
● Option (b) is incorrect: 73rd and 74th
Constitutional Amendments were
passed by Parliament in December,
1992. Through these amendments local
self-governance was introduced in rural
and urban India.
● Option (c) is incorrect: 86th
Constitutional Amendment Inserted
new article 21A.- After article 21 of the
Constitution, the following article shall be
inserted, namely:- Right to education.-
“21A. The State shall provide free and
compulsory education to all children
of the age of six to fourteen years in
such manner as the State may, by law,
determine.”

SUBJECTIVE QUESTIONS WITH MODEL ANSWERS

1. What are the practical benefits of studying political theory?
Ans. Practical benefits of studying political theory are listed as under:
* Informed citizenry is enabled for critically analyzing the political events and making
informed voting choices.
* Effective governance for informed citizens equips leaders with diverse perspectives, this,
enhances policy-making and implementation.
* Deeper Societal Comprehension: Reveals historical, cultural, and power influences on
societies, aiding in solving complex issues.
2. Discuss the various ways in which the fundamental aim of Political theory can be
achieved?
Ans. The core aim of political theory is to unravel the intricacies of politics and governance. It
achieves this through:
* Analysis of Governmental Structures: Political theory examines the forms of government,
their functions, and their impact on societies, shedding light on how authority is organized
and exercised.
* Insight into Power Dynamics: By studying power relations, political theory reveals how
individuals, groups, and institutions influence decision-making, offering insights into the
distribution and challenges to authority.
* Exploration of Societal Principles: Political theory delves into fundamental principles
like justice, liberty, and equality, aiding our understanding of how societies are shaped,
values are upheld, and conflicts are resolved.
3. In what ways is Indian secularism different from that of other democratic countries?
Ans. Indian secularism diverges from secularism in other democratic nations through its unique
approach of "equidistance" from religions. Unlike many Western democracies with a separation

13
 of church and state, India maintains a respectful engagement with diverse religions. While
WORKBOOK POLITY other democracies often prioritize secularism as a state principle, India's secularism respects
religious autonomy and aims to foster unity through cultural and religious diversity, reflecting
its distinctive historical and cultural context.
4. What is a social constraint? Are constraints of any kind necessary for enjoying freedom?
Ans. Social constraints are societal norms, expectations, and rules that shape behavior and limit
actions. Some constraints are necessary for a functioning society, as they prevent chaos and
protect individual rights. Striking a balance is crucial; excessive constraints can limit freedom,
while no constraints can lead to harm. Finding the right balance ensures the harmonious
coexistence of freedom and order.
5. Explain the concept of 'Swaraj' in the freedom struggle of India.
Ans. ‘Swaraj’, meaning ‘self-rule’ or ‘self-governance’, was a central concept in India’s freedom
struggle against British colonial rule. Coined by Mahatma Gandhi, it advocated for Indians to
achieve autonomy and govern themselves. Swaraj encompassed political, economic, and social
empowerment, emphasizing self-sufficiency, non-violence, and local governance. It inspired a
sense of connectedness towards government mass movements, civil disobedience, and a shift
towards self-reliance, fostering a united effort to break free from British oppression and attain
true sovereignty.
6. Explain how political science as a discipline is different from other disciplines of social
science.
Ans. Political science is a discipline within social science that focuses specifically on the study
of political systems, governments, political behavior, and the distribution of power within
societies. It differs from other disciplines in social science, such as sociology, psychology,
anthropology, and economics, by its primary emphasis on understanding the structures,
processes, and dynamics of political institutions, ideologies, and interactions. While all social
sciences examine human behavior and societal phenomena, political science specifically
focuses on the intricacies of politics, governance, and decision-making.
7. Elaborate the principles and values that shape political thought and action.
Ans. The principles and values that shape political thought and action encompass a wide range of
ideas. Some of these include:
* Democracy is a system of government where power is vested in the people, allowing them
to participate in decision-making through voting and representation.
* Rights: Fundamental human rights that individuals possess, such as freedom of speech,
religion, and assembly, are protected by law and government.
* Rule of Law: The principle that laws should apply equally to all citizens, including those
in positions of power, ensuring accountability and preventing arbitrary actions.
* Social Contract: The implicit agreement between citizens and their government, where
citizens agree to follow laws in exchange for protection and the fulfillment of certain rights.
8. Give a brief distinction between concepts of positive and negative liberty.
Ans. The concepts of negative and positive liberty diverge in their focus. On one hand negative
liberty emphasizes the absence of external constraints or interference, allowing individuals
to act freely without hindrance. Positive liberty, on the other hand, is centered on the ability
to achieve self-determined goals, often requiring intervention to overcome internal or external
obstacles. While negative liberty prioritizes non-interference, positive liberty focuses on
empowerment to shape one's life and achieve meaningful goals through active measures.

14
 9. How does the concept of liberalism relate to the idea of tolerance within society?

Political Theory and Key Concepts

Ans. Liberalism emphasizes individual rights, freedoms, and limited government intervention.
It promotes tolerance by advocating for diverse viewpoints, lifestyles, and beliefs to coexist
without repression.
Tolerance aligns with liberal principles as it respects individuals’ autonomy and fosters a
pluralistic society. Both concepts aim to create an inclusive environment where people can
express themselves freely while acknowledging the rights of others.
10. Explain the idea of freedom expressed by JS Mill.
Ans. John Stuart Mill’s idea of freedom, articulated in “On Liberty,” stresses individual autonomy. He
advocated for maximal personal liberty while acknowledging the need for societal intervention
to prevent harm to others. Mill believed diverse opinions were vital for progress and that only
through open discourse could truth emerge. His concept underscores the importance of self-
development, expression, and preventing tyranny of the majority.
11. Examine how society shapes and limits individual freedoms.
Ans. Society shapes and limits individual freedoms through cultural norms, laws, and shared
values. While granting certain rights, it imposes restrictions to ensure communal harmony
and protect public interests. Balancing individual autonomy with societal well-being puts forth
the issue of the extent of permissible restrictions. With this, a delicate equilibrium between
personal liberty and collective responsibilities is maintained by society.

15
 Democracy and
2 Diversity
OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS FOR PRACTICE
1. Consider the following statements:
1. Promotes inequality among citizens
2. Enhances the dignity of the individual
3. Improves the quality of decision-making
4. Provides a method to resolve conflicts
5. Allows room to correct mistakes.
How many of the above are benefits of
Democracy?
(a) Two only (b) Three only
(c) Four only (d) All five
2. Consider the following statements:
1. A good democracy is simply and only a
rule by majority opinion.
2. A democratic society facilitates
resolve conflicts between groups.
Which of the statements given above is/
are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. “It is a form of government in which the
final decision making power must rest with
those elected by the people, and each adult
citizen must have one vote, and each vote
must have one value.”
Which of the following types of
governments is best described by the
above paragraph?
(a) Democracy
(b) Authoritarian
(c) Monarchy
(d) Theocracy
4. In his book he has written that “Indian
unity is not something imposed from the
outside but rather, “It was something
deeper and within its fold, where the
widest tolerance of belief and custom was
practised and every variety acknowledged
and even encouraged”. He also coined the
phrase “Unity in Diversity.”
Who among the following personalities
is appropriately described by the above
phrase?
to
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(c) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(d) Subhash Chandra Bose
5. Consider the following statements:
1. Instability of Government
2. Less scope of morality and possibility of
corruption
3. It promotes equality.
How many of the above are disadvantages
of Democracy?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
 SUBJECTIVE QUESTIONS FOR PRACTICE

Democracy and Diversity

1. Elaborate B.R. Ambedkar’s perspectives on political science and its utility in upliftment of
depressed classes.
2. Why is equality a key component of Indian democracy?
3. Explain how rights set certain restrictions on the power of the state.
4. What distinguishes a nation from other types of group affiliation?
5. Describe in what ways democracy accommodates social diversity.
6. Which freedoms are curtailed when the military replaces democracy in governance?
7. Discuss how living in India, with its diverse traditions, might impact and enhance your quality
of life.
8. To what extent does the Constitution maintain fairness and equity within society?
9. What does effectively promoting and safeguarding the rights and well-being of Dalits and
Adivasis entail?

ANSWER KEY
1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (b)

HINTS & SOLUTION

1. Answer (c) the country, and thus it is necessary to

Democracy is a system of government by
the whole population or all the eligible
members of a state, typically through
elected representatives. Democracy is a
better form of government when compared
with dictatorship or any other alternative.
The democracy is better because it:
understand that democracy is not simply
ruled by majority opinion. The majority
always needs to work with the minority so
that governments function to represent the
general view. Majority and minority opinions
are not permanent.

● Promotes equality among citizens. Statement 2 is correct: Democracies

Hence, Statement 1 is incorrect.
● Enhances the dignity of the individual.
Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
● Improves the quality of decision-making.
Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
● Provides a method to resolve conflicts.
Hence, Statement 4 is correct.
● Allows room to correct mistakes. Hence,
Statement 5 is correct.
2. Answer (b)
Statement 1 is not correct: Democracy
promotes equality among the citizens of
usually develop a procedure to conduct their
competition. This reduces the possibility of
these tensions becoming explosive or violent.
No society can fully and permanently resolve
conflicts among different groups. But we can
certainly learn to respect these differences,
and we can also evolve mechanisms to
negotiate the differences. Democracy is best
suited to produce this outcome.
3. Answer (a)
Democracy is a form of government in which
the rulers are elected by the people, and it
has the following features:

17
 ● In a democracy, the final decision
WORKBOOK POLITY making power must rest with those
elected by the people.
● A democracy must be based on a free
and fair election where those currently
in power have a fair chance of losing.
● Third feature of democracy: in a
democracy, each adult citizen must
have one vote, and each vote must
have one value.
● A democratic government rules within
limits set by constitutional law and
citizens’ rights
4. Answer (c)
India’s diversity has always been recognised
as a source of its strength. When the British
ruled India, women and men from different
cultural, religious and regional backgrounds
came together to oppose them. In his book
The Discovery of India, Jawaharlal Nehru
says that Indian unity is not something
imposed from the outside but rather, “It
was something deeper and within its
fold, the widest tolerance of belief and
custom was practised and every variety
acknowledged and even encouraged.” It
was Nehru, who coined the phrase, “unity
in diversity” to describe the country.
5. Answer (b)
Democracy is not a magical solution for all
the problems. It has not ended poverty
in our country or in other parts of the
world. Democracy as a form of government
only ensures that people take their own
decisions. This does not guarantee that
their decisions will be good. People can
make mistakes.
● Some disadvantages of Democracy
are:
● Leaders keep changing in a democracy.
This leads to instability. Hence,
Statement 1 is correct.
● Democracy is all about political
competition and power plays. There is no
scope for morality.
● Democracy leads to corruption because
it is based on electoral competition.
Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
● So many people have to be consulted in
a democracy that it leads to delays.
● Elected leaders do not know the best
interests of the people. It leads to bad
decisions.
● Ordinary people don’t know what is
good for them; they should not decide
anything.
● Promoting equality is one of the benefits
of democracy, not a disadvantage.
Hence, Statement 3 is incorrect.

SUBJECTIVE QUESTIONS WITH MODEL ANSWERS

1. Elaborate B.R. Ambedkar’s perspectives on political science and its utility in upliftment
of depressed classes.
Ans. B.R. Ambedkar’s views on political science and its role in addressing social inequalities can be
summarized as follows:
* Empowerment through Political Participation: Ambedkar believed that political power
was crucial for marginalized communities to challenge societal inequities.
* Constitutional Safeguards: He advocated for a constitution that ensured equal rights,
protections, and opportunities for all citizens.
* Reservation System: Ambedkar championed the reservation system to provide
representation and opportunities for historically disadvantaged groups.
* Political Mechanism for Social Change: He saw political science as a means to create
legal frameworks that would dismantle caste-based discrimination.

18
 * Social Transformation: Ambedkar’s perspective emphasized the use of political science to

Democracy and Diversity

create an inclusive society by dismantling oppressive systems.
2. Why is equality a key component of Indian democracy?
Ans. Equality is vital in Indian democracy to uphold justice, social harmony, and inclusivity.
It counters discrimination, ensures equitable representation, and empowers marginalized
communities. It is by providing equal opportunities and protecting citizens’ rights regardless
of their background that Indian democracy aims to create a just and cohesive society, fostering
an environment where diverse voices are heard, dignity of individual is preserved and equal
treatment for all is ensured.
3. Explain how rights set certain restrictions on the power of the state.
Ans. Rights establish limits on state power by outlining what governments cannot infringe upon.
They serve as safeguards against potential abuses, ensuring citizens’ individual liberties,
freedoms, and dignity. These limitations on state action prevent the state from overreaching
and help maintain a balance between rights and restrictions. This prevents authoritarianism
and upholds the rule of law in a just and democratic society.
4. What distinguishes a nation from other types of group affiliation?
Ans. A nation is characterized by a shared cultural, historical, and often linguistic identity that
creates a sense of collective belonging among its members. Unlike other group affiliations,
a nation often aspires to political sovereignty, with a distinct territory and a government
that represents its interests. Nations can transcend ethnic and religious boundaries, uniting
people with a shared sense of identity and common goals on a broader scale.
5. Describe in what ways democracy accommodates social diversity.
Ans. Democracy accommodates social diversity through inclusive policies, representation, and
dialogue. Elected representatives in a democracy from diverse social backgrounds represent
varied interests, fostering a balance of power. Constitutional safeguards protect minority
rights, preventing marginalization. Open discourse in a democracy allows different viewpoints
to be heard, aiding in consensus-building. Electoral systems and reserved seats ensure fair
representation for underrepresented groups. Such mechanisms in a democracy acknowledge
and celebrate diversity, strengthening social cohesion and collectively addressing the needs of
a heterogeneous population.
6. Which freedoms are curtailed when the military replaces democracy in governance?
Ans. When the military overthrows a democratic set up, civil liberties like freedom of speech,
assembly, and press often face severe restrictions. Political participation diminishes as
elections and rights become limited, suppressing citizens’ voices. The rule of law may erode,
and dissent may be stifled, undermining the democratic ideals that ensure individual liberties
and inclusive governance.
7. Discuss how living in India, with its diverse traditions, might impact and enhance your
quality of life.
Ans. Residing in India, with its rich diversity of traditions, can significantly enrich one’s quality
of life. The multitude of festivals like Diwali, Holi, and Eid foster a sense of community and
celebration. Immersing in diverse cultures, such as enjoying the vibrant dances of Rajasthan
or savoring the culinary delights of Kerala, offers unique experiences. These experiences
collectively contribute to a more fulfilling and culturally enriched life.

19
 8. To what extent does the Constitution maintain fairness and equity within society?
WORKBOOK POLITY
Ans. The Indian Constitution’s Article 14 ensures equality before the law, preventing discrimination.
Reservation measures, like those for Scheduled Castes and Tribes, Women and other
marginalised groups are directed towards maintaining equity in society. Additionally, the Right
to Education Act guarantees equal educational opportunities. The Constitution’s commitment
to equality is evident in these measures, addressing historical imbalances and promoting
social cohesion for a more just and inclusive society.
9. What does effectively promoting and safeguarding the rights and well-being of Dalits and
Adivasis entail?
Ans. Safeguarding and promoting the rights and well-being of Dalits and Adivasis requires
multifaceted efforts. Implementing anti-discrimination laws, ensuring equitable access to
education, healthcare, and economic opportunities, empowering these communities politically,
and fostering awareness about their rich cultural heritage is crucial. Collaborative endeavors
involving governments, civil society, and international organizations can help address historical
injustices and create a more inclusive and just society for these marginalized groups.

20
 Indian Constitution
3 and its Philosophy
OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS FOR PRACTICE

1. Consider the following statements 3. Some provisions of Constitutions are

regarding ‘basic structure’: amended by special majority of the
1. The concept of the basic structure Parliament and consent of half of the
was first introduced in the landmark State legislatures.
judgement of Minerva Mills Case (1980). How many of the above are correct
2. It allows Parliament to amend any regarding amendments to the
part of the Constitution within certain Constitution?
limitations. (a) Only one (b) Only two
3. It places the Judiciary as the final (c) All three (d) None
authority in deciding if an amendment 4. Consider the followings:
violates basic structure.
1. Distribution of powers between the
How many of the above are correct? States and the central government
(a) Only one (b) Only two 2. Representation of the state in the
(c) All three (d) None Parliament
2. Which of the following factors makes the 3. Fundamental Rights
Indian Constitution a living document? How many of the above provisions is/are
1. Flexibility of interpretations amended by the consent of half of the
states ?
2. Modifications according to changing
(a) Only one (b) Only two
needs of society
(c) All three (d) None
3. Judicial Interpretation
5. Consider the following statements with
4. Inclusivity
respect to the 42nd Amendment Act :
Select the correct answer using the code 1. Fundamental Duties were included
given below. in the Constitution through this
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2, and 3 only amendment.
(c) 1, 3, and 4 only (d) All of the above. 2. The duration of the Lok Sabha was
3. Consider the following statements: extended from five to six years
1. Some provisions of the Constitution are 3. This act put restrictions on the review
powers of the Judiciary.
amended by Simple Majority.
2. Some provisions of the Constitution are How many of the above are incorrect ?
amended by a special majority of the (a) Only one (b) Only two
two houses of Parliament. (c) All three (d) None
 6. With reference to the Constitution,
WORKBOOK POLITY consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution allows coordination
and assurance to its citizens.
2. The Constitution can specify who
has the power to make decisions in a
society.
Which of the statements given above is/
are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None
7. ‘The Constitution is called a Living
Document’. Which of the following does
not describes this Living document
concept ?
(a) Modifications as per the changes in the
society can be made in the Constitution.
(b) Flexibility in interpretations of the
Constitution.
(c) Non transformative nature of the
Constitution.
(d) Amendments are a part of the
Constitutional evolution.
8. Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The Judiciary can practically
amend the Constitution through a formal
amendment.
Statement-II: The Basic Structure doctrine
consolidates the balance between rigidity
and flexibility.
Which one of the following is correct in
respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct. and Statement-II is the correct
explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II
are correct and Statement-II is not the
correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II
is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-
II is correct
9. Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The 42nd Amendment to
the Indian Constitution is called the “Mini
Constitution”.
Statement-II: The 42nd amendment
was made in the background of Internal
Emergency in the Country.
Which one of the following is correct in
respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct. and Statement-II is the correct
explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II
are correct and Statement-II is not the
correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II
is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II
is correct
10. Consider the following statements:
1. There are some amendments that have
been made as a result of the consensus
among the political parties.
2. The Amendments to the Constitution
cannot be a product of different
interpretations of the Constitution given
by the judiciary and the government of
the day.
3. All amendments to the Constitution
can be initiated both in the Parliament
and the State Legislatures.
How many of the above statements is/
are correct?
(a) Only one (b) Only two
(c) Only three (d) None
11. Consider the following statements
regarding the philosophy of the
Constitution :
1. It restricts the excessive power of the
State from becoming a tyrant.
2. It emphasises the importance of
granting common people’s right to
exercise political self-determination.
Which of the statements given above is/
are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
22
12. Who among the following protested (b) It prohibits the state from reasonable

Indian Constitution and its Philosophy

against the British government’s interference in religious matters.
restrictions on the freedom of the press (c) It allows religious communities to
in the early 19th century? establish and maintain their educational
(a) Gopal Krishna Gokhakle institutions.
(b) Raja Rammohan Roy (d) It allows reservations for seats in the
legislature for religious minorities.
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
15. Consider the following statements:
(d) Lokmanya Tilak
Statement-I: The Constitution provides
13. With reference to Indian polity, a ‘liberal special status to the State of Nagaland.
constitution’ ensures
Statement-II: The Indian Constitution
1. Individual rights provides for asymmetric federalism.
2. Social justice Which one of the following is correct
3. Individual rights are always prioritised with respect to the above statements?
over social justice (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
Select the correct answer using the code correct, and Statement-II is the correct
given below. explanation for Statement-I.
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct, and Statement-II is not the
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 3 only correct explanation for Statement-I.
14. Which one of the following statements is (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II
correct regarding Indian secularism? is incorrect.
(a) It envisages the mutual exclusion of (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but
state and religion. Statement-II is correct.

SUBJECTIVE QUESTIONS FOR PRACTICE

1. Examine how the British Parliament’s influence shaped Indian Constitution with separation of
powers, bicameralism, and the rule of law.
2. Explore the amendment process of the Indian Constitution and its role in maintaining relevance.
3. The constituent assembly worked on the principle of deliberation, despite the disagreements
and deadlock. Discuss this statement.
4. How does the Indian constitution display an inherent organic character?
5. Explore the philosophical basis of the guiding principles in the Indian Constitution.
6. Which aspects of the Indian Constitution illustrate its federal character and decentralized
structure?
7. What are the criticisms surrounding the functioning of democratic systems?

ANSWER KEY
1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (d) 6. (c) 7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (b) 10. (a)
11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (a)

23
WORKBOOK POLITY HINTS & SOLUTION
1. Answer (b)
Statement 1 is incorrect: The “Basic
Structure” doctrine refers to a legal principle
established by the Supreme Court of India
that certain core elements or principles of the
Constitution cannot be altered or amended
by the Parliament, even if the amendment
process provided by the Constitution is
followed. This doctrine acts as a safeguard
against arbitrary changes that could
undermine the fundamental principles and
values enshrined in the Constitution. The
concept of the basic structure was first
introduced in the landmark judgement of
Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
(1973).
This ruling has contributed to the evolution
of the Constitution in the following ways:
● It has set specific limits on Parliament’s
power to amend the Constitution. It
says that no amendment can violate the
basic structure of the Constitution.
● It allows Parliament to amend any and
all parts of the Constitution (within
this limitation). Hence, Statement 2
is correct
● It places the Judiciary as the final
authority in deciding if an amendment
violates basic structure and what
constitutes the basic structure. Hence,
Statement 3 is correct.
2. Answer (d)
The Indian Constitution is often referred to
as a “living document” due to several factors
that allow it to adapt and remain relevant
to changing times and societal needs. The
concept of a living document means that the
Constitution is not rigid or fixed; instead, it
can be interpreted, amended, and applied
in ways that accommodate the evolving
dynamics of society.
The following are factors that make the
Indian Constitution a living document:
● Flexibility: In the actual working of the
Constitution, there has been enough
flexibility in interpretations. Both
political practice and judicial rulings
have shown maturity and flexibility in
implementing the Constitution.
● Amendment Process: The Constitution
can be amended to address emerging
issues and challenges. Our Constitution
accepts the necessity of modifications
according to changing needs of society.
This allows the Constitution to evolve in
response to changing circumstances.
● Judicial Interpretation: The judiciary
plays a crucial role in interpreting the
Constitution. The Constitution is made
applicable in modern times by the court’s
decisions, which offer new interpretations
of constitutional provisions and modify
them to fit current circumstances.
● Inclusivity: The Constitution
acknowledges the diversity of India’s
population and provides mechanisms
for the representation and protection of
various communities. This inclusivity
allows the Constitution to remain
relevant in a pluralistic society
3. Answer (c)
Statement 1 is correct: Some Provisions
in the Constitution can be amended
by a simple law of Parliament. i.e., a
simple majority. No special procedure
for amendment is required in such cases.
Such provisions include the abolition or
creation of legislative councils in states,
salaries and allowances of the members of
Parliament, privileges of the Parliament, its
members and its committees, conferment
of more jurisdiction on the Supreme Court,
citizenship–acquisition and termination,
elections to Parliament and state
legislatures, Fifth Schedule – administration
of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes;
and Sixth Schedule–administration of tribal
areas.
Statement 2 is correct: A special majority
refers to any majority other than a simple,
absolute, and effective majority. It is a
majority of two-third members present and
24
 voting, along with 50% of the total strength
of the House. The provisions that can be
amended in this way include Fundamental
Rights and Directive Principles of State
Policy.
Statement 3 is correct: Some provisions,
like the election of the President and its
manner, the extent of the executive power
of the Union and the states, the Supreme
Court and high courts, the distribution of
legislative powers between the Union and
the states, any of the lists in the Seventh
Schedule, the representation of states in
Parliament, and the power of Parliament to
amend the Constitution and its procedure
(Article 368 itself), are amended by a
special majority of the Parliament and the
consent of half of the State legislatures.
4. Answer (b)
Certain provisions of the Indian Constitution
can be amended by obtaining the consent of
at least half of the states in addition to a
special majority in both houses of Parliament.
This process is outlined in Article 368 of
the Constitution. These provisions relate to
matters that affect the federal structure of
the country, including the distribution of
powers between the central government
and the states. For example, changes to
the provisions related to the election of the
President, representation of states in
Parliament, etc. require the consent of
half of the states in India, in addition to the
special majority in Parliament.
5. Answer (d)
The 42nd Amendment Act of the
Constitution of India, enacted in 1976,
was introduced during the period of the
Emergency declared in India from 1975 to
1977. Some of the key changes brought
about by the 42nd Amendment Act include:
● Fundamental Duties: Part IV-A was
added to the Constitution, introducing
the concept of Fundamental Duties for
citizens. These duties emphasise respect
for the Constitution, national symbols,
and values and encourage citizens to
promote harmony, patriotism, and a
sense of integrity. Hence, Statement 1
is correct.
25
● The duration of the Lok Sabha was
Indian Constitution and its Philosophy
extended from five to six years by the
42nd Amendment Act of 1976. Hence,
Statement 2 is correct.
● Judicial Review Limitation: The
Amendment curtailed the power of the
judiciary to review the validity of laws
amending the Constitution. It was
intended to limit the judiciary’s ability to
challenge Constitutional Amendments,
thereby reducing checks on the
government’s power. Hence, statement
3 is correct .
6. Answer (c)
● Statement 1 is correct: The
Constitution provides a set of basic rules
that allow for coordination amongst
members of a society. It also provides
several Fundamental rights and duties
which also acts as an assurance to its
citizens.
● Statement 2 is correct: A Constitution
is a body of fundamental principles
according to which a state is constituted
or governed. One of the essential
functions of a constitution is to specify
who has the power to make decisions
in a society. It also decides how the
government will be constituted.
This includes not only the type of
government but also an agreement on
certain ideals that they all believe the
country should uphold.
7. Answer (c)
The Constitution is a sacred document and
it is an instrument that may require changes
from time to time. It is transformative in
nature. Constitution accepts the necessity
of modifications according to changing
needs of the society. In the actual working
of the Constitution, there has been enough
flexibility of interpretations. Since it was
first enacted in 1950, there have been 105
amendments to the Constitution of India. All
living documents evolve through debates,
arguments, competition and practical
politics.
 8. Answer (d)
WORKBOOK POLITY
● Statement-I is incorrect: The Supreme
Court gave the Kesavananda ruling
in 1973. In the past four decades,
this decision has governed all
interpretations of the Constitution
and all institutions in the country
have accepted the theory of basic
structure. In fact, the theory of basic
structure is itself an example of a living
constitution. There is no mention of this
theory in the Constitution. It has emerged
from judicial interpretation. Thus, the
Judiciary and its interpretation have
practically amended the Constitution
without a formal amendment.
● Statement-II is correct: The basic
structure doctrine has consolidated the
balance between rigidity and flexibility.
By saying that certain parts cannot be
amended, it has underlined the rigid
nature while by allowing amendments to
all others it has underlined the flexible
nature of the amending process.
9. Answer (b)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II
are correct and Statement-II is not the
correct explanation for Statement-I
● Statement-I is correct: The 42nd
amendment to the Indian Constitution
was seen as a wide ranging amendment
affecting large parts of the
Constitution. Hence, it is also called
as the Mini Constitution. Various
changes were made in the Preamble,
DPSP’s, 7th schedule, Fundamental
Duties etc. It also attempted to make
changes in the Judicial Powers of High
Court.
● Statement-II is correct: The 38th,
39th and 42nd amendments were
made in the background of internal
emergency declared in the country from
June 1975. They sought to make basic
changes in many crucial parts of the
Constitution.
10. Answer (a)
● Statement 1 is correct: There are many
amendments that have been made
as a result of the consensus among
the political parties. This consensus
reflected the prevailing political
philosophy and aspirations of the
society. Example- The Anti-defection
amendment (52nd amendment), the
61st amendment bringing down the
minimum age for voting from 21
to 18 years, the 73rd and the 74th
amendments, etc.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: A number
of amendments are a product of
different interpretations of the
Constitution given by the judiciary
and the government of the day. When
these clashed, the Parliament had to
insert an amendment underlining
one particular interpretation as the
authentic one. In the period 1970-
1975, the Parliament repeatedly made
amendments to overcome the adverse
interpretations by the judiciary.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: All
amendments to the Constitution
are initiated only in the Parliament.
Besides the special majority in the
Parliament, no outside agency like a
constitution commission or a separate
body is required for amending the
Constitution.
11. Answer (c)
● Statement 1 is correct: The philosophy
of a constitution is to establish a
framework of principles, rules, and
values that govern the structure and
functioning of a government, as well
as the rights and responsibilities of
its citizens. One of the central aims
of the philosophy of constitutional
frameworks is to restrict the
concentration of excessive power by
the state to become a tyrant.
26
 ● Statement 2 is correct: Constitutions
provide peaceful and democratic means
to bring about social transformation. It
emphasises the importance of granting
the common people the right to
exercise political self-determination
through democratic decentralisation,
representation, protection of rights, and
government accountability.
12. Answer (b)
As early as the beginning of the nineteenth
century, Raja Rammohan Roy protested
against the curtailment of the freedom
of the press by the British colonial state.
Roy argued that a state responsive to the
needs of individuals must provide them
with the means by which their needs are
communicated. Therefore, the state must
permit unlimited liberty of publication.
Roy’s stance underscored the significance
of an open press as a vehicle for people’s
voices and necessities.
13. Answer (b)
Option (a) is correct: The liberalism of
the Indian Constitution differs from
classical liberalism in two ways. First,
it guarantees fundamental rights to
individuals, including freedom of speech,
expression, religion, and the right to equality.
These rights are considered essential to
individual dignity and are protected from
encroachment by the government.
Option (b) is correct: Second, Liberalism
was always linked to social justice. Ex.
provision for reservations for Scheduled
Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the
Constitution.
Option 3 is incorrect: Classical liberalism
always privileges the rights of individuals
over demands for social justice and
community values. While Indian liberalism
creates a balance between the Social
Justice and Fundamental rights. Thus,
the doctrine of basic structure envisages
harmony between the Fundamental
27
rights and DPSP (Directive principles of
Indian Constitution and its Philosophy
State policy).
Indian liberalism has two streams. The first
stream began with Rammohan Roy. He
emphasised individual rights, particularly
the rights of women. The second stream
included thinkers like K.C. Sen, Justice
Ranade and Swami Vivekananda. They
introduced the spirit of social justice within
orthodox Hinduism. For Vivekananda, such
a reordering of Hindu society could not have
been possible without liberal principles. -
K.M. Panikkar, In Defence of Liberalism,
Bombay, Asia Publishing House, 1962.
14. Answer (c)
Indian secularism is not the same as
the Western concept of the separation of
religion and state. In India, there is no
mutual exclusion between the State and
Religion. Indian secularism emphasises
religious tolerance, equal treatment of
all religions, and the state’s impartiality
towards religious matters. This includes
the reasonable interference of the state
in religious matters in order to protect
individual rights. Ex: Triple Talaq was
made a legal offence in India. Originally,
the term ‘secularism ’ was not mentioned in
the Indian Constitution; it was added by the
42nd Amendment Act of 1976.
Option (c) is correct: Indian secularism
gives rights to all religious communities,
such as the right to establish and
maintain their educational institutions.
Freedom of religion in India means the
freedom of religion of both individuals and
communities.
In contrast, the western model of
secularism follows the mutual exclusion
of state and religion in order to protect
values such as individual freedom and
citizenship rights. Both religion and state
must stay away from each other’s internal
affairs. The state must not intervene in
the domain of religion; religion likewise
should not dictate state policy or influence
 the conduct of the state. In other words, Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh, Assam,
WORKBOOK POLITY mutual exclusion means that religion and Goa, Manipur, and Karnataka.
state must be strictly separated. The Indian ● Statement-II is correct: “Asymmetric
Constitution provides reservations for
federalism” means federalism based
socially and educationally backward
on unequal powers and relationships
citizens, not religious minorities.
in political, administrative, and fiscal
15. Answer (a) spheres between the units constituting
● Statement-I is correct: Under Article a federation. Unlike the constitutional
371A, the privilege of special status symmetry of American federalism,
was accorded to the North-Eastern Indian federalism has been
State of Nagaland. It not only gives constitutionally asymmetric with a
validity to pre-existing laws within
strong central government.
Nagaland but also protects local
identity through restrictions on ● Hence, Both Statement-I and
immigration. Other states with special Statement-II are correct, and
status are Maharashtra, Andhra Statement-II is the correct explanation
Pradesh, Gujarat, Telangana, Sikkim, for Statement-I.

SUBJECTIVE QUESTIONS WITH MODEL ANSWERS

1. Examine how the British Parliament’s influence shaped Indian Constitution with
separation of powers, bicameralism, and the rule of law.
Ans. Constitutions shaped by the British Parliament incorporate key features like the separation
of powers (Article 50 of the Indian Constitution), which designates distinct roles for the
executive, legislature, and judiciary. The presence of a bicameral legislature (Article 79)
mirrors the British model, providing checks and balances. Furthermore, the rule of law
(Article 14) ensures equality before the law and prevents arbitrary actions. Inspired by
British constitutional principles, these features in constitutions such as India’s promote
effective governance and protect citizens’ rights, upholding the foundational values of the
Constitution.
2. Explore the amendment process of the Indian Constitution and its role in maintaining
relevance.
Ans. The amendment process of the Indian Constitution, defined by Articles 368, incorporates
a careful approach to change. For instance, the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 introduced
significant alterations, while the 73rd and 74th Amendments in 1992 brought constitutional
provisions for decentralization of power. These amendments reflect the importance of the
procedure, requiring a two-thirds majority in Parliament to ensure modifications align with
the spirit of the Constitution and maintain its relevance amidst India’s evolving socio-political
landscape. Amendments are done in response to the demand/requirement of laws to deal with
new socio-political realities. This way, they keep the Constitution relevant.
3. The constituent assembly worked on the principle of deliberation, despite the
disagreements and deadlock. Discuss
Ans. Guided by Indian Constitution makers like Dr. B.R. Ambedkar and Rajendra Prasad, the
Constituent Assembly prioritized deliberation over disagreements. Despite deadlocks and
challenges, they engaged in extensive discussions to accommodate various viewpoints. This
inclusiveness extended to Muslims, depressed classes, princely states, and diverse communities,
ensuring their representation. By valuing dialogue and compromise, the assembly crafted
a constitution that respected minority rights, empowered marginalized sections, and united
India’s varied identities under a strong democratic foundation.

28
 4. How does the Indian constitution display an inherent organic character?

