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c7

Student: ___________________________________________________________________________

1. Which of the following represents two general factors that determine the fate of a chemical reaction in living
cells?
A. Its enzyme and rate.
B. Its enzyme and direction.
C. Its direction and rate.
D. Its rate and product.
E. Its enzyme and product.

2. Water held behind a dam would best reflect ________.

A. potential energy
B. kinetic energy
C. chemical energy
D. heat energy
E. mechanical energy

3. All of the following have potential energy EXCEPT

A. ATP.
B. nitrogen.
C. an electrical/ion gradient.
D. concentration gradient.
E. NADH

4. According to the first law of thermodynamics

A. the transfer of energy increases the disorder of a system.
B. the transfer of energy increases entropy.
C. energy cannot be created or destroyed.
D. once energy is created it can be destroyed.
E. kinetic energy is based on location.
5. The amount of available energy that can be used to do work is called
A. enthalpy.
B. entropy.
C. free energy.
D. kinetic energy.
E. heat.

6. Which of the following is TRUE for a reaction that has a G<0?

A. The reaction will require energy.
B. The reaction will yield energy.
C. The reaction is spontaneous.
D. The reaction will require energy and is spontaneous.
E. The reaction will yield energy and is spontaneous.

7. Which is true of the following reaction: Pi + ADP = ATP?

A. It has a change in free energy that is less than 0.
B. It has a change in free energy that is greater than 0.
C. It can be used to drive endergonic reactions.
D. It yields energy.
E. It has a change in free energy that is greater than 0, and hence can be used to drive endergonic reactions.

8. Which of the following reactions would require the hydrolysis of at least two ATP molecules (G = -14.6
kCal) for it to occur?
A. A reaction that has a G = -8 kCal.
B. A reaction that has a G = +8 kCal.
C. A reaction that has a G = -16 kCal.
D. A reaction that has a G = +16 kCal.
E. A reaction that has a G = -14.6 kCal.

9. A chemical reaction that has a positive G is correctly described as

A. endergonic.
B. endothermic.
C. enthalpic.
D. spontaneous.
E. exothermic.
10. Which of the following is true for ALL exergonic reactions?
A. The products have more total energy than the reactants.
B. The reaction proceeds with a net release of free energy.
C. Some reactants will be converted to products.
D. A net input of energy from the surroundings is required for the reactions to proceed.
E. The reactions are nonspontaneous.

11. Which of the following statements is a logical consequence of the second law of thermodynamics?
A. If the entropy of a system increases, there must be a corresponding decrease in the entropy of the universe.
B. If there is an increase in the energy of a system, there must be a corresponding decrease in the energy of the
rest of the universe.
C. Every energy transfer requires activation energy from the environment.
D. Every chemical reaction must increase the total entropy of the universe.
E. Energy can be transferred or transformed, but it cannot be created or destroyed.

12. Which of the following statements about enzymes is FALSE?

A. The active site of the enzyme is where the chemical reaction takes place.
B. The substrate binds to the enzyme with low affinity.
C. The enzyme undergoes a conformational change that brings substrates closer together in an induced fit.
D. The optimal activity of an enzyme occurs over a narrow temperature range.
E. The optimal activity of an enzyme occurs within a narrow pH range.

13. How does an enzyme work to catalyze a reaction?

A. It supplies the energy to speed up a reaction.
B. It lowers the energy barrier needed for reactants to achieve the transition state.
C. It lowers the energy of activation of a reaction.
D. It supplies the energy to speed up a reaction and lowers the energy barrier needed for reactants to achieve the
transition state.
E. It lowers the energy barrier needed for reactants to achieve the transition state or lowers the energy of
activation of a reaction.

14. If one were to double the amount of enzyme in a reaction with an initial G of -5 kcal/mole, what would the
G be?
A. - 5 kcal/mole
B. - 10 kcal/mole
C. - 20 kcal/mole
D. + 5 kcal/mole
E. + 10 kcal/mole
15. The primary function of an enzyme or any biological catalyst is to
A. reduce the energy of activation of a reaction.
B. increase the rate of a reaction.
C. change the direction of a reaction.
D. reduce the energy of activation and increase the rate of a reaction.
E. increase the rate of a reaction and change the direction of a reaction.

16. How can one increase the rate of a chemical reaction?

A. Increase the activation energy needed.
B. Cool the reactants.
C. Decrease the concentration of the reactants.
D. Add a catalyst.
E. Increase the entropy of the reactants.

17. Which of the following statements regarding enzymes is TRUE?

A. Enzymes decrease the free energy change of a reaction.
B. Enzymes increase the rate of a reaction.
C. Enzymes change the direction of chemical reactions.
D. Enzymes are permanently altered by the reactions they catalyze.
E. Enzymes prevent changes in substrate concentrations.

18. The general steps of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction are best described as

A. enzyme undergoes conformational changes → substrates bind to enzyme → substrates are converted to
products → products are released
B. substrates bind to enzyme →substrates are converted to products → enzyme undergoes conformational
changes → products are released
C. substrates bind to enzyme → enzyme undergoes conformational changes → substrates are converted to
products → products are released
D. enzyme undergoes conformational changes →substrates are converted to products → substrates bind to
enzyme → products are released
E. substrates bind to enzyme → substrates are converted to products → products are released → enzyme
undergoes conformational changes

19. Which term most precisely describes the process of building larger molecules from smaller ones?
A. exergonic
B. catabolism
C. metabolism
D. hydrolysis
E. anabolism
20. Which of the following is NOT true for ATP?
A. It is produced from ATP synthase.
B. It is produced by a rotary machine.
C. Its production requires an exergonic reaction.
D. Its hydrolysis yields energy.
E. Its hydrolysis can drive endergonic reactions.

