DOC-20240621-WA0013.(1)

Question 1
Which statement is correct?

o When assigning severity categories, the focus is on the cumulative suffering of
the animal. Evaluation of the individual interventions or manipulations during
the experiment play a minor role, as do restrictions on the natural behavior of
the animals or on husbandry and care.
o When assigning severity categories, all interventions or manipulations during
the experiment are taken into account. The assessment of cumulative suffering
during a procedure is only evaluated in retrospect and is only relevant for the
retrospective assessment.
o When assigning severity categories, only interventions or manipulations during
an experiment that cause pain, suffering or damage are taken into account. The
behavior of the animals or the husbandry and care are not taken into account.
o When assigning severity categories only interventions or manipulations during
the experiment are taken into account. Restrictions on the natural behavior of
the animals or on husbandry and care are not assessed for the evaluation of
stress during an experiment.
o When assigning severity categories, all interventions or manipulations during
the experiment are taken into account. This includes restrictions on the natural
behavior of the animals or on husbandry and care, as well as the assessment of
cumulative suffering during a procedure.
Question 2
An animal can be killed after completion of the experiment if
o it cannot be used in another experiment.
o it cannot be rehomed like for example in the case of dogs and cats.
o reasonable grounds exists.
o it is no longer needed according to the person in charge of the experiment.
o there is no more free space available in the husbandry.
Question 3
According to the legislator, an animal experiment is completed, if
o in the case of a third-party funding the eligibility period has expired. In this
case, all animals must be killed subsequently.
o no more observations have been made on the offspring of genetically modified
new animal lines.
o the deadline for approval has expired. In this case, all other animals must be
killed as well after they have been presented to a veterinarian.
o no more observations are to be made for the animal experiment.
o the experiments are terminated and the animals have been killed.
Question 4
The expertise of persons participating in animal experiments is laid down in a binding
way in which legal acts?
o Only in the Animal Welfare Act (Tier SchG)
o Only in the Animal Welfare Act and in the Experimental Animals Ordinance
o In the Directive 2010/63/EU, the Animal Welfare Act and the Experimental
Animals Ordinance are of minor importance
o Only in the Experimental Animals Ordinance (Tiersch Vers V)
o In all three legal acts (Animal Welfare Act, Experimental Animals Ordinance,
Directive 2010/63/EU)
Question 5
Which statements are WRONG?
o Besides the wellbeing of the animal, the animal welfare officer especially has to
protect the operational interests and the interests of the researchers. For this
reason, he may only recommend refinements, if they can be implemented
economically.
o The animal welfare officer should advise persons participating in animal
experiments, in particular with regards to the indispensability of animal
experiments (the application of the 3R) and inform them constantly about the
relevant technical and scientific developments. He should also ensure this on
an internal level.
o The animal welfare officer is legally obliged to advise persons participating in
animal experiments, in particular with regards to the indispensability of animal
experiments (the application of the 3R) and to inform them constantly about
the relevant technical and scientific developments.
Question 6
o The ban on breeding for defects does not apply to vertebrates, which are
generated or bred for scientific purposes.
o The ban on breeding for defects does also apply to vertebrates, which are
generated or bred for scientific purposes.
Question 7
What basic principles must be fulfilled in order to carry out euthanasia of an animal
properly (8 4 para. 1 Tier SchG)?
o An animal may only be euthanized by specialist who can show that they are
qualified to do so.
o An animal may only be euthanized under anesthesia.
o An animal may only be euthanized with the avoidance of pain and suffering.
o Animals may only be euthanized by specialist medical personnel.
Question 8
What is considered in the approval procedure for an animal experiment?
o Whether there is an acceptable reason that justifies inflicting "severe pain,
suffering or harm" on animals.
o That "severe pain, suffering or harm" is not inflicted on the animals.
o That animals are not exposed to "severe pain, suffering or harm" for too long.
Question 9
When is an animal experiment not allowed to be carried out?
o When it is intended for the development of weapons.
o If it is absolutely essential for basic research.
o When it helps to identify environmental risks.
o When it serves to prevent, diagnose or treat diseases in humans and animals.
o When they are part of the safety and efficacy tests of substances and products.
Question 10
What has become established as the minimum ethical standard today as regards
research involving animal experiments?
o Animal experiments may be carried out until an alternative method has been
found.
o Compliance with the 3 Rs (refinement, reduction, replacement).
o No animal experiments are carried out unless they can produce reliably
applicable results.
Question 11
Ethics answers the question with regards to morally correct behaviour.
o false
o true
Question 12
What is meant by the term "inbreeding depression"?
o Stereotypical behavior in inbred animals.
o Occurrence of modified traits (e.g. less growth, decline in fertility).
o Mental disorder after persistent inbreeding.
Question 13
What system is used for housing gnotobiotic animals?
o Isolator housing
o SPF housing
o Conventional housing
Question 14
What are the basic forms of breeding?
o Inbreeding
o Minimal breeding
o Outbreeding
o Mixed breeding
Question 15
Which factors cause a raised hygiene risk?
o diseased animals on location
o no usage of biological substances
o frequent changes in personnel
o long-term studies
o occasional additions of new animals
Question 16
The bodyweight of a healthy adult male rat is usually between
o 250 - 300 g
o 450 - 520 g
o 300 - 450 g
Question 17
What is the maximum number of rats with a body weight of 200 - 300 g that can be
dept in a cage with an area of 800 cm??
3
Question 18
The body temperature of a healthy adult rabbit is usually between
o 36,5 - 38,5 °C
o 34,5 – 36,5 °C
o 38 - 40°C
Question 19
What is the expression used to describe mutual cleaning of fur in mice?
o barbering
o freezing
o grooming
Question 20
What is the total blood volume of a 25 g mouse?
o 1.4 - 1.9 ml
o 1.9 -2.7 ml
o 2.7 - 4.0 ml
Question 21
The Visual Analog Scale (VAS) is a
o Semi-objective scale between the two extremes 'no pain' and 'unbearable
pain'.
o Semi-objective scale with several rating points, permitting more accurate
classification.
o Semi-objective scale, which recognizes four categories of pain that correspond
to a pain score.
Question 22
The cortex is responsible for the sensory/discriminative perception of pain and the
limbic system for the affective dimensions of pain.
o false
o true
Question 23
Which route of administration is used for substances that can lead to necrosis?
o intramuscular
o intraperitoneal
o subcutaneous
Question 24
With which form of administration is the active substance absorbed via the
gastrointestinal tract?
o Local administration
o Parenteral administration
o Enteral administration
Question 25
Percutaneous administration - what is that?
o Administration through the skin.
o Administration under the skin.
o Administration through the oral mucosa.
Question 26
What type of administration do you see being used here?
o subcutaneous
o intramuscular
o intraperitoneal
Question 27
Small rodents and rabbits should not be given any more feed (especially high-energy
protein feed) 12 to 16 hours before the operation.
o false
o true
Question 28
What is the advantage of injection anesthesia?
o No stress for the animal
o Easy to control
o Minimal technical complexity
Question 29
Isoflurane causes a rise in blood sugar levels shortly after administration.
o false
o true
Question 30
Buprenorphine should not be used as a post-operative analgesic with rats, as it can
lead to PICA behavior.
o false
o true
Question 31
Which of the statements ist correct?
o Propofol is a long-acting hypnotic
o Propofol is a short-acting hypnotic
Question 32
The age of the animal has no effect on the anaesthesia.
o false
o true
Question 33
Anesthetics can influence the cardiovascular system, breathing and other organ
systems.
o false
o true
Question 34
Mouse: A slight weight loss (< 5%) is a sign of...
o No stress
o Mild stress
o Moderate stress
o Severe stress
Question 35
Rat: Signs of severe stress are...
o constant crouched posture, tremor, convulsions
o reduced food intake / weight loss (5 - 20%)
o occasional abnormal breathing
Question 36 Alpha2-Adrenoceptor agonists are...
o hypnotic
o sedative
o analgesic
Question 37
In principle, most of the commonly used laboratory animals can be kept at a
temperature of 20-24°C.
o true
o false
Question 38
In view of their way of life mice should be housed in individual cages.
o false
o true
Question 39
What is the minimum height of a cage for mice?
o 15 cm
o 12 cm
o 10 cm
o 8 cm
Question 40
At what level is the a value conventionally set in most cases?
o at 2.0
o at 0.5
o at 0.05
o at 0.0005
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○ Core Modules
■ C 01 National legislation
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■ C 04 Husbandry
■ Housing
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■ Identification
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■ C 05 Strain
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■ Humane Endpoint
■ C 06 Euthanasia
■ Methods
■ General
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○ Function-specific Modules
■ F 07 Procedures without anaesthesia
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■ F 09 Ethics and 3R II
■ Ethics II
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■ References and Web sites
■ F 10 Design of procedures and projects I
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○ Task Specific Modules
■ T 20 Anaesthesia and analgesia I
■ Anaesthesia and analgesia
■ Local anaesthesia
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■ Pharmacology
■ T 21 Anaesthesia and analgesia II
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■ Pharmacology
■ T 22 Surgical procedures
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■ Embryo transfer: mouse
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○ Additional Modules
■ A 01 History
■ History
■ A 02 Procedures for blood sampling
■ Instruments
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■ Mouse
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■ A 03 Genetically modified animals (GMA)
■ Introduction
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■ Collection of oocytes
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■ A 04 Telemetry
■ Implanted telemetry
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■ A 05 Non-invasive methods
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■ Module #A Basic principles
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■ Module #G Strain and anesthesia
○ EU Module
■ C 01 Animal Welfare legislation in Germany
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■ C 03 - C 06 General
■ C 03 - C 06 Mouse
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■ C 03 - C 06 Oscine birds
■ C 03 - C 06 Chicken
■ C 01, F 09 – F 11 Legislation, ethics, project planning
■ T 20 - T 22 Anaesthesia and Surgical procedures
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Begin of exam: 02.09.2020 13:47
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Question 1
What system is used for housing gnotobiotic animals?
Conventional housing
Isolator housing
SPF housing
Question 2
An animal can be killed after completion of the experiment if
reasonable grounds exist.

it cannot be used in another experiment.
it is no longer needed according to the person in charge of the experiment.
it cannot be rehomed like for example in the case of dogs and cats.
there is no more free space available in the husbandry.
Question 3
What is applicable?
Tthe animal, the animal welfare officer especially has to protect the operational interests and the
interests of the researchers. For this reason, he may only recommend refinements, if they can
be implemented economically.
The AWO advises the authority on issues concerning the housing and care of laboratory
animals. The focus here above all is on new alternatives to animal experiments or refinements
in breeding and husbandry.
The animal welfare officer is legally obliged to advise persons participating in animal
experiments, in particular with regards to the indispensability of animal experiments (the
application of the 3R) and to inform them constantly about the relevant technical and scientific
developments.
Question 4
Which factors cause a raised hygiene risk?
occasional additions of new animals

diseased animals on location
no usage of biological substances
frequent changes in personnel
long-term studies
Question 5
Small rodents and rabbits should not be given any more feed (especially concentrated feed) 12
to 16 hours before surgery.
false
true
Question 6
As part of your PhD studies, you are planning an animal experiment. You have not yet been at
the facility for long, and you contact the facility’s Animal Welfare Officer (AWO) for support.
What do the AWO’s legal duties include as regards submission of the application?
The statistical planning of the experiment.