Indian Constitution and its Philosophy

Ans. The Indian Constitution’s inherent organic character is exemplified by its innate adaptability
and resilience. Over 100 Amendment Acts, all in response to changing societal needs, show
that Constitution of India organically adjusts itself with change in socio-political realities. 42nd
Amendment Act (1976) is a case in point. There are landmark cases such as Kesavananda Bharati
(1973) which upheld the concept of basic structure and ensured that core principles endure.
Interpretations under Minerva Mills (1980) case affirmed the Constitution’s political nature.
These instances, spanning years, emphasize the Constitution’s dynamic nature, evolving while
safeguarding essential tenets and maintaining its political relevance through changing times.
5. Explore the philosophical basis of the guiding principles in the Indian Constitution.
Ans. The Indian Constitution’s guiding principles rest on a philosophical bedrock of individual
freedom with social justice. It champions individual rights and liberties, balancing them with
the imperative of a just and equitable society. Rooted in India’s diverse heritage, it aims to
reconcile tradition with progress, fostering unity amidst diversity. This philosophical essence
shapes the nation’s quest for a democratic, inclusive, and harmonious future, encapsulating
its core values and aspirations.
6. Which aspects of the Indian Constitution illustrate its federal character and decentralized
structure?
Ans. Indian Constitution embodies federalism and decentralization through:
* Distribution of Powers: The allocation of subjects between central and state governments
maintains a clear division of authority.
* Dual Politics: Bicameral legislature, with a representation of states in the Rajya Sabha,
upholds state’s interests.
* State Autonomy: States can exercise their own jurisdiction (Articles 2 and 3).
* Governor System: Each state has a Governor, ensuring representation of the central
government at the state level.
* Emergency Provisions: Balancing federalism with national interests during emergencies
(Articles 352-356).
7. What are the criticisms surrounding the functioning of democratic systems?
Ans. While democracy is celebrated for its emphasis on citizen participation and representation,
there are notable drawbacks, few of which are mentioned below:
* Slow Decision-Making: Due to debates and consensus-building.
* Majority Tyranny: Majority opinion need not be in the best interests of minorities.
* Populism: Politicians may prioritize short-term popular demands over long-term goals.
* Inefficiency: Bureaucratic red tape can hinder effective governance.
* Polarization: Divisive politics can lead to social unrest and tensions.
* Voter Ignorance: Uninformed citizenry might make wrong choice in electing their representative.

29
 4 Citizenship
OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS FOR PRACTICE

1. Consider the following statements about How many of the above given methods
Citizenship in India : are correct?
1. The Citizenship provisions can be found (a) Only two
in Part I of the Indian Constitution (b) Only three
2. It is the full and equal membership of a (c) Only four
political community.
(d) All five
3. It involves obligations and rights of the
citizens. 4. Consider the following statements:
Which of the above given statements is/ 1. Citizenship is not related to equality
are incorrect? and rights.
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only 2. Different state systems recognise
different Rights for their citizens.
(c) 1 only (d) 2 only
Which of the above statement(s) is/are
2. Which one of the following statements is
incorrect regarding Citizenship?
not correct regarding Indian Citizenship?
(a) 1 only
(a) Indian Citizenship deals with only
Political rights. (b) 2 only
(b) The Indian Constitution adopted an (c) Both 1 and 2
inclusive notion of citizenship. (d) None
(c) The state does not discriminate against 5. With reference to Nation States, consider
citizens on grounds only of religion, the following statements:
race, caste, sex, place of birth. 1. India defines itself as a secular and
(d) Freedom of movement is one of the democratic nation state.
rights granted to citizens in our country. 2. Nation states claim that their
3. With respect to the acquisition of Indian boundaries define territory, culture,
Citizenship, consider the following and shared history.
methods: Which of the above statement(s) is/are
1. Birth correct ?
2. Descent (a) 1 only
3. Registration (b) 2 only
4. Naturalisation (c) Both 1 and 2
5. Inclusion of territory (d) None
 SUBJECTIVE QUESTIONS FOR PRACTICE
1. Explain citizenship’s connection to equality rights and its implications for individuals.
2. What are the issues concerning stateless people’s rights and nationality in India
3. While equal rights may be bestowed upon all citizens, not all can equally utilize them. Clarify.
ANSWER KEY
1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (c)
HINTS & SOLUTION
1. Answer (c)
Statement 1 is incorrect: The provisions
relating to Citizenship can be found in
Part Two of the Indian Constitution and
in subsequent laws passed by Parliament.
Articles 5–11 (Part II) of the Constitution
are related to Citizenship in India.
Statement 2 is correct: Citizenship
is described as the full and equal
membership of a Political community.
It means that all citizens have equal Rights
and enjoy all civil as well as Political Rights
under the protection of the State in return
for their loyalty to the State.
Statement 3 is correct: Citizenship
involves certain rights as well as the
obligations of citizens to each other
and to society. These would include not
just the legal obligations imposed by states
but also a moral obligation to participate
in and contribute to the shared life of the
community. The Rights (Fundamental
Rights) and obligations (Fundamental
Duties) for citizens are listed in the Indian
Constitution as well.
Reference: Chapter 6, Citizenship, Political
Theory.
2. Answer (a)
The statement in option a is incorrect:
Citizenship on a broader perspective,
especially Indian Citizenship involves
three kinds of rights: civil, political, and
social. Civil rights protect an individual’s
31
Citizenship
life, liberty, and property. Political rights
enable individuals to participate in
the process of governance. Social rights
give individuals access to education and
employment. Together, they make it possible
for the citizen to lead a life of dignity
The statement in Option b is correct:
The Indian Constitution adopted an
essentially democratic and inclusive
notion of citizenship. It facilitates the
integration of outsiders by providing an easy
and transparent pathway to citizenship. In
India, citizenship can be acquired by birth,
descent, registration, naturalisation, or
inclusion of territory.
The statement in Option c is correct:
There is also a provision in the Indian
Constitution that the state should not
discriminate against citizens on grounds
only of religion, race, caste, sex, place of
birth, or any of them [Article 15(1) of the
Indian Constitution under Right to Equality]
The statement in Option d is correct:
One of the rights granted to citizens in
our country is freedom of movement.
Article 19 (1) (d) of Part III of the Indian
Constitution deals with the fundamental
right to freedom of movement. It entitles
every citizen to move freely throughout the
territory of the country.
Reference: Chapter 6, Citizenship, Political
Theory.
 3. Answer (d)
WORKBOOK POLITY In India, Citizenship can be acquired
by birth, descent, registration,
naturalisation, or inclusion of territory.
The conditions and procedure for the
Acquisition of Indian Citizenship are
regulated by the Citizenship Act, of 1955.
Reference: Chapter 6, Citizenship, Political
Theory.
4. Answer (a)
Statement 1 is incorrect: Citizenship
is not merely a legal concept. It is also
closely related to larger notions of
equality and rights. It ensures equality
by countering the divisive effects of class
hierarchy. It thus facilitates the creation of
a better-integrated and more harmonious
community.
Statement 2 is correct: The development of
human personality depends on the system
of rights available to individuals. Different
state systems recognise different rights-
the rights available to the Americans
would be different from those available
to the Indians. A liberal-democratic society
would give primacy to different Rights than
a socialist society.
Reference: Chapter 6, Citizenship, Political
Theory.
5. Answer (c)
Statement 1 is correct: A nation-state is
a territorially bounded sovereign polity—
i.e., a state—that is ruled in the name
of a community of citizens who identify
themselves as a nation. India defines itself
as a secular, democratic, nation state.
Statement 2 is correct: Nation states
claim that their boundaries define not just
a territory but also a unique culture and
shared history. The national identity may
be expressed through symbols like a flag,
national anthem, national language, or
certain ceremonial practises, among other
things.
Reference: Chapter 6, Citizenship, Political
Theory.

SUBJECTIVE QUESTIONS WITH MODEL ANSWERS

1. Explain citizenship’s connection to equality rights and its implications for individuals.
Ans. Citizenship intertwines with equal rights, ensuring equal treatment regardless of origin,
race, or gender. It establishes a shared identity within a nation, granting individuals legal
protections and entitlements. Citizenship also entails responsibilities towards society and
adherence to laws. This connection promotes social cohesion, prevents discrimination, and
fosters inclusivity. However, the interpretation and enforcement of citizenship-related rights
can sometimes be complex, impacting access to benefits and participation in civic life.
2. What are the issues concerning stateless people’s rights and nationality in India?
Ans. In India, stateless people face hurdles in securing rights and nationality. The Rohingya refugees
in West Bengal, for example, lack citizenship, leaving them marginalized and deprived of
benefits. Additionally, the Chakma refugees in Arunachal Pradesh struggle with statelessness,
leading to difficulties in accessing education and employment. These instances highlight
the urgent need for legal and policy reforms to ensure stateless individuals are recognized,
protected, and integrated into the Indian society, addressing their rights and identity concerns.
3. While equal rights may be bestowed upon all citizens, not all can equally utilize them. Clarify.
Ans. Although equal rights are guaranteed to every citizen, their practical exercise can vary due
to socio-economic disparities, discrimination, or limited access to resources. For instance,
while education is a fundamental right (Article 21A), unequal schooling facilities can hinder
some from fully enjoying this right. Similarly, economic constraints might limit access to legal
representation despite the right to a fair trial. Thus, disparities in circumstances can result in
unequal realization of rights despite their theoretical equality.

32
 Rights in the Indian
5 Constitution (FRs
and DPSPs)
OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS FOR PRACTICE
1. Consider the following statements:
1. No person would be punished for the
same offence more than once
2. No criminal law shall declare any action
illegal from a backdate.
3. A person can be compelled to give
evidence against himself or herself.
How many of the above rights are
provided by the Constitution ?
(a) Only one (b) Only two
(c) All three (d) None
2. Consider the following statements with
reference to the Writs issued by the
court:
1. Mandamus is issued to an office holder
who is not doing his legal duty.
2. In Quo Warranto, the court orders
a lower court to transfer a matter to
higher court.
3. Certiorari is issued when a person holds
an office he is not entitled to.
Which of the statements given above is/
are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
3. With reference to Fundamental Rights in
India, consider the following statements:
1. Right to Property is neither a
Fundamental Right nor a Constitutional
Right.
2. Abolition of Untouchability is a
Fundamental Right under Right against
Exploitation.
3. The Constitution has guaranteed the
right to propagate one’s religion.
Which of the statements given above are
incorrect?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
4. Which of the following gives a citizen
the right to approach courts to get any
of the fundamental rights restored in
case of their violation?
(a) Right to Equality.
(b) Right to Freedom.
(c) Right to Constitutional remedies.
(d) Right to Life.
5. Consider the following statements:
1. The Indian Constitution does not make
the enjoyment of rights conditional
upon the fulfillment of duties.
2. Both Fundamental Rights and
Fundamental Duties are available to
Citizens as well as Foreigners.
 Which of the statements given above is/
WORKBOOK POLITY are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
6. Consider the following pairs :
Writs Associated Features
1. Prohibition: It restricts the person 7. Consider the following statements:
from acting as an
office holder.
2. Habeas The court orders that
Corpus: the arrested person
should be presented
before it.
3. Mandamus: Issued against
any public body, a
corporation or an
inferior court.
4. Certiorari: Issued when a lower
court has considered
a case beyond its
jurisdiction.
How many of the above pairs are correctly
matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
1. Ordinary rights may be changed by the
ordinary process of law making, but a
fundamental right may only be changed
by amending the Constitution itself.
2. The right to form associations is often
restricted for the protection of the
interests of the Scheduled Tribes.
Which of the statements given above is/
are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

SUBJECTIVE QUESTIONS FOR PRACTICE

1. What is the significance of recognizing water as a fundamental right in India’s legal framework?
2. What does social marginalization entail in Indian society?
3. How do cultural and educational rights as ensured in Constitution of India, contribute to
diversity and equity?
4. What are effective strategies for water conservation to address growing resource challenges?

ANSWER KEY
1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (a) 6. (c) 7. (a)

34
 HINTS & SOLUTION
1. Answer (b)
Our Constitution ensures that persons
accused of various offences would also
get sufficient protection. We often tend to
believe that anyone who is charged with
some offence is guilty. However, no one is
guilty unless the court has found that person
guilty of an offence. It is also necessary that
a person accused of any crime should get
adequate opportunity to defend herself or
himself. To ensure a fair trial in courts, the
Constitution has provided three rights:
● no person would be punished for the
same offence more than once. Hence,
Statement 1 is correct.
● No criminal law shall declare any action
as illegal from a backdate. Hence,
Statement 2 is correct.
● no person shall be asked to give evidence
against himself or herself. Hence,
Statement 3 is incorrect.
Reference: NCERT Class 11th Indian
Constitution at Work, chapter 2
2. Answer (c)
Our Constitution contains a very impressive
list of Fundamental Rights. But merely
writing down a list of rights is not enough.
There has to be a way through which they
can be realised in practice and defended
against any attack on these rights. Right
to constitutional remedies is the means
through which this is to be achieved. The
courts can issue various special orders
known as writs.
● Habeas corpus: A writ of habeas corpus
means that the court orders that the
arrested person should be presented
before it. It can also order to set free an
arrested person if the manner or grounds
of arrest are not lawful or satisfactory.
● Mandamus: This writ is issued when the
court finds that a particular office holder
is not doing legal duty and thereby is
35
Rights in the Indian constitution (FRs and DPSPs)
infringing on the right of an individual.
Hence, Statement 1 is correct
● Prohibition: This writ is issued by a
higher court (High Court or Supreme
Court) when a lower court has considered
a case going beyond its jurisdiction.
● Quo Warranto: If the court finds that a
person is holding office but is not entitled
to hold that office, it issues the writ of
quo warranto and restricts that person
from acting as an office holder. Hence,
Statement 2 is incorrect
● Certiorari: Under this writ, the court
orders a lower court or another authority
to transfer a matter pending before it to
the higher authority or court. Hence,
Statement 3 is incorrect
Reference: NCERT Class 11th Indian
Constitution at Work, chapter 2
3. Answer (a)
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Right to
Property created problems in attaining the
goal of socialism and equitable distribution
of wealth. It was removed from the list of
Fundamental Rights in 1978 by the 44th
constitutional amendment. However, it is
still a constitutional right under Article
300A of the Constitution of India.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Abolition
of Untouchability (Article 17) was
incorporated in Part III of the Indian
constitution. It is a Fundamental Right
under the Right to Equality (not under
Right against Exploitation).
Statement 3 is correct: All persons are
equally entitled to freedom of conscience
and the right to profess, practice and
propagate religion freely. However, it
does not mean that one can force another
person to convert his/her religion by force
or allurement.
Reference: NCERT Class 11th Indian
Constitution at Work, chapter 2
 4. Answer (c)
WORKBOOK POLITY The right to constitutional remedies under
Article 32 is the means through which
the Fundamental Rights could be realized
in practice and defended against any
attack. It provides a citizen the right to
directly approach the Supreme Court to
issue directions, orders or writs for the
enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
Dr. Ambedkar considered the right to
constitutional remedies as the ‘heart and
soul of the constitution.’
Reference: NCERT Class 11th Indian
Constitution at Work, chapter 2
5. Answer (a)
Statement 1 is correct: The Indian
Constitution does not make the enjoyment
of rights dependent or conditional upon
the fulfillment of duties. In this sense,
the inclusion of fundamental duties has
not changed the status of our fundamental
rights.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Fundamental
Duties were added to the Constitution by
the 42nd Amendment in 1976, upon the
recommendations of the Swaran Singh
7. Answer (a)
Committee. The Fundamental duties
are applicable only to citizens and not
to Foreigners whereas, some of the
fundamental rights are available to only
citizens i.e Prohibition of discrimination
on the grounds of race, religion, caste, sex
or place of birth, Equality of opportunity in
matters of public employment, etc while
some Fundamental rights are available to
both citizens and foreigners i.e.Equality
before law and Equal protection of law,
Protection of life and personal liberty, etc.
Reference: NCERT Class 11th Indian
Constitution at Work, chapter 2
6. Answer (c)
Pair 1 is incorrect: Prohibition is issued
by a higher court (High Court or Supreme
Court) when a lower court has considered
a case going beyond its jurisdiction. If the
court finds that a person is holding office but
is not entitled to hold that office, it issues
the writ of quo warranto and restricts that
person from acting as an office holder.
Pair 2 is correct: Habeas corpus means
that the court orders that the arrested
person should be presented before it. It
can also order to set free an arrested person
if the manner or grounds of arrest are not
lawful or satisfactory.
Pair 3 is correct: Mandamus means ‘We
command.’ This writ is used by the court
to order the public official who has failed
to perform his duty or refused to do his
duty. Besides public officials, Mandamus
can be issued against any public body, a
corporation, an inferior court, a tribunal,
or government for the same purpose.
Pair 4 is correct: Certiorari, the court
orders a lower court or another authority
to transfer a matter pending before it to
the higher authority or court. Prohibition
is a writ issued by a higher court (High
Court or Supreme Court) when a lower
court has considered a case going beyond
its jurisdiction.
Reference: NCERT Class 11th Indian
Constitution at Work, chapter 2
Statement 1 is correct: While ordinary legal
rights are protected and enforced by ordinary
law, Fundamental Rights are protected
and guaranteed by the constitution of the
country. Ordinary rights may be changed
by the legislature through the ordinary
process of law making, but a fundamental
right may only be changed by amending
the Constitution itself.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Right to
form associations or unions may have
restrictions in the interests of the
sovereignty and integrity of India, public
order or morality. Right to movement may
have restrictions for the protection of the
interests of any Scheduled Tribe i.e.Inner
line permit in the state of Arunachal
Pradesh, Mizoram, Nagaland, Manipur and
Lakshadweep.
Reference: NCERT Class 11th Indian
Constitution at Work, chapter 2
36
 SUBJECTIVE QUESTIONS WITH MODEL ANSWERS

Rights in the Indian constitution (FRs and DPSPs)

1. What is the significance of recognizing water as a fundamental right in India’s legal
framework?
Ans. Recognizing water as a fundamental right in India underscores its importance for citizens’
well-being. For instance, in rural areas, access to clean water for drinking and agriculture
empowers communities, reducing waterborne diseases and enhancing livelihoods. This
recognition prompted initiatives like the Jal Jeevan Mission, aiming to provide piped water
to every household. By recognising availability of clean water as a fundamental right, India
strives to improve lives, health, and overall prosperity for its citizens.
2. What does social marginalization entail in Indian society?
Ans. Social marginalization in Indian society encompasses the systematic exclusion and
discrimination against disadvantaged groups. For instance, the caste system has historically
marginalized Dalits, limiting their access to education and jobs. Similarly, women often
face gender-based marginalization, hindering their participation in various sectors. These
practices perpetuate inequality and hinder social progress. Addressing this entails policies
that ensure equal opportunities, representation, and rights for all segments, fostering an
inclusive and just society.
3. How do cultural and educational rights as ensured in Constitution of India, contribute
to diversity and equity?
Ans. India’s cultural and educational rights, guaranteed under Articles 29 and 30 of the Constitution,
uphold diversity. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar states that these provisions serve as safeguards for minority
communities with distinct languages and cultures. These rights facilitate establishment and
management of minority institutions, promoting cultural preservation and enrichment. By
ensuring equal educational opportunities for all, India’s Constitution fosters social inclusivity,
reinforcing its commitment to diversity and equity.
4. What are effective strategies for water conservation to address growing resource
challenges?
Ans. Water conservation entails various strategies to mitigate resource challenges. Implementing
efficient irrigation techniques, such as drip irrigation, minimizes wastage. Rainwater harvesting
collects and stores rainfall for later use. Promoting water-efficient appliances and practices
like fixing leaks and using low-flow fixtures reduces domestic consumption. Additionally,
educating communities about water conservation fosters responsible usage. These measures
collectively contribute to sustainable water management, ensuring adequate supply for present
and future generations while addressing the mounting concerns of water scarcity.

37
 Election and
6 Representation
OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS FOR PRACTICE
1. Consider the following statements with
reference to the system of elections:
1. In First Past the Post System, voters
vote for the political party, while in
proportional representation, they vote
for candidate.
2. In First Past the Post System every
constituency elects one representative,
while in proportional representation,
more than one candidate can be elected.
Which of the statements given above is/
are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. The Election Commission of India is not
responsible for the election of which of
the following?
(a) Urban Local bodies
(b) Legislative assembly
(c) Lok sabha
(d) Office of President of India
3. Consider the following statements about
First Past the Post System:
1. The winning candidate need not secure
a majority of the votes.
2. The Constitution prescribes First Past
the Post system for the election of
President, Vice President, elections to
the Lok Sabha and State Legislative
Assemblies.
Which of the statements given above is/
are incorrect?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
4. Consider the following statements:
1. The Proportional Representation system
offers voters a choice not only between
parties but also between specific
candidates.
2. More than one representative may be
elected from one constituency in the
First Past The Post system.
3. The entire country may be a single
constituency in the Proportional
Representation system.
How many of the above statements are
correct?
(a) Only one (b) Only two
(c) All three (d) None
5. With reference to Adult Franchise in
India, consider the following statements:
1. Adult Franchise is consistent with
the principle of equality and non-
discrimination.
2. The Right to Vote is a Fundamental
Right in India.
3. In S. R. Bommai v. Union of India, the
Supreme Court decided to reduce the
age of voting eligibility from 21 years to
18 years.
 How many of the above statements are 7. Consider the following statements:

Election and Representation

incorrect? 1. The State Election Commission
(a) Only one (b) Only two recognises political parties as Regional
(c) All three (d) None Political Parties.
6. With reference to the Election 2. The superintendence and control of
Commission of India, consider the the preparation of electoral rolls for the
following statements: conduct of elections to the Legislature
1. The Election Commission of India is of a State is vested in the State Election
concerned with the elections to the Commission.
panchayats and municipalities in the 3. All the nomination papers relating
states.
to the State Legislative election are
2. The Delimitation Commission is submitted directly to the Chief Election
appointed by the Election Commission Commissioner.
of India.
How many of the above statements are
Which of the statements given above is/
incorrect?
are correct?
(a) 1 only (a) Only one
(b) 2 only (b) Only two
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) All three
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) None

SUBJECTIVE QUESTIONS FOR PRACTICE

1. Why is a constitution essential for the governance and functioning of India as a country?
2. What key factors contribute to ensuring the democratic nature of elections in India?
3. Highlight the new challenges that political parties face as they navigate the ever-changing
landscape of modern politics.
4. What are the factors that contribute to the persistence of caste inequalities in India?
5. Enumerate the driving factors behind the growing demand for the implementation of the One
Nation, One Election system.

ANSWER KEY
1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (b) 6. (d) 7. (c)

39
WORKBOOK POLITY HINTS & SOLUTION

1. Answer (b) Reference: NCERT Class 11th Indian

The constitution of a democratic country Constitution at Work, chapter 3
lays down some basic rules about elections, 2. Answer (a)
and there are two types of election systems: Article 324 of the Indian Constitution
● First past the post system provides for an independent Election
Commission for the ‘superintendence,
● Proportional representation
direction, and control of the electoral roll
Statement 1 is incorrect: In the first past the and the conduct of elections’ in India. This
post system, a voter votes for the candidate body administers elections to Lok Sabha,
and not the political party for which the rajya sabha, state legislative assemblies,
candidate is contesting the elections, while office of the president, office of the
in proportional representation, a voter votes vice- president, etc. The elections to the
for the political party. local bodies are conducted by the State
Election Commission, which is established
Statement 2 is correct: In first past the by the state government.
post system, only one candidate is elected
Reference: NCERT Class 11th Indian
from one constituency, while in proportional Constitution at Work, chapter 3
representation, more than one candidate
3. Answer (b)
can be elected from one constituency
according to the proportion of votes political Statement 1 is correct: In First Past the
parties get. Post (FPTP) system (also called the Plurality
System), the winning candidate need not
secure a majority of the votes. In the
FPTP PR electoral race, the candidate who is ahead
± The country ± Large geographical of others and who crosses the winning post
is divided areas are first of all, is the winner.
into small demarcated as
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Constitution
geographical constituencies.
units called The entire country
prescribes Proportional Representation
constituencies may be a single system for the election of President,
or districts. constituency. Vice President, and for the election to
± Every ± More than one the Rajya Sabha and Vidhan Parishads.
constituency representative However, for the elections to the Lok Sabha
elects one may be elected and State Legislative Assemblies, First Past
representative. from one the Post system is used.
± Voter votes for constituency Voter
votes for the party. Reference: NCERT Class 11th Indian
a candidate.
± Every party gets Constitution at Work, chapter 3
± A party may
get more seats seats in the 4. Answer (a)
than votes in legislature in
proportion to the Statement 1 is incorrect: The First Past
the legislature
percentage of the Post (FPTP) system (Not Proportional
± Candidate
who wins votes that it gets. Representation) offers voters a choice
the election ± Candidate who not only between parties but also between
may not get wins the elections specific candidates.
majority (50%+ gets majority of
Statement 2 is incorrect: More than
1) votes votes.
one representative may be elected from
± Examples: ± Examples: Israel.
Netherlands one constituency in the Proportional
U.K.. India
Representation system (not in the FPTP).

40
 In the First Past the Post System, every
constituency elects one representative.
Statement 3 is correct: In the Proportional
Representation system, the entire
country may be a single constituency.
Example- In some countries, like Israel or
Netherlands, the entire country is treated
as one constituency and seats are allocated
to each party according to its share of votes
in the national election.
Reference: NCERT Class 11th Indian
Constitution at Work, chapter 3
5. Answer (b)
Statement 1 is correct: Adult franchise
ensures that all citizens are able to
participate in the process of selecting
their representative. This is consistent
with the principle of equality and non-
discrimination. Our Constitution makers
had a firm belief in the ability and worth of
all adult citizens as equals in the matter of
deciding what is good for the society, the
country and for their own constituencies.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Right to
Vote is a Constitutional Right in India
(not Fundamental Right). The right to vote
in the Constitution of India is guaranteed
under Article 326.
Statement 3 is incorrect: S.R. Bommai
vs Union of India is a landmark Supreme
Court decision on the basic structure of
the Constitution and the misuse of Article
356 (President’s Rule). Whereas, The 61st
Amendment Act, 1989 of the Indian
Constitution reduced the voting age for
elections from 21 to 18 years.
Reference: NCERT Class 11th Indian
Constitution at Work, chapter 3
6. Answer (d)
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Election
Commission is not concerned with
the elections to the panchayats and
municipalities in the states. For this, the
Constitution of India provides for a separate
State Election Commission. The Election
Commission of India administers elections
41
to the Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, State
Election and Representation
Legislative Assemblies, State legislative
councils, and the offices of the President
and Vice President of the country.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Delimitation
Commission is appointed by the President
of India and works in collaboration with
the Election Commission of India. It is
appointed for the purpose of drawing up the
boundaries of constituencies all over the
country.
Reference: NCERT Class 11th Indian
Constitution at Work, chapter 3
7. Answer (c)
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Election
Commission of India recognises the
political parties as all India (National)
or State (Regional) Political Parties. The
recognition as a national or a State party
ensures that their election symbol is not
used by any other political entity in polls
across India.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The
superintendence, direction and control
of the preparation of the electoral rolls
for the conduct of elections to Parliament,
to the Legislature of every State, to the
offices of President and VicePresident is
vested in the Election Commission of
India.
Statement 3 is incorrect: A Returning
Officer is responsible for overseeing the
election in a constituency, or sometimes
in two constituencies, as directed by the
Election Commission (EC). The EC appoints
the Returning Officer and Assistant
Returning Officer for a constituency in
consultation with the governments of the
State or Union Territory as the case may be.
All the nomination papers relating to the
State Legislative election are submitted to
the Returning Officer and scrutinized by
him/her.
Reference: NCERT Class 11th Indian
Constitution at Work, chapter 3
WORKBOOK POLITY SUBJECTIVE QUESTIONS WITH MODEL ANSWERS
1. Why is a constitution essential for the governance and functioning of India as a country?
Ans. A constitution is vital for India and other countries as it establishes fundamental principles,
structures government, and safeguards citizens’ rights. It defines the distribution of power,
prevents abuse, and ensures accountability. For instance, the United States Constitution
has endured for centuries, maintaining stability and protecting citizens’ freedoms. Similarly,
countries like Germany and South Africa rely on their constitutions to maintain order and
uphold democratic values.
2. What key factors contribute to ensuring the democratic nature of elections in India?
Ans. In India, the democratic nature of elections is upheld through various key factors. Few of them
are listed as under:
* Universal Suffrage: Granting equal voting rights to all eligible citizens ensures inclusivity.
* Multi-Party System: Diverse representation and choice are promoted through the
presence of multiple political parties.
* Independent Election Commissions: Institutions like the Election Commission of India
ensure impartial oversight.
* Regular Elections: Parliamentary polls every five years maintain accountability and
responsiveness.
3. Highlight the new challenges that political parties face as they navigate the ever-
changing landscape of modern politics.
Ans. Within the context of India, political parties encounter novel challenges amidst the ever-
changing modern political landscape. For instance, the impact of social media has revolutionized
communication strategies. Parties like the Aam Aadmi Party (AAP) have capitalized on this by
reaching younger demographics through digital platforms. Moreover, voters now prioritize
issues like environmental sustainability, prompting parties to adapt their agendas. To
illustrate, the Green Party’s rise in Kerala reflects this trend. Navigating these dynamics while
remaining effective poses a unique hurdle for Indian political parties.
4. What are the factors that contribute to the persistence of caste inequalities in India.
Ans. The persistence of caste inequalities in India can be attributed to a complex interplay of
factors like historical-legacy, socio-cultural norms and practices, economic disparities, caste-
based politics, lack of education and awareness, urban-rural divide and resistance to change.

Caste inequalities manifested in villages like Bhima Koregaon, where Dalit communities faced
discrimination and violence. In the case of tribal populations like the Adivasis in Jharkhand’s
Pathalgadi movement, land disputes and marginalization highlighted systemic injustices.
The Dongria Kondh tribe in Odisha, facing eviction due to mining projects, showcases the
economic and cultural vulnerabilities tribes experience.
5. Enumerate the driving factors behind the growing demand for the implementation of the
One Nation, One Election system.
Ans. The mounting call for the One Nation, One Election system is driven by following factors:
Cost Savings: Frequent elections strain resources; the Law Commission and NITI Aayog
advocated synchronization.
Governance Focus: Dr. Dinesh Goswami Committee noted that politicians should prioritize
governance over campaigning.
Administrative Efficiency: The Venkaiah Naidu Committee pointed towards reduced poll
expenses and better resource allocation.
Political Stability: Simultaneous polls ensure continuous governance, as seen in several states
that conduct concurrent local elections.

42
 7 Executive
OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS FOR PRACTICE

1. Consider the following statements Which of the statements given above is/
regarding the Parliamentary system of are correct?
government in India: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
1. The President is the head of state. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. The Prime Minister is usually the leader 4. Which among the following statements
of the majority political party in the best describes the role of the Bureaucracy
legislature. in India?
Which of the statements given above is/ (a) It is an organ that formulates laws on
are correct? various political, social, and economic
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only issues.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) It is an organisation that facilitates
2. With reference to the discretionary political stability and economic growth.
powers of the President of India, consider (c) It is the executive organ responsible for
the following statements: assisting ministers in policy formulation
1. The President can ask the Council of and implementation.
Ministers to reconsider their decision. (d) None of the above statements are
2. He cannot withhold or refuse to give correct.
assent to the bills passed by Parliament. 5. In the context of the Indian polity, which
Which of the statements given above is/ of the following are part of the Political
are correct? Executive?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 1. President
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. Vice President
3. Consider the following statements: 3. Prime Minister
1. The Prime Minister appoints the Cabinet 4. Bureaucrats
Minister, Minister of State, or deputy 5. Cabinet Minister
minister. Select the correct answer using the code
2. The 91st Amendment Act of 2003 of given below
the Indian Constitution mandates that (a) 1, 2, 3 only
the total strength of the Council of
(b) 1, 2, 4 only
Ministers should not exceed 15% of the
total number of members of the House (c) 1, 2, 3, 5 only
of People. (d) All of the above
 6. With reference to the system of
WORKBOOK POLITY Executive Presidency (a form of semi-
presidential executive) , consider the
following statements:
1. The president is both the head of state
and the head of government.
2. In this form of government, the
president is elected by the members of
parliament.
Which of the statements given above is/
are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
7. With reference to the Vice-President of
India, consider the following statements:
1. He is elected by an electoral college
consisting of the members of parliament
and state legislatures.
2. He is elected for a term of five years.
3. He can be removed by the President
of India on recommendations of the
Council of Ministers.
4. He acts as the president when a vacancy
occurs by reason of death, resignation,
removal by impeachment, or otherwise,
for the remaining term.
How many of the statements given above
are incorrect?
(a) Only one (b) Only two
(c) Only three (d) All four

SUBJECTIVE QUESTIONS FOR PRACTICE

1. What gives the political executive more sway than the non-political executive?
2. Enumerate the main legislative functions executed by the Parliament, which serves as the
central legislative entity.
3. How does India’s permanent bureaucracy impact governance and administration?
4. What is the significance of the veto powers held by the President in a parliamentary democracy?

ANSWER KEY
1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (c) 6. (a) 7. (c)

HINTS & SOLUTION

1. Answer (c)
Statement 1 is correct: In the Parliamentary
system of Executive, the Head of government
(de facto) is usually known as the Prime
Minister and the President is the head of
state (de jure).
Statement 2 is correct: The Prime
Minister is the leader of the political
party or coalition that has the majority in
the lower house of Parliament or the elected
legislative body.