21. Which of the following statements about catabolic reactions is FALSE?

A. They recycle organic building blocks.
B. They produce energy like ATP.
C. They produce energy in the form of energy intermediates like NADH.
D. They occur through the oxidation of substrates.
E. They usually require an input of energy.

22. Which of the statements is INCORRECT about the following reaction? Phosphoenolpyruvate + ADP →
Pyruvate + ATP (G = - 7.5 kcal/mole)
A. It is anabolic.
B. It is catabolic.
C. It can be used to drive an endergonic reaction.
D. The synthesis of ATP occurs by substrate-level phosphorylation.
E. It is a reaction that yields energy.

23. For the generalized equation Ae- + B → A + Be-, where e represents an electron, which of the following
statements is TRUE?
A. Molecule A is reduced.
B. Molecule B is oxidized.
C. Molecule A is oxidized.
D. Molecule B is reduced.
E. Molecule A is oxidized and molecule B is reduced.

24. Which term most precisely describes the cellular process of breaking down large molecules into smaller
ones?
A. catalysis
B. metabolism
C. anabolism
D. dehydration
E. catabolism
25. Which of the following statements about feedback inhibition in metabolic pathways is most CORRECT?
A. The product of the pathway inhibits its own production by binding reactants in the metabolic pathway.
B. The product of the pathway inhibits its own production by competitively inhibiting the binding of a substrate
to the active site of an enzyme within the metabolic pathway.
C. The product of the pathway inhibits its own production by noncompetitively inhibiting the binding of a
substrate to the active site of an enzyme within the metabolic pathway.
D. The product of the pathway inhibits its own production by noncompetitively binding to reactants.
E. All of the choices are correct.

26. In the biochemical regulation of metabolic pathways, how would one overcome the effects of a competitive
inhibitor on enzyme activity?
A. Increase the amount of substrate for the enzyme.
B. Increase the amount of competitive inhibitor.
C. Increase the temperature of the reaction.
D. Decrease the amount of enzyme.
E. Add a noncompetitive inhibitor of the enzyme.

27. The equation, C6H12O6 + 6O2 → 6CO2 + 6H2O (ATP + Heat), describes a reaction that
A. is endergonic.
B. requires energy.
C. occurs in plants only.
D. is exergonic.
E. is anabolic.

28. The equation, C6H12O6 + 6O2 → 6CO2 + 6H2O (ATP + Heat), describes which of the following processes?
A. photosynthesis
B. cell respiration
C. cell fermentation
D. glycolysis
E. anaerobic metabolism

29. Which of the following are the final by-products of glucose oxidation during aerobic cell respiration?
A. ATP only
B. heat only
C. carbon dioxide only
D. both ATP and heat only
E. ATP, heat, and carbon dioxide
30. Which of the following processes will occur in the presence or absence of oxygen?
A. glycolysis
B. electron transport chain
C. oxidative phosphorylation
D. cellular respiration
E. citric acid cycle

31. Where does glycolysis take place?

A. mitochondrial matrix
B. mitochondrial membrane
C. mitochondrial inner membrane
D. mitochondrial intermembrane space
E. cytosol

32. Which of the following is NOT a process of aerobic respiration?

A. citric acid cycle
B. glycolysis
C. acetyl CoA formation
D. oxidative phosphorylation
E. lactate fermentation

33. Which of the following is TRUE of the citric acid cycle?

A. It yields most of the NAD + in cell respiration.
B. It produces oxygen.
C. It yields ATP, NADH, and FADH2 as energy intermediates.
D. It occurs on the inner membrane of the mitochondria.
E. It produces ATP as the primary energy intermediate.

34. Which of the following function: location relationship is INCORRECT?

A. acetyl CoA formation; cytosol
B. citric acid cycle; mitochondrial matrix
C. oxidative phosphorylation; mitochondrial inner membrane
D. glycolysis; cytosol
E. electron transport chain and ATP synthase; mitochondrial inner membrane
35. Which compound has the highest free energy and produces the most ATP when oxidized?
A. acetyl CoA
B. glucose
C. pyruvate
D. carbon
E. both pyruvate and carbon

36. Cellular respiration produces the most chemical in the form of ATP from which of the following?
A. the electron transport chain
B. the citric acid cycle
C. substrate-level phosphorylation
D. glycolysis
E. oxidative phosphorylation

37. How many ATP and NADH molecules are produced from each molecule of glucose in the citric acid cycle
only?
A. 4 ATP, 2 NADH
B. 3 ATP, 4 NADH
C. 2 ATP, 6 NADH
D. 1 ATP, 2 NADH
E. 0 ATP, 6 NADH

38. How many net ATP and NADH molecules are produced from one molecule of glucose during glycolysis?
A. 4 ATP, 2 NADH
B. 3 ATP, 4 NADH
C. 2 ATP, 6 NADH
D. 2 ATP, 2 NADH
E. 0 ATP, 6 NADH

39. High-energy electrons from molecules of NADH and FADH2 are transferred to a chain of proteins within
the electron transport chain. What is the final electron acceptor of the electron transport chain?
A. carbon dioxide
B. oxygen
C. cytochrome c
D. ubiquinone
E. NAD+
40. Which of the following statements is TRUE of both aerobic and anaerobic respiration?
A. Both use glycolysis to oxidize glucose to pyruvate.
B. Both produce NADH as high-energy intermediates.
C. Both produce either lactic acid or ethanol as a biproduct.
D. Both use glycolysis to oxidize glucose to pyruvate and both produce NADH as high-energy intermediates.
E. Both produce NADH as high-energy intermediates and both produce either lactic acid or ethanol as a
biproduct.

41. Which would be TRUE if a metabolic inhibitor were to completely inhibit the function of mitochondrial
ATP synthase?
A. The pH difference across the inner mitochondrial membrane would decrease.
B. The pH difference across the inner mitochondrial membrane would increase.
C. ATP synthesis would increase.
D. Oxygen consumption would decrease.
E. The accumulation of NADH would increase.

