NEET Model -

PHYSICS Part - A 7. The moments of inertia of two rotating bodies A and

B are 𝐼𝐴 and 𝐼𝐵 ( 𝐼𝐴 > 𝐼𝐵 ) . If their angular momenta
1. When a capillary tube is dipped in a liquid, the liquid are equal, then
rises to a height h in the tube . The free liquid surface (a) Kinetic energy of A = Kinetic energy of B
inside the tube is hemispherical in shape. The tube is (b) Kinetic energy of A > Kinetic energy of B
now pushed down so that the height of the tube (c) Kinetic energy of A < Kinetic energy of B
outside the liquid is less than h. Then the (d) Kinetic energy of the two bodies cannot be
(a) liquid will come out of the tube like in a small compared with the given data
fountain
(b) liquid will ooze out of the tube slowly 8. The maximum velocity of a particle executing SHM
(c) free liquid surface inside the tube is hemispherical is V. If the amplitude is doubled and the time period
(d) the liquid will fill the tube but not come out of its of oscillation decreased to 1/3 of its original value, the
upper end maximum velocity becomes
(a) 18 v (b) 12 v
2. A current in a wire is given by the equation, 𝐼 = (c) 6 v (d) 3 v
2𝑡 2 − 3𝑡 + 1, the charge through cross section of
wire in time interval t = 3 s to t = 5 s is 9. Two light waves superimposing at the mid-point of
(a) 32.33 C (b) 43.34 C the screen are coming coherent source of light with
(c) 45.5 C (d) 42 C phase difference 3𝜋 rad. Their amplitudes are 1 cm
each. The resultant amplitude at the given point will
3. When 1.5 kg of ice at 00 𝐶 mixed with 2 kg of water be
at 700 𝐶 in a container, the resulting temperature is (a) 5 cm (b) 3 cm
50 𝐶 the heat of fusion of ice is (swater = (c) 2 cm (d) zero
4186 J kg −1 K −1 )
(a) 1.42 × 105 J kg −1 (b) 2.42 × 105 J kg −1 10. Magnetic susceptibility of a diamagnetic substances
5 −1 (a) increases with increase in temperature
(c) 3.42 × 10 J kg (d) 4.42 × 105 J kg −1
(b) increases with decrease in temperature
(c) remains constant with change in temperature
4. A rope of negligible mass is wound round a hollow
(d) none of these
cylinder of mass 3 kg and radius 40 cm. If the rope is
pulled with a force of 30 N, then the angular
11. An electric heater supplies heat to a system at a rate
acceleration produced in the cylinder is
of 120 W. If system performs work at a rate of
(a) 15 rad s −2 (b) 20 rad s −2
−2 80 J s −1 , the rate of increase in internal energy is
(c) 25 rad s (d) 30 rad s −2
(a) 30 J s −1 (b) 40 J s −1 (c) 50 J s −1 (d) 60 J s −1
5. Two long and parallel straight wires A and B are
12. The radii and Young’s moduli of two uniform wires
carrying currents of 4 A and 7 A in the same direction
A and B are in the ratio 2 : 1 and 1 : 2 respectively.
are separated by a distance of 5 cm. The force acting
Both wires are subjected to the same longitudinal
on a 8 cm section of wire A is
force. If the increase in length of the wire A is one
(a) 3 × 10−6 N (b) 6 × 10−6 N
−6 percent, the percentage increase in length of the wire
(c) 9 × 10 N (d) 12 × 10−6 N
B is
(a) 1.0 (b) 1.5 (c) 2.0 (d) 3.0
6. A sample of ideal gas (𝛾 = 1.4) is heated at constant
pressure. If 100 J of heat is supplied to the gas the 13. Given , |A + B| = 𝑃, |A − B| = 𝑄. The value of
work done by the gas is
𝑃2 + 𝑄 2 is
(a) 28.57 J (b) 56.54 J
(a) 2(𝐴2 + 𝐵2 ) (b) 𝐴2 − 𝐵2
(c) 38.92 J (d) 65.38 J
(c) 𝐴2 + 𝐵2 (d) 2(𝐴2 − 𝐵2 )
14. Which of the following statements is correct ?
(a) At sunset or sunrise, the sun’s rays have to pass
through a small distance in the atmosphere
(b)At sunset or sunrise, the sun’s rays have to pass
through a larger distance in the atmosphere
(c) According to Rayleigh scattering intensity of
scattered light is proportional to (1/𝜆)2 .
(d) Most of the blue and other shorter wavelengths are
not removed by scattering
15. Which of the following is not true for electromagnetic
waves ?
(a) They transport energy
(b) They have momentum
(c) They travel at different speeds in air depending on
their frequency
(d) They travel at different speeds in medium
depending on their frequency.
16. The intensity of ratio of the maxima and minima in an
interference pattern produced by two coherent sources
of light is 9 : 1 . The intensities of the used light
sources are in ratio
(a) 3 : 1 (b) 4 : 1
(c) 9 : 1 (d) 10 : 1
17. A conducting sphere of radius 10 cm has unknown
charge. If the electric field at a distance 20 cm from
the centre of the sphere is 1.2 × 103 N C −1 and points
radially inwards. The net charge on the sphere is
(a) −4.5 × 10−9 C (b) 4.5 × 109 C
−9
(c) −5.3 × 10 C (d) 5.3 × 109 C
18. A ball bounces to 80 % of its original height. What
fraction of its mechanical energy is lost in each
bounce ?
(a) 20 % (b) 25 %
(c) 26 % (d) 30 %
19. Which of the following statements is incorrect ?
(a) Displacement is independent of the choice of
origin of the axis
(b) Displacement may or may not be equal to the
distance travelled
(c) When a particle returns to its starting point, its
displacement is not zero
(d) Displacement does not tell the nature of the
actual motion of a particle between the points.
20. A convex lens of focal length 15 cm is placed on a
plane mirror. An object is placed at 30 cm from the
lens . The image is
(a) real and formed at 30 cm in front of the mirror
(b) real and formed at 30 cm behind the mirror
(c) real and formed at 10 cm in front of the mirror
(d) virtual and formed at 10 cm behind the mirror
21. A constant retarding force of 50 N is applied to a
body of mass 10 kg moving initially with a speed of
10 m s −1 . The body comes to rest after
(a) 2 s (b) 4 s
(c) 6 s (d) 8 s
22. Which of the following statements is incorrect ?
(a) Kinetic energy may be zero, positive or negative
(b) Power, energy and work are all scalars
(c) Potential energy may be zero, positive or negative
(d) Ballistic pendulum is a device for measuring the
speed of bullets
23. An LED is constructed from a p-n junction diode
using GaAsP. The energy gap is 1.9 eV . The
wavelength of the light emitted will be equal to
(a) 10.4 × 10−26 m (b) 654 nm
(c) 654 Å (d) 654 × 10−11 m
24. The wavelength of the first line of Lyman series is
1215 Å, the wavelength of first line of Balmer series
will be
(a) 4545 Å (b) 5295 Å
(c) 6561 Å (d) 6750 Å
25. The mass of 73Li is 0.042 amu less than the sum of
masses of its constituents. The binding energy per
nucleon is
(a) 5.586 MeV (b) 10.522 MeV
(c) 2.433 MeV (d) 3.739 MeV
26. Pressure of gas at constant volume is proportional to
(a) total internal energy of the gas
(b) average kinetic energy of the molecules
(c) average potential energy of the molecules
(d) total energy of the gas
27. A batsman hits back a ball of mass 0.15 kg straight in
the direction of the bowler without changing its initial
speed of 12 m s −1 . If the ball moves linearly, then
the impulse imparted to the ball is
(a) 1.8 N s (b) 2.8 N s
(c) 3.6 N s (d) 4.2 N s
28. A sound is produced by plucking a string in a musical
instrument, then
(a) the velocity of wave in the string is equal to the
velocity of sound in the string
(b) the frequency of the wave in the string is equal to
the frequency of the sound produced
(c) the wave in the string is progressive
(d) the tension in the string varies from point to point
29. The weight of a body on the surface of the earth is 45 PHYSICS Part - B
N. What is the gravitational force on it due to the
earth at a height equal to half the radius of the earth ? 36. An ideal inductor is in turn put across 220 V, 50 Hz
(a) 35 N (b) 20 N (c) 18 N (d) 40 N and 220 V, 100 Hz supplies. The current flowing
through it in the two cases will be
30. The dimensions of Planck’s constant are the same as (a) equal (b) different
that of (c) zero (d) infinite
(a) linear impulse (b) work
(c) linear momentum (d) angular momentum 37. A solid sphere of mass m and radius R is rotating
about its diameter. A solid cylinder of the same mass
31. Young’s modulus of the material of a wire is Y. On and same radius is also rotating about its geometrical
pulling the wire by a force F, the increase in its length axis with an angular speed twice that of the sphere.
is x. The potential energy of the stretched wire is The ratio of their kinetic energies of rotation
1 1
(a) 𝐹𝑥 (b) 𝑌𝑥 (Esphere /Ecylinder ) will be
2 2
1 (a) 2 : 3 (b) 1 : 5
(c) 𝐹𝑥 2 (d) None of these
2 (c) 1 : 4 (d) 3 : 1

32. Which of the following statement is not true about 38. Which of the following statements in not correct
angle of contact ? (a) Whenever the amount of magnetic flux linked
(a) The value of angle of contact for pure water and with a circuit changes, an emf is induced in the circuit
glass is zero (b) The induced emf lasts so long as the change in
(b) Angle of contact increases with increase in magnetic flux continues
temperature of liquid (c) The direction of induced emf is given by Lenz’s
(c) If the angle of contact of a liquid and a solid law
surface is less than 900 , then the liquid spreads on the (d) Lenz’s law is a consequence of the law of
surface of solid conservation of momentum
(d) Angle of contact depend upon the inclination of
the solid surface to the liquid surface 39. An electric dipole is placed at an angle of 300 with an
electric field of intensity 2 × 105 N C −1. It
33. If one assumes that the gravitational force due to the experiences a torque equal to 4 N m . The charge on
earth decreases in proportion to the inverse square of the dipole if the dipole length is 2 cm is
the distance from the centre of the earth, then which (a) 8 mC (b) 4 mC
of the following relation between 𝑎𝑚 (centripetal (c) 6 mC (d) 2 mC
acceleration of moon), 𝑅𝑚 (distance of the moon from
centre of the earth), g (acceleration due to gravity on 40. Four identical mirrors are made to stand vertically to
the surface of the earth) and 𝑅𝐸 (radius of earth) is form a square arrangement as shown in a top view.
correct A ray starts from the midpoint M of mirror AD and
𝑔 𝑅𝑚 𝑔 𝑅𝑚 2 after two reflections reaches corner D. Then, angle 𝜃
(a) = (b) =( )
𝑎𝑚 𝑅𝐸 𝑎𝑚 𝑅𝐸
−2 must be
𝑔 𝑅𝐸
(c) = −2 (d) Both (b) and (c)
𝑎𝑚 𝑅𝑚