44
 Reference: NCERT Class 11th Indian
Constitution at Work, chapter 4
2. Answer (a)
Statement 1 is correct: The President of
India enjoys situational discretion in three
cases. Firstly, he can send back the advice
given by the Council of Ministers and ask
the Council to reconsider the decision.
When the President thinks that the advice
has certain flaws or legal lacunae or that it
is not in the best interests of the country,
he can ask the Council to reconsider the
decision.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Secondly, The
President also has veto power, by which
he can withhold or refuse to give assent
to Bills (other than Money bills) passed
by the Parliament. The President can
send the bill back to Parliament, asking it
to reconsider it. This ‘veto’ power is limited
because if the Parliament passes the same
bill again and sends it back to the President,
then the President has to give assent to that
bill.
At last, in the case of the Hung assembly,
he may exercise his discretion in selecting
someone who, in his opinion, will be able to
form a stable government.
Reference: NCERT Class 11th Indian
Constitution at Work, chapter 4
3. Answer (b)
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Prime
Minister decides the ministers in the
Council of Ministers i.e., the Prime Minister
allocates ranks and portfolios to the
ministers. Depending upon their seniority
and political importance, the ministers are
given the ranks of cabinet minister, minister
of State or deputy minister. However, the
appointment of the ministers is done by
the President of India.
Statement 2 is correct: Prior to the 91st
Amendment Act (2003), the size of the
Council of Ministers was decided by time
constraints and situational demands.
After that, an amendment was passed
requiring that the total strength of the
Council of Ministers, including the Prime
Minister should not exceed 15% of the
total number of members of the House of
45
the People (or Assembly, in the case of the
Executive
States).
Reference: NCERT Class 11th Indian
Constitution at Work, chapter 4
4. Answer (c)
The Executive organ of the government
includes the Prime Minister, the ministers
and a large organisation called the
bureaucracy or administrative machinery.
Trained and skilled officers who work as
permanent employees of the government
are assigned the task of assisting
the ministers in formulating policies
and implementing these policies. The
bureaucracy is also expected to be politically
neutral. This means that the bureaucracy
will not take any political position on policy
matters.
Reference: NCERT Class 11th Indian
Constitution at Work, chapter 4
5. Answer (c)
The Executive is the branch of government
responsible for the implementation of laws
and policies in the country. The executive
is often involved in framing the policy too.
The executive branch includes both Political
and Permanent executives. The Political
Executive consists of the President, Vice
President, Council of Ministers (including
cabinet ministers) headed by the Prime
Minister. Bureaucrats are part of the
permanent executive. Hence, they are
not part of the Political Executive.
Reference: NCERT Class 11th Indian
Constitution at Work, chapter 4
6. Answer (a)
Statement 1 is correct: In the system of
the Executive Presidency (a form of semi-
presidential executive), the President
chooses the Prime Minister from the party
that has a majority in Parliament. Though
ministers must be members of Parliament,
the President has the power to remove the
Prime Minister, or ministers. Apart from
being the elected Head of State and
the Commander-in Chief of the Armed
Forces, the President is also the Head of
Government. E.g. -Sri Lanka.
 Statement 2 is incorrect: A semi-
WORKBOOK POLITY presidential form of government is one in
which the President is directly elected by
the people of the country and this form
of government is also known as the system
of executive presidency. Under the system
of the Executive Presidency, it may happen
that both the President and the Prime
Minister belong to the same political party
or to different political parties.
Sri Lanka is a good example of a semi-
presidential form of government.
Reference: NCERT Class 11th Indian
Constitution at Work, chapter 4
7. Answer (c)
Statement 1 is incorrect: The election
method of the Vice-President is similar to
that of the President; the only difference is
that members of State legislatures are
not part of the electoral college, which
means he is elected by an electoral college
consisting of members of both Houses of
Parliament, in accordance with the system
of proportional representation by means of
the single transferable vote, and the voting
in such an election is by secret ballot.
Statement 2 is correct: The Vice President
is elected for five years.
Statement 3 is incorrect:The Vice President
may be removed from his office by a
resolution of the Rajya Sabha passed by a
majority and agreed to by the Lok Sabha, not
by the president on the recommendations of
the council of ministers.
Statement 4 is incorrect: The Vice
President acts as the ex officio Chairman of
the Rajya Sabha and takes over the office
of the President when there is a vacancy
by reason of death, resignation, removal
by impeachment, or otherwise. The Vice
President acts as President only until a
new President is elected.
Reference: NCERT Class 11th Indian
Constitution at Work, chapter 4

SUBJECTIVE QUESTIONS WITH MODEL ANSWERS

1. What gives the political executive more sway than the non-political executive?
Ans. In India, the political executive holds more influence than the non-political executive due to
its democratic mandate from elections. The political executive, comprising elected officials,
possesses the legitimacy to shape policies and laws. They engage with public sentiment
and possess greater decision-making power. Non-political executives, while efficient in
administration, lack this direct electoral connection and popular mandate, limiting their sway
in influencing significant policy directions.
2. Enumerate the main legislative functions executed by the Parliament, which serves as
the central legislative entity.
Ans. The Parliament serves as the primary legislative body, shaping national policies and laws.
* Parliament crafts, discusses, and ratifies legislation which are vital for the country’s
functioning.
* Elected representatives engage in thorough deliberations, lending a voice to varied
perspectives.
* The Parliament also upholds checks and balances by scrutinizing executive decisions,
ensuring accountability.
* Joint committees comprising members from both houses further enhance the legislative
process, enabling in-depth examination of specific issues.
* Parliament’s robust legislative functions anchor the democratic framework, fostering
effective governance and safeguarding the interests of the populace.

46
 3. How does India’s permanent bureaucracy impact governance and administration?

Executive
Ans. India’s permanent bureaucracy wields substantial influence on governance and administration
through:
* Policy Continuity: Bureaucrats provide stability by continuing in the offices and policy
making processes despite political shifts, ensuring consistent policy implementation.
* Expertise: Years of experience equip bureaucrats with in-depth knowledge, aiding effective
decision-making and efficient execution.
* Administrative Bottlenecks: The bureaucracy’s rigid structure can sometimes lead to
delays in decision-making.
* Accountability: Balancing power with accountability remains crucial to enhancing overall
governance outcomes. Civil Services Conduct Rules, Vigilance Commission, Right to
Information (RTI) Act and Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) etc. are used to ensure
accountability of permanent bureaucracy.
4. What is the significance of the veto powers held by the President in a parliamentary
democracy?
Ans. The President’s veto powers in a parliamentary democracy play a pivotal role in maintaining a
system of checks and balances. While most bills are passed by the Parliament, the President’s
power to withhold assent or send a bill for reconsideration prevents hasty or ill-conceived
legislation. This ensures thorough examination of laws, safeguarding against potential misuse
of power. This feature reflects the importance of a balanced approach to governance and
enhances the democratic process’s credibility.

47
 8 Legislature
OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS FOR PRACTICE

1. Consider the following statement about How many of the above states have a
the Rajya Sabha: bicameral legislature?
1. It represents the states of India but not (a) Only three (b) Only four
the Union territories. (c) Only five (d) All of the above
2. It is a directly elected body of the 4. Consider the following statements:
Parliament.
1. The Rajya Sabha cannot initiate, reject,
3. The elected members of the State or amend money bills.
Legislative Assembly elect the members
of the Rajya Sabha. 2. The Council of Ministers is responsible
only to the Rajya Sabha.
How many of the above statements are
correct? 3. The approval of Rajya Sabha is needed
for the removal of any subject from the
(a) Only one (b) Only two
State List.
(c) All three (d) None
How many of the above is/are correct?
2. Which of the following statements is
(a) Only one (b) Only two
correct regarding the Lok Sabha?
(c) All three (d) None
(a) The members of the Lok Sabha are
elected by the process of proportional 5. In the context of the Indian polity, which
representation. of the following acts are considered as
“Defection”?
(b) The value of vote of every individual
voter varies based on the population of 1. If a member remains absent in the House
states. when asked by the party leadership to
remain present.
(c) The Lok Sabha can be dissolved before
the expiration of its term. 2. If a member votes against the
instructions of the party.
(d) None of the above
3. If a member voluntarily leaves the
3. Consider the following States: membership of the party.
1. Andhra Pradesh Select the correct answer using the code
2. Bihar given below.
3. Karnataka (a) 1 only
4. Rajasthan (b) 1 and 2 only
5. Telangana (c) 1, 2 and 3
6. Uttar Pradesh (d) 3 only
 6. With reference to the need for a 7. Consider the following statements with

Legislature
bicameral legislature in India, consider reference to the Rajya Sabha:
the following statements: 1. Approval of ordinances issued by the
1. To give representation to a wider section president
of society. 2. Introduction and passage of
2. To give representation to all regions or constitutional amendment bills.
parts of the country. 3. Resolution for discontinuance of
3. To make it possible for every decision to national emergency
be reconsidered. 4. Introduction and passage of money bill.
4. To make it easy for the passage of a bill. In how many of the above cases, Rajya
Which of the statements given above is/ Sabha enjoys equal powers with the Lok
are correct? sabha?
(a) 1, 2, and 3 (b) 2, 3, and 4 (a) Only one (b) Only two
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 3 (c) Only three (d) All four

SUBJECTIVE QUESTIONS FOR PRACTICE

1. Justify why passing laws is essential to the government’s ability to function effectively.
2. Why does the Lok Sabha have better influence over the executive than the Rajya Sabha?
3. Give a concise description of the present state of domestic violence in India.
4. What are some examples of unpopular and controversial laws that have sparked debate in
India?
5. What is the significance of coalition governments in India’s political landscape?
6. What mechanisms does a parliamentary system employ to effectively control and oversee the
actions of the government?
7. How does a state assembly coordinate with the central government’s representative, the
governor?
8. Explain the importance of a parliamentary system in upholding efficient governance and
representation in modern societies.

ANSWER KEY
1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (c) 6. (a) 7. (b)

HINTS & SOLUTION

1. Answer (a) Statement 2 is incorrect: The Rajya

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Rajya Sabha
consists of not more than 250 members -
238 members representing both the States
and Union Territories and 12 members
nominated by the President. Rajya Sabha
is a permanent body and is not subject to
dissolution.
Sabha is not directly elected by the people
of India. It is an indirectly elected body.
The members of the Rajya Sabha serve a
six-year term, and one-third of its members
retire every two years.
Statement 3 is correct: The voters of a
state elect members of the State Legislative

49
 Assembly. The elected members of the
WORKBOOK POLITY State Legislative Assembly in turn elect
the members of the Rajya Sabha.
Reference: NCERT Class 11th Indian
Constitution at Work, chapter 5
2. Answer (c)
The Lok Sabha is directly elected by the
people. For the purpose of elections, the
entire country (State, in case of State
Legislative Assembly) is divided into
territorial constituencies of roughly equal
population. One representative is elected
from each constituency through universal
adult suffrage, where the value of vote
of every individual would be equal. At
present, there are 543 constituencies. This
number has not changed since the 1971
census. The Lok Sabha is elected for a
maximum period of five years. Before the
completion of five years, the Lok Sabha
can be dissolved if no party or coalition
can form the government or if the Prime
Minister advises the President to dissolve
the Lok Sabha and hold fresh elections.
Reference: NCERT Class 11th Indian
Constitution at Work, chapter 5
3. Answer (c)
India has a bicameral legislature, which
means it consists of two separate houses:
the Rajya Sabha (Council of States) and
the Lok Sabha (House of the People). The
Constitution has given the States the option of
establishing either a unicameral or bicameral
legislature. At present, only six States have
a bicameral legislature. (i) Andhra Pradesh
(ii) Bihar (iii) Karnataka (iv) Maharashtra
(v) Telangana (vi) Uttar Pradesh.
Rajasthan has a Unicameral legislature.
Reference: NCERT Class 11th Indian
Constitution at Work, chapter 5
4. Answer (b)
The Rajya Sabha is the Upper House of
Parliament. It has its own distinctive features
and reflects the federal character of the
Constitution, and protects the rights of States.
Statement 1 is correct: The Rajya
Sabha cannot initiate, reject, or amend
money bills. It is the exclusive power of
the Lok Sabha. However, it can provide
recommendations for money bills which may
or may not be accepted by the Lok Sabha.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Council of
Ministers is collectively responsible to the
Parliament in general and to the Lok Sabha in
particular. Hence, the Council of Ministers
is not responsible to the Rajya Sabha.
Statement 3 is correct: The approval of
the Rajya Sabha is necessary if the Union
Parliament wishes to remove a matter from
the State List (over which only the State
Legislature can make law) to either the
Union List or Concurrent List in the interest
of the nation.
Reference: NCERT Class 11th Indian
Constitution at Work, chapter 5
5. Answer (c)
“Defection” refers to the act of an elected
representative, such as a Member of
Parliament (MP) or a Member of Legislative
Assembly (MLA), changing their political
party affiliation or leaving their original
political party to join another party.
In the context of Indian Polity, the following
acts by a Member of Parliament (MP) OR
Member of the State Legislative Assembly
entail the Anti-Defection Law:
(i) 
If the member remains absent even
when party leadership asks to remain
present. (Statement 1 is Correct)
(ii) 
If the Member votes against the
instructions of the party. (Statement 2 is
Correct)
(ii) 
If the member voluntarily leaves the
membership of the party. (Statement 3
is Correct)
Reference: NCERT Class 11th Indian
Constitution at Work, chapter 5
6. Answer (a)
Statements 1 and 2 are correct: India,
with its large size and diversity, prefers to
have two houses of in the legislature to
give representation to all sections of the
society, to bring harmony in the society,
to cater to the needs of every section of
the society, and also to accommodate
people from all geographical regions or
parts of the country so that the legislature
can cater to the needs of every corner of
the country.
50
 Statement 3 is correct: Every decision ● Introduction and passage of

taken by one house goes to the other house
for its decision, which means that every bill
and policy would be discussed twice. This
ensures a double check on every matter.
Even if one house takes a decision in haste,
that decision will come up for discussion in
another house, and reconsideration will be
possible.
Statement 4 is incorrect: If every bill and
policy will be discussed twice,it is not
easy to pass a bill. This will not fulfil the
aspirations of society. The presence of two
houses will facilitate deliberate discussion
of a bill or policy brought out by the
government.
Source: Class 11th NCERT: Indian
Constitution at Work, Chapter 5
7. Answer (b)
The constitutional position of the Rajya
Sabha can be studied from three angles:
1. When it has equal powers with Lok
Sabha
2. When it has unequal powers with Lok
Sabha
3. When it has special powers.
When it has equal powers:
● Introduction and passage of ordinary
bills.
● Approval of ordinances issued by the
president. Hence, Statement 1 is
correct.
Legislature
constitutional amendment bills. Hence,
Statement 2 is correct.
● Election and impeachment of the
president.
● Approval of the proclamation of all three
types of emergencies
● When it has unequal powers:
● A money bill can only be introduced
in Lok Sabha and not in Rajya Sabha.
Hence, Statement 4 is incorrect.
● Rajya Sabha can only discuss budgets
and cannot vote on demand for grants.
● A resolution for discontinuance of the
national emergency can be passed only
in Lok Sabha. Hence, Statement 3 is
incorrect.
● Rajya Sabha cannot remove ministers by
passing No confidence motion.
● When it has special powers:
● It can authorise parliament to make a
law on a subject enumerated in the state
list. (Article 249)
● It can authorise the parliament to create
a new All India Service common to both
the centre and state.
● It alone can initiate a move for the
removal of the Vice-President.
Source: Class 11th NCERT: Indian
Constitution at Work, Chapter 5

SUBJECTIVE QUESTIONS WITH MODEL ANSWERS

1. Justify why passing laws is essential to the government’s ability to function effectively.
Ans. Passing laws is intrinsic to effective government functioning, echoing the sentiment of
Constitution maker Dr. B.R. Ambedkar: “Law and order are the medicines of the body
politic.” Laws provide a structured framework that maintains order, safeguards citizens’
rights, and promotes equitable growth. They reflect the ideals of justice and democracy. By
enacting laws whenever necessary, the government fulfills its duty to uphold the Constitution,
ensuring a balanced society where all can prosper, as envisioned by our eminent Constitution
makers.
2. Why does the Lok Sabha have better influence over the executive than the Rajya Sabha?
Ans. Due to its unique powers, the Lok Sabha wields superior influence over the executive. It can
pass a vote of no confidence, compelling the executive to step down. Money bills must originate
in the Lok Sabha, conferring control over financial matters. During a national emergency,

51
 the Lok Sabha can extend its term, solidifying its authority. While the Rajya Sabha acts as
WORKBOOK POLITY a revising chamber, the Lok Sabha’s direct mandate from citizens empowers it to hold the
executive more accountable.
3. Give a concise description of the present state of domestic violence in India.
Ans. Domestic violence continues to be a grave concern in India. Despite legal safeguards like the
Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, instances prevail due to ingrained social
norms, financial reliance, and limited awareness. For instance, a recent survey revealed that
nearly 1 in 3 married Indian women have experienced some form of domestic abuse. Initiatives
by organizations like “Breakthrough” use multimedia campaigns to challenge societal attitudes
and educate people, striving to address this issue systematically.
4. What are some examples of unpopular and controversial laws that have sparked debate
in India?
Ans. These laws reflect the complex intersection of politics, rights, and governance in India, inciting
extensive discussions.
Some examples of contentious laws in India are as under:
Citizenship Amendment Act (CAA) of 2019: This law sparked nationwide protests due to
concerns about religious discrimination. Muslims were allegedly left out, and its compatibility
with Indian secular principles was called into question.
Section 377 Verdict (2018): The decriminalization of homosexuality was met with both
support and opposition. While hailed as a step towards LGBTQ+ rights, some conservative
groups voiced dissent, reflecting the social and cultural complexities surrounding the issue.
5. What is the significance of coalition governments in India’s political landscape?
Ans. Coalition governments play a pivotal role in India’s political landscape by accommodating
the diverse interests of its multi-party system. For instance, the United Progressive Alliance
(UPA) and the National Democratic Alliance (NDA) have formed successful coalitions, blending
parties with varying ideologies. These alliances promote broader representation and encourage
consensus-building, reflecting the country’s diverse demographics. However, they face
challenges in maintaining stability due to conflicting viewpoints and the need for continuous
negotiation adds to delays in decision making.
6. What mechanisms does a parliamentary system employ to effectively control and oversee
the actions of the government?
Ans. Within the Indian context, parliamentary control measures/tools are crucial for effective
governance. During parliamentary proceedings, using tools like question hours, Members
of Parliament can scrutinize ministers. Parliamentary committees delve into policies,
ensuring proper implementation. No-confidence motions hold the government accountable
for its actions. In debates, diverse perspectives are voiced, enhancing transparency. These
mechanisms collectively bolster the Indian parliamentary system, enabling comprehensive
oversight and control over the government’s functioning.
7. How does a state assembly coordinate with the central government’s representative, the
governor?
Ans. A state legislative assembly maintains coordination with the central government’s representative,
the governor, through various mechanisms. The governor’s role includes approving bills,
summoning sessions of the state legislature, and providing assent to the bills passed. While
the assembly enacts laws, the governor ensures their alignment with national interests. This
dynamic collaboration ensures a balance between state autonomy and central oversight in the
overall governance mechanism.

52
 8. Explain the importance of a parliamentary system in upholding efficient governance

Legislature
and representation in modern societies.
Ans. In the context of India, parliamentary system plays a vital role in ensuring efficient governance
and representation. To explain through some examples:
* The Indian Parliament consists of the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha, where elected
representatives from various regions voice concerns of their constituency.
* During debates on national budgets or policies, Members of Parliament articulate diverse
viewpoints, leading to well-rounded decisions.
* The parliamentary system also facilitates the peaceful transfer of power, as seen in India’s
general elections, maintaining political stability.

53
 9 Judiciary
OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS FOR PRACTICE
1. Consider the following statement:
1. The legislature is involved in the process
of appointment of judges.
2. The judges of the Supreme Court and
the High Court have a security of tenure.
3. The Constitution provides that the
salaries and allowances of the judges
are not subject to the approval of the
legislature.
How many of the above are correct with
respect to the independence of the
Judiciary?
(a) Only one (b) Only two
(c) All three (d) None
2. Which of the following is/are correct
Regarding the appointment of Judges?
1. The Constitution of India prescribes that
the senior-most judge of the Supreme
Court be appointed as the Chief Justice
of India.
2. The other Judges of the Supreme Court
and the High Court are appointed by
the Prime Minister after consulting the
CJI.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. Which of the following is/are correct
with reference to the removal of Judges?
1. A judge of the Supreme Court or High
Court can be removed only on the
grounds of proved misbehaviour or
incapacity.
2. Only one Supreme Court judge has
been removed so far.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
4. Consider the following:
1. Settlement of the disputes between
the Union and States and among the
States.
2. Lower court’s appeals in civil, criminal,
and constitutional disputes.
3. A dispute regarding elections to either
House of Parliament or the Legislature
of a State.
How many of the above fall under the
original jurisdiction of the Supreme
Court?
(a) Only one (b) Only two
(c) All three (d) None
5. In the context of the Indian polity,
‘Judicial Review’ implies that
1. The power of the judiciary to question
the wisdom of the laws enacted by the
legislature.
2. The power of the judiciary to review all
legislative enactments before they are
assented to by the President
3. The power of the judiciary to examine
the constitutionality of any law.
 Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
6. In the context of the Indian judiciary,
consider the following statements:
1. The decisions of the Supreme Court of
India are binding on all courts in the
country.
2. High courts cannot issue writs for the
enforcement of fundamental rights.
3. District courts cannot consider appeals
in criminal cases.
SUBJECTIVE QUESTIONS FOR PRACTICE
1. How does PIL benefit the underprivileged in India?
2. To what extent can judicial activism create conflict between the judiciary and the executive?
ANSWER KEY
1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (d)
HINTS & SOLUTION
1. Answer (b)
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Indian
Constitution has ensured the independence
of the judiciary through a number of
measures. The legislature is not involved
in the process of appointing judges. Thus,
it was believed that party politics would
not play a role in the process of making
appointments.
Statement 2 is correct: The judges have
a security of the tenure. They hold office
till reaching the age of retirement (65 yr
for the Supreme Court and 62 yr for the
High Court). Only in exceptional cases,
judges may be removed. But otherwise, they
have security of tenure. Security of tenure
ensures that judges can function without
fear or favour.
55
Which of the statements given above is/
Judiciary
are incorrect?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
7. With reference to judicial activism,
consider the following statements:
1. It has blurred the line of distinction
between the three organs of the
government.
2. It has overburdened the courts.
Which of the statements given above is/
are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
6. (b) 7. (c)
Statement 3 is correct: The judiciary is not
financially dependent on either the executive
or the legislature. The Constitution
provides that the salaries and allowances
of the judges are not subject to the
approval of the legislature.
Other measures to ensure the
independence of the judiciary include:
● The actions and decisions of the judges
are immune from personal criticism.
● The judiciary has the power to penalise
those who are found guilty of the
contempt of court.
● Parliament cannot discuss the conduct
of the judges except when the proceeding
to remove a judge is being carried out.
 Reference: NCERT Class 11th Indian
WORKBOOK POLITY Constitution at Work, chapter 6
2. Answer (d)
Statement 1 is incorrect: As per the
convention developed over the years, the
appointment of the Chief Justice of India is
done by the President of India from amongst
the senior-most judges of the Supreme
Court. The Constitution of India does
not explicitly prescribe the process of
appointing of CJI.
Statement 2 is incorrect: As per Article
124 and Article 217, the other Judges
of the Supreme Court and the High
following are the instances or disputes that
fall under the original jurisdiction:
● Disputes between the Government of
India on the one side and one or more
States on the other side.
● Disputes between the Government of
India and one or more States on one side
and one or more States on the other side.
● Disputes between two or more states
Jurisdiction
of Supreme
Court

Court are appointed by the President of India

after consulting the CJI. This, in effect,

meant that the final decisions in matters Original Appellate Advisory
of appointment rested with the Council of Settles
disputes
Tries appeals Advises the
from lower President on
Ministers. between courts in Civil, matters of
Union and Criminal and public
Reference: NCERT Class 11th Indian States and Constitutional importance
amongst
Constitution at Work, chapter 6 States.
cases and law

3. Answer (a) Writ:

Statement 1 is correct: Removal of a judge

is a very difficult procedure, and unless there
is a general consensus among Members
of Parliament, a judge cannot be removed.
A judge of the Supreme Court or High
Court can be removed only on the ground
of proved misbehaviour or incapacity.
A motion containing the charges against
the judge must be approved by a special
majority in both Houses of Parliament.
Statement 2 is incorrect: So far, only one
case of the removal of a judge of the Supreme
Court has come up for consideration before
Parliament. In that case, though the
motion got a two-thirds majority, it did
not have the support of the majority
of the total strength of the House, and
therefore, the judge was not removed.
Reference: NCERT Class 11th Indian
Constitution at Work, chapter 6
4. Answer (a)
Original jurisdiction: Certain cases are
exclusively within the Supreme Court’s
jurisdiction. This means that all such cases
begin or originate solely with the Supreme
Court. This also means that similar cases
cannot be filed in any other court. The
Can issue writs of
Habeas Corpus,
Mandamus, Prohibition,
Certiorari and Quo
warranto to protect the
Fundamental Rights of the
individual.
Special Powers
Can grant special leave to an appeal from any judgement or
matter passed by any court in the territory of India.
Reference: NCERT Class 11th Indian
Constitution at Work, chapter 6
5. Answer (d)
Option (d) is correct: The most important
power of the Supreme Court is the power
of judicial review. Judicial Review means
the power of the Supreme Court (or High
Courts) to examine the constitutionality
of any law. If the Court arrives at the
conclusion that the law is inconsistent
with the provisions of the Constitution,
such a law is declared unconstitutional
and inapplicable. The term judicial review
is nowhere mentioned in the Constitution.
As per article 13 (2) the union or state
shall not make any law in contravention
of a fundamental right. The fact that India
has a written constitution and the Supreme

56
 Court can strike down a law that goes Source: Class 11th NCERT: Indian

against fundamental rights, implicitly gives
the Supreme Court the power of judicial
review.
Judicial Review does not cover the power
of the judiciary to question the wisdom
of the laws enacted by the legislature. Also,
it does not cover the power of the judiciary
to review the legislative enactments before
they are assented to by the President.
Reference: NCERT Class 11th
Constitution at Work, chapter 6
6. Answer (b)
The Constitution of India provides for a
single integrated judicial system. This
means that, unlike some other federal
countries in the world, India does not have
separate State courts. The structure of the
judiciary in India is pyramidal, with the
Supreme Court at the top, the High Courts
below them, and district and subordinate
courts at the lowest level. The lower courts
function under the direct superintendence
of the higher courts.
Statement 1 is correct: The Supreme
Court is the apex court in the country and
its decisions are binding on all other courts
of the country.
Statement 2 and 3 are incorrect: See the
diagram below.
Supreme Court of India
► Its decisions are binding on all courts.
► Can transfer Judges of High Courts.
► Can move cases from any court to itself.
► Can transfer cases from one High Court to
another.
High Court
► Can hear appeals from lower courts.
► Can issue writs for restoring Fundamental
Rights.
► Can deal with cases within the
jurisdiction of the State.
► Exercises superintendence and control
over courts below it.
Judiciary
Constitution at Work, Chapter 6
7. Answer (c)
Judicial activism refers to the judiciary’s
proactive involvement in defending citizens’
rights. Judicial activism was first practised
and developed in the USA. The Supreme
Court and the High Courts of India have the
authority to review the constitutionality of
any statute, and if they find it to be in conflict
Indian with the constitution’s provisions, they have
the authority to declare it unconstitutional.
It must be highlighted that the inferior
courts lack the authority to examine the
legality of laws.
There is, however, a negative side to the
large number of PILs and the idea of a pro-
active judiciary. First, judicial activism has
blurred the line of distinction between
the executive and legislature on the one
hand and the judiciary on the other.
Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
Secondly, it has overburdened the courts.
Hence, Statement 2 is correct. The court
has been involved in resolving questions that
belong to the executive, such as reducing
air or sound pollution, investigating cases
of corruption, or bringing about electoral
reform, which is not exactly the duty of the
Judiciary. These are matters to be handled
by the administration under the supervision
of the legislatures.
Source: Class 11th NCERT: Indian
Constitution at Work, Chapter 6

District Court
► Deals with cases arising in the
District.
► Considers appeals on decisions
given by lower courts.
► Decides cases involving serious
criminal offences.

Subordinate Courts
► Consider cases of
civil and criminal
nature

57
WORKBOOK POLITY SUBJECTIVE QUESTIONS WITH MODEL ANSWERS
1. How does PIL benefit the underprivileged in India?
Ans. Public Interest Litigation (PIL) in India empowers the underprivileged by enabling them to seek
justice and address systemic issues. NGOs like Bachpan Bachao Andolan have used PILs to
rescue child laborers, advocating for their rights. PILs have also prompted improvements in
prison conditions and healthcare services for the marginalized. By leveraging legal action,
PILs ensure that the rights of the underprivileged are upheld and systemic inequalities are
addressed, leading to more equitable social outcomes.
2. To what extent can judicial activism create conflict between the judiciary and the
executive?
Ans. Judicial activism in India can trigger conflicts between the judiciary and the executive. For
instance, the 2G spectrum case involved the judiciary canceling licenses, leading to disputes
over policy decisions. In the Rafale aircraft deal case, questions arose over the scope of judicial
review in defense contracts. These instances underline the potential for clashes when the
judiciary interferes in executive actions. While activism upholds democracy, maintaining a
delicate balance is essential to avoid excessive intrusion into administrative functions and
maintain a harmonious system.

58
 10 Federalism
OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS FOR PRACTICE

1. With reference to the division of powers 4. With reference to the Constitution of

between the levels of government in India, consider the following pairs:
India, consider the following statements: 1. Union List - Banking, Ports,
1. Parliament, by an ordinary law, Currency & Coinage
demarcates the subjects between the
2. State List - Prison, Land, Trade
centre and the states.
and Commerce
2. States are allowed to make laws on
3. Concurrent List - Forests, Trade
subjects that are not mentioned in any
Unions, Adoption
of the lists in the seventh schedule.
and Succession
3. Indian federalism is a federalism with
strong centralising tendency. How many of the above pairs are correctly
matched?
How many of the above statements is/
are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None

(c) All three (d) None
2. Which of the following statements
appropriately describes “federation”?
(a) It is the fusion of powers between the
centre and the states
(b) It is separation of powers between the
centre and states
(c) It is division of powers between the
centre and the state
(d) It is a devolution of powers between the
centre and the state
3. Which one of the following is a feature of
‘Federalism’?
(a) Single set of Polity at the national level
(b) Unwritten Constitution
(c) Independent Judiciary
(d) None of the above
5. Which one of the following Articles of
the Indian constitution provides that
‘Every State’s executive power shall
be exercised in such a manner as not
to impede or prejudice the exercise of
the Union’s executive power, and the
Union’s executive power can extend
to give directions to states whenever
necessary for that purpose’.
(a) Articles 215
(b) Articles 275
(c) Articles 325
(d) Articles 257
6. Which one of the following recommended
that the appointments of the governor
should be made on a strictly non-partisan
basis and that the governor should be an
eminent person from outside the state?
 (a) Rajamannar Committee (1969) favoured the creation of states, also
WORKBOOK POLITY (b) First Administrative Reform taking into consideration linguistic
Commission (1966) uniformity in a state.
(c) Sarkaria Commission (1983) 2. The constitution of India provides
symmetrical representation in the Rajya
(d) Kothari Commission (1966) Sabha for every state
7. Which of the following statements is/are Select the correct answer using the code
correct? given below.
1. The States Reorganisation Commission (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
was set up in December 1953, and it
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

SUBJECTIVE QUESTIONS FOR PRACTICE

1. Explore the various conflicts in Indian federalism.
2. List down various kinds of Power-sharing in Political Science.
3. Highlight the significant attributes that categorize India as a federal country in its political
system.
4. Provide a concise overview of the state of public healthcare in India.
5. Summarize the operational aspects of a state legislative assembly’s functioning within India.

ANSWER KEY
1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (d) 6. (c) 7. (a)

HINTS & SOLUTION

1. Answer (a) any of those subjects is solely vested in the

The Indian Constitution establishes two
different forms of government: the Union
government (central government), which
oversees the entire country, and the State
government, which oversees each unit or
State. Both of these are constitutionally
recognized and have a distinct scope of
action.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Constitution
(and not an ordinary parliamentary law)
clearly demarcates subjects, which are
under the exclusive domain of the Union,
from those under the States.
Statement 2 is incorrect: there are some
subjects that do not find mention in any
of the three lists provided in the seventh
schedule, and the power to legislate on
central government (the parliament).
Statement 3 is correct: some of the
provisions of the constitution have made
Indian federalism a federalism with a strong
centre such as:
● Emergency provisions
● No territorial integrity for states
● Dependence of states on centremin
matters of financial resources, etc.
Reference: NCERT Class 11th Indian
Constitution at Work, chapter 7
2. Answer (c)
Federalism is a system of government in
which power is divided between a central
authority and various constituent units
of the country. Usually, a federation

60
 has two levels of government. One is the 4. Answer (c)

Federalism
government for the entire country, which The Constitution of India, under the
is usually responsible for a few subjects of seventh schedule, clearly demarcates
common national interest. The others are subjects, which are under the exclusive
governments at the level of provinces or domain of the Union and those under the
states that look after much of the day-to-day States.
administration of their state. Both levels of
government enjoy their power independently
Constitution of India
of each other. The federal system thus has
dual objectives: to safeguard and promote
the unity of the country, while at the same
time accommodating regional diversity. Union List State List Concurrent
Therefore, two aspects are crucial for the Includes subjects Includes subjects List
institutions and practice of federalism. like, like Includes
► Defence ► Agriculture subjects like,
Governments at different levels should ► Atomic ► Police ► Education
agree to some rules of power-sharing. They Energy ► Prison ► Transfer of
► Foreign
should also trust that each will abide by ► Local Property
Affairs Government other than
its part of the agreement. An ideal federal ► War and ► Public Heath Agricultural
system has both aspects: mutual trust and Peace
► Banking
► Land
► Liquor
land
► Forests
an agreement to live together. ► Railways ► Trade and ► Trade
► Post and Commerce Unions
Reference: NCERT Class 11th Indian Telegraph ► Livestock ► Adulteration
Constitution at Work, chapter 7 ► Airways and Animal ► Adoption
► Ports Husbandry and
3. Answer (c) ► Foreign Trade ► State Public Succession
► Currency & Services
Federalism is a system of government in Coinage Both Union and
which power is divided and shared between Normally only the State
Union Legislature State Legislature Legislature
a central governing authority and individual alone can make can make laws on alone can make
constituent political units, such as states or laws on these these matters laws on these

provinces. These constituent units retain a

matters. matters.

degree of sovereignty and autonomy while

also participating in a unified national or Residuary Powers
federal government. Include all other matters not mentioned in any of the Lists.

Some features of Federalism:

► Cyber Laws
Union Legislature alone has the power to legislate on such
● Two sets of polities—one at the regional matters

level and the other at the national level.