42. Which of the following statements about the electron transport chain in cell respiration is CORRECT?
A. Electrons move from NADH to a chain of proteins with lower electronegativities.
B. The electron transport chain of proteins uses ATP to pump H+ across the inner mitochondrial membrane
against its electrochemical gradient.
C. The loss in free energy of the electron initially donated by NADH is used to transport H+ across the inner
mitochondrial membrane against its electrochemical gradient.
D. The electron transport chain of proteins contains pores that are leaky to H+.
E. The ATP synthase pump generates a H+ gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane.

43. Assuming a fat molecule can be oxidized into 2 glycerol molecules, which are immediately converted to
glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate, in intermediate glycolysis, how many ATP can be produced from a fat molecule?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 24
D. 36
E. 60

44. Where are the protein complexes associated with the electron transport chain located?
A. mitochondrial matrix
B. mitochondrial membrane
C. mitochondrial inner membrane
D. mitochondrial intermembrane space
E. cytosol
45. During glycolysis, glucose is broken down into
A. acetyl CoA.
B. NADH.
C. pyruvate.
D. oxygen.
E. ATP.

46. The ATP made during glycolysis is generated by

A. substrate-level phosphorylation.
B. electron transport.
C. photophosphorylation.
D. chemiosmosis.
E. oxidation of NADH to NAD+

47. During the cleavage stage of glycolysis, fructose-1,6-bisphosphate is broken down into
A. citric acid.
B. two molecules of pyruvate.
C. two molecules of ATP.
D. two molecules of glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate.
E. glucose.

48. In addition to ATP, what are the end products of glycolysis?

A. CO2 and NADH
B. CO2 and pyruvate
C. H2O, NADH, and citrate
D. NADH and pyruvate
E. CO2 and H2O

49. In the citric acid cycle, the acetyl group is removed from acetyl CoA and attached to oxaloacetate to form
A. fumarate.
B. succinate.
C. citrate.
D. malate.
E. oxaloacetate.
50. In the citric acid cycle, succinate is oxidized to form
A. fumarate.
B. succinate.
C. citrate.
D. malate.
E. oxaloacetate.

51. In the citric acid cycle, malate is oxidized to form

A. fumarate.
B. succinate.
C. citrate.
D. malate.
E. oxaloacetate.

52. The enzyme responsible for oxidizing pyruvate once it enters the mitochondrial matrix is
A. pyruvate oxidase.
B. pyruvate dehydrogenase.
C. hexokinase.
D. ATP synthase.
E. peptidase.

53. The pathway that shows the correct path of electron transfer from a molecule of NADH is
A. NADH dehydrogenase → ubiquinone → cytochrome oxidase → cytochrome b-c1 → cytochrome c → O2
B. NADH dehydrogenase → ubiquinone → cytochrome c → cytochrome b-c1→ cytochrome oxidase → O2
C. ubiquinone → cytochrome b-c1→ cytochrome c → cytochrome oxidase → NADH dehydrogenase → O2
D. NADH dehydrogenase → ubiquinone → cytochrome b-c1→ cytochrome c → cytochrome oxidase → O2
E. ubiquinone → cytochrome b-c1→ cytochrome c → NADH dehydrogenase → cytochrome oxidase → O2

54. The pathway that shows the correct path of electron transfer from a molecule of FADH2 is
A. succinate reductase → ubiquinone → cytochrome oxidase → cytochrome b-c1 → cytochrome c → O2
B. succinate reductase → ubiquinone → cytochrome b-c1→ cytochrome c → cytochrome oxidase → O2
C. ubiquinone → cytochrome b-c1→ cytochrome c → cytochrome oxidase → NADH dehydrogenase → O2
D. ubiquinone → cytochrome c → cytochrome b-c1 → NADH dehydrogenase → cytochrome oxidase → O2
E. ubiquinone → cytochrome b-c1→ cytochrome c → NADH dehydrogenase → cytochrome oxidase → O2
55. Energy released by the electron transport chain is used to pump H+ ions into which location?
A. cytosol
B. mitochondrial outer membrane
C. mitochondrial inner membrane
D. mitochondrial intermembrane space
E. mitochondrial matrix

56. Sports physiologists at an Olympic training center wanted to monitor athletes to determine at what point
their muscles were functioning anaerobically. They could do this by checking for the buildup of which
molecule?
A. ATP
B. lactate
C. carbon dioxide
D. ADP
E. oxygen

57. Which of the following is INCORRECT regarding ethanol fermentation?

A. A source of organic sugar is required, for instance from malt.
B. It results in a net production of NADH.
C. Glucose is oxidized to pyruvate as one of the steps.
D. Carbon dioxide and ATP are produced.
E. NADH is used to reduce acetaldehyde to ethanol.

58. Which of the following does NOT occur during yeast fermentation?
A. Acetaldehyde is reduced to make ethanol.
B. Decrease in NADH.
C. Lactate is produced.
D. Pyruvate is broken down into CO2 and acetaldehyde.
E. NADH is oxidized to NAD+

59. When muscle cells are deprived of oxygen, the heart still pumps. What must the heart cells be able to do?
A. derive sufficient energy from fermentation
B. continue aerobic metabolism when skeletal muscles cannot
C. transform lactate to pyruvate again
D. remove lactate from the blood
E. remove oxygen from lactate
60. Which of the following is NOT considered a secondary metabolite?
A. glucose
B. flavonoids
C. terpenoids
D. alkaloids
E. polyketides

61. Vanillin is to flavonoids as atropine is to

A. flavonoids.
B. terpenoids.
C. polyketides.
D. alkaloids.
E. B - carotenes.

62. If an athlete is burning glucose only, predict the ratio of oxygen consumed to carbon dioxide that will be
produced. C6H12O6 + 6O2 → 6CO2 + 6H2O
A. 2:1
B. 1:1
C. 1:2
D. 6:1
E. 1:6

63. The reaction of ethanol fermentation is: pyruvate + NADH → ethanol + CO2 + NAD+. Why would yeast
need to perform this reaction in the absence of oxygen?
A. To produce CO2 for respiration.
B. To consume excess pyruvate that cannot enter the Krebs cycle.
C. NADH is necessary to reduce pyruvate to lactate.
D. To produce NAD+ allowing the electron transport chain to run.
E. To produce NAD+ allowing glycolysis to continue.