34. The ratio of energy stored in a capacitor and energy

dissipated during charging a capacitor with a source
voltage is
(a) 1 : 1 (b) 1 : 2
(c) 2 : 1 (d) 1 : 3

35. The equation of a progressive wave can be given by (a) tan−1(0.75) (b) cot −1 (0.75)
𝑦 = 15 sin(660𝜋𝑡 + 0.02𝜋𝑥) cm. The frequency of (c) sin−1 (0.75) (d) cos −1 (0.75)
the wave is
(a) 330 Hz (b) 342 Hz 41. Which of the following independent quantities is not
(c) 365 Hz (d) 660 Hz used to specify the earth’s magnetic field ?
(a) Magnetic declination (𝜃)
(b) Magnetic dip (𝛿)
(c) Horizontal component of earth’s field (𝐵𝐻 )
(d) Vertical component of earth’s field (𝐵𝑉 )
42. A resistor is marked with the rings coloured brown, 50. The molecule of a given mass of a gas have root mean
black, green and gold. The resistance in ohm is square speeds of 100 m s −1 at 270 C and 1
(a) (3.5 × 105 ± 5%) (b) (1.10 × 105 ± 10%) atmospheric pressure. The root mean square speeds
6
(c) (8 × 10 ± 5%) (d) (1 × 106 ± 5%) (in m s −1 ) of the molecules of the gas at 1270 C and 2
atmospheric pressure is
43. If a gas is compressed adiabatically by doing work of 200 100 400 200
(a) (b) (c) (d)
150 J, the change in internal energy of the gas is √3 √3 3 3

(a) 100 J (b) 150 J

CHEMISTRY Part - A
(c) 200 J (d) 250 J
51. Which set does not show correct matching
44. The charge on 3 µF capacitor shown in the figure is
according to modern periodic table ?
(a) 𝐶𝑟 = [𝐴𝑟] 3𝑑 5 4𝑠1 ; element belongs to 6th
group
(b) 𝐹𝑒 2+ = [𝐴𝑟] 3𝑑 6 ; element belongs to 8th group
(c) 𝑆𝑐 3+ = [𝑁𝑒] 3𝑠2 3𝑝 6 ; element belongs to
zero/eighteen group
(d) All of these
(a) 2 µC (b) 10 µC (c) 6 µC (d) 8 µC
52. What will be ∆𝐻 for the reaction,
45. Which of the following phenomenon is used by the
CH2 Cl2 → C + 2H + 2Cl ?
musicians to tune their musical instruments ?
(a) Interference (b) Diffraction (B.E. of C⸺ H and C ⸺ Cl bonds are 416 kJ mol−1
(c) Beats (d) Polarisation and 325 kJ mol−1 respectively)
(a) 832 kJ (b) 1482 kJ
46. A rocket with a lift-off mass 2 × 104 kg is blasted (c) 650 kJ (d) 1855 kJ
upwards with an initial acceleration of 5 m s −2 . The
53.
initial thrust of the blast is (Take g = 10 m s −2 )
(a) 2 × 105 N (b) 3 × 105 N
5
(c) 4 × 10 N (d) 5 × 105 N

47. The escape velocity of a body from the Earth depends

on
(i) the mass of the body
(ii) the location from where it is projected
(iii) the direction of projection
(iv) the height of the location from where the body is
launched
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (iii) (d) (iii) and (iv)

48. The radius of electron orbit and the speed of electron

in the ground state of hydrogen atom is 5.30 ×
10−11 m and 2.2 × 106 m s −1 respectively, then the
orbital period of this electron in first excited state will
be
(a) 1.21 × 10−14 s (b) 1.21 × 10−12 s
54. When 3 moles of ethyl alcohol are mixed with 3
(c) 1.21 × 10−10 s (d) 1.21 × 10−15 s
moles of acetic acid, 2 moles of ester are formed at
equilibrium. According to the equation,
49. A light of wavelength 600 nm is incident on a metal
CH3 COOH(𝑙) + C2 H5 OH(𝑙) ⇌
surface. When light of wavelength 400 nm is incident,
CH3 COOC2 H5 (𝑙) + H2 O(𝑙)
the maximum kinetic energy of the emitted
The value of the equilibrium constant for the
photoelectrons is doubled. The work function of the
reaction is
metal is
(a) 4 (b) 2/9
(a) 1.03 eV (b) 2.11 eV
(c) 2 (d) 4/9
(c) 4.14 eV (d) 2.43 eV
55. The amount of a chlorine evolved by passing 2 A of 62. Which of the following is an outer orbital complex
current in an aqueous solution of NaCl for 30 and exhibits paramagnetic behaviour ?
minutes is (a) [Ni(NH3 )6 ]2+ (b) [Zn(NH3 )6 ]2+
3+
(a) 2.64 g (b) 1.32 g (c) [Cr(NH3 )6 ] (d) [Co(NH3 )6 ]3+
(c) 3.62 g (d) 4.22 g
63. In a reaction, 2𝑥 → 𝑦, the concentration of x
56. The IUPAC name of the compound having formula decreases from 3.0 M to 1.5 M in 4 min
The rate of the reaction is
(a) 0.187 M min−1 (b) 1.87 M min−1
(c) 3.75 × 10 M min (d) 0.75 M min−1
−1 −1

64. The activation energy in a chemical reaction is

defined as
(a) 3,3,3 – trimethylprop -1 - ene (a) The difference in energies of reactants and
(b) 1,1,1 – trimethylprop – 2 – ene products
(c) 3,3 – dimethylpent – 1 – ene (b) the sum of energies of reactants and products
(d) 2,2 – dimethylbut – 3 – ene (c) the difference in energy of intermediate complex
with the average energy of reactants and products
57. [Co(NH3 )5 SO4 ]Br and [Co(NH3 )5 Br]SO4 are (d) the difference in energy of intermediate complex
(a) Linkage isomers (b) Coordination isomers and the average energy of reactants.
(c) Ionisation isomers (d) Solvate isomers
65. What will be the molarity of 30 mL of 0.5 M H2 SO4
58. Ostwald’s process for the manufacture of nitric acid solution diluted to 500 mL ?
involves the reaction, (a) 0.3 M (b) 0.03 M
4NH3 (𝑔) + 5O2 (𝑔) ⇌ 4NO(𝑔) + 6H2 O(𝑙); (c) 3 M (d) 0.103 M
∆𝐻 = +𝑄kJ
Which of the following factors will not affected the 66. Potassium dichromate is prepared from
concentration of NH3 at equilibrium ? (a) chromate obtained by the fusion of chromate ore
(a) Addition of catalyst with sodium carbonate in free access of air
(b) Decrease of temperature (b) pyrolusite which is fused with potassium
(c) Increase of pressure hydroxide in the presence of air
(d) Increase of volume (c) iron pyrites by the fusion with potassium
carbonate in presence of moisture
59. The number of oxygen atoms present in 1 mole of (d) none of these
oxalic acid dehydrate is
(a) 6 × 1023 (b) 6.023 × 1034 67. Name the product which is formed by the oxidation
23
(c) 7.22 × 10 (d) 36.13 × 1023 of glucose and gluconic acid with nitric acid.
(a) Rhamnose (b) Saccharic acid
60. During the electrolysis of dilute sulphuric acid, the (c) Citric acid (d) Oxalic acid
following process is possible at anode .
+
(a) 2H2 O(𝑙) → O2(𝑔) + 4H(𝑎𝑞) + 4𝑒 − 68. 4.28 g of NaOH is dissolved in water and the
(b) 2SO2− 2− − solution is made to 250 cc. What will be the
4(𝑎𝑞) → 𝑆2 O8(𝑎𝑞) + 2𝑒
+ − molarity of the solution ?
(c) H2 O(𝑙) → H(𝑎𝑞) + OH(𝑎𝑞)
1
(a) 0.615 mol L−1 (b) 0.428 mol L−1
−
(d) H2 O(𝑙) + 𝑒 − → H2(𝑔) + OH(𝑎𝑞) (c) 0.99 mol L −1 (d) 0.301 mol L−1
2

61. Alkyl halides react with metallic sodium in dry ether

producing
(a) alkanes with same number of carbon atoms
(b) alkanes with double the number of carbon atoms
(c) alkenes with triple the number of carbon atoms
(d) alkenes with same number of carbon atoms
69. Which of the following products does not match 74. Primary amines on reaction with nitrous acid form
correctly with the reaction ? . For the test of primary amines
reaction is used. Primary amines are
basic than ammonia
(a) carboxylic acids, Hoffmann, less
(b) alcohols, carbylamines, less
(c) alcohols, carbylamines, more
(d) hydroxylamines, carbylamines, less

75. What will be the osmotic pressure in pascals exerted

by a solution prepared by dissolving 1.0 g of
polymer of molar mass 150,000 in 500 mL of water
at 370 C ?
(a) 30.96 (b) 34.36
(c) 68.72 (d) 48.25

76. Match the column I with Column II and mark the

appropriate choice
Column I Column II
(A) Pentose sugar (i) Ascorbic
in DNA
70. In the following sequence of reactions, (B) Nucleic acid (ii) Uracil
(C) RNA (iii) Genetic material
(D) Vitamin (iv) Furanose structure

The compound Q formed will be (a) (A) → (iv), (B) → (iii), (C) → (ii), (D) → (i)
(a) aniline (b) (A) → (iii), (B) → (ii), (C) → (iv), (D) → (i)
(b) phenol (c) (A) → (ii), (B) → (iii), (C) → (iv), (D) → (i)
(c) benzaldehyde (d) (A) → (i), (B) → (ii), (C) → (iii), (D) → (iv)
(d) benzene sulphonic acid
77. A solution containing 2.675 g of a cobalt (III)
71. The enthalpy of fusion of water is 1.435 kcal/mol . chloride ammonia complex (molar mass = 267.5 g
The molar entropy change for the melting of ice at mol−1 ) is passed through a cation exchanger. The
00 C is chloride ions obtained in solution were treated with
(a) 10.52 cal/mol K (b) 21.04 cal/mol K excess of AgNO3 to give 4.78 g of AgCl (molar
(c) 5.260 cal/mol K (d) 0.526 cal/mol K mass = 143.5 g mol−1 ) . The formula of the
complex is (At. Mass of Ag = 108 u)
72. Select the acid(s) which cannot be prepared by (a) [CoCl(NH3 )5 ]Cl2 (b) [Co(NH3 )6 ]Cl3
Grignard reagent ? (c) [CoCl2 (NH3 )4 ]Cl (d) [CoCl3 (NH3 )3 ]
(a) Acetic acid (b) Succinic acid
(c) Formic acid (d) All of these 78. When excess of aqueous KCN solution is added to
an aqueous solution of copper sulphate, the complex
73. Assertion : Aromatic aldehydes and ketones [Cu(CN)4 ]2− is formed. On passing H2 S gas through
undergo electrophilic substitution reaction at meta- this solution no precipitate of CuS is formed because
position. (a) sulphide ions cannot replace CN− ions
Reason : Carbonyl group activates the ring towards (b) [Cu(CN)4 ]2− does not give Cu2+ ion in the
electrophilic substitution reaction. solution
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is (c) sulphide ions from H2 S do not form complexes
the correct explanation of assertion. (d) sulphide ions cannot replace sulphate ions from
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is copper sulphate solution
not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false
(d) If both assertion and reason are false
79. Which species is acting as a reducing agent in the 84. The reaction,
following reaction ? H3 O+
𝑅CN + SnCl2 + HCl → 𝑅CH = NH → 𝑅CHO
14H + + Cr2 O2−
7 + 3Ni → 2Cr
3+ + 7H O + 3Ni2+
2
2− is known as
(a) Cr2 O7 (b) Ni
(a) Etard reaction
(c) H + (d) H2 O (b) Haloform reaction
(c) Gattermann – Koch reaction
80. An alcohol X when treated with hot conc. H2 SO4 (d) Stephen reaction
gave an alkene Y with formula C4 H8 . This alkene
on ozonolysis gives single product with molecular 85. Match the column I with column II and mark the
formula C2 H4 O. The alcohol is appropriate choice
(a) butan-1-ol
(b) butan-2-ol Column I Column II
(c) 2-methylpropan-1-ol
(d) 2, 2-dimethylbutan-1-ol (a) Reaction of (i) Sandmeyer
benzenediazonium reaction
81. The major product of the following reaction is : chloride with
cuprous
salt dissolved in the
halogen acid
(b) Reaction of (ii) Gatterman
benzenediazonium reaction
chloride with
halogen acid in the
presence of
copper powder
(c) Reaction of amines (iii) Hinsberg's
with reaction
chloroform
(d) Reaction of amines (iv) Carbylamine
82. Which of the following shapes of SF4 is more stable with reaction
and why ? benzenesulphonyl
chloride