Each government is autonomous in its
own sphere.
● The people, likewise, have two sets of
identities and loyalties—they belong to
the region as well as the nation
● The details of this dual system of
government are generally spelt out
in a written constitution, which is
considered to be supreme and which is
also the source of the power of both sets
of government
● To prevent conflicts between the centre
and the State, there is an independent
judiciary to settle disputes.
Reference: NCERT Class 11th Indian
Constitution at Work, chapter 7
Reference: NCERT Class 11th Indian
Constitution at Work, chapter 7
5. Answer (d)
● Article 257 deals with the control of
the Union over States in certain cases.
It provides that the executive power of
every state shall be exercised so as not
to impede or prejudice the exercise of
the executive power of the Union, and
the executive power of the Union shall
extend to giving such directions to a
state as may appear to the Government
of India to be necessary for that purpose.
● In short, the Union Government can issue
directions to the State Government even

61
 with regard to the subjects enumerated
WORKBOOK POLITY in the state list.
Reference: NCERT Class 11th Indian
Constitution at Work, chapter 7
6. Answer (c)
In 1983, the Central Government appointed
a three-member Commission on Centre-
state Relations to review the workings of
the existing arrangements between the
Union and the States in the changed socio-
economic scenario.
Sarkaria Commission Recommendations
on Governor
● The Governor Should be a respected
individual and an outsider to the
state.
● He may or may not have been actively
involved in politics prior to his
appointment.
● After leaving office, the person
designated as Governor should not be
eligible for any further appointments or
prestigious positions in the Union or a
State Government, with the exception of
a second term as Governor or election as
Vice-President or President of India.
● At the end of the Governor’s tenure,
reasonable benefits after retirement
should be offered.
● Governors should be impartial and not
overly involved in the State’s regional
politics.
● He must be chosen after consulting
with the Lok Sabha Speaker, the Vice-
President of India, and the State’s Chief
Minister.
Reference: NCERT Class 11th Indian
Constitution at Work, chapter 7
7. Answer (a)
Statement 1 is correct : The States
Reorganisation Commission (SRC) was
established in India in December 1953.
Its major goal was to investigate and
advocate state rearrangement in the country
based on linguistic and administrative
characteristics. The SRC issued its report
in 1955, and its recommendations
served as the foundation for the States
Organisation Act of 1956, which resulted
in the organisation of states along
linguistic lines as well as the formation of
additional states and union territories. This
measure became law on November 1, 1956.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The most
extraordinary feature of the federal
arrangement created in India is that
many States get a differential treatment.
Due to the size and population of each
State being different, an asymmetrical
representation is provided in the
Rajya Sabha. While ensuring minimum
representation for each of the smaller
States, this arrangement also ensures that
larger states get more representation.
Reference: NCERT Class 11th Indian
Constitution at Work, chapter 7

SUBJECTIVE QUESTIONS WITH MODEL ANSWERS

1. Explore the various conflicts in Indian federalism
Ans. In the Indian federal system, conflicts often arise between the central and state governments
due to divergent interpretations of jurisdictional boundaries and disputes over control of
resources.
Examples:
* Resource Control: States like Odisha and Jharkhand have engaged in disputes with the
Central government over authority concerning mineral-rich areas.
* Financial Disputes: The distribution of Goods and Services Tax (GST) revenue among
states has resulted in disagreements.
* Enactment of Laws: Challenges arising from concurrent lists where both levels
of government have authority. Discrepancies in state laws lead to confusion and
administrative complexities.

62
 2. List down various kinds of Power-sharing in Political Science

Federalism
Ans. In modern democracies, Power-sharing arrangements can take many forms.
Some of the most common arrangements:
* Horizontal Power Sharing: Division of powers among different organs of government, like
the Executive, Legislature, and Judiciary, to prevent concentration of authority.
* Vertical Power Sharing: Allocation of powers between different levels of government, such
as central, state, and local governments, ensuring decentralization and local autonomy.
* Social Power Sharing: Inclusive governance involving various social groups to prevent
marginalization and promote equitable representation.
* Community Power Sharing: Empowerment of diverse communities to participate in
decision-making, safeguarding their interests, and fostering social cohesion.
3. Highlight the significant attributes that categorize India as a federal country in its
political system.
Ans. India’s political structure is characterized by its federal nature, evident through the distribution
of powers between the central and state governments.
* Constitutional Lists: Union, State, and Concurrent Lists define subjects under central,
state, and shared jurisdiction. (7th schedule)
* Dual Polity: Bicameral legislatures at central and state levels, each with distinct roles and
responsibilities.
* Flexible and Rigid Constitution: Provisions for altering boundaries and reorganizing
states allow adaptation to changing needs. (Article 368)
* Supremacy of Constitution: The Constitution serves as the supreme law, guiding
intergovernmental relations and resolving conflicts.
4. Provide a concise overview of the state of public healthcare in India.
Ans. Public healthcare in India faces significant challenges despite efforts to improve the system:
* Challenges: Inadequate funding (1.28% of GDP), scarcity of healthcare infrastructure
(0.55 doctors per 1,000), and urban-rural disparities.
* Efforts: The Ayushman Bharat initiative has expanded coverage to over 23 crore beneficiaries.
National Health Mission allocates `35,000 crore for infrastructure improvement.
* Data: Despite efforts, private sector dominance (62% hospitals, 81% doctors) persists.
Bridging gaps in funding, resources, and distribution remains crucial for equitable and
quality healthcare access.
* Disparities: Limited facilities in rural areas lead to urban-rural healthcare disparities.
* National Health Mission: Aims to enhance healthcare infrastructure and health outcomes
across the country.
5. Summarize the operational aspects of a state legislative assembly’s functioning within
India.
Ans. The state legislative assembly in India serves as the lower house of the state legislature.
Comprising elected representatives, it plays a crucial role in lawmaking and governance at the
state level.
Members discuss and debate bills, propose amendments, and vote on legislation. The assembly
also oversees the government’s functioning through question hours, debates, and committees.
The Chief Minister and Council of Ministers are accountable to the assembly, ensuring
democratic representation and responsible governance within the state.

63
 11 Local Government
OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS FOR PRACTICE

1. Consider the following statements 4. Which of the following is/are correct

regarding Local Self Government: regarding State Election Commissioners
(SEC)?
1. In modern India, Lord Rippon created the
first local self government institutions, 1. SEC is appointed by the central
called the local boards. government with the task of conducting
panchayat elections in the state.
2. Village panchayats were set up under
2. SEC is not under the control of the
the Government of India Act of 1919. Election Commission of India.
Which of the above-given statements is/ Select the correct answer using the code
are correct? given below.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. The establishment of a panchayat at the 5. Consider the following committees:
grassroots level can be explained as an 1. Balwant Rai Mehta
exercise to promote: 2. Ashok Mehta
1. Participatory democracy 3. P.K.Thungon
2. Centralisation 4. Punchhi Commission
Which of the above given objectives
How many of the above are related to
regarding panchayats is/are correct? panchayati raj?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (a) Only two (b) Only three
(c) All four (d) None
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
6. Consider the following statements with
3. Which of the following is not correct reference to local self government :
regarding the 73rd Amendment?
1. One-half of the seats are reserved for
(a) States have to establish a uniform women in every panchayat.
three-tier Panchayati Raj structure. 2. Election Commission of India is
(b) The Gram Sabha’s creation was made responsible for conducting elections to
mandatory by this amendment. the panchayti raj institutions.
(c) The role and functions of the Gram Which of the above statements is/are
Sabha are decided by the Parliament. correct?
(d) The intermediary level body need not be (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
constituted in smaller States. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
7. Consider the following statements 3. It believes that local knowledge and

Local Government
regarding local government: local interest are essential ingredients
1. It is the government closest to the for democratic decision making
common people How many of the above are correct?
2. This government involves day-to-day (a) Only one (b) Only two
life and problems of ordinary citizens. (c) All three (d) None

SUBJECTIVE QUESTIONS FOR PRACTICE

1. What makes local governance crucial in Indian Context?
2. What are the operational responsibilities and funding sources available to a Gram Panchayat?
3. What are the fundamental elements that form the structure of rural administration?
4. What are the operational mechanisms and functions of municipal corporations in the context of
India?
5. How has the implementation of the 73rd and 74th Amendment Acts impacted local governance
in India?

ANSWER KEY
1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (c) 6. (d) 7. (c)

HINTS & SOLUTION

1. Answer (c) Reference: NCERT Class 11th Indian

Statement 1 is correct: In modern times,
elected local government bodies were created
after 1882. Lord Ripon, who served as
the Viceroy of India from 1880 to 1884,
is known for introducing significant
reforms in local governance. One of his
notable contributions was the creation of
local self-government institutions called
“local boards.” These reforms were part
of an effort to decentralise administrative
powers and bring governance closer to the
local population.
Statement 2 is correct: However, due to the
slow progress of this local board, the Indian
National Congress urged the government
to take the necessary steps to make all
local bodies more effective. Following the
Government of India Act of 1919, village
panchayats were established in a number
of provinces. This trend continued after
the Government of India Act of 1935.
Constitution at Work, chapter 8
2. Answer (a)
The establishment of Panchayats at the
grassroots level, as part of the Panchayati
Raj system in India, can be explained as an
exercise to promote:
Participatory Democracy: Panchayats
encourage the active participation of local
residents in the decision-making process.
By involving ordinary citizens in discussions
and decisions about local issues, it fosters
a sense of ownership, accountability, and
responsiveness in governance.
Overall, the establishment of Panchayats at
the grassroots level is a fundamental step
towards strengthening local governance,
promoting citizen engagement, and achieving
sustainable and inclusive development.
Hence, option 1 is correct.

65
 Decentralization: Panchayats represent
WORKBOOK POLITY a form of decentralised governance, where
decision-making authority is devolved from
higher levels of government to the local level.
This promotes the distribution of power and
resources, allowing communities to have
more control over their own development.
Hence option 2 is incorrect.
Reference: NCERT Class 11th Indian
Constitution at Work, chapter 8
3. Answer (c)
The 73rd Amendment to the Constitution
of India, also known as the Constitution
(Seventy-Third Amendment) Act, 1992, is
landmark legislation that brought significant
changes to the Panchayati Raj system in
India. Enacted in 1992, this amendment
aimed to strengthen local self-
governance in rural areas by providing
constitutional status and autonomy to
panchayats. The changes brought about
by the 73rd Amendment in Panchayati Raj
institutions are:
Three Tier Structure: All States now
have a uniform three tier Panchayati
Raj structure. At the base is the ‘Gram
Panchayat‘. A Gram Panchayat covers a
village or group of villages. The intermediary
level is the Mandal (also referred to as a
block or Taluka). The intermediary level
body need not be constituted in smaller
States. At the apex is the Zilla Panchayat,
which covers the entire rural area of the
District. The amendment also made a
provision for the mandatory creation of
the Gram Sabha. The Gram Sabha would
comprise all the adult members registered
as voters in the Panchayat area. Its role
and functions are decided by State
legislature.
Reference: NCERT Class 11th Indian
Constitution at Work, chapter 8
4. Answer (b)
Statement 1 is incorrect: The State
government is required to appoint a
State Election Commissioner who would
be responsible for conducting elections
to the Panchayati Raj institutions.
Earlier, this task was performed by the
State administration, which was under the
control of the State government.
Statement 2 is correct: The office of the
State Election Commissioner is autonomous,
like the Election Commissioner of India.
The State Election Commissioner is an
independent officer who is neither linked
to nor under the control of the Election
Commission of India.
Reference: NCERT Class 11th Indian
Constitution at Work, chapter 8
5. Answer (c)
Local government is government at the village
and district level. Local government is about
government closest to the common people.
Local government is about government that
involves the day-to-day life and problems of
ordinary citizens. Local government believes
that local knowledge and local interest are
essential ingredients for democratic decision
making. This process started in the era of
British times, and Lord Rippon is known
as the father of “local governance”. But
after Independence, various committees are
formed for local governance. Some of these
committees are:
● Balwant rai mehta committee
● Ashok mehta committee
● P.K.Thungon
● Punchhi commission
● G V K Rao committee
● L M Singhvi committee
Reference: NCERT Class 11th Indian
Constitution at Work, chapter 8
6. Answer (d)
Reservations were provided for the
deprived sections of society according to
their population, and one extra advantage
of panchayati raj institutions is that
reservations were provided to women also.
Statement 1 is incorrect: One third of
the positions in all panchayat institutions
are reserved for women. It is important
to note that these reservations apply not
merely to ordinary members in Panchayats
but also to the positions of chairpersons, or
adhyakshas, at all the three levels. Further,
66
 reservation of one-third of the seats for Statement 1 is correct: Local government

women is not merely in the general category
of seats but also within the seats reserved
for Scheduled Castes, Scheduled tribes, and
backward castes.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The State
government is required to appoint a State
Election Commissioner who would be
responsible for conducting elections to the
Panchayati Raj institutions.Earlier, this task
was performed by the State administration,
which was under the control of the State
government. Now, the office of the State
Election Commissioner is autonomous,
like the Election Commissioner of India.
However, the State Election Commissioner
is an independent officer who is neither
linked to nor under the control of the
Election Commission of India.
Reference: NCERT Class 11th Indian
Constitution at Work, chapter 8
7. Answer (c)
In India, Local government is referred to
as “Panchayati Raj,” which translates to
“Rule of the Village Elders.” It is a system of
governance that aims to decentralise power
and decision-making to the grassroots level.
Local Government
refers to the government that is closest
to the common people and operates at
the grassroots level. It is responsible for
addressing the needs and concerns of local
communities and residents within a specific
geographical area, such as a village, town, or
city. Local governments play a crucial role
in providing essential services and making
decisions that directly impact people’s daily
lives.
Statement 2 is correct: It aims to provide
governance that is more immediate
and responsive to the needs of the local
community, i.e it involves the day-to-day
life and problems of ordinary citizens
and takes decisions on issues that directly
affect the quality of life for residents within
a specific geographic area, whether it’s a
village, town, city, or neighbourhood.
Statement 3 is correct: Local government
believes that local knowledge and local
interest are essential ingredients for
democratic decision-making. They are also
necessary for efficient and people-friendly
administration. The advantage of local
government is that it is so close to the people
Reference: NCERT Class 11th Indian
Constitution at Work, chapter 8

SUBJECTIVE QUESTIONS WITH MODEL ANSWERS

1. What makes local governance crucial within the context of India?
Ans. Local governance, often referred to as the grassroots level of administration, holds paramount
significance in India’s vast and diverse landscape, such as:
* Customized Solutions: It enables tailored approaches to address specific community
needs and challenges effectively. For instance, Kerala’s Kudumbashree project tackles
poverty through grassroots-level community initiatives.
* Empowerment: Local citizens engage in decision-making, fostering a sense of accountability
and ownership. The Panchayati Raj institutions, established under Article 243 of the
Constitution, exemplify this by involving village-level representatives.
* Efficient Resource Allocation: Local bodies possess firsthand knowledge, ensuring
efficient distribution of resources and services. Maharashtra’s Village Social
Transformation Foundation illustrates this by optimizing resource allocation for
transformative projects.

67
 2. What are the operational responsibilities and funding sources available to a Gram
WORKBOOK POLITY Panchayat?”
Ans. Operational Responsibilities and Funding Sources of Gram Panchayat:
* Works: Gram Panchayats manage local infrastructure projects like building roads,
constructing community halls, and improving water supply systems. For example, the
construction of village roads in Karnataka.
* Services: They provide essential services such as primary education, healthcare, and
sanitation facilities. In Rajasthan, Gram Panchayats manage primary health centers and
schools.
* Funding: Funding sources include government grants, local taxes, and funds allocated
through Finance Commissions. The Swachh Bharat Mission receives central funds for
sanitation projects.
* Grants: Central and state governments allocate grants for specific projects and schemes
like the MGNREGA projects in Bihar.
* Local Taxes: Gram Panchayats levy taxes on properties, businesses, and activities. For
instance, property tax collection in Maharashtra.
3. What are the fundamental elements that form the structure of rural administration?
Ans. Rural administration encompasses several vital components:
* Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs): Gram Panchayat, Panchayat Samiti, Zila Parishad,
and Gram Sabha constitute the foundation of local self-governance.
* Block Development Officers (BDOs): Responsible for overseeing development activities
and initiatives at the block level.
* Tehsildars: Manage revenue administration, including land records and related matters.
* Police Stations: Ensure law and order, enforce regulations and address public safety
concerns.
* Health Centers and Schools: Provide essential healthcare and education services to the
rural population.
4. What are the operational mechanisms and functions of municipal corporations in the
context of India?
Ans. Municipal corporations, integral to urban governance, have multifaceted responsibilities
evident in their functioning across cities. For instance:
* Waste Management: Kolkata Municipal Corporation implements waste segregation and
recycling initiatives to manage urban waste effectively.
* Urban Planning: Mumbai’s Municipal Corporation formulates development plans to
accommodate the city’s rapid growth while maintaining infrastructural balance.
* Infrastructure Development: The Bengaluru Bruhat Mahanagara Palike (BBMP) oversees
road expansion projects and waste-to-energy plants.
* Public Health Services: Chennai Corporation provides healthcare facilities, sanitation
programs, and vaccination drives for urban health management.
5. How has the implementation of the 73rd and 74th Amendment Acts impacted local
governance in India?
Ans. The implementation of the 73rd and 74th Amendment Acts in India marked a significant shift
towards decentralization and local self-governance.
These acts granted constitutional status to Panchayats and Municipalities, empowering
them to manage their respective areas effectively. As a result, grassroots democracy has
been strengthened, enabling communities to participate in decision-making processes. These
amendments have played a crucial role in ensuring local development, citizen participation,
and effective service delivery at the grassroots level.

68
 Marginalised
12 Sections
OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS FOR PRACTICE
1. Consider the following statements with
reference to Adivasis:
1. They are the original inhabitants who
lived in close connection with cities.
2. They practice the same religion all over
the country.
3. They have their own languages.
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) None of the above
2. Consider the following statements with
reference to the Scheduled Castes and
the Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of
Atrocities) Act, 1989:
1. Forcing a member of a Scheduled Caste
or a Scheduled Tribe to drink or eat any
inedible or obnoxious substance
2. Forcing a person to remove clothes
3. Illegal occupation of land owned by
person of scheduled caste
SUBJECTIVE QUESTIONS FOR PRACTICE
1. How does the concept of minority groups is related to issues of marginalization and exclusion?
2. What role did Rokeya Sakhawat Hossain play in breaking the glass ceiling of gender stereotypes
and advocating for women’s rights through her writings?
4. Assault or use of force on any woman
belonging to a Scheduled Caste or a
Scheduled Tribe
How many of the above are crimes
prescribed in the Scheduled Castes
and the Scheduled Tribes (Prevention
of Atrocities) Act, 1989?
(a) Only one (b) Only two
(c) Only three (d) All four
3. “She never went to school but championed
the cause of women’s education and earned
the title of “Pandita” and she also set
up a Mission in Khedgaon near Pune in
1898, where widows and poor women were
encouraged not only to become literate but
to be independent”.
Which among the following personalities
is appropriately described in the above
paragraph?
(a) Ramabai Dongre
(b) Tarabai Sinde
(c) Chandramukhi Basu
(d) Kadambani Ganguly
WORKBOOK POLITY ANSWER KEY
1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (a)
HINTS & SOLUTION
1. Answer (b)
Statement 1 is incorrect: Adivasis – the
term literally means ‘original inhabitants’
– are communities who lived, and often
continue to live, in close association
with forests. Around 8 per cent of India’s
population is Adivasi and many of India’s
most important mining and industrial
centres are located in Adivasi areas –
Jamshedpur, Rourkela, Bokaro and Bhilai
among others.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Adivasis practise
a range of tribal religions that are different
from Islam, Hinduism and Christianity.
These often involve the worship of
ancestors, village and nature spirits, the
last associated with and residing in various
sites in the landscape – ‘mountain-spirits’,
‘river-spirits’, ‘animal-spirits’, etc.
Statement 3 is correct: Adivasis have
their own languages (most of them
radically different from and possibly as
old as Sanskrit), which have often deeply
influenced the formation of ‘mainstream’
Indian languages, like Bengali. Santhali has
the largest number of speakers and has a
significant body of publications including
magazines on the internet.
2. Answer (d)
The Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled
Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, was
framed in 1989 in response to demands
made by Dalits and others that the
government must take seriously the ill
treatment and humiliation Dalits and tribal
groups face in an everyday sense. The Act
distinguishes several levels of crimes. Some
of them are:
● Force a member of a Scheduled Caste
or a Scheduled Tribe to drink or eat any
inedible or obnoxious substance. Hence,
Statement 1 is correct.
● Forcibly removes clothes from the
person of a member of a Scheduled
Caste or a Scheduled Tribe or parades
him or her naked or with painted face or
body or commits any similar act which
is derogatory to human dignity. Hence,
Statement 2 is correct.
● Wrongfully occupies or cultivates
any land owned by, or allotted to, …
a member of a Scheduled Caste or a
Scheduled Tribe or gets the land allotted
to him transferred. Hence, Statement 3
is correct.
● Assaults or uses force on any woman
belonging to a Scheduled Caste or a
Scheduled Tribe with intent to dishonour
her. Hence, Statement 4 is correct.
3. Answer (a)
Ramabai Dongre (1858–1922) championed
the cause of women’s education. She
never went to school but learnt to read and
write from her parents. She was given the
title ‘Pandita’ because she could read and
write Sanskrit, a remarkable achievement
as women then were not allowed such
knowledge. She went on to set up a
Mission in Khedgaon near Pune in 1898,
where widows and poor women were
encouraged not only to become literate
but to be independent. They were taught
a variety of skills from carpentry to running
a printing press, skills that are not usually
taught to girls even today.
70
 Marginalised Sections
SUBJECTIVE QUESTIONS WITH MODEL ANSWERS
1. How does the concept of minority groups relate to issues of marginalization and
exclusion?
Ans. The concept of minority groups often intertwines with issues of marginalization and exclusion,
as seen in various global contexts. For instance, the Rohingya Muslim minority in Myanmar
has faced persecution and forced displacement, highlighting their marginalized status.
Similarly, the caste-based discrimination against Dalits in India has led to their exclusion
from various socio-economic opportunities. These instances underscore how minority groups
can be marginalized and excluded due to cultural, religious, or socio-economic factors,
emphasizing the need for inclusive policies to counteract such trends.
2. What role did Rokeya Sakhawat Hossain play in breaking the glass ceiling of gender
stereotypes and advocating for women’s rights through her writings?
Ans. Rokeya Sakhawat Hossain was a trailblazer in dismantling gender stereotypes and advocating
women’s rights through her writings. Her influential essay “Sultana’s Dream” envisioned a
matriarchal society, showcasing women’s intellectual capabilities. Hossain’s works addressed
issues like women’s education and economic independence, challenging prevailing norms.
By highlighting the potential of women beyond traditional roles, she shattered the glass
ceiling of gender stereotypes and laid the foundation for gender equality movements. Her
legacy continues to inspire women globally to challenge societal constraints and strive for
empowerment.

71
 13 Miscellaneous
SUBJECTIVE QUESTIONS FOR PRACTICE
1. How does the media contribute to the functioning and sustenance of a democratic society like
India?
2. What are the various livelihood options available to the rural population to sustain their lives?

SUBJECTIVE QUESTIONS WITH MODEL ANSWERS

1. How does the media contribute to the functioning and sustenance of a democratic
society like India?
Ans. The media’s role in a democratic society like India is crucial. It acts as a watchdog, holding
authorities accountable through investigative journalism. For instance, the “Cobrapost”
exposé unveiled political corruption, reinforcing transparency.
During elections, media platforms enable healthy public debates and informed voting choices.
However, challenges like sensationalism must be addressed.
The media empowers citizens by providing diverse perspectives, promoting civic engagement,
and safeguarding democratic values. This collective scrutiny strengthens democratic
institutions, ensuring a well-informed electorate and responsible governance.
2. What are the various livelihood options available to the rural population to sustain their
lives?
Ans. Rural communities in India rely on a range of livelihoods shaped by local resources and
traditions. Artisans in places like Dhokra, Chhattisgarh, craft intricate metalwork using the
Dhokra technique. Madhubani, Bihar, thrives on the traditional Mithila art. Thanjavur, Tamil
Nadu, centers around paddy cultivation, while the Dhangar community in Maharashtra
engages in sheep rearing. These diverse occupations exemplify the fusion of ancestral
practices with local knowledge, providing a holistic livelihood base for rural populations across
the country.
Modern History
 Introduction: How,
1 When and Where
OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS FOR PRACTICE

1. “He was a Scottish economist and a (c) John Maynard Keynes

political philosopher who divided Indian (d) David Ricardo
History into three periods- Hindu, Muslim,
and British in his book ‘A History of 2. A mutiny broke out in the ranks of the
British India’ and according to him, all Royal Indian Navy in 1946, in which of
Asian civilizations were at a lower level the following cities:
than European civilization.”. 1. Bombay
Who among the following philosophers 2. Vizagapatnam
is correctly described in the above
3. Karachi
paragraph?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(a) James Mill
(c) 1, 2, and 3 (d) 1 and 3
(b) Adam Smith

SUBJECTIVE QUESTIONS FOR PRACTICE

1. To control the economy in India, what were the steps taken by the Britishers?
2. In how many phases the history of India was divided according to the Western philosopher
James Mill? Do you justify it?
3. What do you understand by colonialism? What were the factors behind its emergence?
4. What is the purpose of Survey? Why was it conducted in colonial territories?
5. Why were administrative records maintained by the British government?

ANSWER KEY
1. (a) 2. (c)
WORKBOOK MODERN HISTORY HINTS & SOLUTION
1. Answer (a)
We classify periods in an attempt to capture
the characteristics of a time and its central
features as they appear to us. So the terms
used to periodize—that is, demarcate
the difference between periods—become
important. They reflect our ideas about the
past. They show how we see the significance
of the change from one period to the next. In
1817, James Mill, a Scottish economist and
political philosopher, published a massive
three-volume work, A History of British
India. In this, he divided Indian history into
three periods – Hindu, Muslim, and British.
This periodization became widely accepted.
Reference: Ncert, class 8th, chapter 1
2. Answer (c)
The colonial government of British India
was trying to suppress revolt in the ranks of
the Royal Indian Navy in various cities, as
inferred from the following report:
Report to the Home Department in 1946.
Bombay: Arrangements have been made
for the Army to take over ships and
establishments. Royal Navy ships remained
outside the harbour. (Hence, 1. Bombay is
correct.)
Karachi: 301 mutineers are under arrest
and a few more strongly suspected are to
be arrested … All establishments are under
military guard. (Hence, 3. Karachi is
correct.)
Vizagapatnam: The position is completely
under control and no violence has occurred.
Military guards have been placed on ships
and establishments. No further trouble
is expected except that a few men may
refuse to work. (Hence, 2. Vizagapatnam
is correct.)
Director of Intelligence, HQ. India Command,
Situation Report No. 7. File No. 5/21/46
Home (Political), Government of India.
A failed uprising by Indian naval ratings,
soldiers, police officers, and civilians
against the British government in India was
known as the Royal Indian Navy Mutiny
or Revolt, also known as the 1946 Naval
Uprising. From the initial flashpoint in
Bombay (now Mumbai), the revolt spread
and found support throughout British
India, from Karachi to Calcutta (now
Kolkata), and ultimately came to involve
over 20,000 sailors in 78 ships and shore
establishments.
Reference: Ncert, class 8th , chapter 1.

SUBJECTIVE QUESTIONS FOR PRACTICE

1. To control the economy in India, what were the steps taken by the Britishers?
Ans. Britishers in order to increase their profit share had taken various steps to control the Indian
economy
Some steps taken by the Britishers are:
* To meet their basic needs, they started increasing the revenue from agriculture.
* They forced the people to reduce the prices of the commodities which were later exported
by them to earn more profits.
* They started to increase the share of important cash crops which they exported.
2. In how many phases the history of India was divided according to the western philosopher
James Mill. Do you justify it?
Ans. James Mill has divided the history of India on the basis of religion:

76

For him the ancient history was termed as Hindu Period, as it was the time period of the

Introduction: How, when and where

Hindu religion rulers.

The medieval time Period is considered as Muslim period as it was time period of Muslim
rulers.

The modern period is considered as the British Period.

Though this division is not strict as India was the land of people of different sections of the society,
and various people, so doing a proper segregation based on religion is not justified in nature.
3. What do you understand by colonialism? What were the factors behind its emergence?
Ans. Colonialism refers to the policy of acquiring and maintaining colonies especially for exploitation
of resources in the colonial land for the mother nation.

It also means that it is a relationship between an indigenous majority and a minority foreign
invaders.
Factors for emergence of Colonialism:
* Nationalism spirits, for the prosperity and glory of the mother nation.
* Racial supremacy of the white people and moral duty to socialize the indigenous
people.
* Industrial Revolution, which necessitated search for new market for raw material purpose
and selling of goods.
* Discovery of new routes, also led to emergence of colonialism at later stage.
4. What is the purpose of survey? Why was it conducted in colonial territories?
Ans. Surveys are used to gather knowledge in fields of social research and demography. Surveys
can be specific or limited, or they can have more global, widespread goals. E.g. - Survey for the
sex ratio in an area.

The British gave much importance to the practice of surveying because they believed that a
country had to be properly known before it could be effectively administered. Therefore, they
carried out detailed Surveys by the early 19th century in order to map the entire country, that’s
why they conducted revenue surveys in villages.
5. Why were the administrative records maintained by the British government?
Ans. Administrative Records were maintained by British Government because:
* The British believed that the act of writing is fundamental for the administrative control
and understanding. The administrative records had helped the officials in making plan
and major policy decision. It also helped them in investigation of any wrongdoings by the
officials. They can make the visions and missions according to the previous reports and
make changes for the future achievements.
* This record was thoroughly utilized by the Britishers to better control the Indian territory,
even the record of the remotest territory was surveyed, and organized steps were taken
which helped the Britishers to curb even the small uprising and extract revenue.

77
 From Trade to
2 Territory
OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS FOR PRACTICE
1. With reference to Subsidiary Alliance,
consider the following statements:
1. At least fifty percent of the army of
Indian rulers entering the alliance
should be European soldiers.
2. The Indian ruler had to pay for
the maintenance of the Company’s
subsidiary forces stationed within his
territory.
Which of the statements given above is/
are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. Consider the following statements:
1. Under the Queen’s Charter of 1600,
no other trading Company in Europe
except the East India Company could
trade with the East.
2. The East India Company was the first
European power to enter India through
the Western coast.
Which of the statements given above is/
are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. Consider the following statements:
1. The English factory in Bengal was set
up in 1651.
2. Zamindari rights for the village of
Kalikata were provided to the East India
Company by Murshid Quli Khan.
3. Mughal Emperor Aurangzeb’s Farman
empowered the British traders to carry
on private trade without paying taxes in
Bengal only.
How many of the above statements are
correct?
(a) Only one (b) Only two
(c) All three (d) None
4. Consider the following statements :
1. During the reign of Tipu Sultan,
sandalwood was the only item exported
from India to Britain through the
Malabar Coast.
2. Tipu Sultan modernised his army with
the help of the French in India.
3. The British acquired Mysore after the
death of Tipu Sultan by applying the
Doctrine of Lapse.
How many of the above statements are
correct?
(a) Only one (b) Only two
(c) All three (d) None
5. Consider the following statements :
Statement-I: The outflow of gold from
Britain to India reduced significantly after
the Battle of Plassey.
Statement-II: The revenues collected by
the Company from Bengal were used to
buy cotton and silk textiles in India, and
for other ancillary expenses in India.
 Which of the following statements is 2. Under it, the British could annex any

From Trade to Territory

true:
(a) Statement 1 is correct, Statement 2 is
correct, and Statement 2 is the correct
reason for Statement-I.
(b) Statement 1 is correct, Statement 2
is correct, and Statement 2 is not the
correct reason for Statement-I.
(c) Statement 1 is correct, Statement 2 is
incorrect.
(d) Statement 1 is incorrect, Statement 2 is
correct.
6. Regarding the Treaty of Salbai, which of
the following statements is correct?
(a) The various Maratha sardars were
held together in a confederacy with the
Peshwa as the head under this treaty.
(b) It ended the first Anglo-Maratha war.
(c) It provided the company with control
over territories north of the Yamuna
River.
(d) It ended the third Anglo-Maratha war,
with the British gaining control over
territories south of the Vindhyas.
7. Rani Channamma led an anti British
protest in the first half of the 19th
century; she belonged to the present day
state of:
10. With reference to British India, ‘Muskets’
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Telangana
(c) Karnataka (d) Tamil Nadu
8. Consider the following statements
regarding the Doctrine of Lapse:
1. It was widely used during the tenure of
Lord Dalhousie as a governor general.
Indian territory on the grounds of
misgovernment, particularly when the
ruler had lost trust of his subjects.
3. Punjab was the first state annexed
under this policy.
How many of the above statements are
correct?
(a) Only one (b) Only two
(c) All three (d) None
9. Consider the following statements
regarding the justice system under
Warren Hastings:
1. European District Collectors were
appointed to directly preside over
both Civil and Criminal courts in each
district.
2. Indian Hindu laws were interpreted
for the European District Collectors by
persons known as Muftis.
3. Sadar Nizamat Adalats were established
in every district of Bengal Presidency as
a court of appeal.
How many of the above statements are
correct?
(a) Only one (b) Only two
(c) All three (d) None
and ‘Matchlocks’ refer to :
(a) Ranks in the British army.
(b) Warfare strategy.
(c) Types of guns used in wars.
(d) Storehouses for export items.

SUBJECTIVE QUESTIONS FOR PRACTICE

1. The shift of British policy from trade to colonialism can be traced to the disintegration of the
Mughal emperors?
2. What was the earlier aim of the East India Company before territorial expansion.
3. What are the administrative changes brought by Warren hasting and Cornwallis in the territories
they conquered?
4. The realization of Diwani rights fulfilled the long-term dream of the East India Company. How
did the assumption of Diwani benefit the East India Company?
5. Why did India’s foreign trade decline during British rule, against the earlier title of golden bird?
6. What are the benefits of issuance of Farman by the Mughal emperors to the Britishers?