64. If glucose was not phosphorylated in the first few reactions of glycolysis, which of the following would
occur?
A. Too much energy would be produced by glycolysis.
B. Fermentation would occur to produce pyruvate.
C. The reactions in glycolysis following the phosphorylation would not be exergonic.
D. The reactions in glycolysis following the phosphorylation would not be endergonic.
E. Fermentation would occur to produce NADH.
65. The formation of each pyruvate in glycolysis also produces a net of 2 NADH and 2 ATP. However, the
metabolism of each glucose unit produces a net of 4 NADH and 4 ATP. How is this explained?
A. Glucose is metabolized by a different, more efficient pathway than pyruvate.
B. Energy is added to glucose, which increases the amount of ATP produced per glucose molecule.
C. Glucose is cleaved into two three-carbon sugars that are metabolized into pyruvate.
D. Pyruvate can also be fermented, which decreases the energy produced.
E. For each two pyruvate molecules produced in glycolysis, only one is metabolized

66. In a PET scan, a patient is injected with radioactively labelled glucose. Cancer cells are often in a hypoxic
environment. Why would this lead to an increase in glucose uptake?
A. More energy is produced from glucose in hypoxic conditions.
B. Enzymes function more efficiently in the absence of oxygen.
C. They rely more on oxidative phosphorylation which is less efficient than glycolysis.
D. They rely more on glycolysis which is less efficient than oxidative phosphorylation.
E. Because they require more oxygen to metabolize glucose.

67. The reaction: pyruvate + CoA + NAD+ → acetyl CoA + CO2 + NADH, is catalyzed by pyruvate
dehydrogenase. If an inhibitor of this enzyme was added to cells, ___ levels in the cytoplasm would increase.
A. Acetyl CoA
B. ATP
C. Pyruvate
D. CO2
E. NADH

68. Reactions that produce glucose have less entropy than those that oxidize glucose.
True False

69. A reaction with a G>0 is endergonic and requires a net input of energy.
True False

70. Enzymes are consumed in chemical reactions and must therefore be replenished.
True False

71. Temperature, pH, and ionic concentrations play an important role in the proper functioning of enzymes.
True False
72. Noncompetitive inhibition within a metabolic pathway prevents excess accumulation of the pathway's
product. This occurs when the product binds to the active site of an enzyme, reducing its activity, and the
subsequent accumulation of product.
True False

73. Catabolic and anabolic reactions in living cells involve the transfer of electrons from one molecule to
another in reduction-oxidation reactions.
True False

74. Metabolism reflects only those reactions that yield energy.

True False

75. Glycolysis involves 10 enzyme-catalyzed steps that can be grouped into three phases: energy investment
phase, cleavage phase, and the energy liberation phase.
True False

76. The electron transport chain consists of a series of redox reactions in which electrons are transferred to
oxygen as the final electron acceptor.
True False

77. Oxygen is an excellent final electron acceptor because of its low electronegativity.
True False

78. NADH and FADH2 donate their electrons to protein complex I.

True False

79. Ubiquinone is also known as coenzyme Q.

True False

80. ATP synthase is a good example of a molecular machine that is composed of various protein subunits and
that has moving parts.
True False
81. The proton motive force is key to chemiosmosis because the H+ concentration is lower in the intermembrane
space than inside the matrix.
True False

82. If oxygen is present, pyruvate will be converted to acetyl CoA in the mitochondrial matrix.
True False

83. When a molecule of NAD+ (nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide) gains a hydrogen atom, the molecule
becomes reduced.
True False

84. Proteins and fats may be used as energy sources to drive aerobic respiration.
True False

85. During the energy investment phase of glycolysis, there is a decrease of free energy that allows later
reactions to be exergonic.
True False

86. The ability of bread to rise is mainly a function of the CO2 produced during oxidative phosphorylation
rather than that produced from fermentation.
True False

87. The aerobic breakdown of glucose yields 34 to 38 ATP, while the anaerobic breakdown of glucose yields 20
ATP.
True False

88. Secondary metabolites like caffeine are produced mainly from plant sources.
True False
c7 Key

1. Which of the following represents two general factors that determine the fate of a chemical reaction in living
cells?
A. Its enzyme and rate.
B. Its enzyme and direction.
C. Its direction and rate.
D. Its rate and product.
E. Its enzyme and product.

Bloom's: Remember
Brooker - Chapter 07 #1
Difficulty: Moderate
Learning Objective: 07-01-01 Describe two types of reactions based on their energy requirements.
Section: 7.1
Topic: Energy, Chemical Reactions, and Enzymes

2. Water held behind a dam would best reflect ________.

A. potential energy
B. kinetic energy
C. chemical energy
D. heat energy
E. mechanical energy

Bloom's: Understand
Brooker - Chapter 07 #2
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 07-01-01 Describe two types of reactions based on their energy requirements.
Section: 7.1
Topic: Energy, Chemical Reactions, and Enzymes

3. All of the following have potential energy EXCEPT

A. ATP.
B. nitrogen.
C. an electrical/ion gradient.
D. concentration gradient.
E. NADH

Bloom's: Understand
Brooker - Chapter 07 #3
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 07-01-01 Describe two types of reactions based on their energy requirements.
Section: 7.1
Topic: Energy, Chemical Reactions, and Enzymes
4. According to the first law of thermodynamics
A. the transfer of energy increases the disorder of a system.
B. the transfer of energy increases entropy.
C. energy cannot be created or destroyed.
D. once energy is created it can be destroyed.
E. kinetic energy is based on location.