(a) (A) → (i), (B) → (ii), (C) → (iii), (D) → (iv)

(b) (A) → (iv), (B) → (iii), (C) → (ii), (D) → (i)
(c) (A) → (iii), (B) → (iv), (C) → (i), (D) → (ii)
(d) (A) → (i), (B) → (ii), (C) → (iv), (D) → (iii)

(a) (i), due to 3 lp – lp repulsion at 900

(b) (ii), due to 2 lp – lp repulsion
(c) Both are equally stable due to 2 lp – lp repulsion
(d) Both are unstable since SF4 has tetrahedral
shape
83. The IUPAC name of

(a) 1- chloro – 1 – oxo – 2,3 – dimethylpentane

(b) 2 – ethyl – 3- methylbutanoyl chloride
(c) 2,3 – dimethylpentanoyl chloride
(d) 3,4 – dimethylpentanoyl chloride
CHEMISTRY Part - B 91. Consider the reaction given below.
?
CH2 = CH⸺CHO → CH2 = CH⸺CH2 ⸺OH
86. Which one of the following orders represents the Which of the following is the suitable reagent for
correct sequence of the increasing basic nature of the conversion of following reaction ?
the given oxides?
(a) NaBH4 (b) Ni/H2
(a) Al2O3 < MgO < Na2O < K2O
(c) Zn/Hg/HCl (d) Red P + Hi
(b)MgO < K2O < Al2O3 <Na2O
(C)Na2O < K2O < MbO < Al2O3
92. Ethers have lower boiling points than their
(d) K2O < Na2O < Al2O3 < MgO
corresponding isomeric alcohols because of
(a) Hydrogen bonding in alcohols that is absent in
87. If hydrogen and oxygen are mixed and kept in the
ethers due to low polarity
same vessel at room temperature, the reaction does
(b) Hydrogen bonding in ethers due to high polarity
not take place to form water because
(c) Insolubility of ethers in water due to less
(a) activation energy for the reaction is very high at
polarity
room temperature
(d) Inertness of ethers as compared to alcohols
(b) molecules have no proper orientation to react to
form water
(c) the frequency of collision is not high enough for 93. Which of the following compounds do not undergo
the reaction to take place aldol condensation ?
(d) no catalyst is present in the reaction mixture.

88. Oxygen occurs in nature as a mixture of isotopes

16 17
O, O and 18O having atomic masses of 15.995 u,
16.999 u and 17.999 u and relative abundance of
99.763 %, 0.037 % and 0.200 % respectively. What
is the average atomic mass of oxygen ?
(a) 15.999 u (b) 16.999 u
(c) 17.999 u (d) 18.999 u

89. Consider the following reaction,

94. The correct representation of
4-hydroxyl-2-methylpent-2-en-1-al is

What is I and II in the above reaction ?

I II
(a) Phthalimide ; Ethanolic KOH
(b) Phthalamide ; Ethanolic KOH
(c) Phthalimide ; HCl 95. The van’t Hoff factor of 0.005 M aqueous solution
(d) Phthalamide ; HCl of KCl is 1.95. The degree of ionization of KCl is
(a) 0.95 (b) 0.97
(c) 0.94 (d) 0.96
90. Ether is obtained from ethyl alcohol in presence of
H2 SO4 at
(a) 113 K (b) 443 K
(c) 413 K (d) 213 K
96. Given, Ag(NH3 )+ +
2 ⇌ Ag + 2NH3 ; 103. Match column I with column II and select the
𝐾𝐶 = 6.2 × 10−8 and 𝐾𝑠𝑝 of AgCl is 1.8 × 10−10 correct option from the given codes.
at 298 K. Calculate concentration of the complex in
1 M aqueous ammonia, if ammonia is added to a Column I Column II
water solution containing excess of AgCl(s) only
(a) 0.539 M (b) 0.0539 M A Division of nucleus (i) Interphase
(c) 0.641 M (d) 0.0641 M
B Division of cytoplasm (ii) Cytokinesis
97. Thermodynamics, a process is called reversible C DNA replication (iii) Syncytium
when Karyokinesis not
D (iv) Karyokinesis
(a) surroundings and system change into each other followed by cytokinesis
(b) there is no boundary between system and
surroundings (a) A – (ii), B – (iv), C – (i), D – (iii)
(c) the surroundings are always in equilibrium with (b) A – (iv), B – (ii), C – (i), D – (iii)
the system (c) A – (iv), B – (ii), C – (iii), D – (i)
(d) the system changes into the surroundings (d) A – (iii), B – (ii), C – (iv), D – (i)
spontaneously
104. Which of the following statements about dark
98. The equation reactions is correct?
3MnO2− + −
4 + 4H → 2MnO4 + MnO2 + 2H2 O (a) They occur in darkness
represents (b) They are not light dependent completely
(a) reduction (c) They are dependent upon the products
(b) disproportionation synthesised during light reactions.
(c) oxidation in acidic medium (d) All of these
(d) reduction in acidic medium
105. Which of the following is a correct match of algal
99. For the reaction 4NH3 + 5O2 → 4NO + 6H2 O, if the class with its characteristic reserve food ?
rate of disappearance of NH3 is 3.6 × (a) Chlorophyceae – Starch
10−3 mol L−1 s −1, what is the rate of formation of (b) Phaeophyceae – Mannitol, laminarin
H2 O ? (c) Rhodophyceae – Floridean starch
(a) 5.4 × 10−3 mol L−1 s −1 (d) All of these
(b) 3.6 × 10−3 mol L−1 s −1
(c) 4 × 10−4 mol L−1 s −1 106. Select the incorrectly matched pair.
(d) 0.6 × 10−4 mol L−1 s −1
(a) End products of alcoholic – Ethanol + CO2
fermentation
100. In the reaction :
3Br2 + 6CO2− − −
3 + 3H2 O → 5Br + BrO3 + 6HCO3
−
(b) End products of lactic – Lactic acid + 𝐂𝐎𝟐
(a) Bromine is reduced and carbonate ion is oxidised acid fermentation
(b) Bromine undergoes disproportionation
(c) Glycolysis – Cytoplasm
(c) Bromine is reduced and water is oxidised
(d) Only water is oxidized to carbonic acid (d) Key product of glycolysis – Pyruvic acid

BOTANY Part - A 107. Which of the following represents the edible swollen
portion of Allium cepa ?
101. Green algae usually have a rigid cell wall made of an (a) Aerial stem (b) Roots
inner layer of and an outer (c) Internodes (d) Leaf bases
layer of
(a) cellulose, cellulose (b) pectose, pectose 108. TCA cycle is named so because
(c) pectose, cellulose (d) cellulose, pectose (a) it has various acids in its pathway
(b) the first product is citric acid containing 3
102. In endarch condition of xylem, protoxylem lies carboxylic groups
of metaxylem (c) it begins with condensation of oxaloacetic acid a
(a) on inner side tricarboxylic acid
(b) on outer side (d) none of these
(c) both on inner and outer side
(d) in centre
109. Identify the missing words (A, B, C and D) and 114. Match column I with column II and select the
select the correct option correct option from the given codes