79
 7. The subsidiary alliance helped Britishers to strengthen their expansion in the large territory of
WORKBOOK MODERN HISTORY India. Explain the system of “subsidiary alliance” in this context.
8. Describe the changes that occurred in the composition of the Company’s army post 1857 revolt.
9. What makes the land revenue system of the Mahalwari system different from the Permanent
Settlement?
ANSWER KEY
1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (a)
HINTS & SOLUTION
1. Answer (b)
● Statement 1 is incorrect: An Indian
ruler entering the Subsidiary Alliance
was not allowed to have his own
independent armed forces. He had to
disband his army, and the company
was supposed to protect the ruler in
return for a payment.
● Statement 2 is correct: As per the
Subsidiary Alliance treaty, the Indian
ruler was to be protected by the
British East India Company but had
to pay for the subsidiary forces that
the Company was to maintain for his
protection. If the ruler failed to make
the payment, then part of his territory
was taken away as a penalty.
● Dupleix was the originator of the practise
of subsidiary alliance in India. He
placed a French army at Hyderabad at
the expense of the subahdar.
● The policy was perfected and given its
final form by Lord Wellesley. The Indian
princes who accepted the subsidiary
system were: the Nizam of Hyderabad
(September 1798 and 1800), the ruler
of Mysore (1799), the ruler of Tanjore
(October 1799), the Nawab of Awadh
(November 1801), the Peshwa (December
1801), the Bhonsle Raja of Berar
(December 1803), the Scindia (February
1804), the Rajput states of Jodhpur,
Jaipur, Macheri, Bundi, and the ruler of
Bharatpur (1818). The Holkars were the
6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (a) 9. (d) 10. (c)
last Maratha confederation to accept the
Subsidiary Alliance in 1818.
Reference: Class 8th NCERT, Our Pasts-
III, Chapter 2
2. Answer (d)
● Statement 1 is incorrect: the East India
Company acquired a charter from the
ruler of England, Queen Elizabeth I, in
1600. The charter granted the Company
the sole right to trade with the East; it
provided that no other trading group in
England could compete with the East
India Company. The royal charter could
not prevent other European powers
from entering Eastern markets.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: Vasco da
Gama, a Portuguese explorer, discovered
a sea route to India and landed on the
Western coast in 1498. Hence, by the
time the first English ships sailed down
the west coast of Africa, around the Cape
of Good Hope, and crossed the Indian
Ocean, the Portuguese had already
established their presence on the
Western coast of India. The Portuguese
had their base in Goa, India.
Reference: Class 8th NCERT, Our Pasts-
III, Chapter 2
3. Answer (a)
● Statement 1 is correct: In 1651, an
English factory was set up on the
banks of the Hooghly River in Bengal;
this was the base from which British
traders, known as factors, operated.
80
 ● Statement 2 is incorrect: The traders
of the East India Company bribed
Mughal officials into giving the company
the zamindari rights over three villages
in Bengal; one of these was Kalikata,
which is at present known as the city of
Calcutta or Kolkata.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: Mughal
emperor Aurangzeb issued a Farman
that granted the East India Company
the right to trade duty free. However,
the officials of the company, who were
engaged in private trade, were supposed
to pay duty.
Reference: Class 8th NCERT, Our Pasts-
III, Chapter 2
4. Answer (a)
● Statement 1 is incorrect: During
British India, in the 18th century,
Mysore controlled the profitable trade of
the Malabar coast, where the Company
purchased pepper and cardamom. In
1785, Tipu Sultan stopped the export
of sandalwood, pepper, and cardamom
through the ports of his Kingdom and
also disallowed local merchants from
trading with the Company.
● Statement 2 is correct: Tipu Sultan
established a close relationship with
the French in India; he also took their
help to modernise his army in order to
fight the British.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: in 1799,
the company ultimately won a victory
against Tipu Sultan in the battle of
Seringapatam. Tipu was killed defending
his capital, Seringapatam. Following this,
Mysore was placed under the former
ruling dynasty of Wodeyars, and the
system of the Subsidiary Alliance was
imposed on the state.
Reference: Class 8th NCERT, Our
Pasts -III, Chapter 2
5. Answer (a)
● Statement 1 is correct: From the
early 18th century, the Company’s trade
with India expanded but it had to buy
most of the goods in India with gold and
81
silver imported from Britain. The reason
From Trade to Territory
was at that time Britain had no goods
to sell in India. This outflow of gold
from Britain slowed after the battle
of Plassey and entirely stopped after
assumption of Diwani rights after the
battle of Buxar.Hence Statement 1 is
Correct.
● Statement 2 is correct: In 1765, the
Mughal emperor appointed the East
India Company as the Diwan of the
province of Bengal. The Diwani right
allowed the company to use the vast
revenue resources of Bengal. The
revenue was used to finance Company
expenses like: purchase cotton
and silk textiles in India, maintain
company troops, meet the cost of
building company offices in Calcutta
etc. Hence Statement 2 is correct and
explains Statement-I.
Reference: Class 8th NCERT, Our
Pasts -III, Chapter 2
6. Answer (b)
● Statement B is correct: the Treaty of
Salbai ended the first Anglo Maratha
war in 1782. The Marathas were
subdued by the British in a series of
wars. The second Anglo-Maratha war
resulted in the British gaining Odisha
and territories north of the Yamuna
river including Agra and Delhi. Finally,
the third Anglo Maratha war (1817-19)
ended the Maratha power; the Peshwa
was removed and sent away to Bihar
near Kanpur with a pension. The
company now had complete control over
the territories south of the Vindhyas.
● The Marathas were originally divided
into many states under different chiefs
or sardars, belonging to Dynasties such
as Holkar, Bhonsle, Sindhiya. The chiefs
were held together in a confederacy under
a Peshwa or Prime Minister who was
incharge of military and administration,
based in Pune.
Reference: Class 8th NCERT, Our
Pasts-III, Chapter 2
 7. Answer (c)
WORKBOOK MODERN HISTORY
● Option (c) is correct: Rani Channamma
took up arms and led an anti-British
resistance Movement in the first half of
the 19th century when the British tried
to annex the small state of Kitoor in
present day Karnataka. She was finally
arrested by the British in 1824 and died
in prison in 1829.
● After her death, Rayanna, a poor
chowkidar of Sangoli, Kitoor, continued
the resistance and with popular support,
destroyed many British camps and
records. Finally he was caught and
hanged by the British in 1830.
Reference: Class 8th NCERT, Our
Pasts -III, Chapter 2
8. Answer (a)
● Statement 1 is correct: The British
followed the policy of annexing Indian
States on various grounds. The Doctrine
of Lapse was one of them; it was mainly
used by Lord Dalhousie, who was
governor general of India from 1848
to 1856.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: Under this
Doctrine, if an Indian ruler died without
a male heir, his Kingdom would lapse,
that is, it would become a part of the
Company’s territory. One Kingdom
after another was annexed simply by
the company applying this Doctrine of
Lapse.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: The Doctrine
of Lapse was first applied to annex few
Cis-Sutlej territories (and not entire
Punjab) by the company, followed
by Satara in 1848, followed by other
states -Sambalpur in 1850, Udaipur in
1852, Nagpur in 1853, and Jhansi in
1854. After the death of Maharaja Ranjit
Singh in 1839, two prolonged wars were
fought by the Sikhs with the British,
but ultimately Punjab was annexed in
1849.
Reference: Class 8th NCERT, Our
Pasts-III, Chapter 2
9. Answer (d)
● Statement 1 is incorrect: Warren
Hastings ruled as the governor general
of India from 1773 to 1785. In 1772, a
new system of justice was established;
each district was to have two courts - a
criminal court (faujdari Adalat) and a
Civil Court (Diwani Adalat). European
district collectors presided over civil
courts, whereas criminal courts were
presided over by a Qazi and a Mufti
under supervision of collectors.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: Muftis were
jurists of the Muslim community
responsible for expounding the law
that the qazi would administer. In
the Civil Courts, Maulavi’s and Hindu
pandits interpreted Indian laws for
European district collectors.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: Under the
Regulating Act of 1773, a new Supreme
Court was established in Calcutta, while
a court of appeal - the Sadar Nizamat
Adalat, was also set up in Calcutta.
Reference: Class 8th NCERT, Our
Pasts-III, Chapter 2
10. Answer (c)
● Option (c) is correct: Muskets and
Matchlocks refer to types of guns.
Muskets were heavy guns used by
infantry soldiers, and matchlocks were
early types of guns in which the powder
was ignited by a match.
● In the 1820s, warfare Technology
changed, and cavalry requirements of
the company’s army declined. This is
because the British Empire was fighting
in Burma, Afghanistan, and Egypt,
where the soldiers were armed with
Muskets and Matchlocks . The soldiers
of the company’s army had to keep pace
with the changing military requirements,
and its infantry regiments now became
more important.
Reference: Class 8th NCERT, Our
Pasts-III, Chapter 2
82
 SUBJECTIVE QUESTIONS WITH MODEL ANSWERS

From Trade to Territory

1. The shift of British policy from trade to colonialism can be traced to the disintegration
of the Mughal emperors?
Ans. After the death of last powerful Mughal ruler Aurangzeb in 1707, a war of succession among
sons of Aurangzeb broke out, along with outside factors like attacks of Nadir Shah and Ahmad
Shah Abdali, revolts of various communities like Jats, Sikhs, Rajputs etc. are the factors
contributed to the downfall of the Mughal Empire.
The downfall made the centralized empire weak in nature and Paved the way for British
rule and interference.

Even later Britishers also took steps to reduce the Mughal supremacy like,
* All the name of the Mughal king was removed from the coins minted by the Company.
* In 1849, Governor-General Dalhousie announced that after the death of Bahadur Shah
Zafar, the family of the king would be shifted out of the Red Fort and given another place
in Delhi to live in.
2. What was the earlier aim of the East India Company before territorial expansion.
Ans. The original aim of the East India Company was to trade and commerce to support their
industrial revolution and find a new market for raw material purchase and selling their goods.
The company was chartered by Queen Elizabeth I for trade with Asia. Even a certain group
of merchants were involved and their aim was to break the Dutch monopoly of the spice trade
with the East Indies.

Thus, East India Company persuaded the royal house and they wanted to achieve their target
by exhorting the British government to relinquish the royal charter which allowed trade with
India and east from England and another was that the company demanded to take control of
government resources.
3. What are the administrative changes brought by Warren hasting and Cornwallis in the
territories they conquered?
Ans. The British introduced many administrative changes in the territories they conquered.
Changes brought by Warren Hastings and Cornwallis were:
Warren Hastings:

He introduced several administrative reforms, notably in the sphere of justice.
From 1772 a new system of justice was established. Each district was to have two courts: a
criminal court (faujdari adalat ) and a civil court (diwani adalat).
Cornwallis:

He introduced various changes, during his time the number of revenue districts in the Bengal
Presidency were reduced, he banned taking bribes and he also increased the salaries of the
civil servants and appointed only English men to the posts of responsibility. He introduced
Permanent Settlement in 1793 as a system of collecting Land revenue.
4. The realization of Diwani rights fulfilled the long-term dream of the East India Company.
How did the assumption of Diwani benefit the East India Company?
Ans. Diwani right means the right to collect revenue. Diwani allowed the East India Company to use
the huge revenue resources of Bengal. The Company could use the revenue to finance its trade
and other expenses and also to strengthen its military power.

83
 They even started taking the farmer produce at cheap cost for the export purpose and
WORKBOOK MODERN HISTORY introduced the new land tenure system which further helped them in more revenue extraction
and these benefits fuelled the industrial revolution in their home nation.
5. Why did India’s foreign trade decline during British rule, against the earlier title of
golden bird?
Ans. Before the arrival of the colonial powers. India traded in wool, silk textiles, metal crafts like
vessels made of iron, steel, copper and ornaments made of gold, silver, etc. And the silk route
also passed through the Indian territory which allowed it to trade and export its commodities.

After the arrival of the Britishers, British trade policies led to the drain of wealth from
India. Indian trade industries and handicrafts declined. Indian artisans lost support of kings
and nobles. The British wanted India to become a supplier of raw materials and an importer
of finished goods, thus heavy duty was put on the Indian export and tax was reduced on the
cheap inflow of the British mass-produced goods.
6. What were the benefits of issuance of Farman by the Mughal emperors to the Britishers?
Ans. The Farman was an irrevocable royal decree issued by the Emperor. It was adopted either in
response to an application submitted to the emperor by subject or as a judgment on the royal
policy.
Benefits of the Farman:
* The issuance of Farman granted the Company the right to reside and trade in the Mughal
empire.
* They only had to pay a fixed price, to trade without fear from the Mughal official hand.
7. The subsidiary alliance helped Britishers to strengthen their expansion in the large
territory of India. Explain the system of “subsidiary alliance” in this context.
Ans. The Subsidiary Alliance system compelled Indian rulers to accept the East India Company’s
dominance over themselves in return for the Company’s promises to protect them against
others.
The first ruler of the Subsidiary Alliance was the Nizam of Hyderabad.
Features of the subsidiary alliance:
* An Indian ruler entering into a subsidiary alliance with the British had to accept British
forces in his territory and also agreed to pay for their maintenance.
* The ruler would accept British people in his state, a British resident.
* Such a ruler would not form an alliance with any other power, nor would he declare war
against any power without the permission of the British.
* The ruler would not employ any Europeans other than the British, and if he were already
doing so, he would dismiss them.
* In case of a conflict with any other state, the British would decide what to do, and he would
accept their solution.
* In return for the ruler accepting its conditions, the Company undertook to protect the state
from external dangers and internal disorders.
* If the Indian rulers failed to make the payments required by the alliance, then part of their
territory was to be taken away as a penalty.

84
 8. Describe the changes that occurred in the composition of the Company’s army post

From Trade to Territory

1857 revolt.
Ans. The Indian army was carefully reorganized after 1858. The good governance act was passed
also for better administration.
Changes done in the army are -
* Some changes were made necessary by the transfer of power to the Crown.
* The East India Company’s European forces were merged with the Crown troops.
* But the army was reorganized most of all to prevent the recurrence of another revolt.
* The loyal races were given prominence and created separately like the Gurkha regiment.
* The promotion of the European forces was given priority while the Indian sepoy were kept
at the low position.
9. What makes the land revenue system of the Mahalwari system different from the
Permanent Settlement?
Ans. Under the Permanent Settlement, the Zamindars were given the charge of collecting revenue
from the peasants and paying it to the Company. Here the rates are fixed, that is 10/11 of the
collected revenue. It was employed in Bengal, Bihar and Orissa.

But in the Mahalwari system, this charge was given to the village headman, and the rates of
the Mahalwari system are not fixed. It was employed by Holt MacKenzie.

It was employed in Northwest, Central Province and Punjab.

85
 Colonialism and
3 Countryside
OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS FOR PRACTICE
1. “It is a kind of revenue system in which the
East India Company has fixed the revenue
and those who failed to pay the revenue,
their estates were to be auctioned. One of
the famous auctions that occurred was the
auction at Burdwan.”
Which of the following types of Land
settlement system is appropriately
described in the above paragraph?
(a) Permanent Settlement
(b) Summary Settlement
(c) Ryotwari Settlement
(d) Mahalwari Settlement
2. Consider the following statements:
1. The initial demand for revenue was very
high
2. The price of agricultural products was
sometimes low.
3. Flexibility in the payment of revenue
4. Regulation and control on the zamindars
How many of the above are reasons
for the non-payment of revenues by
zamindars in the permanent settlement
system?
(a) Only one (b) Only two
(c) Only three (d) All four
3. Consider the following statements:
1. Adhiyars were the sharecroppers who
brought their own ploughs, worked in
the fields, and gave the jotedars half of
the harvest after it was done.
2. Haoladars exercise direct control over
a considerable section of the poor
villagers, and they also resisted efforts
of zamindars to increase the jama.
Select the correct statement using the
codes given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
4. Consider the following statements
regarding Damin-i-Koh:
1. Damin-i-Koh was declared the Land of
the Santhals.
2. Santhals were to occupy it, practise
ploughed agriculture, and become
settled peasants.
Which of the above statements are
correct:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
5. Which of the following is correct with
reference to the permanent settlement
revenue system?
(a) Zamindars were responsible for paying
revenue to the company.
(b) The East India Company was directly
responsible for distributing the revenue
demand among villages.
(c) Ryots paid rent directly to the East
India Company.
(d) The East India Company provided loans
to ryots for the cultivation of crops.
 6. Consider the following statements with (a) Paharia chiefs refused allowances

Colonialism and Countryside

reference to the various strategies that
Zamindars employed to resist the high
revenue demands of the British East
India Company in Bengal during the late
18th century:
1. Fictitious sales involved transferring
property to women to avoid Company
takeovers.
2. The strategy included manipulating
auctions and allowing unpaid balances
to accumulate.
3. When other people (apart from
Zamindars) acquired land, taking
possession of the land was made
extremely difficult.
Select the correct statements using the
codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
7. Which of the following is the most
appropriate reason for Paharia chiefs to
refuse the annual allowances offered by
the British colonial government in the
1780s?
because they saw them as insufficient.
(b) Accepting the allowances caused
Paharia chiefs to gain more authority
within the community.
(c) Paharia chiefs who accepted the
allowances were perceived as
subordinate employees of the colonial
government.
(d) The policy of pacification encouraged
Paharia chiefs to expand their
territories.
8. Consider the following statements with
reference to the Deccan Riots of 1875:
1. Peasants robbed grain stores, burned
down bahi khatas, and occasionally set
fire to the Sahukars’ home.
2. Ryotwari system of revenue collection
was one of the reasons for these riots.
Which of the statements given above is/
are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

SUBJECTIVE QUESTIONS FOR PRACTICE

1. Define the role of the Jotedars during the initial British regime in Bengal region.
2. Write down the major steps taken by zamindars to retain control over their zamindaris in the
region?
3. Describe the main features of the Permanent Settlement. What is the issue of absentee zamidar
and sunset clause here.
4. Though various small revolts were seen against exploitative British rule, Santhals rebel seems
different from all. Define.
5. The fundamental factor behind the deccan riots is the exploitative policy by the moneylenders.
Discuss.
6. The outsider influence of the colonial people on paharias people led to emergence of minor
revolts. Write down major changes due to outside influence.
7. Write down the sources of the livelihood for the tribal Paharias and the Santhals community?
8. The consequences of the American Civil War not only impacted American and British society
but also impacted the lives of ryots in India? Illustrate.
9. What makes Birsa Munda’s vision different from various other tribes’ leaders. How did such a
vision appeal to the people of the region?

ANSWER KEY
1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (a) 6. (d) 7. (c) 8. (c)

87
WORKBOOK MODERN HISTORY HINTS & SOLUTION
1. Answer (a)
The Permanent Settlement, or Zamindari
System, covered around 19 percent of the
territory under British rule. Introduced in
Bengal and Bihar, it was extended to Orissa,
Banaras (Varanasi), and northern Madras.
Features:
● The zamindars were given proprietary
rights over their land.
● In 1790, a ten-year settlement of tax to
be paid was made with the zamindars,
and in 1793, the settlement was made
permanent.
● A fixed tax on the land had to be paid
by the zamindar, and the revenue was to
be collected by him from the cultivators
who had now become tenants (the ryots
or raiyyats).
● The zamindar was allowed to keep one-
tenth to one eleventh of the revenue and
give the rest to the Company government.
● The zamindar, as the owner of the land,
could sell, mortgage, or transfer it; his
heirs could inherit the land along with
its rights and liabilities. But, under the
‘sunset clause’ introduced in 1794, if
the tax due was not paid by the sunset
Survey of British Policies in India 559
of a certain date, the zamindari would
be taken over by the government and
auctioned, and the rights would be
transferred to the new owner.
● Regulations made in 1793, 1799, and
1812 empowered the zamindar to seize
the tenant’s property if the rent had not
been paid, and, for this, he did not need
the permission of any court of law.
In 1797, there was an auction in Burdwan
(present day Bardhaman). It was a big
public event, a number of mahals (estates)
held by the Raja of Burdwan were being
sold.
Reference: NCERT, Class 12th, Themes in
Indian History, Part III, Chapter 1.
2. Answer (c)
The East India Company felt that a fixed
revenue demand would give zamindars a
sense of security and, assured of returns on
their investment, encourage them to improve
their estates. However, zamindars routinely
failed to pay the revenue demand in the early
decades following the Permanent Settlement,
and unpaid balances accumulated. The
reasons for these failures are:
● The initial demands were very high.
This was because it was felt that if
the demand was fixed for all time, the
Company would never be able to claim
a share of increased income from
land when prices rose and cultivation
expanded. Hence, Statement 1 is
correct.
● The prices of agricultural produce were
depressed, making it difficult for the
ryots to pay their dues to the zamindar.
Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
● The revenue was invariable, regardless
of the harvest, and had to be paid
punctually. In fact, according to the
Sunset Law, if payment did not come
in by sunset of the specified date, the
zamindari was liable to be auctioned.
Hence, Statement 3 is incorrect.
● The Company had recognised the
zamindars as important, but it wanted to
control and regulate them, subdue their
authority, and restrict their autonomy.
The zamindars’ troops were disbanded,
customs duties abolished, and their
“cutcheries” (courts) brought under the
supervision of a Collector appointed by
the Company. Hence, Statement 4 is
correct.
Reference: NCERT, Class 12th, Themes in
Indian History, Part III, Chapter 1.
3. Answer (c)
Statement 1 is correct: At the time when
Zamindars were facing a crisis, a group
of rich peasants were consolidating their
position in the villages. They were known
as Jotedars, and most of their agricultural
88
 land was cultivated through adhiyars or
bargardars who brought their own ploughs,
laboured in the field, and handed over half
the produce to the jotedars after the harvest.
Statement 2 is correct: The jotedars were
most powerful in North Bengal, although
rich peasants and village headmen were
emerging as commanding figures in the
countryside in other parts of Bengal as well.
In some places, they were called haoladars;
elsewhere, they were known as gantidars or
mandals.
Reference: NCERT, Class 12th, Themes in
Indian History, Part III, Chapter 1.
4. Answer (a)
The 1780s saw the beginning of the Santhal’s
arrival in Bengal. They were employed by
zamindars to reclaim land and increase
farming, and British officials extended an
invitation for them to dwell in the Jangal
Mahals. The British went to the Santhals
after failing to conquer the Paharias, who
were not amenable to settled farming.
The Santhals were given land and persuaded
to settle in the foothills of Rajmahal. By
1832, a large area of land was demarcated
as Damin-i-Koh. This was declared to be
the land of the Santhals. They were to live
within it, practise ploughed agriculture,
and become settled peasants.
Reference: NCERT, Class 12th, Themes in
Indian History, Part III, Chapter 1.
5. Answer (a)
Permanent settlement was a system of
revenue collection during the reign of the
East India Company. It was introduced
by Lord Cornwallis in 1793 in the areas of
Bihar, Bengal, and Odisha. In this system:
● Zamindars were responsible for:
1. paying revenue to the company. Hence,
Option (a) is correct
2. distributing the revenue demand (jama)
over villages. Hence, Option (b) is
incorrect
● Each village ryot, big or small, paid rent
to the zamindar. Hence, Option (c) is
incorrect
89
● Jotedars gave out loans to other ryots and
Colonialism and Countryside
sold their produce. Hence, Option (d)
is incorrect
● Ryots cultivated some land and gave out
the rest to under-ryots on rent. Under-
ryots paid rent to the ryots.
Reference: NCERT, Class 12th, Themes in
Indian History, Part III, Chapter 1.
6. Answer (d)
Statement 1 is correct: The zamindars,
faced with an exorbitantly high revenue
demand and a possible auction of their
estates, devised ways of surviving the
pressures. Fictitious sale was one
such strategy. The Raja of Burdwan,
for instance, first transferred some of
his zamindari to his mother since the
Company had decreed that the property
of women would not be taken over.
Statement 2 is correct: The agents of
the Raja manipulated the auctions.
The revenue demand of the Company was
deliberately withheld, and unpaid balances
were allowed to accumulate. When a part
of the estate was auctioned, the zamindar’s
men bought the property, outbidding other
purchasers. Subsequently, they refused to
pay up the purchase money,rendering the
auction invalid, so the estate had to be
resold. This process was repeated endlessly,
exhausting the state and the other bidders
at the auction. At last, the estate was sold at
a low price back to the zamindar.
Statement 3 is correct: Lathyals of former
Zamindars (by attacking the new owner)
and Ryots, due to sense of fidelity and
fear of displaced identity, made physical
possession of land difficult.
Reference: NCERT, Class 12th, Themes in
Indian History, Part III, Chapter 1.
7. Answer (c)
In the 1770s, the British embarked on a
brutal policy of extermination, hunting
the Paharias down and killing them. Then,
in the 1780s, Augustus Cleveland, the
Collector of Bhagalpur, proposed a policy
of pacification. Paharia chiefs were given
an annual allowance and made responsible
 for the proper conduct of their men. Many
WORKBOOK MODERN HISTORY Paharia chiefs refused the allowances.
Those who accepted, most often lost
authority within the community. Being
in the pay of the colonial government, they
came to be perceived as subordinate
employees or stipendiary chiefs. As the
pacification campaigns continued, the
Paharias withdrew deep into the mountains,
insulating themselves from hostile forces,
and carrying on a war with outsiders.
Reference: NCERT, Class 12th, Themes in
Indian History, Part III, Chapter 1.
8. Answer (c)
Statement 1 is correct: A countryside
revolt occurred in 1875 in the Deccan. The
movement began at Supa, a large village in
Poona (present-day Pune) district. On May
12, 1875, ryots from surrounding rural areas
gathered and attacked the shopkeepers,
demanding their bahi khatas (account
books) and debt bonds. They burned the
khatas, looted grain shops, and, in some
cases, set fire to the houses of sahukars.
Statement 2 is correct: The revenue
system that was introduced in the
Bombay Deccan came to be known as the
Ryotwari Settlement. The revenue that
was demanded was so high that in many
places, peasants deserted their villages and
migrated to new regions. In areas of poor
soil and fluctuating rainfall, the problem
was particularly acute. When rains failed
and harvests were poor, peasants found it
impossible to pay the revenue. But revenue
collectors denied this fact, and thus the
riots started.
Reference: NCERT, Class 12th, Themes in
Indian History, Part III, Chapter 1.

SUBJECTIVE QUESTIONS WITH MODEL ANSWERS

1. Define the role of the Jotedars during the initial British regime in Bengal region.
Ans. Jotedar is a class-based group of rich peasants emerged during early 19th centuries, they
influenced the land related policies in Bengal region.
Role of Jotedars:
* The Jotedars collected huge tracts of land in rural areas.
* They also controlled the local markets, money lending activities, and exercised control over
the poor cultivators.
* They had great influence on the local village population, which means they can dictate
their terms and conditions.

Thus, this makes the Jotedar a crucial group because of the immense power over the poor
cultivator of the region.
2. Write down the major steps taken by zamindars to retain control over their zamindaris
in the region?
Ans. The zamindars were landlords who collected rent from the peasants and at times own vast
tracts of land too. Since zamindars control the major land part, it is important to retain control
over it also.
Steps taken by Zamindar to retain control over Zamindari:
* They adopted the strategy of fictitious sale of land. When a part of their estate was auctioned,
their men bought the property by giving higher bids than others. Later they refused to pay
up the purchase money. So, there was another auction. The same process of purchase was
repeated, which ultimately led to a very cheap price for the same land.
* They created hurdles in the possession of the land if anyone from outside the zamindari
bought an estate at an auction.

90
 * They transferred some of the estates in the name of women as the property of women could

Colonialism and Countryside

not be taken over.
* The Lathyals of the former zamindars sometimes attacked the new buyers.
3. Describe the main features of the Permanent Settlement. What is the issue of absentee
zamidar and sunset clause here.
Ans. Permanent system was the first land revenue model introduced by the Cornwallis in 1793.
Features of Permanent Settlement:
* Landlords or Zamindars were recognized as the owners of the land.
* They were given hereditary rights of succession of the lands under them.
* The amount to be paid by the landlords was fixed.
* It was agreed that this would not increase in future, as it was 10/11 part of the collected
revenue.
Sunset clause: According to this zamindar who didn’t give East India Company their revenue
on time would forfeit their estate to the company.
Absentee landlord: He is an individual in an agricultural area who is owner of land of zamindari
areas but does not reside in the region.
4. Though various small revolts were seen against exploitative British rule, Santhals rebel
seems different from all. Define.
Ans. The Santhal revolt was a reaction to the Permanent Settlement Act, 1793, prominent leaders
like Sidhu and Kanhu started it.
Distinct identity of Santhal rebel:
* It was a revolt against the oppression of colonial rule propagated through a distorted
revenue system, enforced by the local zamindars.
* The use of the police and the courts of the legal system set up by the British East India
Company by the Santhals to get justice which makes it different from small scale physical
rebellion.
* The Santhals lived in and depended on forests, and they knew that the British motive was
to control the forest region, thus they took long term steps against shorter rebellions.
Ultimately Santhal pargana was created and justice was delivered to the Santhal tribe.
5. The fundamental factor behind the deccan riots is the exploitative policy by the
moneylenders. Discuss.
Ans. The deccan riots started in 1875. The peasants in the Bombay Presidency rose in rebellion
against the agrarian crisis that faced them. In the Bombay Deccan region, the British had
introduced the Ryotwari settlement as the system of land revenue. Under this system, the
revenue of land was fixed on a yearly basis, but the continuous increase in the land revenue
and the exploitative nature of the moneylenders forced the local peasants into poverty and
deprivation.
Thus, it was the moneylenders which were the primary drivers of the uprising by the deccan
peasant as they were in situation of destitution and debt. To resolve this, Deccan Agriculturists
Relief Act of 1879 was enacted by the government in 1897 in an effort to quell the movement
and safeguard farmers from moneylenders.
6. The outsider influence of the colonial people on paharias people led to emergence of
minor revolts. Write down major changes due to outside influence.
Ans. Paharias were earlier used to control their forest areas and earn their livelihood from that.
The common traders paid tribute to hill Paharias Lords to use their controlled passageways,
lowlands zamindars usually paid a regular tribute to the Paharias to buy peace also. And they
used to control the forest produce.

91
 But after the british arrival changes are noticed:
WORKBOOK MODERN HISTORY 1. More land was established for agriculture purposes in eastern India and the British pushed
for the destruction of forests.
2. They control the forest passageways and the forest produce also.
3. Outsider influence of moneylender, Britishers were increased.
Thus, these factors led to conflict between Pahariya Hill dwellers and British people.
7. Write down the sources of the livelihood for the tribal Paharias and the Santhals
community?
Ans. Both Paharia and the Santhal Community were the forest dwellers tribal communities.
Their main source of livelihood was:
Santhals - The occupation of the Santhals revolve around the forests in which they reside.
Their basic needs were fulfilled from the trees and plants of the forests. They were also engaged
in the hunting, fishing and cultivation for their livelihood.
Paharias - The primary occupation of the Paharias were bamboo crafts and secondary
occupation was Primitive agriculture. Besides bamboos they also collect other Non-Timber
Forest Products to supplement their livelihood and income. They would often charge from
outsiders for using their passageways for trade and travel.
8. The consequences of the American Civil War not only impacted American and British
society but also impacted the lives of ryots in India? Illustrate.
Ans. The American Civil War started in 1861, supplies from America fell drastically and a boom
was witnessed in the Indian Cotton Industry. However, when the civil war stopped, a situation
of turmoil was seen.

The end of war again affected the ryots badly because with the revival of cotton production in
America, the Indian exports declined.
The Sahukars were no longer interested in extending long-term loans.

The demand for cotton had reduced, cotton prices slide downwards. It hit the ryots badly and
pushed them into poverty.
9. What made Birsa Munda’s vision different from various other tribes’ leaders. How did
such a vision appeal to the people of the region?
Ans. Birsa Munda was a charismatic leader who inspired his people to fight for their rights and to
work towards a better future and raise their voice against colonial injustice.
Birsa Munda’s visions:
* Birsa’s vision of a self-sufficient society appealed to the tribal people’s desire for
independence and self-reliance.
* They were tired of relying on the British and their landlords for their livelihood and wanted
to be able to sustain themselves.
* His leadership and vision of a golden age gave the tribal people hope and a sense of purpose
* He even pronounced himself as God, thus religious beliefs were also used to persuade
people.
Thus, he addressed the people’s desire for freedom, self-sufficiency, and harmony with nature.

92
 4 Revolt of 1857
OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS FOR PRACTICE
1. Consider the following statements:
1. The revenue demand will become very
light.
2. Under the British government, the
native merchants were liable to
imprisonment and disgrace at the
instance or complaint of a worthless
man.
3. All the natives in the British service
ought to be alive to their religion and
interests and abjure their loyalty to the
English.
4. The native artisans will exclusively be
employed in the service of the kings,
the rajahs, and the rich.
How many of the above grievances and
measures to address them, are mentioned
in the Azamgarh Proclamation?
(a) Only one (b) Only two
(c) Only three (d) All four
2. Consider the following pairs:
Place Associated leaders
1. Kanpur Nana sahib
2. Lucknow Shah mal
3. Chotanagpur Birjis Qadr
Plateau
4. Barout Gonoo
How many of the above pairs are correctly
matched?
(a) Only one (b) Only two
(c) Only three (d) All four
3. “He was seen preaching jehad against the
British and urging people to rebel, and was
also known as Danka Shah. People started
looking at him as an inspired prophet,
and he also fought in the famous Battle of
Chinhat”.
Who among the following personalities is
best described in the above paragraph?
(a) Sheikh Hasan Ud-din
(b) Maulvi Ahmadullah Shah
(c) Abdul Ghaffar Khan
(d) Sir Syed Ahmed Khan
4. Consider the following statements:
1. Annexation of awadh displaced both
the Nawab and Taluqdars
2. The first British settlement in the
region of Awadh immediately after its
annexation was permanent settlement.
3. The entire social order broke down due
to the dispossession of Taluqdars.
How many of the above are correct with
reference to the annexation of Awadh?
(a) Only one (b) Only two
(c) All three (d) None
5. Consider the following statements with
regard to the revolt of 1857:
1. It started on 27th May,1857 in the
Meerut Cantonment.
2. The sepoys marched towards Delhi to
meet old Mughal Emperor Bahadur
Shah.
3. The revolt was carried out in the name
of Mughal Emperor
 Select the correct answer using the code
WORKBOOK MODERN HISTORY given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
6. Consider the following statements:
1. The sepoys attacked the government
buildings as well as houses of Money
Lenders
2. Proclamations were issued to call upon
the people to join the revolt
3. An element of unity between Hindus
and Muslims was seen during the
revolt.
4. The element of non-cooperation was
also seen in the revolt.
How many of the above are correct with
reference to the initial phases of the
revolt of 1857?
(a) Only one (b) Only two
(c) Only three (d) All four
7. “He belonged to a clan whose kinship
extended over Chaurasee Desh, and he also
mobilised the headmen and cultivators of
all Chaurasee Desh by moving day and
night, urging people to rebel against the
British. He also converted a bungalow into
a “hall of justice”.
Which of the following personalities is
best described by the above paragraph?
(a) Shah Mal (b) Birjis Qadr
(c) Nana Sahib (d) Tatya Tope
8. With reference to the stated reasons for
the revolt of 1857, consider the following
statements:
1. Cartridges coated with the fat of cows
and pigs.
2. Caste Differences in society.
3. Mixing of bone dust of cows in flour.
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3
9. Which of the following mughal rulers
was seated on the throne of Delhi when
the revolt of 1857 broke out in Meerut?
(a) Bahadur Shah Zafar
(b) Alamgir II
(c) Shah Alam II
(d) Akbar Shah II
10. Which of the following statements correctly
describes the term “Bell of Arms”?
(a) It was a bell used by British forces to
warn protestors
(b) It was a storeroom in which weapons
were kept.
(c) It was a new type of weapon that was
used by the British Army during the
revolt of 1857.
(d) It was a kind of bell (Ghanta) used by
Indian Mutineers to call everyone to
arms during the revolt of 1857.
11. Consider the following statements:
1. The British would be responsible for
protecting the state from external and
internal threats to their power.
2. A British armed contingent would be
stationed in the territory of the state.
3. The British would have to provide the
resources necessary to maintain this
contingent.
4. The state could enter into agreements
with other rulers or engage in warfare
on its own.
How many of the above are conditions of
the Subsidiary Alliance?
(a) Only one (b) Only two
(c) Only three (d) All four
12. He was accused of being lenient towards
sepoys in the famous British Satirical
Journal- Punch. The Journal published a
cartoon with caption-“Governor General:
‘Well, then they shan’t blow him from nasty
guns; but he must promise to be a good
little sepoy’.”
Which of the following governor generals
is described in the above paragraph?
(a) Lord Dalhousie
(b) Lord Cornwallis
(c) Lord Canning
(d) Lord Dufferin
94
13. Who among the following painted the 17. Consider the following statements with

Revolt of 1857
famous “Relief of Lucknow” painting in reference to the policy of the British
memory of the 1857 revolt? towards princely states after the 1857
(a) Thomas Jones Barker revolt:
(b) Henry Lawrence 1. No more territories will be acquired in
future.
(c) Colin Campbell
2. Paramountcy of British crown started
(d) Major Outram
on princely states.
14. Consider the following pairs:
3. Adopted sons can also become heirs to
Policy Governor General their territories.
1. Subsidiary Lord Cornwallis Which of the statements given above is/
alliance are correct?
2. Doctrine of Lapse Lord Dalhousie (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
3. General Service Lord Canning (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Enlistment Act 18. Consider the following statements:
How many of the above pairs are correctly 1. The proportion of Indian soldiers in
matched? the army would be increased, and the
(a) One pair only (b) Two pairs only number of European soldiers would be
decreased.
(c) All three pairs (d) None
2. To respect the customary religious and
15. Consider the following statements:
social practises of the people in India.
1. The Doctrine of Lapse was imposed on
3. To give security of rights over land to
Awadh in 1801.
small tenants.
2. Awadh was annexed on the premise of
How many of the above were the steps
misgovernance.
taken by the British after gaining control
Which of the following options is/are of the country after the revolt of 1857?
correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) All three (d) None
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 19. In which of the following uprisings was a
16. Consider the following statements with “no rent campaign” started by Paiks as
reference to the changes introduced by a symbol of protest against the British
Empire in India?
the British government after the revolt
of 1857: (a) Moplah rebellion (b) Chaur uprising

1. The British Parliament passed a new
Act in 1858 that transferred the powers
of the East India Company to the British
Crown.
2. The secretary of state was appointed to
handle Indian affairs.
3. Governor General of Bengal was made
the Governor General of India.
How many of the above statements are
correct?
(a) Only one (b) Only two
(c) All three (d) None
(c) Khurda rebellion (d) Khond uprising
20. “He helped the British suppress the
rebellion, though his own son was a rebel
and was killed by the British in front of
his eyes. He also wrote his memoir, titled
“Sepoy to Subedar” which was written in
Awadhi”.
Who among the following personalities is
best described by the above paragraph?
(a) Sitaram Pande
(b) Afjal-ud-daula
(c) Maulvi Liakat Ali
(d) Puran Chand Joshi

95
WORKBOOK MODERN HISTORY SUBJECTIVE QUESTIONS FOR PRACTICE
1. Why the mutinous sepoys seek the support of the erstwhile rulers to provide leadership to the
revolt of 1857?
2. Discuss factors or evidence that indicates planning and coordination on the part of the rebels,
despite being less equipped by manpower and resources.
3. Among the various factors of 1857 revolt, the social and religious beliefs was also one of the
crucial factors behind discontentment.
4. What were the measures taken to ensure unity among the Hindu and Muslims during the 1857?
5. What are the major steps taken by the British to quell the 1857 uprising, as they were shaking
the long-established regime via the mass struggle?
6. The 1857 revolt was not limited to the movement led by Indian sepoy but it has also prompted
the peasants, taluqdars and zamindars to join the revolt?
7. To prevent the future unrest in the Indian colony major steps were taken by the British to
change their policies as a result of the rebellion of 1857. Discuss
8. Religion was considered as a major step for the persuasion of people, in this context what did
the British did to protect the interests of those who converted to Christianity.