Bloom's: Remember
Brooker - Chapter 07 #4
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 07-01-01 Describe two types of reactions based on their energy requirements.
Section: 7.1
Topic: Energy, Chemical Reactions, and Enzymes

5. The amount of available energy that can be used to do work is called

A. enthalpy.
B. entropy.
C. free energy.
D. kinetic energy.
E. heat.

Bloom's: Remember
Brooker - Chapter 07 #5
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 07-01-01 Describe two types of reactions based on their energy requirements.
Section: 7.1
Topic: Energy, Chemical Reactions, and Enzymes

6. Which of the following is TRUE for a reaction that has a G<0?

A. The reaction will require energy.
B. The reaction will yield energy.
C. The reaction is spontaneous.
D. The reaction will require energy and is spontaneous.
E. The reaction will yield energy and is spontaneous.

Bloom's: Understand
Brooker - Chapter 07 #6
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 07-01-01 Describe two types of reactions based on their energy requirements.
Section: 7.1
Topic: Energy, Chemical Reactions, and Enzymes
7. Which is true of the following reaction: Pi + ADP = ATP?
A. It has a change in free energy that is less than 0.
B. It has a change in free energy that is greater than 0.
C. It can be used to drive endergonic reactions.
D. It yields energy.
E. It has a change in free energy that is greater than 0, and hence can be used to drive endergonic reactions.

Bloom's: Understand
Brooker - Chapter 07 #7
Difficulty: Moderate
Learning Objective: 07-01-01 Describe two types of reactions based on their energy requirements.
Section: 7.1
Topic: Energy, Chemical Reactions, and Enzymes

8. Which of the following reactions would require the hydrolysis of at least two ATP molecules (G = -14.6
kCal) for it to occur?
A. A reaction that has a G = -8 kCal.
B. A reaction that has a G = +8 kCal.
C. A reaction that has a G = -16 kCal.
D. A reaction that has a G = +16 kCal.
E. A reaction that has a G = -14.6 kCal.

Bloom's: Apply
Brooker - Chapter 07 #8
Difficulty: Moderate
Learning Objective: 07-01-02 Explain how ATP is used to provide energy for enzymatic reactions.
Section: 7.1
Topic: Energy, Chemical Reactions, and Enzymes

9. A chemical reaction that has a positive G is correctly described as

A. endergonic.
B. endothermic.
C. enthalpic.
D. spontaneous.
E. exothermic.

Bloom's: Remember
Brooker - Chapter 07 #9
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: 07-01-01 Describe two types of reactions based on their energy requirements.
Section: 7.1
Topic: Energy, Chemical Reactions, and Enzymes
10. Which of the following is true for ALL exergonic reactions?
A. The products have more total energy than the reactants.
B. The reaction proceeds with a net release of free energy.
C. Some reactants will be converted to products.
D. A net input of energy from the surroundings is required for the reactions to proceed.
E. The reactions are nonspontaneous.

Bloom's: Understand
Brooker - Chapter 07 #10
Difficulty: Moderate
Learning Objective: 07-01-01 Describe two types of reactions based on their energy requirements.
Section: 7.1
Topic: Energy, Chemical Reactions, and Enzymes

11. Which of the following statements is a logical consequence of the second law of thermodynamics?
A. If the entropy of a system increases, there must be a corresponding decrease in the entropy of the universe.
B. If there is an increase in the energy of a system, there must be a corresponding decrease in the energy of the
rest of the universe.
C. Every energy transfer requires activation energy from the environment.
D. Every chemical reaction must increase the total entropy of the universe.
E. Energy can be transferred or transformed, but it cannot be created or destroyed.

Bloom's: Understand
Brooker - Chapter 07 #11
Difficulty: Moderate
Learning Objective: 07-01-01 Describe two types of reactions based on their energy requirements.
Section: 7.1
Topic: Energy, Chemical Reactions, and Enzymes

12. Which of the following statements about enzymes is FALSE?

A. The active site of the enzyme is where the chemical reaction takes place.
B. The substrate binds to the enzyme with low affinity.
C. The enzyme undergoes a conformational change that brings substrates closer together in an induced fit.
D. The optimal activity of an enzyme occurs over a narrow temperature range.
E. The optimal activity of an enzyme occurs within a narrow pH range.

Bloom's: Understand
Brooker - Chapter 07 #12
Difficulty: Moderate
Learning Objective: 07-01-01 Describe two types of reactions based on their energy requirements.
Section: 7.1
Topic: Energy, Chemical Reactions, and Enzymes
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 Erklärung der Abbildungen
auf
Tafel X und XI

Tafel X

Die Figuren 13, 27, 28 und 29 sind direct nach den Präparaten, die
übrigen nach Microphotogrammen von dem Museumszeichner Hrn.
Geisler auf den Stein gravirt. Die einzelnen Haare sind so geordnet, dass
ähnliche Formen möglichst zusammenstehen, ohne Rücksicht auf die
systematische Verwandtschaft der Arten, denen sie entnommen sind.

1–6 Seitenansichten.