Clarification of whether planned experiments are practicable under local conditions.
A final opinion to be issued at the request of the authority.
Making sure that enough associates are available.
Answering possible questions by the animal experiment committee.
Question 7
Buprenorphine should not be used as a post-operative analgesic with rats, as it can lead to
PICA behavior.
false
true
Question 8
What are the basic forms of breeding?
Outbreeding
Inbreeding
Minimal breeding
Mixed breeding
Question 9
When is an animal experiment not allowed to be carried out?
When it is intended for the development of weapons.

When it helps to identify environmental risks.
When it serves to prevent, diagnose or treat diseases in humans and animals.
If it is absolutely essential for basic research.
When they are part of the safety and efficacy tests of substances and products.
Question 10
In view of their way of life mice should be housed in individual cages.
true
false
Question 11
Percutaneous administration – what is that?
Administration through the skin.

Administration under the skin.
Administration through the oral mucosa.
Question 12
In principle, most of the commonly used laboratory animals can be kept at a temperature of 20 –
24°C.
true
false
Question 13
What is the advantage of injection anesthesia?
No stress for the animal

Minimal technical complexity
Easy to control
Question 14
At what level is the α value conventionally set in most cases?
at 0.5
at 2.0
at 0.0005
at 0.05
Question 15
Under what circumstances is it necessary to kill animals humanely ahead of schedule in a
study?
When you find that some of your animals do not have the right genotype.
When you have to discontinue the study and deregister the animal experiment application.
When the stress on an animal reaches the humane endpoint, even if the scientific endpoint has
not yet been reached.
When the results do not meet your expectations and you start with a new study group.
Question 16
According to the legislator, an animal experiment is completed, if
the deadline for approval has expired. In this case, all other animals must be killed as well after
they have been presented to a veterinarian.
no more observations are to be made for the animal experiment.
no more observations have been made on the offspring of genetically modified new animal
lines.
in the case of a third-party funding the eligibility period has expired. In this case, all animals
must be killed subsequently.
Question 17
Name the word used to describe the following general position: towards the back
lateral
medial
ventral
dorsal
Question 18
Why is good animal welfare in animal research important?
Studies that excel thanks to good animal welfare enjoy better acceptance in general public.
Constraints and stress can affect physiological parameters, which in turn can lead to changes in
the data recorded.
Scientific projects with especially high animal welfare standards have a better chance of
external funding.
Studies that stand out as a result of good animal welfare have better chances of getting
published.
Question 19
In what sequence do you prepare the area of the surgical procedure in your animal?
Disinfection of surgical area – removal of hairs/feathers – if very dirty, washing of skin –

covering of adjacent areas with sterile cloths
Covering of adjacent areas with sterile cloths – removal of hairs/feathers – if very dirty, washing
of skin – disinfection of surgical area
Removal of hairs/feathers – if very dirty, washing of skin – disinfection of surgical area –
covering of adjacent areas with sterile cloths
If very dirty, washing of skin – removal of hairs/feathers – disinfection of surgical area – covering
of adjacent areas with sterile cloths
Question 20
intramuscular
intraperitoneal
subcutaneous
Question 21
What has become established as the minimum ethical standard today as regards research
involving animal experiments?
The 3Rs (refinement, reduction, replacement) must be observed when performing animal
experiments.
No animal experiments are carried out unless they can produce reliably applicable results.
Animal experiments may be carried out until an alternative method has been found.
Question 22
What is the expression used to describe mutual cleaning of fur in mice?
grooming
freezing
barbering
Question 23
What is correct in relation to absorbable suture material?
The time it takes for the thread to be absorbed is about 3-6 weeks.
One disadvantage is the possible formation of foreign-body granulomas.
The time it takes for the thread to be absorbed depends on the thread material.
The absorption time does not correspond to the actual strength of the thread.
Question 24
Ethics answers the question with regards to morally correct behaviour.
false
true
Question 25
The animal welfare committee of a facility is made up of which representatives of a facility (§ 6
TierSchVersV)?
Animal facility manager
Staff council
Veterinarian
Animal technician
Animal welfare officer
Researcher
Question 26
What basic principles must be fulfilled in order to carry out euthanasia of an animal properly (§ 4
para. 1 TierSchG)?
An animal may only be euthanized under anaesthesia.

An animal may only be euthanized by specialist who can show that they are qualified to do so.
Animals may only be euthanized by specialist medical personnel.
An animal may only be euthanized with the avoidance of pain and suffering.
Question 27
What is the minimum height of a cage for rats?
18 cm
20 cm
14 cm
16 cm
Question 28
Which are the permitted killing methods for rats?
captive bolt
electrical stunning
anaesthetic overdose
cervical dislocation
Question 29
intramuscular
subcutaneous
intraperitoneal
Question 30
With which form of administration is the active substance absorbed via the gastrointestinal
tract?
Parenteral administration
Enteral administration
Local administration
Question 31
What is the maximum number of rats with a body weight of 200 - 300 g that can be kept in a
cage with an area of 800 cm²?
5
3
2
Question 32
What is considered in the approval procedure for an animal experiment?
Whether there is an acceptable reason that justifies inflicting “pain, suffering or harm” on
animals.
That animals are not exposed to “severe pain, suffering or harm” for too long.
That “pain, suffering or harm” is not inflicted on the animals.
Question 33
Mouse: Signs of mild stress are…
low-grade lameness and/or change in posture

little interaction with the group
discolored inner angles of the eye
Question 34
Isoflurane causes a rise in blood sugar levels shortly after administration.
false
true
Question 35
What measures may be considered in the event of wound healing disorders?
Rinsing of the wound

Dosing with antibiotics
Dosing with cytostatics
Apply wound drainage
Repair of suture dehiscence
Question 36
Which of the statements ist correct?
Propofol is a long-acting hypnotic

Propofol is a short-acting hypnotic
Question 37
The bodyweight of a healthy adult male rat is usually between
250 - 300 g
450 - 520 g
300 - 450 g
Question 38
The weaning age of mice is usually between
18 - 21 days
23 - 27 days
13 - 17 days
25 - 29 days
Question 39
The aim of balanced anaesthesia is
to cover all three pillars of anaesthesia.

to combine identical substance classes.
to reduce side effects.
to reduce the dose of individual components.
to cover the analgesia component in particular.
Question 40
When assigning severity categories, the focus is on the cumulative suffering of the animal.
Evaluation of the individual interventions or manipulations during the experiment play a minor
role, as do restrictions on the natural behavior of the animals or on husbandry and care.
When assigning severity categories, only interventions or manipulations during an experiment
that cause pain, suffering or damage are taken into account. The behavior of the animals or the
husbandry and care are not taken into account.
When assigning severity categories only interventions or manipulations during the experiment
are taken into account. Restrictions on the natural behavior of the animals or on husbandry and
care are not assessed for the evaluation of stress during an experiment.
When assigning severity categories, all interventions or manipulations during the experiment are
taken into account. This includes restrictions on the natural behavior of the animals or on
husbandry and care, as well as the assessment of cumulative suffering during a procedure.
When assigning severity categories, all interventions or manipulations during the experiment are
taken into account. The assessment of cumulative suffering during a procedure is only
evaluated in retrospect and is only relevant for the retrospective assessment.
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Remaining time: 09 min. 26 sec.
Begin of exam: 20.08.2021 16:00
Duration: 60 minutes
End of exam: 20.08.2021 17:00
Question 1
What dosage form is suitable for pulmonary administration?
Capsule
Infusion solution
Aerosols
Tablet
Suppository
Question 2
What is the maximum number of rats with a body weight of more than 600 g that
can be kept in a cage with an area of 1500 cm²?
3
Question 3
Ethics as reflection theory of morality provides advice in decision criteria.
false
true
Question 4
The killing of laboratory animals is permitted under what conditions?
If the animals have grown too old for breeding.
If the species is no longer to be housed at the animal facility in the future.
If it was too expensive to rehabilitate the animals after the study.
If there is reasonable cause for the killing of the animals.

If there are no longer enough cages to accommodate the animals.
Question 5
Name the word used to describe the following general position: lying on the left side
ipsilateral
ventral
sinistrolateral
dextrolateral
Question 6
"When selecting the suitable statistical test for data analysis, it is irrelevant whether
the direction of the effect is already known in advance."
This statement is…
true
false
Question 7
Where are the Animal Welfare Officer’s (AWO) position and powers set forth?
In the TierSchG
In an internal statute/directive.
A formal regulation is not necessary because the AWO is not bound by

instructions.
In the TierSchVersV
Question 8
The requirement of competence of persons participating in animal experiments is
laid down as a binding regulation in which legal acts?
In all three legal acts (TierSchG, TierSchVersV, Directive 2010/63/EU).
Only in the Animal Welfare Act (TierSchG).
Only in Directive 2010/63/EU; the TierSchG and TierSchVersV are not of any
importance.
Exclusively in the TierSchVersV (Laboratory Animal Welfare Ordinance).
Only in the Animal Welfare Act (TierSchG) and in the Laboratory Animal Welfare
Ordinance (TierSchVersV).
Question 9
Which indicators point to a severe constraint in rats?
Transient discharge from eyes or nose.
Social interaction in the group.
Discoloured inner corner of the eye ("spectacle eyes").
Constant cowering posture, tremor, spasms.
Self-mutilation.
Question 10
In what sequence do you prepare the area of the surgical procedure in your animal?
If very dirty, washing of skin – removal of hairs/feathers – disinfection of surgical

area – covering of adjacent areas with sterile cloths
Disinfection of surgical area – removal of hairs/feathers – if very dirty, washing of

skin – covering of adjacent areas with sterile cloths
Removal of hairs/feathers – if very dirty, washing of skin – disinfection of surgical

area – covering of adjacent areas with sterile cloths
Covering of adjacent areas with sterile cloths – removal of hairs/feathers – if very