ANSWER KEY
1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (d) 7. (a) 8. (d) 9. (a) 10. (b)
11. (b) 12. (c) 13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (b) 16. (b) 17. (d) 18. (a) 19. (c) 20. (a)

HINTS & SOLUTION

1. Answer (d) Statement 2 is correct: The British

The grandson of Mughal Emperor Bahadur
Shah II, Firoz Shah, wrote the majority
of the Azamgarh Proclamation. The
manifesto outlines the various complaints
of various social groups against the unjust
colonial rule in great detail and asserts
the Mughals’ capacity to establish their
suzerainty over India.
Statement 1 is correct: The British
Government, in making zamindary
settlements, imposed exorbitant Jumas
(revenue demands). Such heavy revenue
demand will have no manner of existence
in the Badshahi Government; but on the
contrary, the Jumas will be light, the dignity
and honour of the zamindars safe, and every
zamindar will have absolute rule in his own
zamindary.
Government provided too many
concessions to British merchants for trade.
Notwithstanding all these concessions,
the native merchants were liable to
imprisonment and disgrace at the instance
or complaint of a worthless man. The
Badshahi government promised to do away
with all the fraudulent practises that existed
under the British government.
Statement 3 is correct: All the natives in
the British service ought to be alive to their
religion and interests, abjure their loyalty
to the English, side with the Badshahi
Government, obtain salaries of 200 and
300 rupees a month for the present, and be
entitled to high posts in the future.
Statement 4 is correct: The introduction
of English articles into India had thrown the
weavers, the cotton dressers, the carpenters,
the blacksmiths, and the shoemakers, etc.,

96
 out of employment, so that native artisans be
reduced to beggars. But under the Badshahi
government, the native artisans were to be
exclusively employed in the service of the
kings, the rajahs, and the rich.
Reference: NCERT, class 12th,Themes in
Indian History-III , Theme 10.
2. Answer (a)
Pair 1 is correctly matched: In Kanpur,
the sepoys and the people of the town gave
Nana Sahib, the successor to Peshwa Baji
Rao II, no choice but to join the revolt as
their leader.
Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: In Awadh,
where the displacement of the popular
Nawab Wajid Ali Shah and the annexation of
the state were still very fresh in the memory
of the people, the populace in Lucknow
celebrated the fall of British rule by hailing
Birjis Qadr, the young son of the Nawab, as
their leader.
Pair 3 is incorrectly matched:Gonoo,
a tribal cultivator of Singhbhum in
Chotanagpur, became a rebel leader of the
Kol tribals of the region.
Pair 4 is incorrectly matched: Shah Mal
mobilised the villagers of Pargana Barout in
Uttar Pradesh and emerged as a local leader
in the revolt. Gonoo, a tribal cultivator of
Singhbhum in Chotanagpur, became a
rebel leader of the Kol tribals of the region.
Reference: NCERT, class 12th,Themes in
Indian History-III , Theme 10.
3. Answer (b)
Maulvi Ahmadullah Shah was one of the
many maulvis who played an important part
in the revolt of 1857. Educated in Hyderabad,
he became a preacher when young. In 1856,
he was seen moving from village to village,
preaching jehad (religious war) against
the British and urging people to rebel. He
moved in a palanquin, with drumbeaters
in front and followers at the rear. He was
therefore popularly called Danka Shah—
the maulvi with the drum (danka). British
officials panicked as thousands began
following the maulvi, and many Muslims
began seeing him as an inspired prophet.
When he reached Lucknow in 1856, he was
97
stopped by the police from preaching in the
Revolt of 1857
city. Subsequently, in 1857, he was jailed in
Faizabad. When released, he was elected by
the mutinous 22nd Native Infantry as their
leader. He fought in the famous Battle of
Chinhat, in which the British forces under
Henry Lawrence were defeated.
Reference: NCERT, class 12th,Themes in
Indian History-III , Theme 10.
4. Answer (b)
A chain of grievances in Awadh linked the
Nawab, Taluqdar, peasant, and sepoy after
its annexation in 1856. In different ways,
they came to identify Firangi Raj with the
end of their world—the breakdown of things
they valued, respected, and held dear.
Statement 1 is correct: The annexation of
Awadh displaced not just the Nawab. It also
dispossessed the taluqdars of the region.
The countryside of Awadh was dotted with
the estates and forts of taluqdars, who for
many generations had controlled land and
power in the countryside. Many of these
forts and estates were razed to the ground.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The British
land revenue policy further undermined
the position and authority of the taluqdars.
After annexation, the first British revenue
settlement, known as the Summary
Settlement of 1856, was based on the
assumption that the taluqdars were
interlopers with no permanent stakes in
land: they had established their hold over
land through force and fraud.
Statement 3 is correct: The dispossession
of taluqdars meant the breakdown of an
entire social order. The ties of loyalty and
patronage that had bound the peasant to
the taluqdar were disrupted. In pre-British
times, many taluqdars were oppressors, but
many of them also appeared to be generous
father figures; they exacted a variety of dues
from the peasant but were often considerate
in times of need, but under the British, none
of this was happening.
Reference: NCERT, class 12th,Themes in
Indian History-III , Theme 10.
 5. Answer (b)
WORKBOOK MODERN HISTORY Statement 1 is incorrect: Late in the
afternoon on 10th May 1857, the sepoys
in the cantonment of Meerut broke out in
mutiny. It began in the lines of the native
infantry, spread very swiftly to the cavalry,
and then to the city. The ordinary people
of the town and surrounding villages also
joined the sepoys in the revolt.
Statement 2 is correct: In the initial
phase of the revolt, the sepoys attacked
white residents, looted and burned their
bungalows, and destroyed their belongings
after taking control of the bell of arms where
the weapons and ammunition were stored.
The record office, jail, court, post office,
treasury, and other government buildings
were burned and pillaged. A party of
sepoys rode away towards Delhi as night
fell. On May 11, early in the morning, the
sepoys arrived at the Red Fort’s gates to
meet the Mughal Emperor and seek his
blessings.
Statement 3 is correct: The sepoys that
came to the gates of the Red Fort from
Meerut demanded that the emperor give
them his blessings. Surrounded by the
sepoys, Bahadur Shah had no other option
but to comply. The revolt thus acquired a
kind of legitimacy because it could now
be carried on in the name of the Mughal
emperor.
Reference: NCERT, class 12th,Themes in
Indian History-III , Theme 10.
6. Answer (d)
Statement 1 is correct: During the revolt
of 1857, The sepoys first seized the bell
of arms and plundered the treasury. They
then attacked government buildings—
the jail, treasury, telegraph office, record
room, and bungalows—burning all records.
Everything and everybody connected with
the white man became targets. In major
towns like Lucknow, Kanpur, and Bareilly,
moneylenders and the rich also became the
objects of rebel wrath. The peasants not only
saw them as oppressors but also as allies
of the British. In most places, their houses
were looted and destroyed.
Statements 2 and 3 are correct:
Proclamations in Hindi, Urdu, and Persian
were put up in the cities, calling upon the
population, both Hindus and Muslims, to
unite, rise, and exterminate the firangis.
Statement 4 is correct: The mutiny in the
sepoy ranks quickly became a rebellion.
There was a general defiance of all kinds
of authority and hierarchy, which is an
element of Non-Cooperation.
Reference: NCERT, class 12th,Themes in
Indian History-III , Theme 10.
7. Answer (a)
Shah Mal was one of the important freedom
fighters in the revolt of 1857 who mobilised
people on a large scale. He lived in a large
village in Pargana Barout, Uttar Pradesh. He
belonged to a clan of Jat cultivators whose
kinship ties extended over Chaurasee
Desh (eighty-four villages). Shah Mal
mobilised the headmen and cultivators of
Chaurasee des, moving at night from village
to village, urging people to rebel against the
British. As in many other places, the revolt
against the British turned into a general
rebellion against all signs of oppression and
injustice. Locally acknowledged as the
Raja, Shah Mal took over the bungalow of
an English officer, turned it into a “hall of
justice”, settling disputes and dispensing
judgements. He also set up an amazingly
effective intelligence network.
Reference: NCERT, Class 12th, Themes in
Indian History, Part III,Chapter 2.
8. Answer (d)
Statement 1 is correct: In the 1857 revolt,
the sepoys who had arrived in Delhi from
Meerut had told Bahadur Shah about
bullets coated with the fat of cows and
pigs and that biting those bullets would
corrupt their caste and religion. They were
referring to the cartridges of the Enfield
rifles, which had just been given to them.
Statement 2 is correct: In January
1857, a “low-caste” khalasi who worked in
the magazine in Dum Dum had asked a
Brahmin sepoy for a drink of water from his
lota. The sepoy had refused, saying that the
“lower castes” touch would defile the lota.
The khalasi had reportedly retorted, “You
98
 will soon lose your caste, as soon you will
have to bite cartridges covered with the fat
of cows and pigs.” This incident shows
caste discrimination.
Statement 3 is correct: To Increase the
pace of the revolt, it was rumoured that
the British mixed bone dust from cows
and pigs in the flour that was sold in the
market to corrupt the religion of the Indian
people.
Reference: NCERT, Class 12th, Themes in
Indian History, Part III, Chapter 2
9. Answer (a)
After the revolt broke out in Meerut, the
sepoys marched towards Delhi. The sepoys
arrived at the gates of the Red Fort early in
the morning on May 11. It was the month of
Ramzan, the Muslim holy month of prayer
and fasting. The old Mughal emperor,
Bahadur Shah, had just finished his
prayers and meal before the sun rose and
the fast began. He heard the commotion at
the gates. Later, he was proclaimed leader
of the rebellion by all participating groups.
Reference: NCERT, Class 12th, Themes in
Indian History, Part III, Chapter 2
10. Answer (b)
On May 10, 1857, the sepoys in the
cantonment of Meerut broke out in mutiny.
It began in the lines of the native infantry,
spread very swiftly to the cavalry, and then
to the city. The ordinary people of the town
and surrounding villages joined the sepoys.
The sepoys captured the bell of arms,
where the arms and ammunition were
kept, and proceeded to attack white people,
and ransack and burn their bungalows and
property.
Reference: NCERT, Class 12th, Themes in
Indian History, Part III, Chapter 2
11. Answer (b)
Subsidiary Alliance was a system perfected
by Lord Wellesley in 1798. All those who
entered into such an alliance with the British
had to accept certain terms and conditions:
● The British would be responsible for
protecting their ally from external and
internal threats to their power. Hence,
Statement 1 is correctly matched.
99
● In the territory of the ally, a British armed
Revolt of 1857
contingent would be stationed. Hence,
Statement 2 is correctly matched.
● The ally would have to provide the
resources necessary to maintain this
contingent. Hence, Statement 3 is
incorrectly matched.
● The ally could enter into agreements
with other rulers or engage in warfare
only with the permission of the British.
Hence, Statement 4 is incorrectly
matched.
Reference: NCERT, Class 12th, Themes in
Indian History, Part III, Chapter 2
12. Answer (c)
After the revolt of 1857, there was so much
anger and resentment towards the Sepoys
in the British Populace that pleas for
moderation were ridiculed. When Governor
General Canning declared that a gesture of
leniency and a show of mercy would help
in winning back the loyalty of the sepoys,
he was mocked in the British press. In one
of the cartoons published in the pages of
Punch, a British journal of comic satire,
Canning is shown as a looming father figure,
with his protective hand over the head of a
sepoy who still holds an unsheathed sword
in one hand and a dagger in the other, both
dripping with blood—an imagery that recurs
in a number of British pictures of the time.
The Cartoon was titled,”The Clemency Of
Canning” and the caption at the bottom
read: “Governor General: ‘Well, then they
shan’t blow him from nasty guns; but he
must promise to be a good little sepoy’.”
Reference: NCERT, Class 12th, Themes in
Indian History, Part III, Chapter 2
13. Answer (a)
One important record of the mutiny is the
pictorial images produced by the British
and Indians: paintings, pencil drawings,
etchings, posters, cartoons, and bazaar
prints. British pictures offer a variety of
images that were meant to provoke a range
of different emotions and reactions. Some
of them commemorate the British heroes
who saved the English and repressed the
 rebels. “Relief of Lucknow”, painted
WORKBOOK MODERN HISTORY by Thomas Jones Barker in 1859, is an
example of this type. When the rebel forces
besieged Lucknow, Henry Lawrence, the
Commissioner of Lucknow, collected the
Christian population and took refuge in the
heavily fortified Residency. Lawrence was
killed, but the Residency continued to be
defended under the command of Colonel
Inglis.
Reference: NCERT, Class 12th, Themes in
Indian History, Part III, Chapter 2
14. Answer (b)
Pair 1 is incorrectly matched: The
Subsidiary Alliance was introduced by
Lord Wellesley in Hyderabad, India, in the
year 1798. This policy was used to expand
the British Paramountcy.
Pair 2 is correctly matched: Doctrine of
Lapse was widely used by Lord Dalhousie,
according to which the adopted son cannot
be the heir of the princely state and it will
come under British rule.
Pair 3 is correctly matched: General
Service Enlistment Act was introduced by
Lord Canning in the year 1856, according
to which the army was required to serve
overseas if required by the Company.
Reference: NCERT, Class 12th, Themes in
Indian History, Part III, Chapter 2.
15. Answer (b)
Before the revolt of 1857, Awadh was the
last territory to be annexed by the British,
but the process of annexation had started a
long way back.
Statement 1 is incorrect: In 1801, the
Subsidiary Alliance was imposed on
Awadh.
Statement 2 is correct: In the year 1856,
Governor-General Dalhousie declared that
Awadh was being misgoverned and that
British rule was needed to ensure proper
administration. Nawab Wajid Ali Shah
was dethroned and exiled to Calcutta, and
Awadh was annexed.
Reference: NCERT, class 8th, Our Past III,
Chapter 5
16. Answer (b)
The British had regained control of the
country by the end of 1859, but they could
not carry on ruling the land with the same
policies any more. Below are the important
changes that were introduced by the British:
● The British Parliament passed a new Act
in 1858 and transferred the powers of the
East India Company to the British Crown
in order to ensure a more responsible
management of Indian affairs. Hence,
Statement 1 is correct.
● A member of the British Cabinet was
appointed Secretary of State for India
and made responsible for all matters
related to the governance of India.
Hence, Statement 2 is correct
● He was given a council to advise him,
called the India Council.
● The Governor-General of India was
given the title of Viceroy, that is, a
personal representative of the Crown.
Through these measures, the British
government accepted direct responsibility
for ruling India. Lord Canning was the
first Viceroy of India. Hence, Statement
3 is incorrect
Reference: NCERT, class 8th, Our Past III,
Chapter 5
17. Answer (d)
After the revolt of 1857, the British regained
their control of the country by the end of
1859, and then they ended up having an
agreement with the rulers of the princely
states with the following provisions:
● All the ruling chiefs of the country were
assured that their territory would never
be annexed in future. Hence, Statement
1 is correct.
● They were allowed to pass on their
kingdoms to their heirs, including
adopted sons. Hence, Statement 2 is
correct.
● They were made to acknowledge the
British Queen as their Sovereign
Paramount. Thus, the Indian rulers were
100
 to hold their kingdoms as subordinates 19. Answer (c)

of the British Crown. Hence, Statement
3 is correct.
Reference: NCERT, class 8th, Our Past III,
Chapter 5
18. Answer (a)
After the revolt of 1857, the British crown
understood that they should stay away from
the internal affairs of the Indian subcontinent
if they had to rule the subcontinent in the
future, and for this, they took various steps.
Some of them are:
● The proportion of Indian soldiers in
the army would be reduced, and the
number of European soldiers would
be increased. It was also decided that
instead of recruiting soldiers from
Awadh, Bihar, central India, and south
India, more soldiers would be recruited
from among the Gurkhas, Sikhs, and
Pathans. Hence, Statement 1 is
incorrect.
● The British decided to respect the
customary religious and social practises
of the people in India. Hence, Statement
2 is correct.
● Policies were made to protect landlords
and zamindars and give them security
of rights over their lands. Hence,
Statement 3 is incorrect.
Reference: NCERT, class 8th, Our Past III,
Chapter 5.
Revolt of 1857
Much before the event of 1857, there had
taken place another event of a similar
nature at a place called Khurda in 1817.
The uprising was set off on March 29, 1817,
as the Paiks attacked the police station
and other government establishments
at Banpur, killing more than a hundred
men and taking away a large amount
of government money. Soon, its ripples
spread in different directions, with Khurda
becoming its epicentre. The zamindars and
ryots alike joined the Paiks with enthusiasm.
Those who did not, were taken to task. A
‘no-rent campaign’ was also started. The
British tried to dislodge the Paiks from their
entrenched position but failed.
Reference: NCERT, class 8th, Our Past III,
Chapter 5
20. Answer (a)
Sitaram Pande was recruited in 1812 as a
sepoy in the Bengal Native Army. He served
the English for 48 years and retired in
1860. He helped the British suppress the
rebellion, though his own son was a rebel
and was killed by the British in front of his
eyes. On retirement, he was persuaded by
his Commanding Officer, Norgate, to write
his memoirs. He completed the writing in
1861 in Awadhi, and Norgate translated it
into English and had it published under the
title “From Sepoy to Subedar.”
Reference: NCERT, class 8th, Our Past III,
Chapter 5

SUBJECTIVE QUESTIONS WITH MODEL ANSWERS

1. Why the mutinous sepoys seek the support of the erstwhile rulers to provide leadership
to the revolt of 1857?
Ans. The 1857 revolt started from Meerut on 10 May, 1857.
Following were the major reasons:
* East India company defeated native rulers to grab power in India. Many believed that the
native Indian rulers had the legal and legitimate authority to regain power in the respective
kingdoms.
* The rulers had substantial resources at their command. They had wealth and private
armies too. The rebels waited to get the support of resources from them and by declaring
them the leaders it was a natural outcome.

101
 * Most rulers were popular at the local level. Their subjects often sympathized with them
WORKBOOK MODERN HISTORY as they believed that the latter were unlawfully thrown out of power and even suffered
humiliation. Thus, people’s support can be gathered.
2. Discuss factors or evidence that indicates planning and coordination on the part of the
rebels, despite being less equipped by manpower and resources.
Ans. The 1857 rebellion was planned and coordinated by the rebels, which had shaken the core of
the British administration.
The factors behind them are:
* Mostly cantonment soldiers were revolting.
* The rebels, after revolting in Meerut, set out for Delhi immediately. They wanted support
from the Mughal emperor.
* The messengers were working in transmitting news from one place to another.
* Native officers’ panchayats were convened at night and collective decisions were taken.

Thus, the following factors make the 1857, on the part of rebels to organize them and plan to
throw out the British yoke.
3. Among the various factors of 1857 revolt, the social and religious beliefs was also one of
the crucial factors behind discontentment.
Ans. After the British arrival in the 18th C, their main focus was towards trade and commerce, but
after controlling a large territory their interface in daily life of common people increased.
Some of the causes were:
* British advocated many reforms such as abolition of Sati, Female infanticide Child
marriage widow remarriage. These reforms were interpreted by Indians as interference in
their religious and social customs.
* Introduction of Railways and telegraph was viewed with fear and suspicion.
* Introduction of Western Education was viewed as an attack on Indian social and religious
customs.
* Policy of Racial discrimination practiced by the British led to anger and resentment.
* Along with forcing the Indian sepoy to work outside Indian territory into water bodies,
which religiously means the loss of one’s caste and gotra.
4. What were the measures taken to ensure unity among the Hindu and Muslims during the
1857?
Ans. India lacked a feeling of unity and oneness during the rules of the different rulers, what they
all rose against the British regime.
The Measures taken are:
* A very important element of the revolt of 1857 was the unity shown by Hindus and Muslims
in the struggle against the foreign rule.
* People consider the common and immediate cause of the rebellion was the use of cartridges
greased with fat of cow and pig angering Hindus and Muslims alike.
* After the rebels marched to Delhi they declared the Mughal emperor Bahadur Shah their
all-India leader. Thus, the Mughal emperor was the leader of Hindus and Muslims alike.
* Both Hindus and Muslims respected each other’s religious sentiments. Whenever a
new area fell into the control of rebels, cow slaughter was made illegal to respect Hindu
sentiments. Thus Hindu-Muslim unity was the hallmark of the mutiny.
* People find it hard and envy British inference in their cultural aspects.

102
 5. What are the major steps taken by the British to quell the 1857 uprising, as they were

Revolt of 1857
shaking the long-established regime via the mass struggle?
Ans. The 1857, was considered as a major threat to the British empire as it was seen as a large
organized movement against the Britisher regime -
The steps taken to curb the uprising:
* Martial Law was clamped throughout north India.
* All Englishmen were empowered to punish Indians, the armed forces were given enough
power to kill and suppress the rebellion.
* The common process of law and trial was brought to an end.
* Many native states assisted against rebels and their loyalty was praised.
* Rebel were cruelly punished.
6. The 1857 revolt was not limited to the movement led by Indian sepoy but it has also
prompted the peasants, taluqdars and zamindars to join the revolt?
Ans. The Mutiny of 1857 which was a rebellion of the sepoys of the Company turned into a mass
uprising in certain areas of the country.
* The nawab of Oudh Wazid Ali Shah was removed by Dalhousie on the pretext of poor
governance. The removal was looked upon by the people as high handed and an insult to
them. Thus, the public sentiment was against the British government that got a vent out
during the revolt.
* Dalhousie’s steps made the ruling elite that was employed in the Court of nawab and
other senior positions rendered unemployed. They began to feel hardships and it had a
cascading impact.
* Even the position of talukdars affected, talukdars were rich landlords collecting taxes and
enforcing law and order. They enjoyed a lot of autonomy as long as they paid revenue to
nawab. The talukdars faced the heavy hands of the British masters.
* Thus, it was the autonomy of the various people which ceased to exist after British steps.
As foot soldiers were disarmed and disbanded.
* The peasants were oppressed more as hardships engulfed the Talukdars. Peasants were
over assessed and forced to pay higher taxes than in the past.
7. To prevent the future unrest in the Indian colony major steps were taken by the British
to change their policies as a result of the rebellion of 1857. Discuss.
Ans. The British made various changes in their policies after the revolt of 1857, so that such a big
uprising would not happen again.
Some of them are as follows:
* The British Crown took the direct responsibility of governance in India.
* All the ruling chiefs and kings were assured that their territory would never be annexed
in future.
* The socio-economic religious beliefs and system were not questioned and people’s rights
were respected.
* The loyalty of the rulers was praised with title and rewards and a paramountcy regime was
made than annexation.
* Share of European soldiers was increased compared to Indians.
* Press releases were restricted.

103
 8. Religion was considered as a major step for the persuasion of people, in this context
WORKBOOK MODERN HISTORY what did the British did to protect the interests of those who converted to Christianity.
Ans.
* After the revolt of 1857, various laws and measures were part of a larger colonial agenda
that aimed to extend British influence, values, and authority over the colonies.

The policies were framed in the interest of Britishers for a variety of reasons, such as social,
political, and religious ones. In 1850, a new law was passed by the company to ease the
conversion to Christianity. This law allowed an Indian who has converted to Christianity to
inherit the property of his ancestors. Better English scientific education with scholarship was
provided to the converted people. They were preferred in jobs and promotions.

104
 Women, Caste and
5 Reforms
OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS FOR PRACTICE

1. Which of the following statements is/are Which of the pairs given above is/are
correct regarding Brahmo Samaj? correctly matched?
1. It opposed idolatry. (a) 4 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
2. It aimed to spread the knowledge of (c) 1 and 3 only (d) All of the Above
Western education in the country
and bring about greater freedom and 4. Who published the book
equality for women. “Stripurushtulna”?
3. It condemned the practise of Sati as it (a) Pandita Ramabai
had no sanction in ancient texts. (b) Tarabai Shinde
Select the correct answer using the (c) Begum Rokeya Sakhawat Hossain
codes given below:
(d) Mumtaz Ali
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
5. Consider the following regarding the
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Child Marriage Restraint Act:
2. Whose petition was adopted by British
1. It was passed with bitter debates and
officials, and a law was passed in 1856
struggles in 1929.
permitting widow remarriage?
(a) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar 2. It set the minimum marriageable age
for men at 18 years and for women at
(b) Raja Ram Mohan roy
16 years.
(c) Swami Dayanand Saraswati
3. Subsequently, these age limits for
(d) Jyotibai Phule
marriage were raised to 22 for men and
3. Consider the following pair of 18 for women.
personalities and their contributions:
How many of these provisions is/are
(Personalities) (Contributions)
correct?
1. Veerasalingam : Association for
(a) Only one (b) Only two
Pantulu Widow Remarriage in
(c) All three (d) None
Telugu Areas.
6. Madigas community belonged to which
2. Pandita : Widow’s Home in
of the following regions?
Ramabai Allahabad
(a) Kerala
3. Mumtaz Ali : Argued for Women’s
(b) Karnataka
education
(c) Andhra Pradesh
4. Periyar : Self Respect
(d) Odisha
Movement
 7. “Oru Jati, Oru Matam, Oru Daivam 9. Who among the following proposed
WORKBOOK MODERN HISTORY Manushyanu” (one caste, one religion, that shudras (labouring castes) and Ati
one god for humankind) – Which Shudras (untouchables) should unite
personality is associated with the above to challenge caste discrimination ?
statement? (a) Dr. B. R Ambedkar
(a) Jyotirao Phule
(b) Shri Narayana Guru
(b) Shri Narayana Guru
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) E.V. Ramaswamy Naicker
(d) Jyotirao Phule
(d) Veerasalingam Pantulu
10. Consider the following pairs of
8. Match List-1 with the List-2 and select
the correct answer using the codes given Movements and associated founders:
below the lists: Movements Founders
List-1 List-2 1. Satnami : Ghasidas
A. Prarthana samaj 1. Madras Movement
B. Veda Samaj 2. Calcutta 2. Matau Sect : Haridas Thakur
C. Young Bengal 3 Bombay
3. Self- Respect : Shri Narayan Guru
Movement
Movement
D. Singh Sabha 4. Amritsar
Which of the pairs given above is/are
movement
incorrectly matched?
Codes:
(a) Only 1
(a) A-1; B-3; C-4; D-2
(b) 1 & 2
(b) A-1; B-3; C-2; D-4
(c) 2 & 3
(c) A-3; B-1; C-2; D-4
(d) A-3; B-1; C-4; D-2 (d) Only 3

SUBJECTIVE QUESTIONS FOR PRACTICE

1. Religious help is taken up by the social reformers to bring social change. In this context
knowledge of ancient texts was really helpful. Discuss
2. The most vulnerable and marginal section of the society found a new lease of life after the
British arrival, and new opportunities opened up for people. Discuss
3. Jyotirao phule’s criticism of caste inequality is most prominent. Elucidate
4. Why was the Temple Entry Movement considered a tool for the emancipation against Brahmanical
order?
5. Write down ways of discrimination against women during colonial times?
6. Write down the contribution of Vivian Derozio in social sphere during the colonial period.

ANSWER KEY
1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (c) 7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (d) 10. (d)

106
 HINTS & SOLUTION
1. Answer (d)
● Statement 1 is correct: Raja Rammohun
Roy founded a reform association known
as the Brahmo Sabha (later known as
the Brahmo Samaj) in Calcutta in 1828,
which denounced the practise of idol
worship and polytheistic religion.
● Statement 2 is correct: Rammohun
Roy was keen to spread the knowledge
of Western education in the country
and bring about greater freedom and
equality for women. He wrote about
the way women were forced to bear the
burden of domestic work, confined to the
home and the kitchen, and not allowed
to move out and become educated.
● Statement 3 is correct: Rammohun Roy
was particularly moved by the problems
widows faced in their lives. He began a
campaign against the practise of sati. In
1829, sati was banned.
Reference: Class 8th NCERT, Our
Pasts-III, Chapter 7.
2. Answer (a)
Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar was the most
prominent campaigner for the remarriage
of widows. He petitioned the Legislative
Council,but there was a counterpetition
against the proposal with nearly four times
more signatures by Radhakant Deb and
the Dharma Sabha. But Lord Dalhousie
personally finalised the bill despite the
opposition, and finally it was passed by
Lord Canning.
Reference: NCERT,Class 8th,Our Pasts-III,
Chapter 7.
3. Answer (b)
● Pair 1 correctly matched: In the Telugu-
speaking areas of the Madras Presidency,
Veerasalingam Pantulu formed an
association for widow remarriage.
● Pair 2 correctly matched: Pandita
Ramabai, a great scholar of Sanskrit, felt
that Hinduism was oppressive towards
women, and wrote a book about the
107
Women, Caste and Reforms
miserable lives of upper-caste Hindu
women. She supported the ideas of widow
remarriage and women’s education and
opposed child marriage.She founded a
Widow’s Home at Poona.
● Pair 3 correctly matched: In aristocratic
Muslim households in North India,
women learned to read the Koran in
Arabic. They were taught by women who
came home to teach. Some reformers,
such as Mumtaz Ali, reinterpreted verses
from the Koran to argue for women’s
education. Mumtaz Ali reinterpreted
verses from the Koran to argue for
women’s education.
● Pair 4 correctly matched: Periyar
founded the Self Respect Movement.
He argued that untouchables were the
true upholders of an original Tamil
and Dravidian culture which had been
subjugated by Brahmans. He felt that
all religious authorities saw social
divisions and inequality as God-given.
Untouchables had to free themselves,
therefore, from all religions in order to
achieve social equality.
Reference: NCERT,Class 8th,Our Pasts-
III, Chapter 7.
4. Answer (b)
Tarabai Shinde, a woman educated
at home at Poona, published a book,
Stripurushtulna, (A Comparison between
Women and Men), criticising the social
differences between men and women.
Reference: NCERT,Class 8th,Our Pasts-III,
Chapter 7.
5. Answer (a)
● Statement 1 is incorrect: Child
Marriage Restraint Act was passed in
1929 without any bitter debates and
struggles that earlier laws had seen.
● Statement 2 is correct: According to
the Act, no man below the age of 18 and
woman below the age of 16 could marry.
 ● Statement 3 is incorrect: Subsequently,
WORKBOOK MODERN HISTORY these limits were raised to 21 for men
and 18 for women.
Reference: NCERT,Class 8th,Our Pasts-
III, Chapter 7.
6. Answer (c)
Madigas was an important untouchable
caste of present-day Andhra Pradesh. They
were experts at cleaning hides, tanning
them for use, and sewing sandals.
Reference: NCERT,Class 8th,Our Pasts-III,
Chapter 7.
7. Answer (b)
Shri Narayana Guru proclaimed the ideals
of unity for his people. He argued against
treating people unequally on the basis of
caste differences. According to him, all
humankind belonged to the same caste. One
of his famous statements was: “oru jati, oru
matam, oru daivam manushyanu” (one
caste, one religion, one god for humankind).
Reference: NCERT,Class 8th,Our Pasts-III,
Chapter 7.
8. Answer (c)
● The Prarthana Samaj: Established in
1867 in Bombay, the Prarthana Samaj
sought to remove caste restrictions,
abolish child marriage, encourage the
education of women, and end the ban
on widow remarriage. Its religious
meetings drew upon Hindu,Buddhist,
and Christian texts.
● The Veda Samaj:Established in Madras
(Chennai) in 1864, the Veda Samaj
was inspired by the Brahmo Samaj. It
worked to abolish caste distinctions and
promote widow remarriage and women’s
education. Its members believed in one
God. They condemned the superstitions
and rituals of orthodox Hinduism.
● Derozio and Young Bengal: Henry
Louis Vivian Derozio, a teacher
at Hindu College, Calcutta, in the
1820s, promoted radical ideas and
encouraged his pupils to question all
authority. Referred to as the Young
Bengal Movement, his students attacked
tradition and custom, demanded
education for women, and campaigned
for freedom of thought and expression.
● The Singh Sabha Movement: Reform
organisations of the Sikhs, the first Singh
Sabhas were formed at Amritsar in
1873 and at Lahore in 1879. The Sabhas
sought to rid Sikhism of superstitions,
caste distinctions, and practises seen
by them as non-Sikh. They promoted
education among the Sikhs, often
combining modern instruction with Sikh
teachings.
Reference: NCERT,Class 8th,Our Pasts-
III, Chapter 7.
9. Answer (d)
According to Jyotirao Phule, the “upper”
castes had no right to their land and power:
in reality, the land belonged to indigenous
people, the so-called low castes. He proposed
that Shudras (labouring castes) and Ati
Shudras (untouchables) should unite to
challenge caste discrimination.
Reference: NCERT,Class 8th,Our Pasts-III,
Chapter 7.
10. Answer (d)
● Pair 1 correctly matched: The
Satnami movement in Central
India was founded by Ghasidas who
worked among the leather workers and
organised a movement to improve their
social status.
● Pair 2 correctly matched: In eastern
Bengal, Haridas Thakur’s Matua sect
worked among Chandala cultivators.
Haridas questioned Brahmanical texts
that supported the caste system.
● Pair 3 incorrectly matched: E.V.
Ramaswamy Naicker (Periyar)
founded the Self Respect Movement.
He argued that untouchables were the
true upholders of an original Tamil
and Dravidian culture which had been
subjugated by Brahmans. He felt that
all religious authorities saw social
divisions and inequality as God-given.
Untouchables had to free themselves,
therefore, from all religions in order to
achieve social equality.
Reference: NCERT,Class 8th,Our Pasts-
III, Chapter 7.
108
 SUBJECTIVE QUESTIONS WITH MODEL ANSWERS

Women, Caste and Reforms

1. Religious help is taken up by the social reformers to bring social change. In this context
knowledge of ancient texts was really helpful. Discuss
Ans. The reformers utilized the old writings to persuade individuals about the requirement for
abrogating certain social indecencies like widow burning, caste inequality, child marriage, and
so forth.