N . l i1m b a t u s (Ptrs.). Langes Spatelhaar mit Anhang an der

Endplatte, aus der Region median oberhalb der Nase. 46mal
vergrössert. Seite 38.
N2,. 2pau m i l u s (Crtschm.). 2 a sehr kurzes Spatelhaar mit
Anhang an der Endplatte, vom seitlichen Theile der Oberlippe.
46mal vergrössert. 2 Endplatte nebst Anhang von demselben
Haar. 190mal vergrössert. Seite 38.
N . 3,s 4a r a s i n o r u m A. B. M. Seite 37. 3 langes, wenig
typisches Spatelhaar von der Gegend seitlich oberhalb der
Nase. 4 typisches Haar von dem Felde zwischen Nase und
Mundrand 1. Vergrösserung von 3 und 4 je 46mal.
N . p5l i c a t u s (Buch. Ham.). Typisches Spatelhaar von den
Wülsten der Oberlippe 1. 46mal vergrössert. Seite 37, 38.
C h e i6r o m e l e s t o r q u a t u s Horsf. Langes, ziemlich
typisches Spatelhaar von der grossen Zehe. 46mal
vergrössert. Seite 39.

7–11 Flächenansichten.
 N . b i v i t t a t u s Hgl. Typisches Haar von dem Feld an der
7Schnauzenspitze. Die Endplatte ist in der Gravur viel zu
dunkel ausgefallen. 46mal vergrössert. Seite 37, 38.
N . l i8m b a t u s (Ptrs.). Ziemlich typisches Haar von den
Wülsten der Oberlippe. Bezüglich der Endplatte gilt das
Gleiche wie für Fig. 7. 46mal vergrössert. Seite 37, 38.
N 9–11
. p l i c a t u s (Buch. Ham.). Haare von den seitlichen
Theilen der Oberlippe. Mit Ausnahme von 9 a sämmtlich 46mal
vergrössert. 9 Haar von mittlerer Ausbildung 1, 9 a die Endplatte
desselben (190mal vergrössert). Seite 38. 10, 11 wenig
ausgeprägte Formen. Seite 37, 38.
12,
N .12bai v i t t a t u s Hgl. Borste oberhalb der Nase, zu den
modificirten Haaren der „ersten Gruppe“ gehörig, mit Anhang
an der Spitze. 12 ganzes Haar, 46mal vergrössert, 12 a oberes
Ende desselben, 100mal vergrössert. Seite 36, 38.
N. b 13r a c h y p t e r u s (Ptrs.). Endplatte eines mittleren
Spatelhaars von der Region oberhalb seitwärts der Nase, mit
Anhang, dessen Endglied abgerissen ist. Flächenansicht.
190mal vergrössert. Seite 38.
N14,
. b15i v i t t a t u s Hgl. Lange, wenig typische Spatelhaare der
Region median oberhalb der Nase. 14 von der Fläche, 15 von
der Seite. In letzterer Figur ist die Zackung der Oberfläche
versehentlich zu stark wiedergegeben. 46mal vergrössert.
Seite 37. [54]
N16,
. p17l i c a t u s (Buch. Ham.). Spatelhaare von den seitlichen
Theilen der Oberlippe, von der Seite gesehen. 46mal
vergrössert. 16 Haar mittlerer Form, etwa entsprechend Fig.
9 2. Seite 37. 17 sehr wenig ausgeprägtes Haar, etwa wie das
der Fig. 11. Seite 37, 38.
N. b 18i v i t t a t u s Hgl. Borste vom Gesichte, zur „ersten
Gruppe“ gehörig. 46mal vergrössert. Seite 36.
N. a 19s t r o l a b i e n s i s A. B. M. Borste von der Oberlippe, zur
„ersten Gruppe“ gehörig. 46mal vergrössert. Seite 36.
C20–25
h e i r o m e l e s t o r q u a t u s Horsf.
 Borste20 vom Gesichte, zur „ersten Gruppe“ gehörig.
46mal vergrössert. Seite 48.
Körperhaare von der Brust. Seite 35. a–d längere und
21 a–ekürzere ganze Haare, 46mal vergrössert; e
ein Stück aus der Mitte von a, 120mal vergrössert.
modificirte
22, 23 Spatelhaare des Feldes vorn an der
Schnauze, Flächenansicht. 46mal vergrössert.
Seite 39.
24, 25 von den seitlichen Theilen des Gesichts 2,
Borsten
in die „zweite Gruppe“ gehörig. 46mal vergrössert.
Seite 39.
N
26,
. b27r a s i l i e n s i s Is. Geoffr. Borsten der „zweiten Gruppe“.
46mal vergrössert. Seite 39. 26 von den Wülsten der
Oberlippe, 27 oberhalb der Nase.
N . s28a r a s i n o r u m A. B. M. Habitusbild der Spatelhaare des
Feldes unterhalb der Nasenlöcher. Der Pfeil am Rande deutet
die Medianebene und die Richtung nach der Nase an. Die
Endknöpfchen erscheinen in der Abbildung zu flach. Geringe
Vergrösserung (Zeiss, Binocular). Seite 36.
M o l29
o s s u s r u f u s o b s c u r u s (Geoffr.). Dasselbe wie von
vorigem. Der Pfeil am Rand hat die gleiche Bedeutung wie
dort. Vergrösserung dieselbe. Seite 36.
N y c30
t i n o m u s a s t r o l a b i e n s i s A. B. M. Eine Parthie
Körperhaar von der Brust, die verschiedenen Abschnitte
einzelner Haare zeigend. 110mal vergrössert. Seite 34.