Column I Column II
Inflore- Stamens/ Gyno-
Family Flower A Marginal (i) Sunflower, marigold
scence tepals ecium
Zygo- B Parietal (ii) Pea
Fabaceae A 10 D
morphic C Axile (iii) Mustard, Argemone
Solitary, Hibiscus, tomato,
Bicar- D Free central (iv)
Solanaceae axillary B 5 lemon
pellary
or cymose E Basal (v) Dianthus, Primrose
Solitary,
Lilliaceae cymose or
Actino-
C
Tricar- (a) A – (ii), B – (iii), C – (iv), D – (v), E – (i)
racemose
morphic pellary (b) A – (i), B – (iii), C – (ii), D – (v), E – (iv)
(c) A – (i), B – (ii), C – (iii), D – (iv), E – (v)
(d) A – (iii), B – (ii), C – (iv), D – (v), E – (i)
A B C D
(a) Racemose Actinomorphic 3+3 Monocarpellary 115. X is a structure found in prokaryotes that is
(b) Racemose Actinomorphic 5 Bicarpellary concerned with storage of reserve food material like
3+3 cyanophycean granules.
(c) Cymose Zygomorphic Tricarpellary
X could be
(d) Cymose Actinomorphic 5 Multicarpellary (a) Gas vacuole (b) Plasmid
(c) Inclusion body (d) mesosome
110. Identify the phytohormone responsible for the given 116. Read the following statements about the functions of
functions. auxin and choose the correct option
I. Horizontal growth of seedings (a) Initiates rooting in stem cutting
II. Swelling of the axis and apical hook formation (b) Promotes flowering in pineapples
in dicot seed (c) Controls xylem differentiation
III. Promoting senescence and abscission of leaves (d) All of the above
and flowers
IV. Highly effective in fruit ripening 117. The first restriction endonuclease to be discovered is
V. Promotes rapid internode/petiole elongation in (a) Hind III (b) Hind II
deep water rice plants (c) Eco RI (d) Eco RII
Choose the correct option
(a) ABA (b) GA 118. Bt toxin kills insects by
(c) Cytokinin (d) Ethylene (a) inhibiting protein synthesis
(b) generating excessive heat
111. Restriction enzyme belongs to which class of (c) creating pores in the midgut epithelial cells,
enzymes ? leading to cell swelling and lysis
(a) Ligases (b) Exonucleases (d) obstructing a biosynthetic pathway
(c) Nucleases (d) Proteases
119. Refer to the given characteristics of some flowers
112. Pollen tablets are available in the market for (i) Light and non-sticky pollen grains
(a) in vitro fertilisation (b) breeding programmes (ii) Exserted stigmas and anthers
(c) supplementing food (d) ex situ conservation (iii) Large, often feathery stigmas
(iv) Colourless, odourless and nectarless
113. Read the following statements about the phase of (v) Common in grasses
elongation. Above features are the characteristics of
I. It is characterized by increases vacuolation (a) Anemophilous flower
II. It shows cell enlargement (b) Hydrophilous flower
III. In this phase , new cell wall is deposited (c) Entomophilous flower
IV. Growth is maximum (d) Zoophilous flower
Choose the option containing the correct statements
(a) III, I and II (b) I, II and III
(c) II, IV and III (d) I, II, III and IV
120. Which of the following statements is incorrect ?
(a) Average temperature decreases progressively
from plains to the mountain tops
(b) Average temperature decreases progressively
from the equator towards the poles
(c) Temperature affects the kinetics of enzymes and
through it the basal metabolism of organisms
(d) None of these
121. Which of the given statements are true
(i) During the development of a dicot embryo,
heart-shaped embryo is followed by globular
embryo
(ii) The part of embryonal axis above the level of
cotyledons is epicotyl, while the part below the
level of cotyledons is hypocotyl
(iii) Monocot seeds possess a single cotyledon
represented by scutellum
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iii) (d) (i) , (ii) and (ii)
122. Three levels of biodiversity are
(a) genetic diversity, species diversity and
ecological diversity
(b) species diversity, ecological diversity and habitat
diversity
(c) geographical diversity, genetic diversity and
habitat diversity
(d) ecological diversity, species diversity and
community diversity
123. Vertical distribution of different species occupying
different levels in dense vegetation is called
(a) Stratification (b) species composition
(c) standing crop (d) trophic structure
124. Which of the following options is correct ?
(a) Transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the
stigma of the same flower – Autogamy
(b) Transfer of pollen grains from the anther of one
flower to the stigma of another flower of the
same plant – Geitonogamy
(c) Transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the
stigma of a genetically different plant of same
species – Xenogamy
(d) All of these
125. Cryopreservation of gametes of threatened species in
viable and fertile condition can be referred to as
(a) in situ conservation of biodiversity
(b) advanced ex situ conservation of biodiversity
(c) in situ conservation of biodiversity
(d) in situ cryopreservation of biodiversity
126. Assertion (A): Heterospory and retention of female
gametophyte are responsible for origin of seed habit
in Selaginella.
Reason (R) : Psilotum is a living fossil.
(a) Both A and R are correct; R is the correct
explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are correct; R is not the correct
explanation of A
(c) A is correct; R is incorrect
(d) A is incorrect; R is correct
127. Study the following characteristics.
I. Epidermis with cuticle, trichomes and few
stomata
II. Parenchymatous cells with large intercellular
spaces from the pith in the centre
III. Pericycle presents in the inner side of
endodermis and above phloem in semilunar
patches of sclerenchyma
IV. Vascular bundle conjoint, open, in a ring with
endarch protoxylem.
Above given features describe which of the
following plant part ?
(a) Monocot stem (b) Monocot root
(c) Dicot stem (d) Dicot root
128. Plants, bacteria, fungi and animals whose genes have
been altered by manipulation are called
(a) genetically modified organisms
(b) hybrid organisms
(c) pest resistant organisms
(d) insect resistant organisms
129. cry IIAb and cryIAc produce toxins that control
(a) cotton bollworms and corn borer, respectively
(b) corn borer only
(c) cotton bollworms only
(d) nematodes and tobacco budworms, respectively
130. Assertion : In prokaryotes, mitochondria are absent.
Reason : In prokaryotes, mesosomes are present
which help in resoiration.
(a) Both A and R are correct; R is the correct
explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are correct; R is not the correct
explanation of A
(c) A is correct; R is incorrect
(d) A is incorrect; R is correct
131. Select the option which correctly identifies the
similarity between mitosis and meiosis cell division.
(a) Pairing of homologous chromosomes
(b) Required in all types of cells
(c) S – phase occurs before initiation
(d) Separation of paired chromosomes
132. Schleiden and Schwann’s cell theory could not 137. Study the given flow chart of cyclic
explain photophosphorylation and select the correct answer
(a) cell formed from pre-existing cell for A, B, C
(b) how new cells were formed
(c) body of animals are composed of cells
(d) None of the above

133. Which of the following is wrong for fungi ?

(a) They are eukaryotic
(b) All fungi possess a purely cellulose cell wall
(c) They are heterotrophic
(d) They are both unicellular and multicellular

134. Bryophytes are also called ‘amphibians of the plant

kingdom’ because
(a) water is essential for reproduction
(b) they occur only in water A B C
(c) these plants can live in soil, but are depends (a) PS I 𝑒 − acceptor P680
on water for sexual reproduction (b) PS I 𝒆− acceptor 𝐏𝟕𝟎𝟎
(d) water is essential for spore formation
(c) PS II Cytochrome P700
135. Which of the statement(s) given below is/are correct (d) PS II Cytochrome P680
?
(a) Kingdom – Protista forms a link between 138. The two main techniques that gave birth to modern
monerans and the other organisms like plants, biotechnology are
animal and fungi I. bioprocess engineering
(b) Protists reproduce asexually and sexually by a II. genetic engineering
process involving cell fusion and zygote formation III. human genome engineering
(c) Being eukaryotes , the protistan cell body IV. molecular biology
contains a well – defined nucleus and other Choose the correct option
membrane bound organelles (a) I and II (b) I and III
(d) All of the above (c) II and IV (d) II and III

BOTANY Part - B 139. Select the mismatched pair out o the following
(a) Syconus – Ficus carica
136. In (i) type of inflorescence, main axis (b) Sorosis – Ananas comosus
terminates in a flower, hence is limited in growth (c) Pome – Mangefera indica
and flowers are borne in (ii) (d) Cremocarp – Coriandrum sativum
succession.
140. Match column I containing transgenic organisms
(i) (ii) with their specific characteristics in column II and
select the correct option from the given codes
(a) racemose acropetal
(b) racemose basipetal
Column I Column II
(c) cymose acropetal
A Golden rice (i) Protein-enriched milk
(d) cymose basipetal
B Bt cotton (ii) Increased shelf life
C Flavr Savr (iii) Enriched with vitamin A
High yield and pest
D Rosie cow (iv)
resistant

(a) A – (iii), B – (iv), C – (ii), D – (i)

(b) A – (iii), B – (ii), C – (iv), D – (i)
(c) A – (ii), B – (iv), C – (iii), D – (i)
(d) A – (i), B – (iv), C – (ii), D – (iii)
141. The growth of roots and stems in length with the
help of apical meristem is called 149. Consider the following statements
(a) primary growth (b) lateral growth I. Mesosomes and chromatophores are
(c) secondary growth (d) intercalary growth membranous structures in the prokaryotic cells
II. Chromatophores are pigment containing
142. Pollen grains can be stored for several years in liquid structures in cyanobacteria
nitrogen having temperature of Select the correct option.
(a) −𝟏𝟗𝟔𝟎 𝐂 (b) −800 C (a) I is true, II is false (b) Both I and II are false
0
(c) −120 C (d) −1600 C (c) I is false, II is true (d) Both I and II are
true
143. ‘Omnis cellula-e cellula’ i.e., new cell arises from
pre-existing cells; this statement was given by 150. Assertion (A) : In C3 cycle, the first stable
(a) Schleiden and Schwann compound is 3C compound
(b) Rudolf Virchow Reason (R) : In C4 plants, Calvin cycle is absent
(c) Robert Brown (a) If both A and R are true and R is the correct
(d) Robert Hoole explanation of A
(b) If both A and R are true but R is not the correct
144. Niche overlap indicates explanation of A
(a) mutualism between two species (c) If A is true, but R is false
(b) active cooperation between two species (d) If A is false, but R is true
(c) two different parasites on the same host
(d) sharing of one or more resources between the
two species ZOOLOGY Part - A