dirty, washing of skin – disinfection of surgical area
Question 11
What is the route of administration of choice in mice e.g. for an anesthetic?
intraperitoneal
intramuscular
intradermal
Question 12
What is the essence of the utility principle?
When faced with several alternative courses of action, the actor should always
opt for the action which is most likely to result in the defined objective being
achieved.
opt for the action which results in the greatest possible happiness for the greatest
possible number of individuals affected.
opt for the action which results in the greatest possible benefit for the actor
themselves.
Question 13
Pica behaviour describes the eating of substances not suitable for the animal.
true
false
Question 14
Which of these statements on the transport of cadavers to the incinerator is false?
Prompt transport of the waste containers and their immediate incineration are
important.
The animal cadavers must be kept in a leak-proof waste container.
The commissioning institution must complete the necessary accompanying

documents and give them to the disposal company.
The containers with the animal cadavers must be opened again to be checked
before incineration.
The container with the animal cadavers does not need to be hermetically sealed.
Question 15
What is the correct appearance of a simple button suture?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Question 16
What is the correct term for the sectional plane shown in the picture?
horizontal plane
transverse plane
mediosagittal plane
Question 17
Your mice are stressed by a new construction site next to your animal facility. You
want to use α2-adrenoceptor agonists to sedate them. But the dose administered is
ineffective. What could the reason be for this?
Mice do not express adrenoreceptors.
Mice express only α1-adrenoceptors.
The effect only sets in after several hours.
α2-Adrenoceptor agonists are only effective in combination with other

anaesthetics.
α2-Adrenoceptor agonists compete for the receptors with endogenous

catecholamines. A higher dose must be used.
Question 18
A bird can be calmed down, e.g. for catching and handling, by exposing it to bright
light.
true
false
Question 19
What kind of hygiene status does the abbreviation CV stand for?
Housing in a germ-free system.
Housing in a specific pathogen-free system.
Housing in a conventional system (open).

Question 20
When might a higher energy feed be necessary?
With mice in single housing.
With poorly breeding transgenic lines.
When housing nude mice.
When housing several males together.
With mice that are mating.

Question 21
The advantages of parenteral administration are:
Low costs
Overdoses are hardly possible
Reliable absorption of the medicine, no loss of active substance
Controllable onset of action
Exact dosing
Question 22
Which of the following incidents can cause suffering in the day-to-day routine of
laboratory animals?
Restraint during transfer to new cages
Incorrect feeding
Restriction of species-appropriate exercise
Use of natural photoperiod
Group housing in harmonious groups

Question 23
The animal welfare committee of a facility is made up of which representatives of a
facility (§ 6 TierSchVersV)?
Researcher
Staff council
Animal facility manager
Animal welfare officer
Veterinarian
Animal technician
Question 24
Percutaneous administration – what is that?
Administration through the oral mucosa.
Administration under the skin.
Administration through the skin.

Question 25
You wish to expand your experimental project by another mouse line and you notify
this to the authority. Since the purpose of the experiment and the constraint will not
change, this modification of the experimental project can be made immediately
without waiting for the authority’s response.
false
true
Question 26
Plenty of experience and a good technique are essential in surgical procedures.
Examples are:
1. Careful attention to tissue (avoidance of trauma, avoidance of unnecessary
injuries).
2. Expert care of incision wounds.
3. Detailed assessment of surgical area (Which tissues are affected? Are there
any injuries, infections?).
Only answers 1+2 are correct
All answers are correct
No answer is correct
Question 27
An infusion is a …
... local form of administration.
... enteral form of administration.
... parenteral form of administration.

Question 28
Which methods seem to you to be most suitable for supporting the recovery phase
of your laboratory rodents after prolonged anaesthesia?
Placing the animals in a freshly cleaned cage.
Placing the animal in a cage under super-enriched conditions.
Placing the animal in a cage with conspecifics.
External heat supply from infrared lamps or the like.
No access to food.
Question 29
What must be borne in mind when using benzodiazepines?
When combined with other active substances, benzodiazepine can potentiate

their respiratory or circulatory depressive side effects.
They exert their action via dopamine receptors.
The administration of benzodiazepines can lead to excitation, so they are

injected i.v. shortly before the administration of hypnotics.
They are non-competitive antagonists.
They have a convulsive effect.

Question 30
With regard to the use of animals by humans, the German Animal Welfare Act
explicitly protects:
Insects that are used in neurophysiological experiments.
Cephalopods, only if they are used in experiments involving severe constraints.
Laboratory animals including foetuses in the last trimester of pregnancy.
Vertebrate larvae in animal experiments if they are already able to feed

independently.
Question 31
How old is this mouse? (in days)
Age in days
Question 32
What kind of bird is the zebra finch?
Desert and steppe birds
Swamp and wetland birds
Predators
Forest and woodland birds
Migratory birds
Question 33
Animals in which the microbial flora are not fully defined, but which are known not to
have specific microorganisms, are assigned the hygiene status…
…conventional.
…gnotobiotic.
…SPF.
Question 34
What are examples for an absolutely inadmissible animal experiment?
Animal experiments for the development of tobacco products
Animal experiments for the development of cosmetics
Animal experiments for the development of detergents
Animal experiments for the development and testing of ammunition
Animal experiments for the development and testing of weapons

Question 35
When are exceptions to the methods of killing animals that are permitted under
TierSchVersV possible in animal experiments?
When your staff have only mastered these methods.
When the exceptions are scientifically justified.
When the animals do not suffer additional stress as a result of the method.
When the methods are cheaper.

Question 36
The majority of common laboratory animal species should be housed at a relative
humidity of?
43 %
55%
67 %
Question 37
Local anaesthesia works in the peripheral nervous system by blocking the
potassium channels on the inside of the membrane.
true
false
Question 38
Which structure is the mesometrium?
(1-8)
Number
Question 39
Under what severity grade should the frequent application of test substances which
produce moderate clinical effects be ordered?
Mild
Moderate
Severe
Non-recovery
Question 40
Genetically modified animals (GMOs) may only be housed or experiments
conducted with them in approved facilities for this purpose. What legal text defines
the safety levels for an assessment of GMOs?
German Ordinance Radiological Protection (StrlSchV)
German Act on Medical Devices (MPG)
Genetic Technology Safety Regulations (GenTSV)
Ordinance on Safety and Health Protection at Workplaces Involving Biological

Agents (BioStoffV)
German Chemicals Act (ChemG)

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General Quiz Questions
1. Ketamine action is mainly mediated via the NMDA (NMDA) receptor and results in the development of
dissociative anesthesia.
2. When assessing stress due to pain or impairments to wellbeing in animals the following general,
assessment criteria can be used. Name 3 examples from the text (generic terms).
a. Behavior, Behaviour, Motoricity, Nutritional status, Habitus, Clinical abnormalities, Appearance,
Grooming status, Physiological parameters
3. Which statement is wrong?