Tafel XI

Umrisszeichnungen von Köpfen und Füssen verschiedener Molossiden,

um die Anordnung der Spatelhaare zu zeigen. In den Abbildungen der
Füsse sind die Spatelhaare und ausserdem die langen gekrümmten Haare
naturgetreu wiedergegeben; in denen der Köpfe sind nur Spatelhaare und
entsprechende Borsten und zwar schematisch durch Punkte oder durch
Striche mit verdickten Enden angedeutet.
 N1–1
y c tai n o m u s p l i c a t u s (Buch. Ham.) von Sumatra
(Dresd. Mus. 3631). 1 Kopf von vorn und unten in doppelter, 1
a rechter Fuss von rechts und etwas von unten in vierfacher
nat. Grösse. Seite 43–44.
N2–2
y c tai n o m u s s a r a s i n o r u m A. B. M. von Central
Celébes (Dresd. Mus. 3763). 2 Kopf von vorn und unten in
doppelter, 2 a rechter Fuss von rechts und etwas von unten in
vierfacher nat. Grösse. Seite 44.
N y c t3i n o m u s b i v i t t a t u s Hgl. von Keren, Bogos, NO
Afrika (Stuttg. Nat. Cabin. 981). Kopf von der Seite in doppelter
nat. Grösse. Seite 44.
N y c t4i n o m u s l i m b a t u s (Ptrs.) von Quelimane, O Afrika
(Stuttg. Nat. Cabin. 2036). Kopf von vorn und unten in
doppelter nat. Grösse. Seite 45.
N y c t5i n o m u s a n g o l e n s i s Ptrs. von Madagascar (Dresd.
Mus. 3761). Kopf von vorn und unten in doppelter nat. Grösse.
Seite 45.
N y c t6i n o m u s a s t r o l a b i e n s i s A. B. M. von Deutsch
Neu Guinea (Dresd. Mus. 3306). Kopf von vorn und unten in
doppelter nat. Grösse. Seite 46.
N y c t7i n o m u s b r a s i l i e n s i s Is. Geoffr. von Brasilien
(Dresd. Mus. 1981). Kopf von vorn und unten in doppelter nat.
Grösse. Seite 46. [55]
M o l o8s s u s r u f u s o b s c u r u s (Geoffr.) von Cuba (Dresd.
Mus. 1170). Kopf von vorn und unten in doppelter nat. Grösse.
Seite 47.
M o l o9s s u s a b r a s u s (Temm.) von Surinam (Dresd. Mus.
1148). Kopf von vorn und unten in doppelter nat. Grösse. Seite
47.
M o l10
o s s u s p e r o t i s (Wied) von Surinam (Stuttg. Nat. Cab.
293). Kopf von vorn und unten in doppelter nat. Grösse. Seite
48.
11–11
C h e idr o m e l e s t o r q u a t u s Horsf. von Java (Dresd. Mus.
3628). 11 und 11 a nat. Grösse, 11 b-d doppelte nat. Grösse.
Seite 48–49.
 Kopf11von der Seite
Kopf
11 von
a vorn und unten
rechter
11 b Fuss, Plantarseite
erste
11 cZehe des rechten Fusses von rechts
dieselbe
11 d von oben.

1 Der axiale dunkle Strang tritt im Präparate viel schärfer hervor. ↑ a b c

2 Der axiale dunkle Strang tritt im Präparate schärfer hervor. ↑ a b

[Inhalt]

Abh. Ber. K. Zool. Anthr. Ethn. Mus. Dresden 1898/9 Nr. 7

Meyer: Säugethiere Celébes II. Taf. I
 M a c a c u s m a u r u s F. Cuv.

c. ⅓ nat. Grösse

Abh. Ber. K. Zool. Anthr. Ethn. Mus. Dresden 1898/9 Nr. 7

Meyer: Säugethiere Celébes II. Taf. II
M a c a c u s m a u r u s F. Cuv.

¾ nat. Grösse
 Abh. Ber. K. Zool. Anthr. Ethn. Mus. Dresden 1898/9 Nr. 7
Meyer: Säugethiere Celébes II. Taf. III

1–2 T a r s i u s f u s c u s Fisch.-Waldh. 3 T a r s i u s s a n g i r e n s i s A. B.
Meyer

1 nat. Grösse, 2 circa ⅔, 3 circa ½ nat. Grösse

Abh. Ber. K. Zool. Anthr. Ethn. Mus. Dresden 1898/9 Nr. 7

 Meyer: Säugethiere Celébes II. Taf. IV

1 P t e r o p u s w a l l a c e i Gr. 2 V e s p e r u g o p e t e r s i n. sp. 3 V e s p e r u g o
m i n a h a s s a e n. sp. 4–6 N y c t i n o m u s s a r a s i n o r u m n. sp.

1 und 4 nat. Grösse, 2–5 doppelte, 6 vierfache nat. Grösse

Abh. Ber. K. Zool. Anthr. Ethn. Mus. Dresden 1898/9 Nr. 7

Meyer: Säugethiere Celébes II. Taf. V
 S c i u r u s s a r a s i n o r u m A. B. Meyer

nat. Grösse u. ½ nat. Grösse

Abh. Ber. K. Zool. Anthr. Ethn. Mus. Dresden 1898/9 Nr. 7

Meyer: Säugethiere Celébes II. Taf. VI
 1 Mus musschenbroeki Jent. 2–10 Mus xanthurus Gr.

1–8 nat. Grösse, 9 und 10 circa 5 fache nat. Grösse

Abh. Ber. K. Zool. Anthr. Ethn. Mus. Dresden 1898/9 Nr. 7

Meyer: Säugethiere Celébes II. Taf. VII
 1 M u s c a l l i t r i c h u s Jent. 2–10 M u s h e l l w a l d i Jent.