151. Male frog can be distinguished from female frog by

145. During the process of decomposition
the presence of
(a) CO2 is consumed and O2 is released
(1) vocal sacs and copulatory pad on the first
(b) 𝐎𝟐 is consumed and 𝐂𝐎𝟐 is released
digit of the forelimb
(c) CO2 is consumed and H2 O is released
(2) a neck and tail is absent
(d) none of these
(3) the hindlimb ends in the five digits
(4) eyes are bulged and covered by the nictitating
146. A typical monocotyledonous root is characterized by
membrane
(a) usually more than six xylem bundles
(b) large and well developed pith
152. Which of the following statements is/are correct or
(c) no secondary growth
incorrect regarding Class Amphibia ?
(d) all of these
(i) Body is divisible into head and trunk. Tail is
present in some amphibians.
147. Which of the following statements are correct ?
(ii) Show respiration by gills, lungs and through
(i) Endothecium lies below epidermis
skin.
(ii) Fusion of egg with male gamete is called
(iii) Has scales in all its members
apogamy
(iv) Can lead dual life (aquatic and terrestrial)
(iii) Synergids are haploid
(v) Has eyelids
(iv) The point at which funicle touches the ovule is
(a) All are correct (b) (i) and (iv) are correct
raphe
(c) Only (iii) is incorrect (d) Only (ii) is incorrect
(a) (i) and (iv) (b) (i) and (ii)
(c) (i) and (iii) (d) (ii) and (iii)
153. The limbless amphibian is
(a) Ichthyophis (b) Hyla
148. In albuminous seeds, food is stored in
(c) Rana (d) Salamandra
and in non-albuminous seeds, it is stored in .
(a) endosperm, cotyledons
154. The flightless bird among the following is
(b) cotyledons, endosperm
(a) Columba (b) Neophron
(c) nucellus, cotyledons
(c) Struthio (d) Corvus
(d) endosperm, radicle
155. In which of the following , segmentation in the body
is first observed ?
(a) Aschelminthes (b) Arthropoda
(c) Annelida (d) Platyhelminthes
 160. Assertion : Competitive inhibitor is also called
156. Match column I with column II and select the substrate analogue.
correct option from the given codes. Reason : It resembles the enzymes in structure.
(a) Both A and R are correct; R is the correct
Column I Column II explanation of A
Intercellular ground (b) Both A and R are correct; R is not the correct
A GLUT - 4 (i) explanation of A
substance
B Antibody (ii) Enzyme (c) A is correct; R is incorrect
(d) A is incorrect; R is correct
C Collagen (iii) Hormone
D Trypsin (iv) Fights infectious agents 161. Which of the following would have the same O2
Enables glucose transport content ?
E Insulin (v) (a) Blood entering the lungs and blood leaving the
in cells
lungs
(a) A – (i), B – (ii), C – (iii), D – (iv), E – (v) (b) Blood entering the right side of the heart and
(b) A – (v), B – (iv), C – (i), D – (ii), E – (iii) blood leaving the right side of the heart
(c) A – (v), B – (iv), C – (iii), D – (ii), E – (i) (c) Blood entering the right side of the heart and
(d) A – (iii), B – (i), C – (iv), D – (v), E – (ii) blood leaving the left side of the heart
(d) Blood entering the tissue capillaries and blood
157. Which of the following statements are incorrect ? leaving the tissue capillaries
(i) Leucocytes disintegrate in spleen and liver.
(ii) RBCs, WBCs and blood platelets are produced 162. Which of the following is a part of pectoral girdle ?
by bone marrow (a) Ilium (b) Ischium
(iii) Neutrophils are non-phagocytic in nature (c) Acetabulum (d) Glenoid cavity
(iv) Important function of lymphocytes is to
produce antibodies 163. Which of the following statements are correct ?
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) and (iv) (i) Renal vein takes blood away from kidney
(c) (i) and (iii) (d) (ii) and (iii) (ii) Urine gets diluted in ascending limb of loop of
Henle
158. Assertion : Neural signals through sympathetic (iii) Epithelial cells of Bowman’s capsule are called
nerves can increase the strength of ventricular podocyte
contraction. (iv) Ultrafiltrate/nephric filtrate is plasma minus
Reason : Parasympathetic neural signals proteins
synergistically act with sympathetic neural signal to (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) and (iii)
increase the cardiac output. (c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (i), (ii) , (iii) and (iv)
(a) Both A and R are correct; R is the correct
explanation of A 164. In the following table of human ABO blood groups,
(b) Both A and R are correct; R is not the correct fill up the blanks (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) from the
explanation of A operations given below.
(c) A is correct; R is incorrect
(d) A is incorrect; R is correct
Blood Antigens Antibody Donor
group on RBCs in Plasma groups
159. Read the following statements and select the correct
option. A A Anti-B A, O
Statement 1 : The SA node acts as pacemaker B B Anti-A B, O
Statement 2 :The SA node is located in the wall of
the right atrium near the interatrial septum. AB AB (ii) A, B, AB, O
(a) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct. O (i) (iii) (iv)
(b) Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is
incorrect (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(c) Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is correct (a) Nil Nil Nil O
(d) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect
(b) Nil Nil Anti-A, B AB
(c) Nil Anti-A, B Nil O
(d) Nil Nil Anti-A, B O
165. A cup-shaped bone that covers the knee ventrally is 172. Choose the incorrect pair.
called (a) Leydig cells – Secret testicular hormone
(a) stapes (b) patella (b) Vasa efferentia and epididymis – Accessory
(c) malleus (d) incus ducts
(c) Vas deferens – Loops over the urinary bladder
166. Artificial insemination refers to (d) Ejaculatory duct – Vasa efferentia and
(a) artificial introduction of sperms from a donor seminal vesicle
into female vagina
(b) direct introduction of sperms into ovaries 173. Match column I with column II and select the
(c) transfer of sperms to into Fallopian tube of correct option from the given codes
surrogate
(d) transfer of sperms from husband/donor into a test Column I Column II
tube containing ova A Autosomal recessive (i) Down's
trait syndrome
167. When you hold your breath which of the following or monogolism
gas changes in blood would first lead to the urge to B Sex-linked recessive (ii) Phenylketonuria
breath ? trait
(a) Falling O2 concentration
(b) Rising 𝐂𝐎𝟐 concentration C Metabolic error (iii) Haemophilia
(c) Falling CO2 concentration linked to autosomal
(d) Rising CO2 and falling O2 concentration recessive trait
D Additional 21st (iv) Sickle cell
168. Assertion : The role of oxygen in the regulation of chromosome anaemia
respiratory rhythm is quite insignificant.
Reason : Increased pCO2 and H + concentration
inputs from chemoreceptors can active respiratory (a) A – (ii), B – (i), C – (iv), D – (iii)
rhythm centre to make necessary adjustments. (b) A – (iv), B – (i), C – (ii), D – (iii)
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and (c) A – (iv), B – (iii), C – (ii), D – (i)
reason is the correct explanation of assertion. (d) A – (iii), B – (iv), C – (i), D – (ii)
(b) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is
not the correct explanation of assertion. 174. Assisted reproductive technology , IVF involves
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false transfer of
(d) If assertion is false but reason is true (a) ovum into the Fallopian tube
(b) zygote into the Fallopian tube
169. Person with blood group AB is considered as (c) zygote into the uterus
universal recipient because he has (d) embryo with 16 blastomeres into the Fallopian
(a) Both A and B antigens on RBC, but no tube
antibodies
(b) Both A and B antibodies in the plasma 175. Mendel formulated the law of purity of gametes on
(c) No antigen on RBC and no antibodies in the the basis of
plasma (a) monohybrid cross (b) dihybrid cross
(d) Both A and B antigens in the plasma, but no (c) test cross (d) back cross
antibodies

170. Pneumotaxic centre which can moderate the functions 176. Which of the following hormones is not secreted by
of the respiratory rhythm centre is present in human placenta ?
(a) pons region of brain (a) hCG (b) Oestrogens
(b) thalamus (c) Progesterone (d) LH
(c) spinal cord
(d) right cerebral hemisphere 177. AGGTATCGCAT is a sequence from the coding
strand of a gene. What will be the corresponding
sequence of the transcribed mRNA ?
171. The amount of air that is normally inspired or expired (a) ACCUAUGCGAU (b) UGGTUTCGCAT
is called (c) AGGUAUCGCAU (d) UCCAUAGCGUA
(a) Residual volume (b) Vital capacity
(c) Tidal volume (d) Total capacity
178. F1 - progeny of a cross between pure tall and dwarf
plant is always
(a) tall (b) short
(c) intermediate (d) None of these
179. A molecule that can act as a genetic material must
fulfill the traits given below, except
(a) it should be able to express itself in the form of
‘Mendelian characters’
(b) it should be able to generate its replica
(c) it should be unstable structurally and
chemically
(d) it should provide the scope for slow changes that
are required for evolution
180. Following is given a randomly arranged list of
events that occur at neuromuscular junction to
trigger muscle contraction
(i) Receptor sites on sarcolemma
(ii) Nerve impulse
(iii) Release of Ca2+ from sarcoplasmic reticulum
(iv) The neurotransmitter acetylcholine is released
(v) Sarcomere shortern
(vi) Synaptic cleft
(vii) Spread of impulses over sarcolemma on T-
tubules
Which of the following gives the correct sequence of
these steps ?
(a) (ii) → (iv) → (i) → (vi) → (vii) → (iii) → (v)
(b) (ii) → (iv) → (vi) → (i) → (vii) → (iii) → (v)
(c) (i) → (ii) → (iii) → (iv) → (v) → (vi) → (vii)
(d) (vii) → (vi) → (v) → (iv) → (iii) → (ii) → (i)
181. Hormones are non-nutrient chemicals, which are
produced in trace amount and acts as
(a) intercellular messengers
(b) intracellular messengers
(c) extracellular messengers
(d) none of these
182. Which of the following pairs of hormones are not
antagonistic (having opposite effects) to each other ?
(a) Insulin Glucagon
(b) Aldosterone Atrial natriuretic factor
(c) Relaxin Inhibin
(d) Parathormone Calcitonin
183. The type of muscle present in our
(a) heart is involuntary and unstraited smooth
muscle
(b) intestine is striated and involuntary
(c) thigh is striated and voluntary
(d) upper arm is smooth muscle and fusiform in
shape
184. The protein whose removal enables myosin to bind
actin in smooth muscle is
(a) tropomyosin
(b) caldesmon
(c) myosin light chain kinase
(d) calmodulin
185. The thyroid gland is composed of
(a) follicles (b) stromal tissue
(c) trachea (d) Both (a) and (b)
ZOOLOGY Part - B
186. What will happen if the stretch receptors of the
urinary bladder wall are totally removed
(a) There will be no voluntary control over
micturition
(b) Urine will continue to collect normally in the
bladder
(c) There will be no micturition
(d) Urine will collect in urethra
187. Assertion : Animals that have an exoskeleton,
always lack an endoskeleton.
Reason : Skeleton cells in the embryonic stage
migrate to produce exoskeleton and endoskeleton.
(a) Both A and R are correct; R is the correct
explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are correct; R is not the correct
explanation of A
(c) A is correct; R is incorrect
(d) A is incorrect; R is correct
188. The forelimbs and hindlimbs of frogs are
(a) four digits
(b) five digits
(c) four and five digits, respectively
(d) five and four digits, respectively
189. The type of muscle fibre present in the wall of
alimentary canal is
(a) smooth muscle fibre (b) striped muscle fibre
(c) cardiac muscle fibre (d) both (a) and (b)
190. Select the incorrect statement regarding mechanism
of urine formation in man
(a) The glomerular filtration rate is about 125 mL
per minute
(b) The ultrafiltration is opposed by the colloidal
osmotic pressure of plasma
(c) Human kidneys produce four times concentrated
urine than the initial filtrate formed
(d) The counter current system contributes in
diluting the urine
191. Match the column I with column II and select the 196. The length of DNA usually depends on
correct option from the given codes (a) position of nucleotides
(b) number of nucleotides
Column I Column II (c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
A. Labeo rohita (i) Red junglefowl
197. The association of histone H1 with a nucleosome
B. Gallus gallus (ii) Rohu indicates
C. Bos indicus (iii) Tussar silkmoth (a) transcription is occurring
(b) DNA replication is occurring
D. Antheraea mylitta (iv) Cattle
(c) the DNA is condensed into chromatic fibre
(d) the DNA double helix is exposed
(a) A – (ii), B – (iii), C – (i), D – (iv)
(b) A – (iii), B – (i), C – (iv), D – (ii) 198. Codons of glycine are
(c) A – (ii), B – (i), C – (iv), D – (iii) (a) CCU, CCC, CCA, CCG
(d) A – (ii), B – (i), C – (iii), D – (iv) (b) CGU, CGC, GGA, GGG
(c) GGU, GGC, GGA, GGG
(d) ACU, ACC, ACA, ACG
192. In blood, the major part of CO2 is transported as 199. Which of the following is not an example of
(a) Dissolved CO2 recessive autosomal disease ?
(b) H2 CO3 (a) Haemophilia (b) Cystic-fibrosis
(c) Carbaminohaemoglobin (c) Phenylketonuria (d) Sickle-cell anaemia
(d) Bicarbonate
200. Which of the following ions help in muscle
contraction ?
193. At the time of inspiration, the diaphragm (a) K + and Mg ++ (b) Na+ and K +
(a) Relaxes (b) Contracts (c) Ca++ and Na++ (d) 𝐂𝐚++ and 𝐌𝐠 ++
(c) Expands (d) None of the above

194. Spermiogenesis is
(a) spermatids transformed into spermatozoa
(b) spermatozoa transformed into spermatids
(c) spermatozoa transformed to spermatocytes
(d) spermatid to secondary spermatocytes