a. Correct answer:
i. The ban on breeding for defects does also apply to vertebrates, which are generated or
bred for scientific purposes.
ii. EXPLANATION: However, the ban on irresponsible breeding does not apply to animals that are
generated and bred for scientific purposes. Here, the requirements for conducting animal experiments
apply.
4. The term Anaesthesia (anesthesia, anaesthesia) is now used to mean full loss of sensation in the body
or also only part of the body, as a result of locally or centrally induced depression of central nervous
system (nervous tissue) using drugs.
a. EXPLANATION: as well as the loss of reflexes are achieved by inhibiting certain parts of the central nervous system
(cerebrum, diencephalon or interbrain, mesencephalon or midbrain, cerebellum and spinal cord).
5. You have been granted a permission of your experimental project for 3.5 years. Due to the experiment
approach an extension is necessary. This extension can take place on the basis of an informal application
indicating the corresponding reasons.
a. Explanation: The authorization for an animal experiment may be granted for a maximum of 5 years. If it is
authorized for a shorter period, the applicant may request an extension – with an explanation of the reasons for an
extension. This request may be made informally. In the case of shorter validity periods than the 5 years, the
applicant may request an extension twice in total for up to a year in each case. But the maximum of 5 years in total
cannot be exceeded.
6. Opioids can be classified based on their mode of action at the receptor: (use plural)
a. Correct answer:
i. Agonists, antagonists, partial agonists, mixed agonists/antagonists
ii. Explanation: Opioids, Pure agonists, Agonist-antagonists, partial agonists (e.g. buprenorphine,
butorphanol), Antagonists (e.g. naloxone)
7. In anaesthesia, a distinction is made according to the question concerned and the organ that will be
affected by a procedure, basically between local anaesthesia, local anesthesia and general
anaesthesia, general anesthesia (Anaesthesia).
a. Basically, a distinction is drawn between local anaesthesia and general anaesthesia.
8. What four basic principles must be checked/scrutinized before an animal is killed?
a. If the killing is admissible (permissible, admissible)
b. If the most humane approach (method, approach) is applied to the animal?
c. If authorized (authorized, authorised) methods are used.
d. If the expertise (expertise, knowledge, skill) for the method/ the species is available.
i. EXPLANATION: In principle, four questions must be posed and answered before an animal is killed: Is the
killing of the animal permissible? (i. e. is there “good reason”?) 2. Is the most humane approach for the
animal to be used? 3. Are permitted methods used?4. Are the requisite knowledge and skills in place, if
necessary, also for a prior anaesthesia of the animals?
9. Which of the following reflexes is an exteroceptive reflex?
a. Lid reflex Flexor reflex
b. EXPLANANTION: Extrinsic reflexes are those reflexes where the organ receiving the signal is not identical to the
reaction organ (e.g., flexor reflex). Defensive reflexes serve to protect parts or organs of the body (e.g. lid reflex,
swallowing reflex and cough reflex).
10. In view of the use by humans, the German Welfare Act explicitly protects:
a. 1. All vertebrates
b. 2. Cephalopods if used in animal experiments
c. 3. Laboratory animals including fetuses in the last third of pregnancy and larvae, which are able
to feed independently
i. ALL OF THESE STATEMENTS ARE CORRECT.
11. What must not be inflicted on an animal by anyone without reasonable cause according to § 1 of the
German Animal Welfare Act? Pain, suffering, harm
12. Rodents and rabbits eat most of the feed during the dark phase under ad libitum conditions. TRUE
13. Assign the examples from the text to the respective severity grade by filling the empty gap with one of
the following words. (Please make sure it is spelt correctly).
a. • mild • moderate • severe
i. 1) Use of metabolic cages involving moderate restriction of movement over a prolonged
period (up to 5 days). The constraint is classed as moderate (moderate).
ii. 2) Non-surgical subcutaneous implantation of transponders. The constraint is classed as
mild (mild)
14. Which statement concerning records on changes of stock in the housing system (§ 7 TierSchVersV) is
wrong?
a. Correct answer: For the Recordkeeping a register has to be kept in the premises. The records
must be kept for at least three years.
b. Explanation: The keeping of records refers to records on the animal stocks in the institution, for which a log book
or the like must be kept in the facility rooms or offices. These records must be kept for at least five years from the
start of the year following the year in which the data was entered (§ 7 para. 2 TierSchVersV). They must be
presented to the authority on request.
15. What type of error is it when, on the basis of a statistical test, an effect is assumed that does not
actually exist in reality (false-positive result)?
a. Correct answer: α-error (type 1 error)
b. EXPLANATION: An α-error (error of the 1st kind) occurs when, on the basis of a statistical test,
an effect is assumed that does not actually exist in reality (false positive result).
16. What is the number of this marked animal? Number (31)
17. Decide which animals you would NOT fast before anaesthesia.
a. Correct answer: Rat Hamster
b. In small rodents and also rabbits, this preoperative fasting is not necessary and
can even harm the animal (hypoglycemia).
18. As part of a study, you want to establish a new, genetically modified mouse line in a heterozygous
background in your SPF animal facility. To this end, you get a commercial dealer to produce the
breeding animals. In the further course of the study, surgical procedures are also planned, for which
you need to devise an appropriate anaesthesia and analgesia regimen. You plan to administer
buprenorphine. Which of the following is applicable?
19. Correct answer: Since this involves the generation of a new line that could potentially show constraints, you must submit
an animal experiment application.
20. Select the dosage forms for rectal applications. Correct answer: suppository enema
a. ⇒ Rectal administration (via the rectal mucosa, thus without passing through the liver)
b. - Suppositories (pessaries); in the case of problems with oral administration (babies, elderly people)
c. - Enema; e.g. contrast medium for x-ray
d. NAME 2 DOSAGE FORM OF RECTAL ADMINISTRATION: possible answers: suppository, suppositories, enema,
enemas, enemata, clyster, clysters
21. The processing period for an experiment approval is (40) days.
22. Facilities, which only breed and sell laboratory animals, do not need an animal welfare officer. This
statement is Correct answer: false
23. Name 3 suitable wound cleaning measures in the event of wound healing disorders.
a. Correct answer: irrigation, disinfection, wound debridement
b. If despite all precautions disturbances of wound healing do occur, then therapeutic steps must be taken in
consultation with the veterinarian responsible. This may involve measures to clean the wound (wound
debridement, irrigation and disinfection), the use of antibiotics or the use of a surgical drain.
24. “These animals are largely homozygous, which means that all animals of this strain have minimal
differences in terms of their genetics. The response of these animals to treatments is therefore more
consistent. This also means there is less scatter in the values obtained. As a result, it is possible to
demonstrate an effect using fewer animals.”
a. Animals from which breeding strategy does this statement refer to?
b. Correct answer: Animals from inbred strains
25. Which nociceptive nerve fibres are responsible for dull, long-lasting pain that is difficult to pinpoint? C
fibres
26. What information on the animals in an animal experiment must the non-technical project description
contain? Name 2
a. Correct answer: harm, stress, animal, species, number, number of animals.
b. The application for an animal experiment licence must include a summary in layman terms (Non-Technical Project
summary - NTP), which is sent to the Federal Institute for Risk Assessment (BfR) and published. The NTP serves as
information for the general public and describes in simplified form the project, including details on the expected
severity, the species and number of animals used.
27. Which of the following databases are suited to searching for alternative methods?
a. Correct answer: AnimAlt-Zebet, EURL ECVAM DataBase The databases to be mentioned here are
AnimAlt-Zebet, EURL ECVAM DataBase and Norina.
28. Breeding colonies of inbred strains are divided into (singular expression only)
a. Correct answer: multiplication colony, multiplication colonies, pedigreed expansion, colony
pedigreed, expansion colonies, nucleus colony, nucleus colonies
29. How long must the records concerning the meetings of the animal welfare committee be kept?
a. They have to be stored for (3) years.
30. Which term describes the claim to optimise the conditions for animals in experiments / husbandry?
a. Correct answer: Refinement Refine
31. Give 4 examples from text for biotic environmental factors in laboratory animal housing.
a. Correct answer: conspecifics, microorganisms, pathogens, carriers of infection viruses, feed
animals, animal technicians
32. A distinction is drawn between 3 types of laboratory animal feed/diet, depending on their ingredients:
a. standard diet, standard diets, natural based diets, natural based diet, chow) from naturally
grown raw materials
b. purified diet, purified diets, semi-synthetic diets, semi-synthetic diet) from purified individual
nutrient components
c. fully synthetic diets, chemically defined diets, fully synthetic diet, chemically defined diet)
completely or partly from isolated individual nutrients
33. Name 3 examples from the text for criteria (generic terms) which can be used for the evaluation within
the multidimensional pain scale.
a. Correct answer: Behaviour/ behavior, food intake, water intake, locomotion, cardiovascular
system, respiration, fecal excretion, defecation, urination, urinary excretion, reaction to
touching the wound
34. Assign the examples from the text to the respective severity grade by filling the empty gap with one of
the following words. (Please make sure it is spelt correctly).
a. • mild • moderate • severe
i. 1) Complete isolation for prolonged periods of social species e.g. dogs and non-human
primates. The constraint is classed as moderate (severe)
ii. 2) Withdrawal of blood samples (> 10 % of circulating volume) in a conscious animal
within a few days without volume replacement. The constraint is classed as mild
(moderate)
35. The Norecopa platform offers the possibility of searching the four comprehensive databases
simultaneously.
a. Correct answer: true
b. EXPLANATION: Norecopa allows you to search all four databases simultaneously, obtaining an overview of all
entries through the use of asterisks.
36. You are head of a small contract research institute that has hitherto only worked on in vitro studies. In
future it will be necessary for in vivo studies to be conducted with dogs to test the efficacy of a new
deworming agent. These will involve substance administrations and blood sampling. Overall, the
experiments will not be very stressful and will probably last 12 months, but no more than 18.
a. What do you have to bear in mind with regard to the law in Germany to ensure the studies can
be carried out?
b. Correct answer:
i. After the experiment, efforts must be made to place the animals in private care.
ii. You may only use animals from approved breeders for the experiments.
37. Animal owner and person in charge are equally obliged to take reasonable care when handling the
animals and to ensure the wellbeing of the animals. "Reasonable" means that food, care (care) and
appropriate housing are judged against the needs of the animals.
38. What do the Five Freedoms include?
a. Correct answer: Freedom from discomfort, Freedom from hunger or thirst, Freedom to
express normal behaviour
b. Freedom from hunger or thirst by ready access to fresh water and a diet to maintain full health and vigour.
Freedom from discomfort by providing an appropriate environment including shelter and a comfortable resting
area. Freedom from pain, injury or disease by prevention or rapid diagnosis and treatment. Freedom to express
(most) normal behaviour by providing sufficient space, proper facilities and company of the animal's own kind.
Freedom from fear and distress by ensuring conditions and treatment which avoid mental suffering
39. Which statement concerning records in the housing system (§ 8 TierSchVersV) is wrong?
a. Correct answer: Records of the husbandry of primates, dogs and cats must be kept for five
years.
40. Name 2 requirements, which have to be implemented in an animal husbandry in order to satisfy the
demands of a species.
a. Correct answer: Food, Exercise, Comfort behavior,Comfort behaviour, Resting behavior, Resting
behaviour, Activity, Social contact
41. You are working in arteriosclerosis research and studying mice predisposed to increased arterial
calcification (plaque formation). What must be borne in mind regarding anaesthesia?
a. Correct answer:
i. As a result of the pathological lesions, anaesthesia carries an increased risk.
ii. The pathological lesions can affect the blood supply to the body and hence the
metabolism of the anaesthetic.
42.
43. Assess to which treatment an appropriate anaesthesia or analgesia regimen has been assigned.
a. Correct answer:
i. Dental scaling in the dog – sedation
ii. Skull x-ray in rabbit - short-term anaesthesia
iii. Bite injury in a pig extremity - analgesia
44. The records for an experimental project have to be kept for 5 (5) years according to § 29 (2) of the
Experimental Animals Ordinance, TierSchVersV.
45. In buccal / sublingual administration, the active substance is distributed systemically bypassing which
organ?
a. Correct answer: liver
46. What can a too quick intravenous injection of propofol induce? It can lead to a (respiratory arrest)
47. Which of the following attributions of database and institution are correct?
a. Correct answer: DB-Alm – EURL ECVAM, AnimaltZebet – ZEBET
48. The maximum approval period for an animal experiment reviewed under the simplified authorization
procedure is 3 (5) years according to § 8a Paragraph 1 TierSchG.
49. The approval of an animal experiment is limited to a maximum of how many years?
a. A maximum of 5 (5) years.
50. § 31 TierSchVersV stipulates that an application for approval of an experiment must specify the
planned number of animals and the way in which the number is calculated.
51. The terms "Reduce – Replace – Refine" are summarized in the area of experimental animal research as
the 3Rs (3R, 3 R, 3Rs)
52. With what housing system can a germ-free hygiene status be maintained?
a. Correct answer: Isolator housing
b. Isolators are housing facilities that are sealed off hermetically from the environment with regard to air and germs.
Isolators serve the purpose of either protecting the animals from foreign germs from the outside or of protecting
the environment from infectious animals.
53. When is a procedure not an animal experiment within the meaning of the law?
a. Correct answer: When an animal is killed for scientific purposes according to § 4 TierSchG.
b. If animals are killed to remove organs for scientific purposes (§ 4 para. 3 TierSchG), the current scientific
knowledge must be considered in the procedure – as it is for conducting animal experiments - (according to § 7a
para. 2 no. 1). The method selected for killing animals must be the most humane possible, but at the same time
not influence the results sought after in the research. Killing exclusively according to § 4 TierSchG: If before being
killed the animal was not treated or was not in an experiment whose severity was classified at least as mild, the
killing is not an animal experiment within the meaning of the law.
54. You are head of a small contract research institute that has hitherto only worked on in vitro studies. In
future it will be necessary for in vivo studies to be conducted with dogs to test the efficacy of a new
deworming agent. These will involve substance administrations and blood sampling. Overall, the
experiments will not be very stressful and will probably last 12 months, but no more than 18.
a. What do you have to bear in mind with regard to the law in Germany to ensure the studies can
be carried out?
b. Correct answer:
i. After the experiment, efforts must be made to place the animals in private care.
ii. You may only use animals from approved breeders for the experiments.
55. Analgesia should be considered in adult mice
a. Correct answer: after tail-tip biopsy. with induced chronic inflammation of the bowel. during
laparotomy.
56. An illumination intensity of > 60 (60) lux in the cage can cause damage to the retina in albinotic animals
in cases of longer-term exposure.
57. The abdominal wall is not opened along the Linea alba, because the blood supply here is particularly
high.
a. Correct answer: false
b. An incision is made in the linea alba, where the abdominal muscles meet, to open the abdominal cavity.
58. A 15 (15) - 20 (20) -fold change in air is usually required for maximum cage density per hour.
59. What do the duties of the animal welfare committee include?
a. Correct answer:
i. Supporting the Animal Welfare Officer.
ii. Structuring measures to monitor the wellbeing of animals.
60. A distinction is drawn between 3 types of laboratory animal feed/diet, depending on their ingredients.
Which diet consists of completely or partly from isolated individual nutrients?
a. Correct answer: fully synthetic diet
b. Which diet consists of purified individual nutrient components? PURIFIED DIET
61. In order to be allowed to keep laboratory animals, which of the following prerequisites have to be
fulfilled?
a. 1. Corresponding and proven qualifications of the staff.
b. 2. Reliability of the person in charge.
c. 3. Appropriate premises and installations have to be available.
d. 4. Sufficient and competent staff must be available in the facility.
e. 5. An animal welfare officer has to be present. ALL POINTS CORRECT
62. Which of the following must be specified when applying for approval of an experiment (animal
experiment application)? ALL POINTS RIGHT
a. 1) Question / hypothesis
b. 2) Planned number of animals
c. 3) Statistical tests used for analysis
63. Name the words used to describe the following general positions: 1. lying to the side: lateral 2. towards the
back: dorsal (dorsal) 3. towards the tail: caudal (caudal)
64. "The experimental unit comprises the objects (group/animal) that are allocated to the treatments and
are later included in the statistical analysis." The statement is:
a. Correct answer: TRUE
b. Explanation: The experimental unit comprises the objects (group/animal) that are allocated to the treatments and
are later included in the statistical analysis. In most cases the experimental unit is the individual animal. In the case
of electrophysiological measurements of nerve cell activity, for example in patch-clamp studies, each cell maybe an
experimental unit.
65. You have a new trainee, who is expected to collaborate on an application for an animal experiment for
a limited period under supervision. Which statements are wrong?
a. CORRECT Answers: The trainee does not need to be named for the animal experiment
application.
b. The trainee only works under guidance and does not need the skills and know-how necessary
for the work.
c. EXPLANATION: The expertise (also “proficiency”) relates to the requirements of Directive 2010/63/EU, according
to which Member States must ensure that all staff that work with laboratory animals are sufficiently trained before
starting to work with the animals (art. 23 para. 2 Directive 2010/63/EU) and also undergo relevant continuing
education (art. 24 para. 1 c Directive 2010/63/EU). // All those who conduct animal experiments must present the
authority with the requisite qualifications for the tasks to be performed (as a rule participation in a laboratory
animal science course, reference numbers to previous applications for an animal experiment licence etc.). These
documents are submitted to the authority together with the application for an animal experiment licence from the
principal investigator/applicant (see Authorization/notification). If new members of staff are to participate in an
animal experiment that is already underway, the Principal Investigator must notify the authority, submitting their
names and the relevant documents proving that they have the knowledge and skills for the collaboration. It is the
responsibility of the authority to decide whether the qualifications are adequate. The persons concerned must not
start work on the tasks involved until permission is granted by the authority. If the authority finds the
qualifications insufficient, the knowledge that is lacking must be acquired and this must certified before the work
may be started. // The authority must be notified of changes in the principal and/or deputy principal investigator
of the animal experiment. The authority must also be notified of new members of staff who are to participate in an
experiment already approved and provided with proof of their knowledge and skills.
66. You receive the offer of a position at a university. Since you also conduct animal experiments with mice
and rats, your duties will include management of the animal facility. But since no animals have been
kept in the department in the last few years and there is no current approval for housing animals, you
must submit a new application.
a. What details must you include in the application for approval to house animals?
b. CORRECT ANSWER:
i. Name of the Animal Welfare Officer.
ii. What animals will I be keeping.
iii. How many animals of one species may be kept in a room.
iv. That an Animal Welfare Officer will be appointed.
67. As part of a study, you want to establish a new, genetically modified mouse line in a heterozygous
background in your SPF animal facility. To this end, you get a commercial dealer to produce the
breeding animals. In the further course of the study, surgical procedures are also planned, for which you
need to devise an appropriate anaesthesia and analgesia regimen. You plan to administer buprenorphine.
Which of the following is applicable?
a. Correct answer: Since this involves the generation of a new line that could potentially show
constraints, you must submit an animal experiment application.
68. Name 2 dosage forms for buccal or sublingual administration (use singular):
a. Correct answer: lozenge, spray
b. EXPLANATION: Buccal/sublingual administration (via the oral mucosa, avoiding the liver) 1.
Spray (nitro spray), 2. Lozenges
69. Assign the examples to the appropriate aids for clinical monitoring. Enter the correct letter in the space
provided.
a. [A] Heart/lung sounds, [B] Capillary refill time, [C] Body temperature, [D] Pulse and apex beat,
[E] Urinary production
b. CORRECT ANSWERS: B (B) a finger, C (C) Thermometer, D (D) both hands,
A (A) Stethoscope, E (E) Catheter
c. Explanation: Mucous membranes/capillary refill time (CRT): the peripheral circulation is assessed. Slight deviations
in the colour of the mucous membranes, however, are often difficult to identify. If the pink colour of a mucous
membrane blanched by pressing it with the finger is restored within 2 seconds, the CRT is normal. Body
temperature: measured centrally with a thermometer, peripheral manual assessment of skin temperature. The
circulation is monitored indirectly. The thermoregulation centre is suppressed during anaesthesia, i.e. the animal
cannot compensate itself either for hypothermia or for hyperthermia. Care must therefore be taken to ensure
adequate perioperative management in order to keep body temperature within physiological limits. Pulse and apex
beat: the peripheral circulation is assessed. In practice, the apex beat is normally palpated with one hand while the
other hand feels for a peripheral artery (e.g. medial femoral, auricular, sublingual artery). This offers a better
assessment of the circulation. If no pulsation can be felt, the blood pressure is alarmingly too low (systolic <70
mmHg, in most mammals). In adipose animals, assessment of the peripheral circulation can pose problems, because
the pulse cannot always be unequivocally detected. Heart/lung sounds: listening with the aid of a stethoscope
(auscultation), assessment of cardiopulmonary function and correct fit of intubation. Urinary production:
monitoring of kidney function and thus indirect monitoring of the circulation. The animal should always be checked
to assess whether it spontaneously urinates under anaesthesia or not and, if it is, to establish how frequently and
what the nature of the urine is. If there is no spontaneous urination, then catheterization of the bladder should be
considered in operations lasting more than 3 hours.
70. What is the sequence of physiological wound healing?