For example, Dayanand Saraswati said go back to Veda and said that there is no kind of
Sati practices seen in old times. Raja Ram Mohan Roy also read the original scriptures and
questioned the orthodox practices and rituals in all religions.
Even Vivekanand considered service to humans as service to God, thus bringing humanity
upfront.
2. The most vulnerable and marginal section of the society found a new lease of life after
the British arrival, and new opportunities opened up for people. Discuss
Ans. Britishers from very beginning considered the caste system as inhuman and orthodox -
The opportunities provided to them are:
* Children from lower castes and tribal groups started getting educated in Christian
Missionary schools, so they can do better jobs than forced manual labor.
* Jobs started opening up in cities and the poor started leaving cities, like jobs in municipalities
and factories.
* There was demand for labor due to construction of buildings, roads, drains etc., so low
castes and people started going to the cities.
* Cities had to be cleaned, labor was required in cities for jobs like rickshaw pullers, sweepers,
brick layers, sewage cleaners, and these jobs created demand.
* Some people also went to work in plantations in Indonesia, Mauritius and Assam, so they
were taken out.
* Although work in the new locations were hard, people of the low castes saw it as an
opportunity to get away from upper caste landlords who oppressed and humiliated people
of low castes.
* There were opportunities in the Army, e.g. -Mahar regiment for lower caste.
3. Jyotirao phule’s criticism of caste inequality is most prominent. Elucidate
Ans. Jyotirao Phule, being a Mahar from caste was considered as lower caste by society, he stood
against caste inequality, believing that the upper castes being ‘Aryans’, are not the original
inhabitants of their lands.

His wife Savitri Bai Phule also helped him in his journey of the caste-based inequality and the
inhuman treatment.

He put forward his opinions by telling people that the land has always belonged to the lower-
caste people and that the Aryans were outsiders.

He also wrote the book Gulamgiri, which provided education to the lower section of the
society.

109
 4. Why was the Temple Entry Movement considered a tool for the emancipation against
WORKBOOK MODERN HISTORY Brahmanical order?
Ans. In Kerala in the 20th century, the poor were forbidden from entering temples. It was started
with the intention of opening all Hindu temples while waging a large propaganda effort to
promote social advancement and the untouchability of members of lower castes.

It was led by the Shree Narayan guru. They questioned Brahmanical supremacy. Temples
which were denied to the untouchable and controlled by brahmins, as brahmins considered
an important tool for the religion-based oppression and they justify it by varna based theory.
5. Write down ways of discrimination against women during colonial times?
Ans. Since ancient time in India women were considered subordinate to the male member of society.
Various forms of discrimination against them are:
* Sati Pratha, in which if the husband of a woman died, she was forced to be burnt in fire.
* Female Infanticide, since girls are seen are burden so they were killed.
* Dowry, a hefty amount was given to in-laws on the wedding day of women.
* Lacking the right to education, they were denied the right to education.
* They were also denied the widow remarriage.
6. Write down the contribution of Vivian Derozio in social sphere during the colonial period.
Ans. Henry Louis Vivian Derozio, was a teacher at Hindu College, Calcutta, in the 1820s.
His contribution:
* He promoted radical ideas and encouraged his pupils to question all authority.
* He started the Young Bengal Movement, his students attacked tradition and custom,
demanded education for women and campaigned for the freedom of thought and expression.
He is known for spreading ideas of freedom, dignity and rights among the younger generation
of the society.

110
 Indian National
6 Movement and
Mahatma Gandhi’s
Contribution
OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS FOR PRACTICE
1. Who among the following is considered
the ‘Political Mentor’ of Mahatma
Gandhi?”
(a) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(b) Lala Lajpat Rai
(c) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(d) Madan Mohan Malaviya
2. Where did Gandhiji make his significant
public appearance in February 1916?
(a) Indian National Congress session
(b) Bardoli Satyagraha
(c) Champaran Satyagraha
(d) Banaras Hindu University
3. “Our salvation can only come through
the farmer. Neither the lawyers, nor the
doctors, nor the rich landlords are going
to secure it.”
Identify the person who said this from
the options given below:
(a) Subhas Chandra Bose
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(d) Lala Lajpat Rai
4. With reference to the Indian freedom
struggle, consider the following
events:
1. Kheda Satyagraha
2. Ahmedabad Mill Strike
3. Champaran Satyagraha
What is the correct chronological
sequence of the above events ?
(a) 1-2-3 (b) 3-1-2
(c) 2-3-1 (d) 3-2-1
5. Consider the following:
1. Jallianwala Bagh massacre
2. Rowlatt Act
3. Chauri Chaura incident
How many of the above events served
as catalysts for the Non-Cooperation
Movement?
(a) Only one (b) Only two
(c) All three (d) None
6. Which one of the following objectives best
describes Mahatma Gandhi’s campaign
for the popularisation of the charkha?
(a) To facilitate the advancement of a
technologically progressive society
(b) To supplant conventional implements
with contemporary machinery
(c) To support manufacturing industries
owned by Indians
(d) To discourage glorification of machines
and foster self-reliance
 7. Which one of the following Indian
WORKBOOK MODERN HISTORY National Congress sessions witnessed
the acceptance of “Purna Swaraj” as the
goal?
(a) Madras Congress Session 1927
(b) Bombay Congress Session 1930
(c) Lahore Congress Session 1929
(d) Lucknow Congress Session 1928
8. With reference to the ‘Khilafat
Movement’, consider the following
statements:
1. It was chiefly led by Abul Kalam Azad
and Maulana Shaukat Ali.
2. Its objective was to advocate the
reinstatement of the Ottoman
Caliphate’s authority.
3. The Indian National Congress did not
support the movement.
How many of the statements given above
are correct?
(a) Only one (b) Only two
(c) All three (d) None
9. Consider the following statements:
1. The Praja Mandals were established to
promote nationalist ideas in princely
states.
2. Gandhiji advocated communicating
the nationalist message in Sanskrit to
promote ancient Indian culture.
3. Provincial committees of the Congress
were established in alignment with
the administrative and geographical
divisions of British India.
Which of the statements given above is/
are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only
(c) 1 only (d) 2 and 3 only
10. Consider the following:
1. Promoting rapid industrialization
2. Abolishing untouchability
3. Cultivating religious harmony
How many of the above issues did
Mahatma Gandhi prioritise alongside
his political work after his release from
prison in 1924?
(a) Only one (b) Only two
(c) All three (d) None
11. With reference to the Indian National
Congress session (1929), consider the
following statements:
1. It was held in Lucknow and presided
over by Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel.
2. It demanded dominion status for
India as the goal of India’s struggle for
freedom.
Which of the statements given above is/
are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
12. With reference to the ‘Dandi March’,
consider the following statements:
1. The central idea was to defy the British
salt tax and promote civil disobedience.
2. Mahatma Gandhi was arrested by the
government in response to the march.
3. Women participated in large numbers.
Which of the statements given above
are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
13. Which among the following socialist
activists advocated Gandhjii not to
confine the Salt March exclusively to
men?
(a) Kamaladevi Chattopadhyay
(b) Annie Besant
(c) Aruna Asaf Ali
(d) Sarojini Naidu
14. With reference to the ‘Round Table
Conferences’, consider the following
statements:
1. In the First Round Table Conference,
B.R. Ambedkar represented the Dalit
community.
2. In the second Round Table Conference
in 1931, Gandhiji was unanimously
chosen as the sole representative of the
entire nation of India by all the parties.
3. The Round Table Conferences
concluded with the discontinuation of
the Civil disobedience movement.
112
 Which of the statements given above is/ Which of the statements given above is/

Indian National Movement and Mahatma Gandhi’s Contribution

are incorrect? are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only (b) 3 only
15. Consider the following: (c) 2 only and 3 only
1. Release of political prisoners (d) 1 and 3 only
2. Coastal salt production permitted for 18. With reference to the ‘Quit India
personal consumption movement’ Consider the following
3. Separate electorates for the Depressed statements:
Classes 1. It was initiated subsequent to the
How many of the above were the unsuccessful outcome of the Simon
provisions of “Gandhi-Irwin Pact”? Commission.
(a) Only one 2. Independent governments were
declared in Satara and Medinipur.
(b) Only two
3. Jayaprakash Narayan was active in the
(c) All three
underground resistance.
(d) None
How many of the statements given above
16. Starting from the late nineteenth century, are correct?
a non-Brahman movement emerged with
the aim of challenging the prevailing caste (a) Only one
system and the influence of landlords. (b) Only two
By the 1930s, this movement had forged (c) All three
connections with the broader national
(d) None
movement. In the year 1943, a group
of young leaders established a parallel 19. Which of the following was the central
administration known as “prati sarkar,” reason behind the proclamation of
accompanied by volunteer corps termed “Direct Action Day”?
“seba dals” and village units referred to as (a) To advocate for equitable political
“tufan dals.” representation across religious
Identify the movement from the options communities
given below: (b) To register dissent against the prevailing
(a) Satara Movement British colonial administration
(b) Individual Satyagraha (c) To assert the aspiration for an
(c) Eka Movement autonomous region within India by the
Muslim League
(d) Faraizi movement
(d) To commemorate the establishment of
17. With reference to the provincial elections
a provisional self-governing body
held In 1937, consider the following
statements: 20. Consider the following events:
1. It was conducted with a restricted 1. Wavell Plan
franchise, leading to the victory of the 2. Cabinet Mission
Muslim League.
3. Cripps Mission
2. In eight out of eleven provinces, Prime
Ministers were appointed to operate What is the correct chronological
under British Governors’ supervision. sequence of the above events ?
3. The Congress ministries tendered their (a) 1-2-3 (b) 3-1-2
resignations in 1939. (c) 2-3-1 (d) 3-2-1

113
WORKBOOK MODERN HISTORY SUBJECTIVE QUESTIONS FOR PRACTICE
1. How did Mahatma Gandhi seek to identify with the common people, which was not done earlier
by the leaders and seen a shift from middle class to mass movement?
2. Why do the peasants consider Mahatma Gandhi as a prominent leader who has the ability to
resolve their issues?
3. Why was salt considered as an important tool for the national movement and why Gandhi chose
to break the salt laws against Britishers?
4. How did newspapers become an important source for bringing the revolution among masses
and creating the national movement?
5. Charkha represents the strength of India as Gandhi, define reasons why the charkha is chosen
as a symbol of nationalism?
6. Though the Round table conferences were established to resolve the issues faced by people of
India, the dialogues at the Round Table Conference remains inconclusive. Comment
7. In what way did Mahatma Gandhi transform the nature of the national movement, which makes
him different from the moderates and extremist leaders.

ANSWER KEY
1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (b) 6. (d) 7. (c) 8. (a) 9. (c) 10. (b)
11. (d) 12. (d) 13. (a) 14. (c) 15. (b) 16. (a) 17. (c) 18. (b) 19. (c) 20. (b)

HINTS & SOLUTION

1. Answer (c) Reference: NCERT,Class XII, Themes in

Option (c) is correct:
Gopal Krishna Gokhale was an Indian
political leader, a social reformer during
the Indian Independence Movement, and
the political mentor of Indian freedom
fighter Mahatma Gandhi. He was also the
mentor of Muhammad Ali Jinnah.
Gokhale was a senior leader of the Indian
National Congress and the founder of the
Servants of India Society. Through the
Society as well as the Congress and other
legislative bodies he served in, Gokhale
campaigned for Indian self-rule and for
social reforms. He was the leader of the
moderate faction of the Congress party that
advocated reforms by working with existing
government institutions, and a major
member of the Poona Association or the
Poona Sarvajanik Sabha.
Indian History III, Chapter 3.
2. Answer (d)
Option (d) is correct: Gandhiji’s inaugural
notable public appearance occurred in
February 1916, during the opening of the
Banaras Hindu University (BHU). This event
saw the attendance of dignitaries, including
royalty and benefactors who had financially
supported the university’s establishment.
Alongside them were prominent Congress
figures, such as Annie Besant. In contrast
to these esteemed individuals, Gandhiji held
a relatively obscure standing then.
Reference: NCERT,Class XII, Themes in
Indian History III,Chapter 3.
3. Answer (b)
Option (b) is correct: Gandhiji’s inaugural
notable public appearance occurred in
February 1916 during the opening of
the Banaras Hindu University (BHU).

114
 Gandhiji charged the Indian elite with a
lack of concern for the labouring poor.
The opening of the BHU, he said, was
“certainly a most gorgeous show”. But he
worried about the contrast between the
“richly bedecked noblemen” present and
“millions of the poor” Indians who were
absent. Gandhiji told the privileged invitees
that “there is no salvation for India
unless you strip yourself of this jewellery
and hold it in trust for your countrymen
in India”. “There can be no spirit of self
government about us,” he went on, “if we
take away or allow others to take away
from the peasants almost the whole of the
results of their labour. Our salvation can
only come through the farmer. Neither
the lawyers, nor the doctors, nor the rich
landlords are going to secure it.”
Source: NCERT,Class XII, Themes in Indian
History III,Chapter 3.
4. Answer (d)
Option (d) is correct: 1917 Champaran
movement: During the yearly Congress
assembly conducted in December 1916
at Lucknow, a farmer named Raj Kumar
Shukla hailing from Champaran in Bihar
approached Mahatama Gandhi. The peasant
recounted the severe hardships faced by
fellow peasants under the rule of British
indigo cultivators. Consequently, Mahatma
Gandhi dedicated a substantial portion
of 1917 to Champaran, endeavouring to
secure for the peasants the rights to
possess land securely and cultivate crops
according to their preference.
The Kheda Satyagraha of 1918 was a
satyagraha movement in the Kheda
district of Gujarat in India organised by
Mahatma Gandhi during the period of the
British Raj. It was a major revolt in the
Indian Independence Movement. It was
the third Satyagraha movement, which
was launched 7 days after the Ahmedabad
mill strike.
In the Kheda Satyagraha, Mahatma
Gandhi was chiefly the spiritual head of
the struggle. He was assisted by the newly
joined Satyagrahi Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
and other local lawyers, namely Indulal
Yagnik, Shankarlal Banker, Mahadev Desai,
115
Narhari Parikh, Mohanlal Pandya, and Ravi
Indian National Movement and Mahatma Gandhi’s Contribution
Shankar Vyas. They toured the countryside,
organised the villagers, and gave them
political leadership and direction.
Source: NCERT,Class XII, Themes in Indian
History III,Chapter 3.
5. Answer (b)
Option (b) is correct: The Non-Cooperation
Movement in India was initiated by
Mahatma Gandhi and the Indian National
Congress in response to several catalyst
events that intensified the demand for
independence and galvanised widespread
protest.
During the course of the First World
War (1914-18), the British authorities
implemented press censorship and
authorised detentions without trial. As the
war concluded, a committee headed by Sir
Sidney Rowlatt proposed the continuation
of these stringent measures. In response
to this decision, Mahatma Gandhi issued
a nationwide call for a movement against
the “Rowlatt Act.” Gandhiji himself was
apprehended while en route to the Punjab,
and simultaneously, prominent local
Congress leaders also faced arrests.
Jallianwala Bagh Massacre (1919): One
of the most infamous incidents in British
colonial history, the Jallianwala Bagh
massacre involved the killing of hundreds
of unarmed Indian civilians by British
troops in Amritsar. This brutal act shocked
the nation and further fueled anti-British
sentiments, playing a significant role in
mobilising people for the Non-Cooperation
Movement.
Chauri Chaura incident (1922): In
February 1922, a gathering of peasants
launched a targeted assault on a police
station situated in the village of Chauri
Chaura, located in the region of the United
Provinces (present-day Uttar Pradesh and
Uttarakhand). Tragically, this aggressive
act resulted in the destruction of the police
station by fire, leading to the loss of several
constable’s lives. The severity of this violent
incident deeply troubled Mahatma Gandhi,
compelling him to make the difficult
decision of abruptly terminating the
noncooperation movement.
 Reference: NCERT,Class XII, Themes in
WORKBOOK MODERN HISTORY Indian History III,Chapter 3.
6. Answer (d)
Option (d) is correct: Mahatma Gandhi’s
appeal among the poor, and peasants in
particular, was enhanced by his ascetic
lifestyle, and his shrewd use of symbols such
as the dhoti and the charkha expressed
profound concerns about the contemporary
era, where machines were perceived
to subjugate individuals and displace
traditional labour. He envisioned the
charkha as a representation of a human-
centric society that refrained from
excessively celebrating machinery and
technological advancements. Additionally,
he believed that the spinning wheel had
the potential to offer marginalised
communities additional income, thereby
fostering self-sufficiency.
Reference: NCERT, Class 12th, Theme 11.
7. Answer (c)
Option (c) is correct: In December 1929,
the Indian National Congress convened its
annual session in Lahore. This gathering
had dual significance: first, the election of
Jawaharlal Nehru as President, symbolising
the transition of leadership to the newer
generation; second, the declaration of
commitment to “Purna Swaraj,” denoting
complete independence. Consequently,
the pace of political activity accelerated. On
26th January 1930, the nation observed
“Independence Day,” marked by the raising
of the national flag at various locations.
Reference: NCERT, Class 12th, Theme 11.
8. Answer (a)
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Khilafat
Movement, (1919-1920) was a movement of
Indian Muslims, led by Muhammad Ali and
Shaukat Ali.
Statement 2 is correct: It demanded
that the Turkish Sultan or Khalifa should
maintain authority over the significant
Muslim holy sites within the former
Ottoman empire. The regions of jazirat-
ul-Arab (encompassing Arabia, Syria, Iraq,
and Palestine) should remain under Muslim
governance. Additionally, the Khalifa must
possess adequate land to safeguard the
integrity of the Islamic faith.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Congress
supported the movement and Mahatma
Gandhi sought to conjoin it to the Non-
cooperation Movement.
Reference: NCERT, Class 12th, Theme 11.
9. Answer (c)
Statement 1 is correct: Mahatma Gandhi
effectively expanded the reach of nationalism
through his widespread popularity and
meticulous organisation. New branches of
the Congress were established across diverse
regions of India, while “Praja Mandals” were
formed to advocate nationalist principles
in princely states.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Gandhi’s
emphasis was on communicating the
nationalist message in local languages.
Statement 3 is incorrect: This led to
the structuring of Congress’s provincial
committees based on linguistic regions
instead of the artificial colonial boundaries
of British India. These strategies collectively
facilitated the propagation of nationalism to
every corner of the nation, resonating with
social groups previously uninvolved in the
movement.
Reference: NCERT, Class 12th, Theme 11.
10. Answer (b)
Option (b) is correct: Mahatma Gandhi
was released from prison in February 1924,
and now chose to devote his attention to the
promotion of home-spun cloth (khadi),
and the abolition of untouchability.
Gandhiji was as much a social reformer as
he was a politician. He believed that in order
to be worthy of freedom, Indians had to get
rid of social evils such as child marriage
and untouchability. Indians of one faith
also had to cultivate a genuine tolerance
for Indians of another faith, hence his
emphasis on Hindu-Muslim harmony.
Meanwhile, on the economic front Indians
had to learn to become self-reliant –
hence his stress on the significance of
wearing khadi rather than mill-made
cloth imported from overseas.
Reference: NCERT, Class 12th, Theme 11.
116
11. Answer (d)
Statement 1 is incorrect: At the end of
December 1929, the Congress held its
annual session in the city of Lahore. The
meeting was significant as the election of
Jawaharlal Nehru as President signified
the passing of the baton of leadership to the
younger generation.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The other
significant event was the proclamation
of commitment to “Purna Swaraj”, or
complete independence at the Lahore
session. Now the pace of politics picked
up once more. On 26 January 1930,
“Independence Day” was observed, with
the national flag being hoisted at different
venues, and patriotic songs being sung.
Reference: NCERT, Class 12th, Theme 11.
12. Answer (d)
Statement 1 is correct: After celebrating
“Independence Day,” Mahatma Gandhi
announced a plan to lead the “Salt March”
against a disliked British law granting
the state a monopoly over salt. Despite
informing Viceroy Lord Irwin in advance,
the significance of this action eluded him.
On March 12, 1930, Gandhi commenced
the Dandi march from Sabarmati Ashram
toward the ocean to defy the British salt
tax and promote civil disobedience.
Statement 2 is correct: In the wake of the
Salt March, nearly 60,000 Indians were
arrested, among them, Gandhiji himself
was arrested.
Statement 3 is correct: It was the first
nationalist activity in which women
participated in large numbers. The
socialist activist Kamaladevi Chattopadhyay
had persuaded Gandhiji not to restrict the
protests to men alone. Kamaladevi was
herself one of numerous women who courted
arrest by breaking the salt or liquor laws.
Reference: NCERT, Class 12th, Theme 11.
13. Answer (a)
Option (a) is correct: The Salt March
marked a notable turning point as women
joined in substantial numbers, making it
the first nationalist activity of such scale to
include them. Kamaladevi Chattopadhyay,
117
a socialist activist, played a key role in
Indian National Movement and Mahatma Gandhi’s Contribution
convincing Gandhiji to ensure the protests
were not limited to men. Kamaladevi herself
was among the many women who faced
arrest for challenging salt and liquor laws.
Reference: NCERT, Class 12th, Theme 11.
14. Answer (c)
Statement 1 is correct: The British
government convened a series of “Round
Table Conferences” in London. B.R.
Ambedkar represented the Dalit
community. The first meeting was held
in November 1930, but without the pre-
eminent political leader in India, thus
rendering it an exercise in futility.
Statement 2 is incorrect: A second Round
Table Conference was held in London in
the latter part of 1931. Here, Gandhiji
represented the Congress. However, his
claims that his party represented all of
India came under challenge from three
parties: from the Muslim League, which
claimed to stand for the interests of the
Muslim minority; from the Princes, who
claimed that the Congress had no stake in
their territories; and from B.R. Ambedkar,
who argued that Gandhiji and the
Congress did not really represent the
lower castes.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Conferences
in London were inconclusive, so Gandhiji
returned to India and resumed civil
disobedience.
Reference: NCERT, Class 12th, Theme 11.
15. Answer (b)
Option (b) is correct: Released from jail in
January 1931, Mahatma Gandhi engaged
in a series of extended discussions with
the Viceroy during the following month.
These deliberations resulted in the
signing of the “Gandhi-Irwin Pact,” under
which civil disobedience would cease,
prisoners would be released, and coastal
salt production would be permitted for
personal consumption. However, this pact
drew criticism from radical nationalists who
felt that Gandhi’s efforts fell short as he
couldn’t secure a clear commitment from
the Viceroy regarding political independence
for Indians. Instead, the assurance of
 discussions towards that goal was the
WORKBOOK MODERN HISTORY extent of the outcome.
At the Round Table Conference, Mahatma
Gandhi argued against separate
electorates for the Depressed Classes.
Reference: NCERT, Class 12th, Theme 11.
16. Answer (a)
Option (a) is correct: From the late
nineteenth century onward, Maharashtra
witnessed the emergence of a non-Brahman
movement aimed at challenging both the
caste system and landlordism. By the 1930s,
this movement had established connections
with the broader national movement. In the
year 1943, a group of youthful leaders hailing
from the Satara district in Maharashtra
formed an alternative administration
known as the “prati sarkar,” alongside
volunteer groups termed “seba dals” and
village units referred to as “tufan dals.”
This initiative involved the operation of
people’s courts and constructive initiatives.
Predominantly led by Kunbi peasants and
backed by dalits, the Satara prati sarkar
continued to function until the 1946
elections, enduring government opposition
and, in its later phases, disapproval from
the Congress.
Reference: NCERT, Class 12th, Theme 11.
17. Answer (c)
● Statement 1 is incorrect: In 1935, a
new Government of India Act promised
some form of representative government.
Two years later, in an election held on
the basis of a restricted franchise, the
Congress won a comprehensive victory.
● Statement 2 is correct: Eight out
of 11 provinces had a Congress'
Prime Ministers, working under the
supervision of a British Governor.
● Statement 3 is correct: The Congress
ministries resigned in October
1939. Through 1940 and 1941, the
Congress organised a series of individual
satyagrahas to pressure the rulers to
promise freedom once the war had
ended.
Reference: NCERT, Class 12th, Theme
11.
18. Answer (b)
Statement 1 is incorrect: After the failure
of the Cripps Mission, Mahatma Gandhi
decided to launch his third major movement
against British rule. This was the “Quit
India” campaign, which began in August
1942.
Statement 2 is correct: “Quit India”
was genuinely a mass movement, bringing
into its ambit hundreds of thousands of
ordinary Indians. In several districts, such
as Satara in the west and Medinipur in
the east, “independent” governments
were proclaimed. The British responded
with much force, yet it took more than a
year to suppress the rebellion.
Statement 3 is correct: Although Gandhiji
was jailed at once, younger activists
organised strikes and acts of sabotage
all over the country. Particularly active
in the underground resistance were
socialist members of the Congress, such as
Jayaprakash Narayan.
Reference: NCERT, Class 12th, Theme 11.
19. Answer (c)
Option (c) is correct: In early 1946,
elections were conducted for the provincial
legislatures. While the Congress secured a
sweeping victory in the “General” category,
the League achieved an overwhelming
majority in seats exclusively reserved
for Muslims. This marked a culmination
of intense political polarization. During
the summer of 1946, a Cabinet Mission
was dispatched in an attempt to facilitate
a consensus between the Congress and the
League on the establishment of a federal
system that would maintain India’s unity
while granting a measure of autonomy to
the provinces. Regrettably, the discussions
ended without a resolution.
Following the deadlock, Muhammad Ali
Jinnah called for a significant event known
as the “Direct Action Day,” aimed at
advancing the League’s demand for a
separate nation, Pakistan. The designated
date, August 16, 1946, witnessed violent
upheavals in Calcutta, which later spread
across rural Bengal, Bihar, and eventually
to the United Provinces and Punjab. This
118
 unrest resulted in sufferings primarily for brought the Congress and the League

Indian National Movement and Mahatma Gandhi’s Contribution

Muslims in some regions and Hindus in
others.
Reference: NCERT, Class 12th, Theme 11.
20. Answer (b)
Option (b) is correct: In 1942, Churchill
dispatched Minister Sir Stafford Cripps
to India for negotiations with Gandhiji
and the Congress. However, discussions
collapsed when the Congress insisted that
an Indian Defence Member needs to be
appointed by the Viceroy before assisting
Britain against the Axis powers.
In 1945, a Labour government came to
power in Britain and committed itself to
granting independence to India. Meanwhile,
back in India, the Viceroy, Lord Wavell,
together for a series of talks.
In early 1946, provincial elections were
conducted, where the Congress emerged
victorious in the “General” category.
Conversely, the League secured a significant
majority in seats designated for Muslims.
This outcome marked the culmination
of political polarisation. Subsequently,
a Cabinet Mission dispatched during
the summer of 1946 aimed to broker an
agreement between the Congress and the
League on a federal system ensuring unity
while granting provincial autonomy.
Regrettably, this mission did not achieve
consensus between the two parties.
Reference: NCERT, Class 12th, Theme 11.

SUBJECTIVE QUESTIONS WITH MODEL ANSWERS

1. How did Mahatma Gandhi seek to identify with the common people, which was not done
earlier by the leaders and seen a shift from middle class to mass movement?
Ans. Mahatma Gandhi arrived in India during 1914-15 and his contact with common masses
started in an urge to understand the needs of people.
Mahatma Gandhi seek to identify himself with the common people of India:
* For this action plan, he began to live a very simple lifestyle.
* He wore simple clothes which a poor Indian would wear. He spoke the language of local
people.
* Mahatma Gandhi opposed the caste system and attacked untouchability and personally
lived with the Harijan.
* Mahatma Gandhi attached dignity to labor and physical work. He worked on Charkha and
cleaned toilets.
* He attacked the sentiment of classifying people into low and high.
2. Why do the peasants consider Mahatma Gandhi as a prominent leader who has the
ability to resolve their issues?
Ans. Mahatma Gandhi was very popular among the peasants.
The main reasons of his popularity were:
* The peasants considered him as if he had been sent by the God to redress the grievances
of the farmers.
* And they consider that he had the power to overrule all local officials.
* The success of the Gandhi during the Champaran, Kheda and Ahmedabad Satyagraha.
* Unique technique of Gandhi in terms of satyagraha and ahimsa.
* The simple living style of Gandhi and his positive attitude.

119
 3. Why was salt considered as an important tool for the national movement and why Gandhi
WORKBOOK MODERN HISTORY chose to break the salt laws against Britishers?
Ans. Mahatma Gandhi and other nationalist leaders argued that salt was an essential item of our
food and hence it was wrong to impose a tax on salt.
The mains reasons of choosing salt:
* The issue of salt affected all the sections of the society, the rich and poor alike.
* Women participation also increased as salt being a very commonly used item in day to day
life.
* Salt was more expensive than oil, sugar, butter and milk despite.
* India has a large production capacity but due to British laws the salt is made expensive.

Hence Gandhi chose to break the salt law and organized the Dandi March.
4. How did newspapers become an important source for bringing the revolution among
masses and creating the national movement?
Ans. During national movement newspaper plays a crucial role of events and raising awareness
among the remotest corner of the country.
Importance of newspaper can be understood by:
* These newspapers were mouthpieces and represented important voices of the
movement. Hence, they became an important source of information regarding the
freedom movement.
* Newspapers do daily reporting hence, their reporting is more detailed than perhaps any
other source can be.
* Many newspapers were in local Indian languages, i.e. in vernacular languages and their
circulation was limited. Hence, they published newspapers from a local perspective which
other sources of history may not have.
* They reflect the mood of the people too. These newspapers shaped what was published
and the way events were reported. Accounts published in a London newspaper would be
different from a report in an Indian nationalist paper.
5. Charkha represents the strength of India as Gandhi, define reasons why the charkha is
chosen as a symbol of nationalism?
Ans. Gandhiji used to work on charkha. He made it a symbol of our freedom movement.
The main aim of using Charkha is:
* Charkha symbolizes manual labor.
* Gandhiji wanted to attach respect to manual labor. On charkha people worked with their
own hands.
* Charkha was a low investment product hence anyone can afford it. It was a boost to the
small-scale industries.
* Charkha as it is a dignified manual labor. It also promoted the culture of doing one’s own
work. It would also strike at the root of the caste system.
* Charkha was used as a tool to counter British imported clothes.
Thus, Charkha became a symbol of Indian nationalism.

120
 6. Though the Round table conferences were established to resolve the issues faced by people

Indian National Movement and Mahatma Gandhi’s Contribution

of India, the dialogues at the Round Table Conference remains inconclusive. Comment
Ans. The British Government has had the policy to review the progress of self-rule in India and
bring reforms after the gap of ten years. This began in 1910 with Morley Minto Reform and
was followed in 1920 with Montagu Chelmsford Report, ten years later, so they organized a
Round Table Conference.
The details of 3 Round table conferences:
* First Round Table Conference took place in 1930. The Conference failed as the Indian
National Congress was absent in the conference. The leaders of the Congress were behind
bars due to the civil disobedience movement.
* During the second Round Table Conference, Mahatma Gandhi was released from jail.
Gandhi Irwin pact was signed and the British government agreed to withdraw salt
law partly. But the agreement came under criticism as it did not talk about complete
independence of India.
* In the third Round Table Conference, new constitutional developments were not
agreed upon. The main reason was that the other participants of the conference described
Congress as representative of a small group of Indians and not the entire population.

To conclude divisive politics of Muslim League, Dr. Ambedkar and the attitude of the princely
states and British reluctance attitude to talk about Independence were the main reasons for
the failure of the round table conferences.
7. In what way did Mahatma Gandhi transform the nature of the national movement, which
makes him different from the moderates and extremist leaders.
Ans. Gandhiji came to India back from South Africa in 1915 and transformed the nature of National
movement:
The characteristics which makes Gandhi unique and his approach:
* His persuasion-based approach worked in 1917 as he went to Champaran to fight for the
cause of farmers who were forced to grow indigo by the British government.
* When M. Gandhi joined Indian politics and the freedom movement was limited to the
middle class. Gandhiji made it all pervasive now people from villages, poor people, laborers,
workers and students all became part of the freedom struggle.
* He used religious symbols to popularize the freedom movement that in long term gave
fillip to communal politics. He raised awareness against British divide and rule policy.
* He has to be credited with emancipation of women and their participation in public life at
a scale not known in Indian history.
* He integrated the social reforms and national movement together.
* He made ending untouchability a fundamental objective of his political philosophy.

Thus, Mahatma Gandhi made the freedom movement a mass movement and a movement much
beyond politics for nation unity and integrity and it makes him unique from others.