195. Match the following columns

Column I Column II
A Hyaluronidase 1 Acrosomal reaction
B Corpus luteum 2 Morphogenetic
movements
C Gastrulation 3 Progesterone
D Capacitation 4 Mammary gland
E Colostrum 5 Sperm activation
Codes
A B C D E
(a) 5 2 4 1 3
(b) 1 3 2 5 4
(c) 3 2 5 4 1
(d) 1 2 3 4 5
Solutions : 𝑑𝑊 𝑛(𝐶𝑃 −𝐶𝑉 )𝑑𝑇 𝐶 𝐶
= = 𝑃− 𝑉
𝑑𝑄 𝑛𝐶𝑃 𝑑𝑇 𝐶𝑃 𝐶𝑃
𝑑𝑊 𝐶𝑉 1 0.4 4 2
1. Ans : (d) = 1− = 1− = = =
100 𝐶𝑃 1.4 1.4 14 7
The angle of contact at the free liquid surface inside 2
𝑑𝑊 = 100 × = 28.57 J
the capillary tube will change in such a way that the 7
vertical component of the surface tension forces just 7. Ans : (c)
balance the weight of liquid column. 𝐼𝐴 𝜔𝐴 = 𝐼𝐵 𝜔𝐵 (Given)
𝜔𝐴 𝐼𝐵
∴ = ……………. (i)
𝜔𝐵 𝐼𝐴
2. Ans : (b) 1
𝑑𝑄 Kinetic energy = 𝐼𝜔2
As 𝐼 = ; 𝑑𝑄 = 𝐼𝑑𝑡; 𝑑𝑄 = (2𝑡 2 − 3𝑡 + 1)𝑑𝑡 2
𝑑𝑡 1 2
5 (𝐾.𝐸) 𝐼𝐴 𝜔𝐴 𝐼𝐴 𝐼 2
𝑡=5 𝑑𝑡 3 3𝑡 2 ∴ (𝐾.𝐸)𝐴 = 21 = × ( 𝐵) using (i)
∫ 𝑑𝑄 = ∫𝑡=3 (2𝑡 2 − 3𝑡 + 1)𝑑𝑡; 𝑄 = [
3
−
3
+ 𝑡] 𝐵 𝐼 𝜔2
2 𝐵 𝐵
𝐼𝐵 𝐼𝐴
3
𝐼𝐵
⇒𝑄=
2
[ (125 − 27)
3
− (25 − 9) + 2] ≃ 43.34 C =
𝐼𝐴
3 2
As 𝐼𝐴 > 𝐼𝐵 (Given)
3. Ans : (c) ⸫ (𝐾. 𝐸)𝐴 < (𝐾. 𝐸)𝐵
Heat lost by water = 𝑚𝑤 𝑠𝑤 (𝑇𝑖 − 𝑇𝑓 )
8. Ans : (c)
= 2 × 4186 × (70 − 5) = 544180 J 2𝜋𝐴 𝐴
𝑣𝑚𝑎𝑥 = 𝐴𝜔 = ⇒𝑣∝
Heat required to melt ice = 𝑚𝑖 𝐿𝑓 = 1.5 × 𝐿𝑓 𝑣1 𝐴1 𝑇2 1
𝑇
1
𝑇

Heat required to rise temperature of ice = × = ×

𝑣2 𝐴2 𝑇1 2 3
= 𝑚𝑖 𝑠𝑤 (𝑇𝑓 − 𝑇0 ) = 1.5 × (4186) × (50 − 00 ) ⇒ 𝑣2 = 6𝑣1 = 6𝑉
= 31395 𝐽
9. Ans : (d)
By the principle of calorimetry
Resultant amplitude,
Heat lost = heat gained
544180 = 1.5 𝐿𝑓 + 31395 𝐴 = √𝐴12 + 𝐴22 + 2𝐴1 𝐴2 cos ϕ
512785 Here 𝐴1 = 𝐴2 = 1 𝑐𝑚, ϕ = 3π rad
∴ 𝐿𝑓 = = 341856.67 = 3.42 × 105 J kg −1
1.5 ∴ 𝐴 = √12 + 12 + 2 × 1 × 1 × cos 3𝜋
= √2 + 2 × (−1) = 0
4. Ans : (c)
10. Ans : (c)
Here, M = 3 kg
Magnetic susceptibility of diamagnetic substances
𝑅 = 40 𝑐𝑚 = 40 × 10−2 m
does not depend upon the temperature. Hence, it
Force applied , F = 30 N
remain constant due to change in temperature
Torque 𝜏 = 𝐹𝑅 = (30N)(40 × 10−2 m) = 12 Nm
Moment of inertia of hollow cylinder about its axis is 11. Ans : (b)
𝐼 = 𝑀𝑅 2 = (3kg)(40 × 10−2 m)2 = 0.48 kg m2 According to first Law of thermodynamics
Let 𝛼 is the angular acceleration produced ∆𝑄 ∆𝑈 ∆𝑊
∆𝑄 = ∆𝑈 + ∆𝑊 ∴ = +
As 𝜏 = 𝐼𝛼 ∆𝑡 ∆𝑡 ∆𝑡
∆𝑄 ∆𝑊
∴𝛼= =
𝜏 12 𝑁 𝑚
= 25 rad s−2 Here = 120 𝑊, = 80 Js −1
𝐼 0.48 𝑘𝑔 𝑚2 ∆𝑡 ∆𝑡
∆𝑈
∴ = 120 − 80 = 40 Js −1
∆𝑡
5. Ans : (c)
Here, 𝐼1 = 4𝐴, 𝐼2 = 7𝐴 12. Ans : (c)
𝑑 = 5 𝑐𝑚 = 5 × 10−2 𝑚, 𝑙 = 8 𝑐𝑚 = 8 × 10−2 𝑚 Young’s modulus, 𝑌 =
𝐹𝐿
or
∆𝐿
=
𝐹
𝜇0 2𝐼1 𝐼2 𝑙 10−7 ×2×4×7 𝜋𝑟 2 ∆𝑙 𝐿 𝜋𝑟 2 𝑌
∴𝐹= × 8 × 10−2 For the same force,
4𝜋 𝑑 5×10−2
= 89.6 × 10−7 𝑁 = 9 × 10−6 𝑁 ∆𝐿𝐵
𝐿𝐵 𝑟 2 𝑌 2 2 1
∆𝐿𝐴 = ( 𝐴) ( 𝐴) = ( ) ( ) = 2
𝑟𝐵 𝑌𝐵 1 2
𝐿𝐴
6. Ans : (a)
∆𝐿𝐵 ∆𝐿𝐴 ∆𝐿𝐵 ∆𝐿𝐴
𝑑𝑄 = 𝑛𝐶𝑃 𝑑𝑇 𝑑𝑈 = 𝑛𝐶𝑉 𝑑𝑇 = 2( ) ⇒ × 100 = 2 ( × 100) = 2%
𝐿𝐵 𝐿𝐴 𝐿𝐵 𝐿𝐴
𝑑𝑊 = 𝑑𝑄 − 𝑑𝑈 = 𝑛(𝐶𝑃 − 𝐶𝑉 )𝑑𝑇
13. Ans : (a) rebounding k’ = potential energy of ball at a height
According to the questions , representation of vectors h’ (mgh’)
A and B can be shown as follows ⸫ Loss of kinetic energy due to the rebounce,
𝐾 − 𝐾 ′ = 𝑚𝑔ℎ − 𝑚𝑔ℎ′ = 𝑚𝑔(ℎ − ℎ′ )
80
= 𝑚𝑔 (ℎ − ℎ) = 𝑚𝑔ℎ × 0.2
100
⸫ Fractional loss in kinetic energy of ball in each
rebounce
𝐾−𝐾′
=
𝐾
Given, |𝐴 + 𝐵| = 𝑃 𝑚𝑔ℎ×0.2
= = 0.2
𝑚𝑔ℎ
⇒ |𝐴 + 𝐵|2 = 𝑃2
% Fractional loss = 0.2 × 100% = 20%
𝑃2 = 𝐴2 + 𝐵2 + 2𝐴𝐵𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝜃 …………… (i)
Also, |𝐴 + 𝐵| = 𝑄 ⇒ |𝐴 − 𝐵|2 = 𝑄 2 19. Ans : (c)
When a particle returns to its starting point its
⇒ 𝐴2 + 𝐵2 + 2𝐴𝐵𝑐𝑜𝑠 (1800 − 𝜃) = 𝑄 2 displacement is zero
⇒ 𝐴2 + 𝐵2 − 2𝐴𝐵𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝜃 = 𝑄 2 …….. (ii)
Adding Eqn. (i) and (ii), we get 20. Ans : (c)
𝑃2 + 𝑄 2 = 2(𝐴2 + 𝐵2 ) 1 1
= + +
1 1
=
2
+
1
⇒𝐹=
15
cm
𝐹 𝑓1 𝑓𝑚 𝑓1 𝑓1 ∞ 2
2 1 1
14. Ans : (b) = + ,𝑣 = 10 𝑐𝑚
15 30 𝑣
At sunset or sunrise, the sun’s rays have to pass ⸫ Image formed is real and at 10 cm in front of the
through a larger distance in the atmosphere and most mirror
of the blue and other shorter wavelengths are removed
by scattering 21. Ans : (a)
Here, 𝐹 = −50 𝑁 (− ve sign for retardation)
15. Ans : (c) 𝑚 = 10 𝑘𝑔, 𝑢 = 10 m s −1 , 𝑣 = 0
𝐹 −50 𝑁
As F = ma ∴ 𝑎 = = = −5 m s −2
16. Ans : (b) 𝑚 10 𝑘𝑔
𝐼𝑚𝑎𝑥 (𝐴+𝐵)2 𝑣−𝑢 0−10 m s−1
= (𝐴−𝐵)2 Using 𝑣 = 𝑢 + 𝑎𝑡 ∴ 𝑡 = = =2s
𝐼𝑚𝑖𝑛 𝑎 −5 m s−2
9 (𝐴+𝐵)2 3 𝐴+𝐵
∴ = (𝐴−𝐵)2 𝑜𝑟 = 22. Ans : (a)
𝐼 𝐼 𝐴−𝐵
𝐼1 𝐴2 4 If an object of mass m moving with velocity 𝑣⃗, its
Or 2𝐴 = 4𝐵 ⇒ 2; ∴ = 2 =
𝐼2 𝐵 1
kinetic energy K is given by
1 1
17. Ans : (c) 𝐾 = 𝑚𝑣⃗. 𝑣⃗ = 𝑚𝑣 2
2 2
Here, distance of point from the centre of the sphere, As mass m and 𝑣 2 (𝑣⃗. 𝑣⃗) are always positive, therefore
𝑟 = 20 𝑐𝑚 = 0.2 𝑚 kinetic energy is always positive. The kinetic energy
Electric field , 𝐸 = −1.2 × 103 N C −1 can never be negative
𝑞
As 𝐸 = 2
4𝜋𝜀0 𝑟
23. Ans : (b)
(0.2)2 ×(−1.2×103 )
∴ 𝑞 = (4𝜋𝜀0 𝑟 2 )𝐸 = The energy of emitted light of wavelength λ is given
9×109
= −5.3 × 10−9 𝐶 by
ℎ𝑐
𝐸𝑔 = ℎ𝑣 =
𝜆
18. Ans : (a) ℎ𝑐
𝜆= …………. (i)
Let a ball falls from a height h, then kinetic energy 𝐸