a. Correct answer: cleaning phase, granulation phase, epithelialization phase
b. Also possible: cleaning Phase, inflammatory phase, exudative phase, granulation phase,
proliferative phase, epithelialization Phase, reparative Phase, differentiation phase
c. EXPLANATION: Physiological wound healing runs in 3 phases and, in the case of small, properly sutured surgical
incision wounds, is completed within 4-10 days: In the cleaning phase (or inflammatory or exudative phase)
endogenous blood clotting and wound cleaning take place. In the granulation phase (or proliferative phase) the
wound opening is closed through the formation of new tissue (granulation tissue) with the growth of blood vessels
into the tissue. In the epithelialization phase (or reparative or differentiation phase) epithelium or scarring
develops in the new tissue.
71. Most disinfectants available today are…
a. CORRECT ANSWER: bactericidal, sporicidal. fungicidal. virucidal.
b. EXPLANATION: The disinfectants used in a laboratory animal unit should be effective against bacteria
(bactericidal), spores (sporicidal), fungi (fungicidal) and viruses (virucidal). Unfortunately, only a few substances
are available that also have an ovicidal effect and are thus capable of destroying e.g. nematode eggs.
72. In which animals can a "rabbit punch" followed by exsanguination be used as a method of euthanasia?
a. CORRECT ANSWER: Rabbits (< 5 kg), Birds (< 5 kg), ishes, amphibians and reptiles
b. EXPLANATION: A percussive blow to the head may only be used for birds (< 5 kg), rodents (< 1 kg), rabbits (< 5
kg) and newborn dogs and cats. Fishes, amphibians and reptiles can also be stunned with a rabbit punch and then
bled.
73. Taking 10% of the blood volume does not have any significant effect on the cardiac output or blood
pressure.
a. CORRECT ANSWER: TRUE
b. EXPLANATION: The stress caused to the animal by blood sampling has to be assessed before the start of the
experiment. For example, taking 10% of blood volume sets cholinergic mechanisms in operation to maintain
hemostasis, without having any significant impact on cardiac output or blood pressure.
74. What is the key principle for animal experiments?
a. CORRECT ANSWER: The principle of indispensability and the ethical defensibility.
b. EXPLANATION: The overriding principles in animal experiments are those of indispensability and ethical
acceptability. In their application for the authorization of an animal experiment, applicants must as a matter of
principle show that the objective of the experiment cannot be achieved in any other way – i. e. without the use of
animals (principle of indispensability) and that any pain, suffering or harm to be expected is kept to the absolute
minimum (imperative of ethical acceptability).
75. Name 4 reflexes that can be checked to determine the depth of anesthesia in rodents
a. Correct answer: flexor reflex, turning reflex, righting reflex, patellar tendon reflex, lid
reflex, lid closure reflex, corneal reflex, pupillary reflex, interdigital reflex
76. The animal welfare officer does not have to be employed at the institution.
a. CORRECT ANSWER: True
b. Explanation: AWOs do not have to be employees of the institution, but can also perform these duties as external
personnel provided they are allowed unrestricted access to the institution’s premises.
77. What does the term “culture of care” mean?
a. Correct answer: The deployment of staff for the wellbeing of animals that extends beyond
what is necessary by law.
78. Name the words used to describe the following general positions:
a. CORRECT ANSWER: 1. towards the belly: Ventral. 2. lying on the right side: dextrolateral.
3. on the same side: ipsilateral.
79. What term is used to describe the demand to dispense with the use of animals by using alternative
methods?
a. CORRECT ANSWER: Replace/ Replacement
80. Which of the following injection anesthetics are hypnotics?
a. CORRECT ANSWER: Barbiturates
81. What is the number of this marked animal?
a.
b. Correct answer: 473
82. Agitated animals are at greater risk under anesthetic.
a. CORRECT ANSWER: Premedication with SEDATIVES may be recommendable in such cases.
(Generic term)
83. When you search in the AnimAlt-ZEBET database, the search result presents a portrait of the alternative
method.
84. For your Bachelors degree you want to describe the leptin concentration of hamsters in various life
situations and have to carry out animal experiments for this purpose. Is this an admissible, absolutely
inadmissible or in principle inadmissible experimental objective?
a. CORRECT ANSWER: permissible experimental pupose
85. Which of the named elements have to be presented in the application procedure for an animal
experiment?
a. What other experiments could be carried out. ---That sufficient funds are available--The personal
reliability of the leader and deputy---The publication of your research results after the end of the
project---That no alternative methods are available.
b. CORRECT ANSWER:
i. The personal reliability of the leader and deputy.
ii. That no alternative methods are available.
86. Animal experiments have to fulfill which three fundamental prerequisites? They have to
a. CORRECT ANSWER: be scientifically justified, be indispensable, be ethically defensible.
87. Which fingers are used to stabilize surgical scissors for three-point fixation?
a. Correct answer: Index finger, Middle finger
b. Explanation: The scissors are held and the handles operated using the thumb and ring finger. The index and middle
fingers are used here to guide the blades (3-point system).
88. The anaesthetic(s) most commonly used for rodents is/are…
a. Correct answer: ketamine-xylazine combinations.
b. The most common anaesthetics for rodents are combinations of an α2-agonist (e.g. xylazine) and ketamine or
combinations of isoflurane and analgesics.
89. Who has to sign the records concerning the experimental project?
a. Correct answer: The person carrying out the experiment as well as the person in charge of the
project or his deputy.
b. EXPLANATION: The records must be signed by the persons who conducted the experiment and the principal
investigator or the deputy principal investigator.
90. Number given to this rodent is? 92