1–8 nat. Grösse, 9 und 10 circa 7 fache nat. Grösse

Abh. Ber. K. Zool. Anthr. Ethn. Mus. Dresden 1898/9 Nr. 7

Meyer: Säugethiere Celébes II. Taf. VIII
 L e n o m y s m e y e r i (Jent.)

nat. Grösse

Abh. Ber. K. Zool. Anthr. Ethn. Mus. Dresden 1898/9 Nr. 7

Meyer: Säugethiere Celébes II. Taf. IX
 C r a u r o t h r i x l e u c u r a (Gr.)

nat. Grösse

Abh. Ber. K. Zool. etc. Mus. Dresden 1898/9 Nr. 7

Meyer: Säugeth. Celébes II. (Anhg.: Jablonowski: Haare d. Molossi) Taf. X
 Nyctinomus plicatus (Buch. Ham.) Fig. 5, 9–11, 16, 17 N. sarasinorum
A. B. M. Fig. 3, 4, 28 N. bivittatus Hgl. Fig. 7, 12, 12a, 14, 15, 18 N.
brachypterus (Ptrs.) Fig. 13 N. pumilus (Crtschm.) Fig. 2, 2a N. limbatus
(Ptrs.) Fig. 1, 8 N. astrolabiensis A. B. M. Fig. 19, 30 N. brasiliensis Is.
Geoffr. Fig. 26, 27 Molossus rufus obscurus (Geoffr.) Fig. 29 Cheiromeles
torquatus Horsf. Fig. 6, 20–25
Abh. Ber. K. Zool. etc. Mus. Dresden 1898/9 Nr. 7
Meyer: Säugeth. Celébes II. (Anhg.: Jablonowski: Haare d. Molossi) Taf.
XI
1, 1a Nyctinomus plicatus (Buch. Ham.) 2, 2a N. sarasinorum A. B. M. 3
N. bivittatus Hgl. 4 N. limbatus (Ptrs.) 5 N. angolensis Ptrs. 6 N.
astrolabiensis A. B. M. 7 N. brasiliensis Is. Geoffr. 8 Molossus rufus
obscurus (Geoffr.) 9 M. abrasus (Temm.) 10 M. perotis (Wied) 11–11d
Cheiromeles torquatus Horsf.
 Inhaltsverzeichnis

Inhaltsverzeichniss V
Tafelerklärung VII
1. Macacus maurus F. Cuv. 1
2-3. Macacus cynomolgus L. und philippinensis Js. Geoffr. 4
4-5. Cynopithecus niger (Desm.) und nigrescens (Temm.) 5
6. Tarsius fuscus Fisch.-Waldh. 8
7. Tarsius sangirensis n. sp. 9
8. Tarsius philippensis A. B. Meyer 9
9. Tarsius spectrum (Pall.) 9
10. Paradoxurus musschenbroeki Schl. 10
11. Bubalus mindorensis Heude 12
12. Babirusa alfurus Less. 15
Vorkommen und damit in Verbindung stehende Fragen. 15
Zahnformel. 22
Bewehrung der Sau. 23
13. Sciurus tonkeanus n. sp. 25
14. Sciurus leucomus Müll. Schl. 25
15. Sciurus rosenbergi Jent. 26
16. Sciurus tingahi n. sp. 27
17. Sciurus steeri Gthr. 27
18. Sciurus mindanensis Steere 28
19. Sciurus samarensis Steere 29
20. Phlœomys cumingi Wtrh. 29
21. Crateromys schadenbergi (A. B. Meyer) 31
22. Phalanger celebensis (Gr.) 33
23. Phalanger sangirensis n. sp. 34
24. Phalanger ursinus (Temm.) 34
Index. 35
Tafeln
Inhaltsverzeichniss III
Tafelerklärung V
Alphabetischer Index VII
Addenda VIII
Einleitung 1
Primates Cercopithecidae 2
1. Macacus maurus F. Cuv. 2
Macacus tonkeanus n. sp. 3
2. Cynopithecus niger (Desm.) 4
3. Cynopithecus niger nigrescens (Temm.) 4
Tarsiidae 4
4. Tarsius fuscus Fisch.-Waldh. 4
Chiroptera Megachiroptera Pteropidae 5
5. Pteropus wallacei Gr. 5
6. Pteropus alecto Temm. 5
7. Pteropus hypomelanus Temm. 6
8. Pteropus mackloti Temm. (Pteropus celebensis Schl.) 6
9. Xantharpyia minor (Dobs.) 6
10. Cynopterus latidens Dobs. 7
Anmerkung 7
11. Uronycteris cephalotes (Pall.) 8
12. Cephalotes peroni Geoffr. 9
13. Carponycteris australis (Ptrs.) 10
Microchiroptera Rhinolophidae 11
14. Rhinolophus minor Horsf. 11
15. Hipposiderus diadema (Geoffr.) 11
Nycteridae 12
16. Megaderma spasma (L.) 12
Vespertilionidae 12
17. Vesperus pachypus (Temm.) 12
18. Vesperugo petersi n. sp. 13
Anmerkung 14
Vesperugo papuanus orientalis. 14
19. Vesperugo minahassae n. sp. 14
20. Vespertilio muricola Hdgs. 16
Emballonuridae Molossi 16
21. Nyctinomus sarasinorum n. sp. 16
Anmerkung 19
Nyctinomus astrolabiensis n. sp. 19
Insectivora Soricidae 20
22. Crocidura fuliginosa (Blyth) 20
Carnivora Viverridae 20
23. Viverra tangalunga Gray 20
24. Paradoxurus hermaphroditus (Schreb.) 20
25. Paradoxurus musschenbroeki Schl. 20
Rodentia Sciuridae 21
26. Sciurus leucomus Müll. Schl. 21
27. Sciurus leucomus occidentalis A. B. M. 21
28. Sciurus sarasinorum A. B. M. 21
29. Sciurus murinus Müll. Schl. 21
30. Sciurus rubriventer Müll. Schl. 22
Muridae 22
31. Mus rattus L. 22
32. Mus neglectus Jent. (?) 22
33. Mus ephippium Jent. 23
34. Mus musschenbroeki Jent. 23
35. Mus callitrichus Jent. 24