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Download Maternal and Child Nursing Care 6th Edition Perry Test Bank all chapters
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Chapter 10: Assessment of High-Risk Pregnancy
Perry: Maternal Child Nursing Care, 6th Edition
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. A woman arrives at the clinic seeking confirmation that she is pregnant. The following
information is obtained: She is 24 years old with a body mass index (BMI) of 17.5. She
admits to having used cocaine “several times” during the past year and drinks alcohol
occasionally. Her blood pressure (BP) is 108/70 mm Hg, her pulse rate is 72 beats/min, and
her respiratory rate is 16 breaths/min. The family history is positive for diabetes mellitus and
cancer. Her sister recently gave birth to an infant with a neural tube defect (NTD). Which
characteristics place the woman in a high risk category?
a. Blood pressure, age, and BMI
b. Drug/alcohol use, age, and family history
c. Family history, blood pressure, and BMI
d. Family history, BMI, and drug/alcohol abuse
ANS: D
Her family history of NTD, low BMI, and substance abuse all are high risk factors of
pregnancy. The woman’s BP is normal, and her age does not put her at risk. Her BMI is low
and may indicate poor nutritional status, which would be a high risk. The woman’s
drug/alcohol use and family history put her in a high risk category, but her age does not. The
woman’s family history puts her in a high risk category. Her BMI is low and may indicate
poor nutritional status, which would be high risk. Her BP is normal.
2. A 39-year-old primigravida thinks that she is about 8 weeks pregnant, although she has had
irregular menstrual periods all her life. She has a history of smoking approximately one pack
of cigarettes a day, but she tells you that she is trying to cut down. Her laboratory data are
within normal limits. What diagnostic technique could be used with this pregnant woman at
this time?
a. Ultrasound examination
b. Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) screening
c. Amniocentesis
d. Nonstress test (NST)
ANS: A
An ultrasound examination could be done to confirm the pregnancy and determine the
gestational age of the fetus. It is too early in the pregnancy to perform MSAFP screening,
amniocentesis, or NST. MSAFP screening is performed at 16 to 18 weeks of gestation,
followed by amniocentesis if MSAFP levels are abnormal or if fetal/maternal anomalies are
detected. NST is performed to assess fetal well-being in the third trimester.
4. A 41-week pregnant multigravida presents in the labor and delivery unit after a nonstress test
indicated that her fetus could be experiencing some difficulties in utero. Which diagnostic tool
would yield more detailed information about the fetus?
a. Ultrasound for fetal anomalies
b. Biophysical profile (BPP)
c. Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) screening
d. Percutaneous umbilical blood sampling (PUBS)
ANS: B
Real-time ultrasound permits detailed assessment of the physical and physiologic
characteristics of the developing fetus and cataloging of normal and abnormal biophysical
responses to stimuli. BPP is a noninvasive, dynamic assessment of a fetus that is based on
acute and chronic markers of fetal disease. An ultrasound for fetal anomalies would most
likely have been performed earlier in the pregnancy. It is too late in the pregnancy to perform
MSAFP screening. Also, MSAFP screening does not provide information related to fetal
well-being. Indications for PUBS include prenatal diagnosis or inherited blood disorders,
karyotyping of malformed fetuses, detection of fetal infection, determination of the acid-base
status of a fetus with IUGR, and assessment and treatment of isoimmunization and
thrombocytopenia in the fetus.
6. A patient asks her nurse, “My doctor told me that he is concerned with the grade of my
placenta because I am overdue. What does that mean?” The best response by the nurse is:
a. “Your placenta changes as your pregnancy progresses, and it is given a score that
indicates the amount of calcium deposits it has. The more calcium deposits, the
higher the grade, or number, that is assigned to the placenta. It also means that less
blood and oxygen can be delivered to your baby.”
b. “Your placenta isn’t working properly, and your baby is in danger.”
c. “This means that we will need to perform an amniocentesis to detect if you have
any placental damage.”
d. “Don’t worry about it. Everything is fine.”