91. Which of the following statements is correct?
a. CORRECT ANSWER: The efficiency of an anesthetic is the lower, the greater the MAC value is.
b. EXPLANATION: Efficacy is defined by the minimum alveolar concentration (MAC) at which 50% of all patients no
longer react to an incision in the skin – the lower the MAC value, the greater the efficacy
92. You have completed your PhD thesis on regulating the expression of a candidate gene that likely plays
an important role in the predisposition to depression. You have only conducted your experiments until
now in primary cells that you obtained from mice killed in accordance with § 4 TierSchG. For your
further research, the results on the regulation of the gene must be confirmed in in vivo animal studies.
Since a cooperation partner has a mouse line at your facility that you can use for your further studies,
the experiments are already to be started in 3 months. The experiments will also involve MRI studies
and the injection of inhibitors as well as surgical procedures. Your group leader tells you to prepare the
necessary animal experiment application for this and to find a lead investigator, because he does not
have expertise in animal experiment work himself. What do you have to bear in mind for the
planning?
a. You must include at least 10 extra animals in the plan, so you have additional animals, enabling
you to carry on work immediately if losses occur with surgical procedures.
b. A familiarization with the work is not necessary for you because you already have experience in
§ 4 euthanasia.
c. You must first complete a course on laboratory animal science, so you can conduct animal
experiments on your own.
93. Which Boolean operator can be used to replace "X" in the search query when searching for the
German OR English term for mouse? “Experiment mouse X Maus”
a. CORRECT ANSWER: OR
b. Explanation: Boolean operators are frequently used because they are important for the targeted search with
several terms and their relation to one another. They include AND (+), OR and NOT (-) links.
94. Name 4 dosage forms for active substances (please use the singular):
a. CORRECT ANSWER: Solution, Suppository, Tablet, Pill, Gas, Ointment, salve,
Suspension, Emulsion, Coated tablet, Dragée, Aerosol
95. Name 3 possible sources of pathogens brought into the laboratory animal unit:
a. CORRECT ANSWER:
96. In case of very comprehensive and complex projects the authority can extend the processing period for
an experiment approval once for days. This must be notified to the applicant in good time before the
end of the period.
97. In directive 2010/63/EU it is stated among other things that…
a. CORRECT ANSWER: a database should be set up and maintained for researching alternative
methods.
98. Give 4 examples from the text for abiotic environmental factors in laboratory animal housing
a. CORRECT ANSWER: climate, illumination, lighting, background noise, noise, ventilation of the
room, ventilation, room ventilation, air change, air exchange, temperature, relative humidity,
relative air humidity
99. Which minimum species-specific indications relating to husbandry are given in Annex III of the Directive
2010/63/EU? Give 2 examples.
a. CORRECT ANSWER: Cage size, Stocking density, Enrichment, Social contacts, social contact
100. The first generation of offspring from the hybridization of two inbred strains are called.
a. CORRECT ANSWER: F1-hybrides, F1 hybrides, F1-hybride, F1 hybride
101. Injection and infusion are a ______ administration.
a. CORRECT ANSWER: parenteral
b. EXPLANATION: Parenteral administration. Avoiding the gastrointestinal tract: Injections and Infusions. The
substance is usually administered as a solution, rarely as a suspension. The route of administration is used for
substances that lack resistance in the digestive tract (e.g. insulin).
102. You have completed your PhD thesis on regulating the expression of a candidate gene that
likely plays an important role in the predisposition to depression. You have only conducted your
experiments until now in primary cells that you obtained from mice killed in accordance with § 4
TierSchG. For your further research, the results on the regulation of the gene must be confirmed in in
vivo animal studies. Since a cooperation partner has a mouse line at your facility that you can use for
your further studies, the experiments are already to be started in 3 months. The experiments will also
involve MRI studies and the injection of inhibitors as well as surgical procedures. Your group leader
tells you to prepare the necessary animal experiment application for this and to find a lead
investigator, because he does not have expertise in animal experiment work himself. What do you
have to bear in mind for the planning?
a. CORRECT ANSWER: As well as the lead investigator, you must also have a deputy for the
project.
103. Possibilities for contamination of SPF colonies are:

a. CORRECT ANSWER: Introduction of laboratory animals infected with pathogens. laboratory
animals infected with pathogens. Equipment. biological materials. biological material.
Materials. Personnel. wild rodents
104. If you have a choice, a higher concentration of disinfectant with a shorter reaction time should
be preferred to a lower concentration with a longer reaction time.
a. CORRECT ANSWER: FALSE
b. Explanation: A basic principle of using chemical disinfectants is that the higher the concentration, the shorter the
reaction time needed. For both ecological and economic reasons, however, preference should be given to
relatively low concentrations with longer reaction times if this is an option.
105. As long as experienced colleagues are on site and supervise new persons, not all persons
directly involved with the animal experiment have to have the relevant competences (for example in
form of a course on animal experiments).
a. CORRECT ANSWER: False
106. Aseptic work in surgery is a basic prerequisite for wound healing without complications. What
measures help to reduce the microbial count? CORRECT ANSWER: all except 4.
a. Wearing surgical gloves
b. Sterilization of instruments
c. Shaving of body part where procedure is to take place
d. Wearing rings and watches
e. Disinfection of surgical bench
107. Which statements are correct?

a. Correct answer: Persons from other professional groups - instead of veterinarians - may also
be appointed as Animal Welfare Officers after approval by the authority, if they are more
suitable than a veterinarian.
b. According to the TierSchVersV, only veterinarians may be appointed as animal welfare
officers. They must possess the necessary skills and capacities for the execution of their tasks.
108. In the classical anthropocentrism the animal has no intrinsic value.

109. The necessary knowledge and skills for the care or the killing of animals and the planning
and performance of animal experiments can be found in which legal act in Germany?
a. CORRECT ANSWER: (Experimental Animals Ordinance, TierSchVersV,
Tierschutzversuchstierverordnung)
110. Which statement is correct?

a. Correct answer: Ketamine effects an increase in the secretion of bronchial and salivary
glands.
b. EXPLANATION: Ketamine causes an increase in bronchial and salivary gland secretion, which
may necessitate the use of an anticholinergic agent to reduce the secretion if it is profuse.
111.
Quizzes Mouse:
1. What is the correct term of structure number 6?

(Caecum, Colon, Corpus adiposum, Epididymis, Hepar, Penis, Testis, Vesica urinaria)
CORRECT ANSWER: EPIDIDYMIS
2. Name 2 permitted killing methods for mice (according to Directive 2010/63/EU).
a. Correct answer: overdose of narcotics, cervical dislocation CO2, decapitation percussive blow.
b. EXPLANATION: According to Annex IV para. 2 of Directive 2010/63/EU (DE Annex 2 para. 2

TierSchVersV), animals are to be killed using one of the following methods:
i. confirmation of permanent cessation of the circulation; destruction of the brain;

dislocation of the neck; exsanguination; or confirmation of the onset of rigor mortis.
3. XIPHOID CARTILAGE
4. Name structure 4 on the following picture:

a. CORRECT ANSWER: duodenum
b.
5. Name structure 3:
a. CORRECT ANSWER: right auricle
b.
6. Mouse signs of mild stress are:

a. Correct answer: transient eye or nasal discharge
b. EXPLANATION: mild stress: low-grade lameness and/or change in posture, transient eye or nasal
discharge
7. Which of the body temperatures (°C) given below is unphysiological in the mouse?
a. Correct answer: 40.0 AND 35.0
8. Mouse on the right is a:

a. CORRECT ANSWER: MALE
b.
a. Correct answer: rectum
b.
10. Name two blood sampling techniques in mice:

a. Correct answer:
i. Retrobulbar; v. supraorbitalis; vena supraorbitalis supraorbital; supraorbital vein; cardiac
puncture; sublingual; vena sublingualis; v. sublingualis; mandible; temporal superficial
vein; v. temporalis superficialis; vena temporalis superficialis; facial vein; v. facialis; vena
facialis; linguofacial vein; v. linguofacialis; vena linguofacialis; angulus venosus;
subclavian artery; arteria subclavia; a. subclavia; subclavian vein; vena subclavia; v.
subclavia; caudal vessels; lateral caudal veins; lateral caudal vein
11. What is the correct term of structure number 6?