121
 Educating the
7 Nation
OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS FOR PRACTICE
1. Who among the following set up the
‘‘Asiatic Society of Bengal’’ and started
a journal called Asiatick Researches?
(a) Thomas Daniell
(b) William Jones
(c) Warren Hastings
(d) Alexander Cunningham
2. With reference to the ‘Orientalists’,
consider the following statements:
1. They were European scholars who
advocated for English education in
India.
2. British Orientalists believed that the
British would be both guardians and
masters of Indian culture.
3. Henry Thomas Colebrooke and William
Jones were the Orientalists.
Which of the statements given above is/
are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
3. Consider the following:
1. Madrasa was set up in 1781 in Calcutta
to promote the study of Arabic and
Persian.
2. Hindu College was established in
Benaras in 1854 to encourage the study
of European languages.
Which of the statements given above is/
are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
4. Consider the following:
1. James Mill
2. Nathaniel Halhed
3. Thomas Babington Macaulay
How many of the above opposed the
Orientalist vision of learning ?
(a) Only one (b) Only two
(c) All three (d) None
5. Which of the following was the impact
of the English Education Act of 1835 on
higher education in India
(a) It abolished the use of English as a
medium of instruction.
(b) It promoted Oriental institutions like
the Calcutta Madrasa.
(c) It focused on reviving traditional Indian
educational methods.
(d) It introduced English as the medium of
instruction for higher education.
6 Who among the following was tasked
with issuing the educational despatch in
1854, outlining the educational policy
for India?
(a) Charles Wood
(b) Thomas Macaulay
(c) Warren Hastings
(d) James Mill
7. Consider the following:
1. Supporting European learning
2. Improve the moral character of Indians
3. Create a demand for British goods
 How many of the above were the 2. The Government pandits were appointed

Educating the nation

obejctives of the Britishers behind by the Company to improve the quality
implementation of Wood’s Despatch of teaching.
(1854)?
3. All the Pathshalas were supported
(a) Only one (b) Only two through government grants.
(c) All three (d) None
How many of the statements given above
8. With reference to the ‘Serampore are correct?
Mission’, consider the following
statements: (a) Only one (b) Only two
1. The Missionaries established a mission (c) All three (d) None
in Serampore within the British East 10. ‘He believed that fostering creative
India Company’s jurisdiction. learning required a natural environment,
2. William Carey played a pivotal role in prompting him to establish his school
the establishment of the Serampore 100 kilometres away from Calcutta,
Mission. surrounded by rural landscapes. . He saw
Which of the statements given above is/ it as an abode of peace , where living in
are incorrect? harmony with nature, children could
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only cultivate their natural creativity.’
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Identify the personality from the options
9 With reference to the Vernacular given below:
education in British India, consider the (a) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
following statements:
(b) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay
1. William Adam reported about
(c) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
Pathshalas in Bengal and Bihar to the
Company. (d) Rabindra Nath tagore

SUBJECTIVE QUESTIONS FOR PRACTICE

1. The Dispatch on Education, 1854 was seen in favor of both vernacular and English based
education. Define.
2. Why did Mahatma Gandhi oppose English education and how did he consider English education
as a means to enslave Indians?
3. How do the education models of Mahatma Gandhi and Rabindranath Tagore differ?
4. Define Macauley Minute? Why did it consider it crucial to impart English education?
5. Why did Indians urge the Britishers to open more schools and universities?
6. Write down the findings of William Adam’s on vernacular education in Bengal and Bihar region?

ANSWER KEY
1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (d) 6. (a) 7. (c) 8. (a) 9. (b) 10. (d)

123
WORKBOOK MODERN HISTORY HINTS & SOLUTION
1. Answer (b)
Option (b) is correct: In 1783, William
Jones arrived in Calcutta. He was appointed
as a junior judge at the Supreme Court
that the Company had set up. Together with
Englishmen like Henry Thomas Colebrooke
and Nathaniel Halhed , Jones set up the
Asiatic Society of Bengal and started a
journal called Asiatick Researches.
Reference: NCERT, Class 8th, Our Pasts-
III, Chapter 6
2. Answer (c)
Statement 1 is incorrect: Orientalists were
individuals possessing scholarly expertise
in Asian languages and cultures.
Orientalists were in favour of using Indian
languages (vernaculars) as medium of
instruction
Statement 2 is correct: Henry Thomas
Colebrooke and William Jones went about
discovering ancient texts, understanding
their meaning, translating them, and
making their findings known to others. This
project, they believed, would not only help
the British learn from Indian culture, but it
would also help Indians rediscover their own
heritage, and understand the lost glories of
their past. In this process, they believed that
the British would become the guardians
of Indian culture as well as its masters.
Statement 3 is correct: William Jones
was a linguist. He had studied Greek and
Latin at Oxford, knew French and English,
had picked up Arabic, and had also learnt
Persian. Jones discovered that his interests
were shared by many British officials living
in Calcutta at the time. Englishmen like
Henry Thomas Colebrooke and Nathaniel
Halhed were also busy discovering the
ancient Indian heritage, mastering Indian
languages and translating Sanskrit and
Persian works into English. Together with
them, Jones set up the Asiatic Society of
Bengal, and started a journal called Asiatick
Researches. Henry Thomas Colebrooke
was a scholar of Sanskrit and ancient
sacred writings of Hinduism.
Reference: NCERT, Class 8th, Our Pasts-
III, Chapter 6
3. Answer (a)
Statement 1 is correct: A madrasa was
set up in Calcutta in 1781 to promote the
study of Arabic, Persian and Islamic law.
The Calcutta Madrasah was established
by Warren Hastings in 1781 for studying
Muslim law and related subjects.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Hindu
College was established in Benaras in
1791 to encourage the study of ancient
Sanskrit texts that would be useful for the
administration of the country. Governor
General Lord Cornwallis assisted Jonathan
Duncan in establishing the College at
Banaras in the year 1791.
Reference: NCERT, Class 8th, Our Pasts-
III, Chapter 6
4. Answer (b)
Option (b) is correct: From the early
nineteenth century many British officials
began to criticize the Orientalist vision of
learning. They said that knowledge of the
East was full of errors and unscientific
thought.
James Mill was one of those who attacked
the Orientalists. The British effort, he
declared, should not be to teach what the
natives wanted, or what they respected, in
order to please them and “win a place in
their heart”.
Thomas Babington Macaulay saw India
as an uncivilized country that needed to be
civilized. No branch of Eastern knowledge,
according to him, could be compared to
what England had produced.
Englishmen like Henry Thomas Colebrooke
and Nathaniel Halhed were busy
discovering the ancient Indian heritage,
mastering Indian languages and translating
Sanskrit and Persian works into English.
So these two were not opposed to orientalist
vision of learning.
Reference: NCERT, Class 8th, Our Pasts-
III, Chapter 6
124
5. Answer (d)
Option (d) is correct: Following Macaulay’s
minute, the English Education Act of
1835 was introduced. The decision was to
make English the medium of instruction
for higher education and to stop the
promotion of Oriental institutions
like the Calcutta Madrasa and Benaras
Sanskrit College. These institutions were
seen as “temples of darkness that were
falling into decay”. English textbooks now
began to be produced for schools.
Reference: NCERT, Class 8th, Our Pasts-
III, Chapter 6
6. Answer (a)
Option (a) is correct: In 1854, the Court
of Directors of the East India Company
in London sent an educational despatch
to the Governor-General in India. Issued
by Charles Wood, the President of the
Board of Control of the Company, it has
come to be known as Wood’s Despatch.
Outlining the educational policy that was
to be followed in India, it emphasised once
again the practical benefits of a system
of European learning, as opposed to
Oriental knowledge.
Reference: NCERT, Class 8th, Our Pasts-
III, Chapter 6
7. Answer (c)
Option (c) is correct: In 1854, the Court
of Directors of the East India Company in
London sent an educational despatch to
the Governor-General in India. Issued by
Charles Wood, the President of the Board of
Control of the Company, it has come to be
known as Wood’s Despatch. Outlining the
educational policy that was to be followed
in India, it emphasised once again the
practical benefits of a system of European
learning, as opposed to Oriental knowledge.
Introducing them to European ways of life
would change their tastes and desires, and
create a demand for British goods, for
Indians would begin to appreciate and buy
things that were produced in Europe.
Wood’s Despatch also argued that European
learning would improve the moral
character of Indians. It would make them
truthful and honest, and thus supply the
125
Company with civil servants who could be
Educating the nation
trusted and depended upon
Reference: NCERT, Class 8th, Our Pasts-
III, Chapter 6
8. Answer (a)
Statement 1 is incorrect: Until 1813,
the East India Company was opposed
to missionary activities in India. The
missionaries set up a mission at
Serampore in an area under the control
of the Danish East India Company as they
were unable to establish an institution
within British-controlled territories. A
printing press was set up in 1800 and a
college established in 1818.
Statement 2 is correct: William Carey, a
distinguished Scottish missionary, played
a significant and instrumental role in
establishing of the Serampore Mission.
Reference: NCERT, Class 8th, Our Pasts-
III, Chapter 6
9. Answer (b)
● Statement 1 is correct: In the 1830s,
William Adam, a Scottish missionary,
toured the districts of Bengal and
Bihar. He had been asked by the
Company to report on the progress of
education in vernacular schools. Adam
found that there were over 1 lakh
pathshalas in Bengal and Bihar. These
were small institutions with no more
than 20 students each. But the total
number of children being taught in these
pathshalas was considerable – over 20
lakh. These institutions were set up by
wealthy people, or the local community.
At times they were started by a teacher
(guru).
● Statement 2 is correct: Until the
mid-19th century, the Company’s
focus was mainly on higher education,
leading to minimal intervention in local
pathshalas. Post 1854, the Company
aimed to enhance vernacular education.
Government pandits were appointed,
each overseeing several schools.
Pandits aimed to elevate teaching
standards by conducting regular
visits, introducing textbooks, and
implementing structured timetables. The
 new approach included annual exams to
WORKBOOK MODERN HISTORY assess learning, alongside student fees,
consistent attendance, assigned seating,
and disciplined conduct.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: Only
those Pathshalas those accepted the
new rules were supported through
government grants. Those who were
unwilling to work within the new system
received no government support. Over
time gurus who wanted to retain their
independence found it difficult to
compete with the government aided and
regulated pathshalas.
Reference: NCERT, Class 8th, Our
Pasts-III, Chapter 6
10. Answer (d)
Option (d) is correct: Rabindranath Tagore
started the institution in 1901. The
experience of his school days in Calcutta
shaped Tagore’s ideas of education. On
growing up, he wanted to set up a school
where the child was happy, where she
could be free and creative, and where she
was able to explore her own thoughts and
desires. Tagore was of the view that creative
learning could be encouraged only within
a natural environment. So he chose to set
up his school 100 kilometers away from
Calcutta, in a rural setting. He saw it as
an abode of peace (santiniketan), where
living in harmony with nature, children
could cultivate their natural creativity.
Reference: NCERT, Class 8th, Our Pasts-
III, Chapter 6

SUBJECTIVE QUESTIONS WITH MODEL ANSWERS

1. The Dispatch on Education, 1854 was seen in favor of both vernacular and English based
education. Define.
Ans. In 1854 during the time of Lord Dalhousie, the then Governor-General of India, Wood’s
dispatch suggested that primary schools must adopt vernacular languages. Through the
dispatch, it was suggested that high schools use Anglo-vernacular mediums and that English
should be the medium for college-level education.

Thus, a balance was brought out, and a complete lack of vernacular education during the
Macauley time was undone.
2. Why did Mahatma Gandhi oppose English education and how did he consider English
education as a means to enslave Indians?
Ans. Mahatma Gandhi thought that English education had enslaved Indians because colonial
education created a sense of inferiority in the minds of Indians. It made them see western
civilization as superior and destroyed the pride they had in their own culture.

The very notion of white man’s burden considers the indigenous and local people inferior
in comparison to them, and culture is the main part of the society, So English education also
disrespect the learnings of the Indians and considered its orthodox and religion based which
lack scientific temper.
3. How do the education models of Mahatma Gandhi and Rabindranath Tagore differ?
Ans. Both Mahatma Gandhi and Rabindranath Tagore considered education as the most fundamental
in personality development.
Gandhi model:
* He laid emphasis on the complete development of the child and eradicating casteism.
* Gandhi stood for educating a common man and making him worthy of the society.

126
 * He considered that an Indian model of education was needed and he was against English

Educating the nation

education.
Tagore model:
* He was emphatic about self-realization through education.
* He wanted people to move towards a nature-based education model, he did not believe
in a classroom-based model.
* He also vouches for industrial education and scientific learning which can be acquired
by western models.
4. Define Macauley Minute? Why did it consider it crucial to impart English education?
Ans. In 1835, British historian and politician Thomas Babington Macaulay presented his ‘Minute
on Indian Education’ that sought to establish the need to impart English education to Indian
‘natives’.
Reasons behind the promotion of English education:
* As various British officials criticized the Eastern approach to education, they claimed that
the Eastern educational approach was unscientific and full of mistakes.
* They wanted to create an Educated class of Indians who are socialized in English and
are considered loyal to the English.
* The British had a poor opinion of traditional Indian learning as most are based on religion
and only allowed certain sections of the society.
5. Why did Indians urge the Britishers to open more schools and universities?
Ans. Various educated sections of the Indian society urged the Britishers to open more schools and
universities.
The reasons behind this were:
* They consider that the British way of education helps in modernizing Indian society.
* They thought that education is the best socialization agent where a child learns proper
values, beliefs and becomes a better person.
* They also rejected the caste-based limitation on education, as only the higher section can
take education.
* They wanted to promote education among the women section and for their upliftment.
6. Write down the findings of William Adam’s on vernacular education in Bengal and Bihar
region?
Ans. William Adam’s findings on the Indian schooling system are:
* They lack proper curriculum, classroom setup, fees, examination etc.
* There were around 1 lakh Pathshalas.
* Each has around 20 students.
* The education is oral in nature by gurus. The guru interacts with different students and
provides them education as per requirement, so homogeneity is missing.
* They were set up by wealthy people, rulers etc.
* Life based skills like farming were also taught.

127
 Framing the
8 Constitution
OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS FOR PRACTICE

1. With reference to the making of the 4. With reference to the ‘Constituent

Constituent Assembly, consider the
following statements:
1. The members of the Constituent
Assembly were elected on the basis of
universal adult franchise.
2. The Provincial Legislatures chose their
representatives to the Constituent
Assembly.
3. The Muslim League boycotted
Constituent Assembly.
Which of the statements given above is/
are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
2. Who among the following proposed
the pivotal resolution suggesting that
the National Flag of India should be a
“horizontal tricolour”?
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Subhas Chandra Bose
(c) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(d) Mahatma Gandhi
Assembly’, consider the following pairs:
Personalities Designation
1. B. N. Rau Vice president of the
Assembly
2. Rajendra Prasad President of the
Assembly
3. Alladi Krishna- Chairman of the
swamy Aiyar Drafting Committee
the
How many of the above pairs are correctly
matched?
(a) Only one pair (b) Only two pairs
(c) All three pairs (d) None of the pairs
5. Consider the following statement:
1. Justice, equality, and freedom for every
citizen of India.
2. Proclaimed India as a “Democratic”
nation.
3. Adequate safeguards for minorities,
Depressed and Other Backward Classes.
How many of the above were part of the
‘Objectives Resolution’ introduced by
Jawaharlal Nehru?

3. Which of the following was the Chairman (a) Only one (b) Only two
of the ‘Drafting Committee of the Indian (c) All three (d) None
Constitution’? 6. Consider the following:
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru 1. John Mathai
(b) B.R. Ambedkar 2. C Rajagopalachari
(c) Rajendra Prasad 3. Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel 4. C.H. Bhabha
 How many of the above were members of power to take over a state administration

Framing the Constitution

the interim government? on the recommendation of the Governor?
(a) Only one (b) Only two (a) Article 360 (b) Article 264
(c) Only three (d) All four (c) Article 368 (d) Article 356
7. Which of the following was a leader of 12. Which of the following best describes
the peasant movement who urged that the changed political landscape after
the word minorities must be interpreted Partition in terms of centralisation and
in economic terms?
decentralisation?
(a) Jagjivan Ram
(a) Nationalists pushed for further
(b) R.V. Dhulekar decentralisation of power.
(c) N.G. Ranga
(b) Nationalists continued to advocate for
(d) Govind Ballabh Pant the same level of centralisation.
8. Consider the following statements: (c) Nationalists pushed for centralisation
1. The executive was made responsible due to the unitary system imposed by
to the provincial legislature under the colonial rule.
Government of India Act of 1919.
(d) Nationalists shifted their stance towards
2. Under the Government of India Act 1935, complete decentralisation.
provincial legislatures were responsible
to the British-appointed Governor. 13. By the 1930s, a consensus had been
Which of the statements given above is/ reached within the Congress regarding
are correct? the choice of the national language.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only Which of the following was agreed upon?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) English (b) Hindi
9. Which of the following did J. Nagappa (c) Sanskrit (d) Hindustani
identify as the primary factor responsible 14. With reference to the report of the
for the sufferings endured by the Language Committee of the Constituent
Depressed Castes?
Assembly, consider the following
(a) Their numerical insignificance within statements:
society.
1. Hindi in the Devanagari script would be
(b) Their reluctance to integrate into
mainstream culture. the National language.
(c) The systematic marginalisation 2. English would remain the designated
perpetuated by caste norms. language for all official purposes during
(d) Limited access to adequate healthcare the initial fifteen years.
facilities. 3. Each province could select a regional
10. Consider the following statements: language for its official work.
1. The Draft Constitution provided for only Which of the statements given above is/
two lists of subjects, Union and State. are correct?
2. The Union had control over minerals (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only
and key industries. (c) 1 only (d) 2 and 3 only
3. The states were allowed to levy and
15. In the context of Indian political secularism,
collect certain taxes, such as the tax on
what describes the relationship between
bottled liquor.
the State and religion?
Which of the statements given above is/
(a) Complete separation of State from
are correct?
religion
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (b) Judicious distance between State and
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 religion
11. Which of the following Articles in the (c) Close integration of State and religion
Indian Constitution gave the Centre the (d) Absolute control of religion by the State

129
WORKBOOK MODERN HISTORY SUBJECTIVE QUESTIONS FOR PRACTICE
1. What were the ideals expressed in the Objectives Resolution which is considered as fundamentals
to the Indian goal of prosperity?
2. What were the arguments in favor of greater power to the provinces, as they equally share a lot
of value for better management of nation?
3. What historical forces shaped the vision of the Constitution and led people realize the struggle
of their ancestors?
4. Among the most crucial topic of discussion among members of constituent assembly providing
protection of the oppressed groups is one of them. Discuss
5. What connection did some of the members of the Constituent Assembly make between the
political situation of the time and the need for a strong Centre?

ANSWER KEY
1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (b) 6. (d) 7. (c) 8. (b) 9. (c) 10. (c)
11. (d) 12. (c) 13. (d) 14. (d) 15. (b)

HINTS & SOLUTION

1. Answer (c) representatives: Jawaharlal Nehru,

● Statement 1 is incorrect: The members
of the Constituent Assembly were not
elected on the basis of universal
franchise.
● Statement 2 is correct: In 1945-46,
provincial elections were held in India.
The Provincial Legislatures then chose
the representatives to the Constituent
Assembly.
● Statement 3 is correct: The League
opted to boycott the Constituent
Assembly, asserting its demand for
Pakistan and a distinct constitution.
Similarly, the Socialists were initially
hesitant to join, as they perceived the
Constituent Assembly as a British
creation lacking genuine autonomy.
Reference: NCERT, Class 12th, Themes in
Indian History, Part 3 Chapter 4
2. Answer (a)
● Option (a) is correct: The Constituent
Assembly comprised 300 members, with
six members assuming particularly vital
roles. Among them, three were Congress
Vallabhbhai Patel, and Rajendra Prasad.
Notably, it was Jawaharlal Nehru who
introduced the pivotal “Objectives
Resolution” and the resolution
advocating the National Flag of
India to be a “horizontal tricolour of
saffron, white, and dark green in equal
proportion,” featuring a navy blue wheel
at its centre.
Reference: NCERT, Class 12th, Themes in
Indian History, Part 3 Chapter 4
3. Answer (b)
● Option (b) is correct: During the British
colonial era, Dr. B.R. Ambedkar held a
stance opposing the Congress. However,
upon Mahatma Gandhi’s counsel, he
was invited to become a part of the Union
Cabinet as the Law Minister after India’s
independence. In this role, he assumed
the chairmanship of the Drafting
Committee for the Constitution.
Collaborating alongside him were two
additional legal experts, K.M. Munshi
representing Gujarat and Alladi

130
 Krishnaswamy Aiyar representing
Madras, both of whom made pivotal
contributions to the Constitution-
drafting process. Ambedkar himself had
the responsibility of guiding the Draft
Constitution through the Assembly. This
took three years in all, with the printed
record of the discussions taking up
eleven bulky volumes.
Reference: NCERT, Class 12th, Themes in
Indian History, Part 3 Chapter 4
4. Answer (a)
Option (a) is correct:
The Constituent Assembly had 300
members. The members were given vital
assistance by two civil servants. One was
B. N. Rau, Constitutional Advisor to
the Government of India, who prepared
a series of background papers based on
a close study of the political systems of
other countries. The other was the Chief
Draftsman, S. N. Mukherjee, who had the
ability to put complex proposals in clear
legal language.
Rajendra Prasad was the President of
the Assembly, where he had to steer the
discussion along constructive lines while
making sure all members had a chance to
speak.
The lawyer and economist B.R. Ambedkar
served as Chairman of the Drafting
Committee of the Constitution. Serving
with him were two other lawyers,
K.M. Munshi from Gujarat and Alladi
6. Answer (d)
Krishnaswamy Aiyar from Madras, both of
whom gave crucial inputs in the drafting of
the Constitution.
Reference: NCERT, Class 12th, Themes in
Indian History, Part 3 Chapter 4
5. Answer (b)
● Option (b) is correct: On December 13,
1946, Jawaharlal Nehru introduced
the “Objectives Resolution” before
the Constituent Assembly. It was a
momentous resolution that outlined
the defining ideals of the Constitution
of Independent India, and provided
the framework within which the work
of constitution-making was to proceed.
131
It declared India as an “Independent
Framing the Constitution
Sovereign Republic,” enshrining
justice, equality, and freedom for its
citizens. Additionally, the resolution
pledged to incorporate safeguards
for minorities, backward and tribal
areas, as well as Depressed and Other
Backward Classes.
● Jawaharlal Nehru provided explanation
for not using the term “democratic”
in the Objectives Resolution in his
famous speech of 13th December
1946. “Now, some friends have raised
the question: “Why have you not put in
the word “democratic” here? Well, I told
them that it is conceivable, of course,
that a republic may not be democratic
but the whole of our past is witness to
this fact that we stand for democratic
institutions. Obviously, we are aiming
at democracy and nothing less than a
democracy. What form of democracy,
what shape it might take is another
matter. The democracies of the present
day, many of them in Europe and
elsewhere, have played a great part in the
world’s progress. Yet it may be doubtful
if those democracies may not have to
change their shape somewhat before
long if they have to remain completely
democratic”.
Reference: NCERT, Class 12th, Themes in
Indian History, Part 3 Chapter 4
Option (d) is correct: In 1946-47, as the
Assembly deliberated, the British were still
in India. An interim administration headed
by Jawaharlal Nehru was in place, but it
could only operate under the directions of
the Viceroy and the British Government
in London. The members were: Baldev
Singh, John Mathai, C Rajagopalachari,
Jawaharlal Nehru, Liaquat Ali Khan,
Vallabhbhai Patel, I.I. Chundrigar, Asaf Ali,
C.H. Bhabha, Jagjivan Ram, Ghazanfar Ali
Khan, Rajendra Prasad and Abdur Nishtar
Reference: NCERT, Class 12th, Themes in
Indian History, Part 3 Chapter 4
 7. Answer (c)
WORKBOOK MODERN HISTORY Option (c) is correct: Welcoming the
Objectives Resolution, N.G. Ranga,
a socialist leader who had played a
prominent role in the peasant movement,
emphasised that the term “minorities”
should be interpreted from an economic
perspective. According to Ranga, the
true minorities were the impoverished
and marginalized segments of society.
While he appreciated the legal entitlements
provided by the Constitution to individuals,
he also noted its limitations. He argued
that for the impoverished rural population,
the knowledge of newfound fundamental
rights like the right to life, full employment,
meetings, conferences, associations, and
other civil liberties was insufficient if
conditions were not established to ensure
the effective enjoyment of these rights.
Ranga emphasized that safeguarding these
constitutionally enshrined rights required
the creation of conducive circumstances.
Reference: NCERT, Class 12th, Themes in
Indian History, Part 3 Chapter 4
8. Answer (b)
Statement 1 is incorrect: A number of
Acts were passed (1909, 1919 and 1935),
gradually enlarging the space for Indian
participation in provincial governments.
The executive was made partly responsible
to the provincial legislature in 1919, and
almost entirely so under the Government
of India Act of 1935. When elections
were held in 1937 under the 1935 Act, the
Congress came to power in eight out of the
11 provinces.
Statement 2 is correct: While the earlier
constitutional experiments were in response
to the growing demand for a representative
government, the Acts (1909, 1919 and 1935)
were not directly debated and formulated by
Indians. They were enacted by the colonial
government. The electorate that elected the
provincial bodies had expanded over the
years, but even in 1935 it remained limited
to no more than 10 to 15 per cent of the adult
population. There was no universal adult
franchise. The legislatures elected under
the 1935 Act operated within the framework
of colonial rule, and were responsible to
the Governor appointed by the British.
Reference: NCERT, Class 12th, Themes in
Indian History, Part 3 Chapter 4
9. Answer (c)
Option (c) is correct: Some members
of the Depressed Castes emphasised
that the problem of the “Untouchables’’
could not be resolved through protection
and safeguards alone. J. Nagappa from
Madras pointed out that numerically, the
Depressed Castes were not a minority. They
formed between 20 and 25 percent of the
total population. Their suffering was due
to their systematic marginalisation, not
their numerical insignificance. They had
no access to education and no share in the
administration.
Reference: NCERT, Class 12th, Themes in
Indian History, Part 3 Chapter 4
10. Answer (c)
● Statement 1 is incorrect: The Draft
Constitution provided for three lists of
subjects: Union, State, and Concurrent.
The subjects in the first list were to be
the preserve of the Central Government,
while those in the second list were vested
with the states. As for the third list,
here the Centre and the state shared
responsibility.
● Statement 2 is correct: The Union
had control over minerals and key
industries. Besides, Article 356 gave
the Centre the power to take over a state
administration on the recommendation
of the Governor.
● Statement 3 is correct: The
Constitution also mandated a complex
system of fiscal federalism. In the case of
some taxes (for instance, customs duties
and Company taxes), the Centre retained
all the proceeds; in other cases (such as
income tax and excise duties) it shared
them with the states; in still other cases
(for instance, estate duties) it assigned
them wholly to the states. The states,
meanwhile, could levy and collect
certain taxes on their own which
included land and property taxes,
132
 sales taxes, and the hugely profitable
tax on bottled liquor.
Reference: NCERT, Class 12th, Themes in
Indian History, Part 3 Chapter 4
11. Answer (d)
Option (d) is correct: The Draft
Constitution encompassed three distinct
lists of subjects: the Union List, the State
List, and the Concurrent List. Within
this framework, the subjects enumerated
in the Union List were designated as the
exclusive jurisdiction of the Central
Government. In contrast, the subjects
delineated in the State List were endowed
with authority vested in the respective states.
The Concurrent List delineated matters in
which both the centre and the states shared
responsibility. Besides, Article 356 gave
the Centre the power to take over a state
administration on the recommendation
of the Governor. Article 356 empowers the
President to issue a proclamation, if he is
satisfied that a situation has arisen in which
the government of a state cannot be carried
on in accordance with the provisions of the
Constitution.
Reference: NCERT, Class 12th, Themes in
Indian History, Part 3 Chapter 4
12. Answer (c)
Option (c) is correct: The proposal for
increased power to the provinces elicited
a robust response within the Assembly.
The importance of a robust centre had
been emphasised multiple times since
the Commencement of the Constituent
Assembly’s sessions. Ambedkar explicitly
expressed his desire for a “strong and united
Centre,” underscoring the need for a centre
even more potent than the one established
under the Government of India Act of 1935.
Before Partition, the Congress had agreed
to grant considerable autonomy to the
provinces. This had been part of an effort
to assure the Muslim League that within the
provinces where the Muslim League came to
power, the Centre would not interfere. After
Partition, most nationalists changed
their positions because they felt that
the earlier political pressures for a
decentralised structure were no longer
133
there. There was already a unitary system in
Framing the Constitution
place, imposed by the colonial government.
The violence of the time gave a further push
to centralisation. The Constitution thus
showed a distinct bias towards the rights
of the Union of India over those of its
constituent states.
Reference: NCERT, Class 12th, Themes in
Indian History, Part 3 Chapter 4
13. Answer (d)
Option (d) is correct: By the 1930s, the
Congress had accepted that Hindustani
ought to be the national language.
Mahatma Gandhi felt that everyone should
speak in a language that common people
could easily understand. Hindustani – a
blend of Hindi and Urdu – was a popular
language of a large section of the people
of India, and it was a composite language
enriched by the interaction of diverse
cultures. As communal conflicts deepened,
Hindi and Urdu also started growing apart.
On the one hand, there was a move to
Sanskritise Hindi, purging it of all words
of Persian and Arabic origin. On the
other hand, Urdu was being increasingly
Persianised.
Reference: NCERT, Class 12th, Themes in
Indian History, Part 3 Chapter 4
14. Answer (d)
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Language
Committee of the Constituent Assembly had
proposed a compromise: adopting Hindi
in the Devanagari script as the official
language and gradually transitioning to it.
By referring to Hindi as the official rather
than the national language, the Language
Committee of the Constituent Assembly
hoped to placate ruffled emotions and arrive
at a solution that would be acceptable to all.
Statement 2 is correct: For the first fifteen
years, English would continue to be used
for all official purposes.
Statement 3 is correct: Each province was
to be allowed to choose one of the regional
languages for official work within the
province.
Reference: NCERT, Class 12th, Themes in
Indian History, Part 3 Chapter 4
 15. Answer (b)
WORKBOOK MODERN HISTORY Option (b) is correct: An important feature
of the Constitution was its emphasis on
secularism. This was done through the
carefully drafted series of Fundamental
Rights to “freedom of religion” (Articles
25-28), “cultural and educational rights”
(Articles 29, 30), and “rights to equality”
(Articles 14, 16, 17). All religions were
guaranteed equal treatment by the
State and given the right to maintain
charitable institutions. The State also
sought to distance itself from religious
communities, banning compulsory
religious instructions in State-run schools
and colleges, and declaring religious
discrimination in employment to be illegal.
However, a certain legal space was created
for social reform within communities, a
space that was used to ban untouchability
and introduce changes in personal and
family laws. In the Indian variant of
political secularism, then, there has been
no absolute separation of State from
religion, but a kind of judicious distance
between the two.
Reference: NCERT, Class 12th, Themes in
Indian zistory, Part 3 Chapter 4

SUBJECTIVE QUESTIONS WITH MODEL ANSWERS

1. What were the ideals expressed in the Objectives Resolution which is considered as
fundamentals to the Indian goal of prosperity?
Ans. The objective Resolution provides a brief account of the ideals and objectives of the Constitution.
Jawahar Lal Nehru presented the Objectives Resolution in the Constituent Assembly on 13
December, 1946.
Some of the provisions of which were:
* India was declared an independent sovereign republic.
* Justice, equality and fraternity were assured to all the citizens of India.
* Adequate safeguards were provided to minorities. It also referred to the well-being of the
backward and depressed classes.
* It was made an objective that India would combine the liberal ideas of democracy with the
socialist idea of economic justice.
* India would adopt that form of government which would be acceptable to its people. No
imposition from the British would be acceptable by the people of India.
2. What were the arguments in favor of greater power to the provinces, as they equally
share a lot of value for better management of nation?
Ans. Provinces being a major part of the colonial India and have large population share, so it’s
important to provide them power-
The arguments in favor of greater power to the provinces are:
* The main tenets of the arguments were that a powerful Centre would be overburdened and
inefficient, otherwise the center is likely to break.
* An overburdened center would not be able to carry out its functions effectively, that’s why
it’s important to provide decentralized power to provinces.
* Centre, relieved of some functions, would be more efficient, effective and strong also.
* On the other side, the financial dependence of states on the center would cripple, frustrate,
make them dependent, provoking them to rise in revolt against the center.

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 3. What historical forces shaped the vision of the Constitution and led people realize the

Framing the Constitution

struggle of their ancestors?
Ans. Historical forces provided the base that later shaped the vision of the Constitution of India.
Certain basic values were accepted by all national leaders:
* Universal Adult Franchise, Right to Freedom and Equality and Protection of minority rights
were these basic values.
* After the results of the 1937 elections, the Congress and other political parties were able
to form the governments in the provinces. This experience with legislative and political
institutions helped in developing an agreement over institutional design.
* Many colonial laws were also the sources of the Indian Constitution. Government of India
Act, 1935 was a major one. This way, the Indian Constitution adopted many institutional
details and procedures from the colonial laws.
* The French Revolution also inspired the makers of the Constitution. The working of the
Parliamentary democracy in Britain and the Bill of Rights in the USA also inspired the
framers of the Constitution
4. Among the most crucial topics of discussion among members of constituent assembly
providing protection to the oppressed groups is one of them. Discuss
Ans. The leaders of the constituent assembly felt that oppressed classes like tribal and
untouchables required special attention and safeguards to enable them to raise their status
and come to the level of the general population.
Protection discussed for them are:
Tribes:
* Tribal were regarded as backward. They were not accepted well in society. They were
almost rejected. For their upliftment they were required to be assimilated in the society.
* They were also required to be brought into the mainstream of the society. So special
protection and care were offered to them.
* Lands of the tribal have been confiscated and had been deprived of their forests and
pastures, so they were provided with land rights.
Untouchable:
* In society untouchables were treated as laborers. Society used their services but did not
give them a respectable position. They were treated as outcasts and kept isolated. Their
sufferings were due to their systematic marginalization.
* Untouchables had no access to education and equal work opportunities, so reservation
measures were discussed.
5. What connection did some of the members of the Constituent Assembly make between
the political situation of the time and the need for a strong Centre?
Ans. Constituent Assembly while framing Constitution tried to maintain a balance between political
situation of the time and maintaining a strong center.
The need for strong center is required due to following factors:
* India was divided and Pakistan came into existence. This partition was marred with
communal violence, so as to prevent such instances in future.

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 * Many leaders like JL Nehru and Ambedkar favored a strong Central Government for India.
WORKBOOK MODERN HISTORY Supporting their view, they referred to riots and violence that were ripping the nation
apart.
* A strong Centre was the need of the hour. Most of the members of the constituent assembly
also supported this view. Any deviation from this might jeopardize the interests of the
nation. Peace, prosperity and political stability were not possible in case of a weak Centre.
* It would fail to coordinate vital matters of common concern.
* Gopalaswami Ayyangar appealed to all the members of the Constituent Assembly that,
“the Centre should be made as strong as possible.”
* It was also felt that only a strong and united Centre could plan for the well-being of the
country.

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