ANS: A
An accurate and appropriate response is, “Your placenta changes as your pregnancy
progresses, and it is given a score that indicates the amount of calcium deposits it has. The
more calcium deposits, the higher the grade, or number, that is assigned to the placenta. It also
means that less blood and oxygen can be delivered to your baby.” Although “Your placenta
isn’t working properly, and your baby is in danger” may be valid, it does not reflect
therapeutic communication techniques and is likely to alarm the patient. An ultrasound, not an
amniocentesis, is the method of assessment used to determine placental maturation. The
response “Don’t worry about it. Everything is fine” is not appropriate and discredits the
patient’s concerns.
8. When nurses help their expectant mothers assess the daily fetal movement counts, they should
be aware that:
a. alcohol or cigarette smoke can irritate the fetus into greater activity.
b. “kick counts” should be taken every half hour and averaged every 6 hours, with
every other 6-hour stretch off.
c. the fetal alarm signal should go off when fetal movements stop entirely for 12
hours.
d. obese mothers familiar with their bodies can assess fetal movement as well as
average-size women.
ANS: C
No movement in a 12-hour period is cause for investigation and possibly intervention.
Alcohol and cigarette smoke temporarily reduce fetal movement. The mother should count
fetal activity (“kick counts”) two or three times daily for 60 minutes each time. Obese women
have a harder time assessing fetal movement.
10. In the first trimester, ultrasonography can be used to gain information on:
a. amniotic fluid volume.
b. location of gestational sacs.
c. placental location and maturity.
d. cervical length.
ANS: B
During the first trimester, ultrasound examination is performed to obtain information
regarding the number, size, and location of gestational sacs; the presence or absence of fetal
cardiac and body movements; the presences or absence of uterine abnormalities (e.g.,
bicornuate uterus or fibroids) or adnexal masses (e.g., ovarian cysts or an ectopic pregnancy);
and pregnancy dating.
12. Compared with contraction stress test (CST), nonstress test (NST) for antepartum fetal
assessment:
a. has no known contraindications.
b. has fewer false-positive results.
c. is more sensitive in detecting fetal compromise.
d. is slightly more expensive.
ANS: A
CST has several contraindications. NST has a high rate of false-positive results, is less
sensitive than the CST, and is relatively inexpensive.
13. The nurse providing care for the antepartum woman should understand that contraction stress
test (CST):
a. sometimes uses vibroacoustic stimulation.
b. is an invasive test; however, contractions are stimulated.
c. is considered negative if no late decelerations are observed with the contractions.
d. is more effective than nonstress test (NST) if the membranes have already been
ruptured.
ANS: C
No late decelerations are good news. Vibroacoustic stimulation is sometimes used with NST.
CST is invasive if stimulation is by intravenous oxytocin but not if by nipple stimulation and
is contraindicated if the membranes have ruptured.
PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension
OBJ: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
14. Risk factors tend to be interrelated and cumulative in their effect. While planning the care for
a laboring patient with diabetes mellitus, the nurse is aware that she is at a greater risk for:
a. oligohydramnios.
b. polyhydramnios.
c. postterm pregnancy.
d. Chromosomal abnormalities.
ANS: B
Polyhydramnios (amniotic fluid >2000 mL) is 10 times more likely to occur in diabetic
compared with nondiabetic pregnancies. Polyhydramnios puts the mother at risk for
premature rupture of membranes, premature labor, and after birth hemorrhage. Prolonged
rupture of membranes, intrauterine growth restriction, intrauterine fetal death, and renal
agenesis (Potter syndrome) all put the patient at risk for developing oligohydramnios.
Anencephaly, placental insufficiency, and perinatal hypoxia all contribute to the risk for
postterm pregnancy. Maternal age older than 35 years and balanced translocation (maternal
and paternal) are risk factors for chromosome abnormalities.