(Caecum, Colon, Corpus adiposum, Epididymis, Hepar, Penis,Testis, Vesica urinaria)
a. CORRECT ANSWER: Epididymis (Epididymis)
b.
12. What type of administration do you see being used here?
a.
b. CORRECT ANSWERS: oral, per os, peroral, p. o., p.o., oral administration
13. Name structure 3
a.
b. CORRECT ANSWER: right ventricle
14. Mouse: tiptoeing or stiff gait are signs of...

a. Correct answer: Severe stress
15. Assign cage occupancy (number of males, number of females) to the various breeding techniques:
a. Polygamous breeding: (1,3)
b. Monogamous breeding: (1,1)
c. Explanation: Polygamous breeding: Several females are placed with one male (e.g. 1,2; the number before the
comma on breeding cards indicates the number of males in the cage, those after the comma the number of
females). Monogamous breeding: 1 male, 1 female: The breeding pair remains together during the breeding
period.
a. CORRECT ANSWER: left lateral lobe of liver
b.
17. Structure number 2 is the rectus femoris muscle (Musculus rectus femoris).
b.
18. Mice are dichromates, which means that besides rod photoreceptors they possess only green and blue
cones. Under pure red light they are unable to orientate themselves visually.
b. Explanation: Mice are dichromats, which means that in addition to rod photoreceptors they possess only green
and blue cones. Under pure red light they are unable to orientate themselves visually.
Quizzes for Oscine birds:
1. A rich variety of feed supplements, such as green feed and occasionally raw pieces of meat, is
indicated as an enrichment measure in the husbandry of zebra finches.
a. Correct answer: FALSE
2. Zebra finches have a wide repertoire of behaviour and are also among the songbirds most frequently
used as laboratory animals because they are well suited to being housed without enrichment.
b. EXPLANATION: Zebra finches are among the most popular pat cage birds among the family of estrildid finches
(Estrildidae). This is certainly in part because of their pretty appearance and also the diversity of breeds now
available, but also because they are comparatively easy to keep and breed, and many bird lovers also like to
observe the varied behavioural repertoire of these gregarious and lively birds.
3. Zebra finches are very gregarious and social. They need the company of their own species. But
when it comes to activities such as eating, bathing, grooming, building nests etc. they are territorial
and defend their resources.
b. Zebra finches are flocking birds and need to company of at least one conspecific. They are very chirpy, gregarious
and social animals and show great mutual compatibility. Only in the case of mixed-sex group housing should
attention to be paid to ensuring that the gender mix is balanced. Usually zebra finches can also be socialized with
other bird species without any problem.
4. Since the air sac system of small song birds is not sensitive to pressure, zebra finches can be restrained
by firmly gripping them around the chest and abdomen.
5. The courtship behaviour of zebra finches is characterized by the male singing to the female, ruffling up
its red cheeks and hopping incessantly from branch to branch. Female zebra finches do not sing.
6. For the ringing of birds, a distinction is made between open and closed rings.
7. The bodyweight (g) of a healthy adult zebra finch (wild form) is usually between:
a. CORRECT ANSWER: 10-15
8. Wooden perches of uniform thickness, ideally not natural branches, are important for the health of the
birds' feet.
b. Explanation: Make sure the perches differ in thickness to ensure the birds’ feet remain healthy. This also applies - to
an even greater extent - to perches in confined breeding cages. Wherever possible, natural branches at least should
also be provided.
9. In the case of birds, relatively prolonged handling is not a problem because they are not sensitive to
stress and enjoy the warmth of the hand.
10. Exotic ready-made feed mixes are not suitable for zebra finches.
b. EXPLANATION: For basic nutrition exotic feed mixes from different varieties of millet and grass seeds are
recommended (such as proso millet, foxtail millet, Japanese millet, canary grass, crabgrass, niger seed and others).
11. Name 2 food components that are absolutely essential for songbirds apart from the basic feed mix.
a. CORRECT ANSWER: Water, Grit, Gastroliths, Shell limestone, Cuttlebone, Vitamins
b. Explanation: Fresh drinking water must always be available. Grit (gastroliths or stomach stones) is also important
for grinding the food in the gizzard, as are shell limestone or cuttlebone for the supply of minerals. In addition, a
vitamin supplement should be added to the drinking water once a week - or better still, scattered as a powder over
soft fodder, such as egg feed or germinating seeds.
12. At least two rings should be applied to each leg of a zebra finch.
b. Explanation: Make sure that the rings are sufficiently loose fitting so they can be turned and that never more
than 2 rings are attached to a foot in order to avoid foot injuries or ingrowing of the rings.
13. Name 2 types of bird rings (in the plural)?
a. Correct answer: closed rings, open rings, clip rings, plastic rings, coloured rings, metal rings,
rings with numbering, rings without numbering
b. Explanation: These can be ordered as closed rings, clip rings or plastic rings in all relevant sizes in different
colours with or without numbering for the different bird species.
14. Cucumber, apple, lettuce, young dandelion, chickweed and parsley are suitable as food supplement
for zebra finches.
a. Correct answer: TRUE
b. Explanation: The birds also like a regular additional supply of green feed (e.g. cucumber, apple, lettuce, young
dandelion, chickweed, parsley and so on).
15. What are the most common non-specific signs of disease in oscine birds?
a. CORRECT ANSWER: Listlessness to apathy, prolonged ruffling of feathers and constantly open
beak
b. EXPLANATION: "In each case, the following non-specific signs are an urgent alarm signal to look closer, establish
the cause and initiate the right treatment: diminished or slowed movement to apathy and sitting on the ground.
Sitting with constantly puffed-up, ruffled feathers, possibly also with legs apart (caution: if the birds feel they are
being watched or threatened by a perceived danger, they will fly or quickly sit back there again, if they can, as if
everything is fine). Constantly open beak"
16. To assessment the birds’ health, they should be shooed in the aviary so that they show signs of
disease which they otherwise conceal being flight animals that are prey to other creatures.
b. Explanation: In addition, the small birds – which in their natural environment of course are also prey to other
creatures – conceal any signs of disease for a long time, so diseases are often not detected until it is already too
late. Close observation of the animals is therefore extremely important (see also Fachbereich Veterinärmedizin
2015, Gabrisch and Zwart 2005) – ideally also in situations in which the animals do not feel they are being
watched.
17. At how many weeks of age are zebra finch nestlings fully fledged?
a. CORRECT ANSWER: 3 weeks
18. What is additionally important as a supplement for zebra finches during breeding?
a. CORRECT ANSWER: egg feed, animal protein.
b. Explanation: They also like the occasional provision of sprouted or germinating seeds, foxtail millet, wild seed
mixes, hard-boiled egg or insect feed. Especially in breeding aviaries and breeding cages, animal protein -
particularly in the form of egg feed - should additionally be provided for rearing.
19. Anatomical peculiarities of birds are: pneumatized or hollow bones, feathers or plumage instead of fur, the front
limbs are remodelled to form wings or wing feathers.
20. Aviaries and cages should be cleaned at least ONCE a week, or also more often depending on the
housing density.
a. Explanation: The bedding should be renewed at least once a week – or two or three times in the case of high
housing density, although in this case it is advisable to lay down coarse, absorbent bulk paper that can be easily
changed.
21. The basic grain feed mix for zebra finches must not on any account contain canary grass or niger
seeds.
b. Explanation: Zebra finches are predominantly grain eaters. The food should be as varied as possible. For basic
nutrition exotic feed mixes from different varieties of millet and grass seeds are recommended (such as proso
millet, foxtail millet, Japanese millet, canary grass, crabgrass, niger seed and others).
22. A bird can be calmed down by dimming its surroundings, e.g. switching off the light, placing a
towel over the cage or covering its head.
23. It is important for the assessment of the birds’ health that they do not feel they are being watched,
because – being flight animals that are prey to other creatures - they avoid showing signs of disease.
24. Zebra finches are sexually mature and completed coloured at 100 days.
25. The thoracic and abdominal cavities in birds are not separated by a diaphragm.
b. Explanation: The respiratory tract of passerine birds also includes seven air sacs. This has to be borne in mind
when handling the birds, so no pressure should be applied to the abdomen.
26. The extent to which the keel of the sternum palpably protrudes is an indicator of a bird's nutritional
status.
27. A so-called bird bag is not suitable for temporary holding or transportation.
28. Anaesthetic overdose is a permitted and recommended method for killing small birds.
29. Feeding and water vessels should never be placed under the perches in order to avoid contamination
with droppings.
30. Further breeding in zebra finches can best be prevented by housing males and females in separate
aviaries.
31. The clutch size (eggs) of a zebra finch is:
32. Small song birds have a very high energy requirement, i.e. the animals cannot manage without food
for long. Depending on the species and range of food available, starvation can result in signs of
deficiency or even death within a few hours.
a. Correct Answer: TRUE
b. EXPLANATION: The generally high metabolic rate in small songbirds is striking, because these animals also
have a very high energy requirement. A deficiency or absence of feeding behaviour can lead to death within
just a day.
33. A rich variety of feed supplements, such as lettuce, fruit, vegetables, grasses and occasionally also
egg or insect feed, should be avoided in order not to jeopardize the standardization of zebra finch
husbandry.
b. EXPLANATION: The birds also like a regular additional supply of green feed (e.g. cucumber, apple, lettuce,
young dandelion, chickweed, parsley and so on). You should make sure that fruit, vegetables and lettuce are
free of any toxic substances. They also like the occasional provision of sprouted or germinating seeds, foxtail
millet, wild seed mixes, hard-boiled egg or insect feed.
34. Signs of disease in birds are usually very non-specific, and close observation is important: the first
signs in particular are ruffled feathers and listlessness or apathy. When these signs are clearly
discernible, this is always to be seen as an alarm signal.
35. Zebra finches are very social and breed in colonies. They form strictly monogamous lifetime
partnerships, and “cuckoo offspring” have not been observed to date in this species of songbird.
b. EXPLANATION: It may happen that females lay an egg in another nest.
36. How many zebra finches can I keep in an aviary measuring 2 m²?
a. CORRECT ANSWER: 20
37. Zebra finches mainly feed on grains and seeds and therefore have a short and relatively powerful
beak.
b. Explanation: Zebra finches are granivorous, feeding predominantly on grain and seeds, and therefore have a
relatively short but quite strong beak.
38. Cervical dislocation is a permitted and recommended method for killing small birds.
b. EXPLANATION: The methods used for killing small birds of less than 250 g, as permitted under Annex IV of
Directive 2010/63/EU (DE: Annex 2 TierSchVersV), are as follows: Anaesthetic overdose (may have to be used
with prior sedation), Carbon dioxide, Inhalation of inert gases (argon, nitrogen), Cervical dislocation,
Concussion/percussive blow to the head, Decapitation.
39. The extent to which the bursa of Fabricius palpably protrudes is an indicator of a bird's nutritional
status
b. EXPLANATION: In cases of poor nutritional status, the pectoral muscles are further reduced and the keel of the
sternum sticks out in a point.
40. The basic grain feed mix for zebra finches is made up of different varieties of millet and grass seeds.
41. Breeds of zebra finch can weight up to more than 40 g.
42. The nutritional status of a bird is discernible by palpating the leg muscle.
43. Since they are not complicated to keep, are very gregarious and good-natured with each other and
are also easy to breed throughout the year, zebra finches are among the songbirds most frequently
used as laboratory animals.
b. Explanation: Zebra finches are among the most popular pat cage birds among the family of estrildid finches
(Estrildidae). This is certainly in part because of their pretty appearance and also the diversity of breeds now
available, but also because they are comparatively easy to keep and breed, and many bird lovers also like to
observe the varied behavioural repertoire of these gregarious and lively birds.
44. Sufficient daylight or artificial light that does not contain a UV component and is flicker-free is
important for lighting in a bird housing unit.
45. The "Expert report on the Minimum requirements for the housing of small birds”, published by the
BMEL contains specifications on general housing standards for small birds.
46. Zebra finches are very social and breed in colonies. They form monogamous lifetime partnerships.
However, mating outside the partnership may occur and females occasionally also lay eggs in other
birds' nests.
47. Zebra finches and other swarming birds should be kept in relatively large groups and not on any
account in single housing.
48. Natural branches and nest-building material of coconut fibres are suitable enrichment materials for
small song birds.
49. Wooden perches of different thicknesses, ideally natural branches, are important for the health of
the birds' feet
50. At what age in days are zebra finches sexually mature and completed coloured.
a. CORRECT ANSWER: 100
51. Only predatory birds possess a highly differentiated visual system.
b. EXPLANATION: the visual system is highly differentiated and has a wide colour spectrum in the UV range
than that of humans. Zebra finches, like most birds, have a high flicker fusion frequency.
Quizzes RAT:
1. What do you do when you want to take a rat out of a cage for the purpose of the experiment?
a. Correct answer: You attract their attention before handling them so as not to frighten the
animals.
b. Explanation: It is important to engage with rats or attract their attention before handling them. They are quick to
bite if they are stressed. It is important to wake the animals or attract their attention beforehand if they are still
asleep.
2. Which of these blood sampling techniques should only be carried out as final procedures?
a. Correct answer: Blood sampling by means of cardiac puncture.
b. Explanation: Puncturing the ventricle can lead to substantial injury (bleeding into the pericardium → cardiac
arrest). This method should only be used as a final step.
3. Name the anatomical structures numbered 3 | 5 | 7. (6: Corpus adiposum, 1: Dentes incisivi, Glandula
parotis, 2 Mandibula, 4 Musculus digastricus, 3Musculus masseter, 8 Musculus pectoralis, 7 Vena
jugularis externa)
a.
b. CORRECT ANSWER: 3 Musculus masseter (Musculus masseter). 5 Glandula parotis (Glandula
parotis). 7 Vena jugularis externa (Vena jugularis externa)
4. Name the blood vessel number 25:
a.
b. CORRECT ANSWERS:
i. 25: subclavian vein OR vena and arteria subclavia
ii. 12: external jugular vein
iii. 11: (maxillary vein, v. maxillaris, vena maxillaris)
5. Name structures:
a. CORRECT ANSWER:
i. 2 digastricus muscle; 1 masseter muscle; 9 pectoral muscle; 3 GI parotis; 4 GI
sublingualis major; 5 GI mandibularis; 6 Muscle sternohyoideus; 7 muscle
sternocephalicus pars mastoidea. 8 vena jugularis externa
b.
6. Rat: normal food intake is a sign of…