of ball at the time of just striking the ground =
potential energy of ball at height h
⇒ 𝐾 = 𝑚𝑔ℎ
Similarly on rebounding, the ball moves to a
maximum height h’, then kinetic energy of ball on
Here, ℎ = Plank’s constant = 6.63 × 10−34 J − s
𝑐 = speed of light = 3 × 108 m/s
and 𝐸𝑔 = energy gap = 1.9 eV
= 1.9 × 1.6 × 10−19 J
Substituting the given values in Eq. (i) , we get
 6.63×10−34 ×3×108 From Eqs (ii) and (iii), we get
⇒𝜆=
1.9×1.6×10−19 4
𝑤 ′ = × 45 = 20 𝑁
= 6.54 × 10−7 𝑚 ≈ 654nm = 6540 Å 9
Thus, the wavelength of light emitted from LED will
be 654 nm 30. Ans : (d)
Energy of a photon, 𝐸 = ℎ𝑣
24. Ans : (c) Where h is the Plank’s constant and v is the
Here 𝜆𝐿 = 1215 Å frequency
[𝐸] [ML2 T−2 ]
For the first line of Lyman series ∴ [ℎ] = = = [ML2 T −1 ]
1 1 1 1 3𝑅 [𝑣] [T−1 ]
= 𝑅[ 2 − 2] = 𝑅 [1 − ] = Angular momentum = Momentum of inertia ×
𝜆𝐿 1 2 4 4
4 Angular velocity
∴ 𝜆𝐿 = ………….. (i)
3𝑅
[Angular momentum] = [ML2 ][T −1 ] = [ML2 T −1 ]
For first line of Balmer series
1 1 1 1 1 1 5
= 𝑅[ − 2] = 𝑅[ − ] ⇒ = 𝑅[ ] 31. Ans : (a)
𝜆𝐵 22 3 4 9 𝜆𝐵 36
36 1
∴ 𝜆𝐵 = …………. (ii) 𝑈 = 𝐹𝑥
5𝑅 2
𝜆𝐵 36/5𝑅 36×3
From (i) and (ii), = =
𝜆𝐿 4/3𝑅 4×5 32. Ans : (d)
108 108
∴ 𝜆𝐵 = × 𝜆𝐿 = × 1215 = 6561Å Angle of contact does not depend upon the inclination
20 20
of the solid surface to the liquid surface
25. Ans : (a)
Binding energy, 𝐸𝑏 of 73Li = ∆𝑚 × 931 𝑀𝑒𝑉 33. Ans : (d)
= 0.042 × 931 𝑀𝑒𝑉 Since, centripetal acceleration of moon,
0.042×931 1
Binding energy per nucleon = = 5.586 𝑀𝑒𝑉 𝑎𝑚 ∝ 2 … … .. (i)
7 𝑅𝑚
Acceleration due to gravity,
26. Ans : (a) 1
1𝑀 2 2𝐸
𝑔∝ 2 … … .. (ii)
𝑅𝐸
Pressure, 𝑃 = 𝑣 =
3 𝑉 𝑟𝑚𝑠 3𝑉 On dividing Eq. (ii) by Eq (i), we get
1 2
Here, 𝐸 = 𝑀 𝑣𝑟𝑚𝑠 is total internal energy of the gas 𝑔 2
𝑅𝑚 𝑅𝑚 2 −2
𝑅𝐸
2 = =( ) =
𝑎𝑚 2
𝑅𝐸 𝑅𝐸 −2
𝑅𝑀
At constant volume, 𝑃 ∝ 𝐸
Hence, options (b) and (c) are correct
27. Ans : (c)
Change in momentum = 0.15 × 12 − (−0.15 × 12) 34. Ans : (a)
= 3.6 Ns Half of the energy provided by the source is
Impulse = 3.6 N s in the direction from the batsman dissipated during charging a capacitor and other half
to the bowler stored in capacitor
Energy stored in a capacitor 1
∴ =
Energy dissipated during charging a capacitor 1
28. Ans : (b)
35. Ans : (a)
29. Ans : (b)
𝑅𝐸
𝑦 = 15 sin(660𝜋𝑡 + 0.02𝜋𝑥)
Given , height, ℎ = The general equation of a progressive wave is
2
Acceleration due to gravity at altitude h is given by 2𝜋 2𝜋
𝑦(𝑥, 𝑡) = 𝐴 sin ( 𝑡 − 𝑥)
𝑔 𝑔 𝑇 𝜆
𝑔′ = 2 = 2 2𝜋 1
(1+𝑅 )
ℎ 𝑅 /2
(1+ 𝑅𝐸 ) ∴ = 660 𝜋 or = 330 𝑠 −1 or υ = 330 Hz
𝐸 𝐸 𝑇 𝑇
𝑔 𝑔 4𝑔
= 1 2
= 3 2
= ……… (i)
(1+2) ( 2) 9 36. Ans : (b)
Weight of the body at the earth’s surface, The current in the inductor coil is given by
𝑉 𝑉
𝑤 = 𝑚𝑔 = 45 𝑁……… (ii) 𝐼=
𝑋𝐿
=
2𝜋𝑣𝐿
Then, weight of the body at altitude h is Since frequency 𝑣 in the two cases is different, hence
4
𝑤′ = 𝑚𝑔′ = 𝑚𝑔……… (iii) the current in two cases will be different
9
37. Ans : (b) 41. Ans : (d)
1
Esphere 𝐼 𝜔2
2 𝑠 𝑠 𝐼𝑠 𝜔𝑠2 Vertical component of earth’s field (𝐵𝑉 ) is not used
= =
Ecylinder 1
𝐼 𝜔2
2 𝑐 𝑐
𝐼𝑐 𝜔𝑐2 to specify the earth’s magnetic field
2 1
Here, 𝐼𝑠 = 𝑀𝑅 2 , 𝐼𝑐 = 𝑀𝑅 2
5 2 42. Ans : (d)
𝜔𝑐 = 2𝜔𝑠
2
Esphere 𝑀𝑅2 ×𝜔𝑠2 4 1 1 43. Ans : (b)
5
= 1 = × =
Ecylinder 𝑀𝑅2 ×(2𝜔𝑠 )2 5 4 5 Since the gas is compressed adiabatically, then 𝑑𝑄 =
2

0 and 𝑑𝑊 = −150 J
38. Ans : (d) From the law of thermodynamics, 𝑑𝑄 = 𝑑𝑈 + 𝑑𝑊
⸫ 𝑑𝑈 = −𝑑𝑊 = −(−150) = 150 𝐽
39. Ans : (d)
Here , 𝐸 = 2 × 105 N C −1 , 𝑙 = 2 𝑐𝑚, 𝜏 = 4 𝑁𝑚 44. Ans : (b)
Torque , 𝜏⃗ = 𝑝⃗ × 𝐸⃗⃗ ; 𝜏 = 𝑝𝐸 sin 𝜃 Since all the capacitors are connected in series,
∴ 4 = 𝑝 × 2 × 105 × sin 300 𝑜𝑟 𝑝 = 4 × 10−5 𝐶𝑚 therefore, equivalent capacitance is
𝑝 4×10−5 𝐶 𝑚 1 1 1 1
⸫ Charge , 𝑞 = = = 2 × 10−3 𝐶 = 2𝑚𝐶 𝐶𝑒𝑞
= + + =1
2 3 6
∴ 𝐶𝑒𝑞 − 1µF
𝑙 0.02 𝑚
Charge on each capacitor is same (⸪V = 10V)
40. Ans : (b) 𝑞 = 𝐶𝑒𝑞 𝑉 = 1 × 10 = 10 µC
The ray starting from point M at an angle 𝜃 reaches
the corner D at the right along a parallel path . Let a 45. Ans : (c)
be the length of the side.
From figure, 46. Ans : (b)
Here, 𝑚 = 2 × 104 kg
Initial acceleration, 𝑎 = 5 m s −2
Initial thrust = upthrust required to impart
acceleration a + upthrust required to overcome
gravitational pull
⸫ 𝐹 = 𝑚(𝑎 + 𝑔) = (2 × 104 𝑘𝑔)(5 + 10)m s −2
= 3 × 105 N

47. Ans : (b)

The escape velocity is independent of mass of the
𝑥
tan 𝜃 = … … … … … (𝑖) body and the direction of projection. It depends upon
(𝑎/2)
𝑎−𝑥 the gravitational potential at the point from where the
tan 𝜃 = … … … . . (𝑖𝑖)
𝑦 body is launched. Since this potential depends slightly
𝑎
tan 𝜃 = … … … … … . (𝑖𝑖𝑖) on the latitude and height of the point, the escape
𝑎−𝑦
From (i) and (ii) we get velocity depend on these factors.
2𝑥 𝑎−𝑥
= or 2𝑥𝑦 = 𝑎2 − 𝑥𝑎 … … . (𝑖𝑣)
𝑎 𝑦 48. Ans : (d)
From (ii) and (iii) we get Here, 𝑟1 = 5.30 × 10−11 m; 𝑣1 = 2.2 × 106 m s −1
𝑎−𝑥 𝑎 𝑣
𝑦
= ⇒ 3𝑥𝑦 = 2𝑎𝑦
𝑎−𝑦
(using (iv)) In the first excited state, 𝑟𝑛 = 𝑛2 𝑟1 , 𝑣𝑛 = 1
𝑛
2𝑎
𝑥= ∴ 𝑟2 = 4 𝑟1 = 4 × 5.30 × 10−11 m = 2.12 × 10−10 m
3
𝑣1 2.2×106
Substituting this values of 𝑥 in equation (i), we get and 𝑣2 = = 𝑚 𝑠 −1 = 1.1 × 106 𝑚 𝑠 −1
2 2
(2𝑎/3) 4 1 3
tan 𝜃 = (𝑎/2)
= ; ∴ cot 𝜃 = = Since, orbit period
3 tan 𝜃 4
2𝜋𝑟2 2×3.14×2.12×10−10 13.31×10−16
or 𝜃 = cot −1 (0.75) 𝑇= = =
𝑣2 1.1×106 1.1
−15
= 1.21 × 10 s
49. Ans : (a)
Here, λ = 600 nm, λ’= 400 nm, 𝐾′𝑚𝑎𝑥 = 2 𝐾𝑚𝑎𝑥
According to Einstein’s photoelectric equation
ℎ𝑐
𝐾𝑚𝑎𝑥 = − ϕ0 ………….. (i)
𝜆
ℎ𝑐
and 2𝐾𝑚𝑎𝑥 = − ϕ0 …………. (ii) ∴𝐾=
2×2
=4
𝜆′ 1×1
Dividing (ii) by (i) we get
ℎ𝑐
( ′ )−ϕ0
𝜆 2ℎ𝑐 ℎ𝑐 55. Ans : (b)
2= or − 2ϕ0 = − ϕ0
ℎ𝑐
( 𝜆 )−ϕ0 𝜆 𝜆′ NaCl → Na+ + Cl−
2
or ℎ𝑐 ( − ′ ) = ϕ0
1
(Take ℎ𝑐 = 1240 eV nm) 2Cl− + 2𝑒 − → Cl2
𝜆 𝜆 𝑄 = 𝐼 × 𝑡 = 2 × 30 × 60 = 3600 Coulombs
2 1
∴ ϕ0 = 1240 eV nm ( − ) = 1.03 𝑒𝑉 2 × 96500 Coulombs produce = 71 g of Cl2
600 𝑛𝑚 400 𝑛𝑚
71
3600 Coulombs will produce = × 3600 =
2×96500
50. Ans : (a)
1.32 g of Cl2
Here, 𝑣𝑟𝑚𝑠1 = 100 𝑚 𝑠 −1 , 𝑇1 = 270 𝐶
= (27 + 273)𝐾 = 300 𝐾 56. Ans: (c)
𝑃1 = 1 atm, 𝑣𝑟𝑚𝑠2 =? , 𝑇2 = 1270 𝐶 = (127 + 3,3- Dimethylpent – 1 – ene
273)𝐾 = 400 𝐾
𝑃2 = 2 atm 57. Ans : (c)
From
𝑃1 𝑉1 𝑃 𝑉 𝑉 𝑃 𝑇
= 2 2 ; 1 = 2× 1 = 2×
300
=
3 [Co(NH3 )5 SO4 ]Br and [Co(NH3 )5 Br]SO4 are
𝑇1 𝑇2 𝑉2 𝑃1 𝑇2 400 2
ionization isomers, because there is exchange of
1 𝑀 2 1 𝑀 2
Again 𝑃1 = 𝑣 and 𝑃2 = 𝑣 Br − and SO4 2− ions
3 𝑉1 𝑟𝑚𝑠1 3 𝑉2 𝑟𝑚𝑠2
2
𝑣𝑟𝑚𝑠 𝑉1 𝑃2 2 2 𝑃2 𝑉2
⸫ 2
2
× = 𝑣𝑟𝑚𝑠2
= 𝑣𝑟𝑚𝑠1
× ×
𝑣𝑟𝑚𝑠1
𝑉2 𝑃1 𝑃1 𝑉1 58. Ans : (a)
2 A catalyst simply helps to attain the equilibrium
= (100)2 × 2 ×
3 quickly and it does not affect the concentration of
200
𝑣𝑟𝑚𝑠2 = 𝑚 𝑠 −1 ammonia
√3