15. A pregnant woman’s biophysical profile score is 8. She asks the nurse to explain the results.
The nurse’s best response is:
a. “The test results are within normal limits.”
b. “Immediate delivery by cesarean birth is being considered.”
c. “Further testing will be performed to determine the meaning of this score.”
d. “An obstetric specialist will evaluate the results of this profile and, within the next
week, will inform you of your options regarding delivery.”
ANS: A
The normal biophysical score ranges from 8 to 10 points if the amniotic fluid volume is
adequate. A normal score allows conservative treatment of high risk patients. Delivery can be
delayed if fetal well-being is indicated. Scores less than 4 should be investigated, and delivery
could be initiated sooner than planned. This score is within normal range, and no further
testing is required at this time. The results of the biophysical profile are usually available
immediately after the procedure is performed.
16. Which analysis of maternal serum may predict chromosomal abnormalities in the fetus?
a. Multiple-marker screening
b. Lecithin/sphingomyelin [L/S] ratio
c. Biophysical profile
d. Type and crossmatch of maternal and fetal serum
ANS: A
Maternal serum can be analyzed for abnormal levels of alpha-fetoprotein, human chorionic
gonadotropin, and estriol. The multiple-marker screening may predict chromosomal defects in
the fetus. The L/S ratio is used to determine fetal lung maturity. A biophysical profile is used
for evaluating fetal status during the antepartum period. Five variables are used, but none is
concerned with chromosomal problems. The blood type and crossmatch would not predict
chromosomal defects in the fetus.
17. While working with the pregnant woman in her first trimester, the nurse is aware that
chorionic villus sampling (CVS) can be performed during pregnancy at:
a. 4 weeks.
b. 8 weeks.
c. 10 weeks.
d. 14 weeks.
ANS: C
CVS can be performed in the first or second trimester, ideally between 10 and 13 weeks of
gestation. During this procedure, a small piece of tissue is removed from the fetal portion of
the placenta. If performed after 9 completed weeks of gestation, the risk of limb reduction is
no greater than in the general population.
19. The nurse recognizes that a nonstress test (NST) in which two or more fetal heart rate (FHR)
accelerations of 15 beats/min or more occur with fetal movement in a 20-minute period is:
a. nonreactive.
b. positive.
c. negative.
d. reactive.
ANS: D
The NST is reactive (normal) when two or more FHR accelerations of at least 15 beats/min
(each with a duration of at least 15 seconds) occur in a 20-minute period. A nonreactive result
means that the heart rate did not accelerate during fetal movement. A positive result is not
used with NST. Contraction stress test (CST) uses positive as a result term. A negative result
is not used with NST. CST uses negative as a result term.
MULTIPLE RESPONSE
2. Transvaginal ultrasonography is often performed during the first trimester. While preparing
your 6-week gestation patient for this procedure, she expresses concerns over the necessity for
this test. The nurse should explain that this diagnostic test may be indicated for a number of
situations. (Select all that apply)
a. Establish gestational age
b. Obesity
c. Fetal abnormalities
d. Amniotic fluid volume
e. Ectopic pregnancy
ANS: A, B, C, E
Transvaginal ultrasound is useful in obese women whose thick abdominal layers cannot be
penetrated with traditional abdominal ultrasound. This procedure is also used for identifying
ectopic pregnancy, estimating gestational age, confirming fetal viability, and identifying fetal
abnormalities. Amniotic fluid volume is assessed during the second and third trimester.
Conventional ultrasound would be used.
MATCHING
Biophysical risks include factors that originate with either the mother or the fetus and affect
the functioning of either one or both. The nurse who provides prenatal care should have an
understanding of these risk factors. Match the specific pregnancy problem with the related
risk factor.
a. Polyhydramnios
b. Intrauterine growth restriction (maternal cause)
c. Oligohydramnios
d. Chromosomal abnormalities
e. Intrauterine growth restriction (fetoplacental cause)