a. Correct answer: No stress
b. Explanation: No stress: smooth, sleek fur, good grooming and nutritional status, normal food
intake
7. The gestation period (days) in a healthy adult female rat is usually between:
a. Correct answer: 20 - 23
8. Name structure number 7
a.
b. CORRECT ANSWER: Stomach
c. 2: lobulus dexter lateralis hepatis. 3: lobus dexter medialis hepatis. 4: lobus sinister medialis
hepatis. 5: Lobus sinister lateralis hepatis. 6: duodenum. 7: Gaster/ stomach. 8: Jejunium. 9:
Lien. 10: Folliculi lymphatici aggregate. 11: Ileum. 12: Basis caeci. 13: Apex caeci.
9. The body temperature (°C) of a healthy adult rat is usually between

a. Correct answer: 36.0 - 40.0
10. Name Structure 7
a.
b. Correct answer: left testis
c. Structures: 1: HEPAR 2: Caecum 3: GI praeputialis 4: Corpus penis 5: muscle bulboglandularis 6:
8:
11. Group housing is preferred for laboratory rats. Rats should only be individual housed if this is
unavoidable for experimental reasons.
b. EXPLANATION: In the wild, rats live in social family groups. The species-specific social behavior has to be learned in
the course of development. Contact with members of the same species is therefore essential, key factors here
being contact with the mother and playing with sibling rats. But contact with members of the same species is also
important for adults, helping to shape the physiology and behavior of the animals.
12. Name the anatomical structures numbered 3 | 5 | 6. (Arteria et Vena facialis, Vena masseterica, Vena
jugularis externa, Vena linguofacialis, Vena temporalis superficialis, Vena maxillaris)
a.
b. Correct answer: 3: Vena maxillaris. 5: Vena masseterica. 6: Vena temporalis superficialis
c. Structures: 1: Vena jugularis externa. 2: vena linguofacialis. 4: arterea and vena (A.et V.
facialis).
13. Name structure :
a.
b. Correct answer: digastric muscle
14. Rats should not be held by the tail for any length of time, because they can climb up their tail.
a. Correct answer: false
b. Explanation: In contrast to mice, rats should not be lifted up by their tail alone. In extreme cases, the skin of the
tail can be stripped off as the tail is not designed to carry the entire weight of the body.
15. Rat: Signs of moderate stress are…
a. Correct answer: discolored inner angle of the eye (spectacle eyes)
b. EXPLANATION: moderate stress: ruffled, unkempt fur, constant eye or nasal discharge, piloerection, discolored
inner angle of the eye (spectacle eyes)
a.
b. Correct answer: Left kidney (ren sinister)
c. 2: Hepar, 5: ovar, 6: tuba uterine; 7; cornu uterine, 8: mesometrium
17. Name 2 blood sampling techniques in rats:

a. CORRECT ANSWERS: retrobulbar, cardiac puncture, sublingual, vena sublingualis, v.
sublingualis, V. jugularis, external jugular vein, V. jugularis externa, Vena jugularis externa
(sinister), Vena jugularis, jugular vein, Angulus venosus, Caudal vessels, ventral caudal artery,
lateral caudal veins, lateral caudal vein.
18. The sexual maturity of healthy adult male rats begins at the age of (weeks):
a. Correct answer: 7 - 10
19. The breeding maturity of a healthy adult male rat begins at the age of (weeks):
a. Correct Answer: 10-16
20. Group housing is preferred for laboratory rats. Rats should only be individual housed if this is
unavoidable for experimental reasons.
b. EXPLANATION: In the wild, rats live in social family groups. The species-specific social behavior has to be learned in
the course of development. Contact with members of the same species is therefore essential, key factors here
being contact with the mother and playing with sibling rats. But contact with members of the same species is also
important for adults, helping to shape the physiology and behavior of the animals.
21. Name 2 blood vessels that are used for blood sampling in rats:
a. Correct answer:
i. vena sublingualis, v. sublingualis, vena jugularis, v. jugularis, vena jugularis externa, V.
jugularis externa, tail vessels, caudal vessels
22. You notice during the weaning of your rats that one rat is incompatible with the rest of the group. You
therefore want to move the animal to a separate cage. What could be the consequences?
a. CORRECT ANSWER: The rat cannot learn social behavior when kept alone and can show
disturbed social behavior or higher levels of stress. DE: Die Ratte kann in der Einzelhaltung
kein Sozialverhalten erlernen und kann gestörtes Sozialverhalten oder höheren Stress zeigen.
b. Explanation: Rats that grow up in isolation are often socially incompetent. They are seen as more aggressive, more
anxious and also more sensitive to handling by humans. Animals that are kept individually in adulthood often show
higher adrenal weights and a higher plasma corticosterone concentration, disturbances of the circadian secretion
of hormones and, associated with this, also changes in the circadian pattern of activity. In this context, the animals
are said to be suffering from "isolation stress".
23. Compared with their feral relatives, laboratory rats show...
a. Correct answers: 1. reduced fight-or-flight tendencies in response to handling by humans. 2.
less aggressive behavior among members of the same species.
b. EXPLANATION: Compared with their feral relatives, laboratory rats show reduced fight-or-flight tendencies in
response to handling by humans, less fear and increased curiosity in response to new environmental stimuli and
less aggressive behavior among members of the same species.
24. The litter size (pups) of a healthy adult rat is usually between
25. Name the anatomical Structures 1/3/4/5
a.
b. CORRECT ANSWER: 1: Arteria et vena ductus deferentis. 2: Plexus pampiniformis 3:
Epididymis pars caput 4: Epididymis pars cauda. 5: Testis
26.

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Question 1

Which statement is correct?

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You still have 5 minutes until the end of the test.

reasonable grounds exist.

occasional additions of new animals

The statistical planning of the experiment.

When it is intended for the development of weapons.

Administration through the skin.

No stress for the animal

Disinfection of surgical area – removal of hairs/feathers – if very dirty, washing of skin –

An animal may only be euthanized under anaesthesia.

low-grade lameness and/or change in posture

Rinsing of the wound

Propofol is a long-acting hypnotic

to cover all three pillars of anaesthesia.

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If the animals have grown too old for breeding.

If the species is no longer to be housed at the animal facility in the future.

If it was too expensive to rehabilitate the animals after the study.

If there is reasonable cause for the killing of the animals.

A formal regulation is not necessary because the AWO is not bound by

In all three legal acts (TierSchG, TierSchVersV, Directive 2010/63/EU).

Only in the Animal Welfare Act (TierSchG).

Transient discharge from eyes or nose.

Social interaction in the group.

Discoloured inner corner of the eye ("spectacle eyes").

Constant cowering posture, tremor, spasms.

If very dirty, washing of skin – removal of hairs/feathers – disinfection of surgical

Disinfection of surgical area – removal of hairs/feathers – if very dirty, washing of

Removal of hairs/feathers – if very dirty, washing of skin – disinfection of surgical

Covering of adjacent areas with sterile cloths – removal of hairs/feathers – if very

The animal cadavers must be kept in a leak-proof waste container.

The commissioning institution must complete the necessary accompanying

Mice do not express adrenoreceptors.

Mice express only α1-adrenoceptors.

The effect only sets in after several hours.

α2-Adrenoceptor agonists are only effective in combination with other

α2-Adrenoceptor agonists compete for the receptors with endogenous

Housing in a germ-free system.

Housing in a specific pathogen-free system.

Housing in a conventional system (open).

With mice in single housing.

With poorly breeding transgenic lines.

When housing nude mice.

When housing several males together.

With mice that are mating.

Overdoses are hardly possible

Reliable absorption of the medicine, no loss of active substance

Controllable onset of action

Restraint during transfer to new cages

Use of natural photoperiod

Group housing in harmonious groups

Animal facility manager

Animal welfare officer

Administration through the oral mucosa.

Administration under the skin.

Administration through the skin.