51. Ans : (c) 59. Ans : (d)

3+ 18 0 0 18 1 2 One molecule of oxalic acid dehydrate
21𝑆𝑐 ; [𝐴𝑟] 3𝑑 4𝑠 And 21𝑆𝑐 ; [𝐴𝑟] 3𝑑 4𝑠
As last electron enters in d-subshell so it belongs to (COOH)2 . 2H2 O contains 6 oxygen atoms.
d-block and thus its group number = 2 + 1 = 3 Number of oxygen atoms in 1 mole
Element belong to 3rd group of Modern periodic = 6 × 6.023 × 1023 = 36.13 × 1023 atoms
table , not zero group. 60. Ans : (a)

61. Ans : (b)

52. Ans : (b)

62. Ans : (a)

Outer orbital complex utilizes d – orbitals for
∆𝐻 = ∑ 𝐵. 𝐸.𝑅 − ∑ 𝐵. 𝐸.𝑃 bonding and exhibits paramagnetic behavior, only if
= 2 × 𝐵. 𝐸. (C ⸺ H) +2 × 𝐵. 𝐸. (C ⸺ Cl) there are unpaired electrons present.
= 2 × 416 + 2 × 325 = 1482 kJ (a) In [Ni(NH3 )6 ]2+ , Ni2+ = [Ar] 3𝑑 8 4𝑠0
[Ni(NH3 )6 ]2+ =
53. Ans : (a)

54. Ans : (a)

 70. Ans : (b)

So , this is an outer orbital complex having

paramagnetic character

63. Ans : (a) 71. Ans : (c)

1 𝑑[𝑋] 1 [1.5−3.0] Molar entropy change for the melting of ice,
Rate of reaction = − = −
2 𝑑𝑡 2 4 ∆Hfusion 1.435 kcal/mol
1.5 ∆Smelt = = (0.273)K
= = 0.187 M min−1 T
8
64. Ans : (d) = 5.26 × 10−3 kcal/mol K
5.260 cal/mol K
65. Ans : (b)
V1 = 30 mL, M1 = 0.5 M, V2 = 500 mL, M2 =? 72. Ans : (c)
M1 V1 = M2 V2
73. Ans : (c)
0.5 × 30 = M2 × 500 or M2 = 0.03 M
Carbonyl group is deactivating group
66. Ans : (a)
74. Ans : (c)
4FeCr2 O4 + 8Na2 CO3 + 7O2 → 8Na2 CrO4
Chromite ore sodium chromate (yellow)
75. Ans : (b)
+2Fe2 O3 + 8CO2 1
No. of moles of polymer =
150,000
2Na2 CrO4 + 2H + → Na2 Cr2 O7 + 2Na+ + H2 O 𝑛
𝜋 = 𝐶𝑅𝑇 = 𝑅𝑇 ; 𝜋 =
1
×
8.314×103 ×310
𝑉 150,000 0.5
Na2 Cr2 O7 + 2KCl → K 2 Cr2 O7 + 2NaCl
= 34.36 𝑃𝑎
Potassium dichromate
67. Ans : (b) (𝑅 = 8.314 × 103 𝑃𝑎 𝐿 𝐾 −1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 −1 )
Glucose and gluconic acid, both on oxidation yields
76. Ans : (a)
a dicarboxylic acid, saccharic acid. This indicates
the presence of primary alcohol (OH) group in
77. Ans : (b)
glucose. 2.675
No. of moles of CoCl3 . 6NH3 = = 0.01
Reaction involved is as follows : 267.5
4.78
No. of moles of AgCl = = 0.03
143.5
Since 0.01 moles of the complex gives 0.03 moles of
AgCl on treatment with AgNO3 , it implies that 3
chloride ions are ionisable, in the complex. Thus, the
formula of the complex is [Co(NH3 )6 ]Cl3

68. Ans : (b) 78. Ans : (b)

4.28
No. of moles of NaOH = = 0.107
40
Volume of solution = 250 cm3 79. Ans : (b)
𝑛 0.107 14H + + Cr2 O2−
7 + 3Ni → 2Cr
3+ + 7H O + 3Ni2+
𝑀= = × 1000 = 0.428 mol L−1 2+
2
𝑉(𝑖𝑛 𝐿) 250 Ni → Ni (oxidation). Hence, Ni acts as a reducing
agent
69. Ans : (d)
80. Ans : (b)
 oxides increases. Thus , the basic nature of oxides
decreases is
Al2O3 < MgO < Na2O < K2O
(Amphoteric) (Most basic)

81. Ans : (a) 87. Ans : (a)

Carboxylic acids react with ammonia to give
88. Ans : (a)
ammonium salt which on further heating at high
Average atomic mass of oxygen
temperature gives amides. Further, on strong (99.763×15.995)+(0.037×16.999)+(0.200×17.999)
heating, ammonia is removed from phthalamide and =
100
phthalimide is formed = 15.999 u

89. Ans : (a)

Phthalimide (I) on treatment with ethanolic
potassium hydroxide (II) forms potassium salt of
phthalimide which on heating with alkyl halide
followed by alkaline hydrolysis produces the
corresponding primary amines

The reaction takes place as follows :

82. Ans : (b)

In structure (ii), lp – lp repulsions are minimum

83. Ans: (c)

90. Ans : (c)

91. Ans : (a)

The suitable reagent for the given conversion is
NaBH4
NaBH4
CH2 = CH⸺CHO → CH2 = CH⸺CH2 ⸺OH
It is a selective reagent and does not reduce
Carbon-carbon double bond. Thus, unsaturated
84. Ans : (d)
H3 O+
alcohols can be prepared by this reagent
𝑅CN + SnCl2 + HCl → 𝑅CH = NH → 𝑅CHO
This reaction is called Stephen reaction, where 92. Ans : (a)
nitriles are reduced to corresponding imine with
stannous chloride in the presence of HCl, which on 93. Ans : (a)
hydrolysis gives corresponding aldehyde The necessary condition for aldol condensation is
the presence of atleast one 𝛼 − 𝐻 atom in aldehydes
85. Ans : (d) and ketones

86. Ans : (a)

In a period from left to right, basic nature of oxides
decreases. In a group top to bottom, basic nature of
94. Ans : (a)

95. Ans : (a)

𝐾𝐶𝑙 ⇌ 𝐾 + + 𝐶𝑙− (𝑛 = 2)
𝑖−1 1.95−1
𝛼= = = 0.95
𝑛−1 2−1

96. Ans : (b)

𝐴𝑔𝐶𝑙(𝑠) ⇌ 𝐴𝑔+ (𝑎𝑞) + 𝐶𝑙− (𝑎𝑞)
𝐾𝑠𝑝 of AgCl = [𝐴𝑔+ ][𝐶𝑙− ] = 1.8 × 10−10 …..(i)
Now, Ag(NH3 )+ +
2 (𝑎𝑞) ⇌ Ag (aq) + 2NH3 (𝑎𝑞)
[𝐴𝑔+ ][𝑁𝐻3 ]2
∴ 𝐾𝐶 = [𝐴𝑔(𝑁𝐻 + = 6.2 × 10−8 ………… (ii)
3 )2 ]
From eqn (i) and (ii) , we get
𝐾𝐶 [𝑁𝐻3 ]2
= [𝐴𝑔(𝑁𝐻 + − ………….(iii)
𝐾𝑠𝑝 3 )2 ] [𝐶𝑙 ]

𝐴𝑔𝐶𝑙 + 2𝑁𝐻3 ⇌ [𝐴𝑔(𝑁𝐻3 )2 ]+ [𝐶𝑙− ]

1 0 0
1−𝑎 𝑎 𝑎
Thus , on substituting the values in eq (iii) , we get
6.2×10−8 1
= or , 𝑎 = 0.0539 𝑀
1.8×10−10 𝑎2

97. Ans : (c)

In thermodynamics, process is called reversible
when the surroundings are always in equilibrium
with the system

98. Ans : (b)

Show disproportionation since the oxidation state of

Mn changes from +6 to +7 (MnO− 4 ) and +4 (MnO2 )

99. Ans : (a)

1 𝑑[NH3 ] 1 𝑑[H2 O]
− =+
4 𝑑𝑡 6 𝑑𝑡
𝑑[H2 O] 6
= × 3.6 × 10−3 = 5.4 × 10−3 mol L−1 s −1
𝑑𝑡 4

100. Ans : (b)

3Br2 + 6CO2− − − −
3 + 3H2 O → 5Br + BrO3 + 6HCO3
Here Br2 is both reduced and oxidised
Br2 (O) → Br − (−1) (reduction)
Br2 (O) → BrO− 3 (+5) (oxidation)