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PTS 2024 | B4 / B5 / B5(Alt) | L1 Test 10 |

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO


T.B.C. : FIAS-PTS24-B4/B5/B5(Alt)-L1T10 Test Booklet Series
Test Code: 111210

A
TEST BOOKLET
GENERAL STUDIES
Paper – 1

Maximum Marks: 200 Time Allowed: TWO HOURS

INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU
SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY
UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS ETC. IF SO, GET IT
REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOK.
2. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to encode and fill in
the Roll Number and Test Booklet Series A, B, C or D carefully without
any omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR
Answer Sheet. Any omission/discrepancy will render the Answer Sheet
liable for rejection.
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the test
booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT
write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed in
English. Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the
response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that
there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you
consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet
provided.
See directions in the Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items
in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as
per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and
the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only
the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for wrong answers:
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A
CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each
question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-
third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as wrong
answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there
will be same penalty as above to that question.
(iii) If a question is left bank i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there
will be no penalty for that question.

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

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PTS 2024 | B4 / B5 / B5(Alt) | L1 Test 10 |

Q.1) Arrange the following mountain passes 1. They are an extension of the Peninsular
from east to west direction: Plateau block.
1. Bara-Lacha La 2. They are extremely devoid of minerals.
2. Shipki La 3. They have highly denuded topography.
3. Banihal Pass Which of the statements given above are
4. Nathu La correct?
Select the correct answer using the codes a) 1 and 2 only
given below. b) 2 and 3 only
a) 4-2-3-1 c) 1 and 3 only
b) 4-2-1-3 d) 1, 2 and 3
c) 2-4-1-3
d) 3-4-2-1 Q.5) With reference to the Sexual Harassment
of Women at Workplace (Prevention,
Q.2) Consider the following statements about Prohibition and Redressal) Act, 2013, consider
the Siachen Glacier: the following statements:
1. It has been entirely under the control of 1. The act defines sexual harassment as only
India since 1949. those act that involves physical contact or
2. The Nubra river originates from the Siachen verbal comments of a sexual nature.
Glacier. 2. The act mandates every employer to
3. The Shaksgam Valley is located south-east constitute an Internal Complaints
of the Siachen Glacier. Committee (ICC) at each office or branch
How many of the above statements are that has 10 or more employees.
correct? 3. The act empowers ICC to award monetary
a) Only one compensation to the victims.
b) Only two How many of the statements given above are
c) All three correct?
d) None a) Only one
b) Only two
Q.3) With reference to the Copper deposits in c) All three
India, which of the following statements are d) None
correct?
1. Khetri mine in Rajasthan is largest copper Q.6) Consider the following statement
producing mine in India. regarding Dandakaranya physiographic region:
2. The majority of copper is used in electrical 1. It is surrounded by the Abujhmar Hills in
industry. the west and the Eastern Ghats in the east.
3. Odisha has largest reserves of copper ore 2. It has gradual downward slope from
in India. southwest to north.
4. Majority of copper ore occurs in igneous 3. It is drained by the Narmada and Son River.
and sedimentary rocks. How many of the statements given above are
Select the correct answer using the codes correct?
given below: a) Only one
a) 1 and 3 only b) Only two
b) 2 and 4 only c) All three
c) 1, 2 and 4 only d) None
d) 2 and 3 only

Q.4) With reference to the Meghalaya Plateau,


consider the following statements:

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PTS 2024 | B4 / B5 / B5(Alt) | L1 Test 10 |

Q.7) Consider the following statement Select the correct answer using the code given
regarding Lakshadweep Islands: below:
1. It is the only chain of coral islands in the a) 1 only
Indian sub-continent. b) 2 only
2. Kavaratti Island is the largest island of c) Both 1 and 2
Lakshadweep. d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. The soil of Lakshadweep is formed due to
the disintegration of Dravidian rocks. Q.10) With reference to Sugarcane production
4. It consists of islands like Amini, Andrott, in India, consider the following statements:
Bitra which are volcanic in nature. 1. India became the world’s largest producer
How many of the statements given above are and consumer of sugar in 2021-22.
correct? 2. Sugarcane requires a consistent supply of
a) Only one water throughout its growth cycle, from
b) Only two planting to harvesting.
c) Only three 3. The Commission for Agricultural Costs &
d) All four Prices (CACP) announces Fair and
Remunerative Prices (FRP) for sugarcane.
Q.8) Consider the following statement How many of the statements given above are
regarding different geological event correct?
responsible for the evolution of Peninsular a) Only one
Drainage System: b) Only two
1. The Subsidence of the eastern flank of the c) All three
Peninsula led to its submergence below the d) None
sea.
2. The tilting of the Peninsular block from Q.11) Arrange the following westward flowing
southeastern to the northwest direction rivers of peninsular India from North to South:
gave orientation to the entire drainage 1. Periyar
system. 2. Luni
3. The Upheaval of the Himalayas during the 3. Sharavati
early tertiary period contributed to the 4. Mandovi
evolution of the Peninsular Drainage Select the correct answer using the codes
system. given below:
How many of the statements given above are a) 2-3-4-1
correct? b) 3-4-2-1
a) Only one c) 2-4-3-1
b) Only two d) 3-2-4-1
c) All Three
d) None Q.12) With reference to Dhuandhar Falls,
consider the following statements:
Q.9) Which of the following statements is/are 1. It is located on Tapi river which flows
correct in the context of Indo-Brahm or through the famous marble rocks.
Shiwalik river theory? 2. The waterfall creates a misty atmosphere
1. According to the theory, a mighty river due to its forceful plunge.
flowed from Myanmar in East to Iran in 3. It is the second highest waterfall of India.
West. How many of the above statements are
2. The Ganga, Brahmaputra, Indus and their correct?
tributaries all are dismembered parts of the a) Only one
Shiwalik river. b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

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PTS 2024 | B4 / B5 / B5(Alt) | L1 Test 10 |

Q.13) Consider the following pairs: a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct
River Source of origin explanation of A.
1. Jhelum Verinag b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the
2. Ghagra Mapchachungo glacier correct explanation of A.
3. Damodar Amarkantak plateau c) A is true, but R is false.
4. Mahanadi Sihawa d) A is false, but R is true.
How many pairs given above are correctly
matched? Q.17) With reference to the Southern
a) Only one pair. Oscillation Index (SOI), consider the following
b) Only two pairs. statements:
c) Only three pairs. 1. Southern Oscillation refers to atmospheric
d) All four pairs. pressure difference between Eastern Pacific
Ocean and Western Pacific Ocean.
Q.14) Consider the following pairs: 2. A positive SOI implies El Nino condition.
Indian traditional Months as per 3. A negative SOI implies higher pressure over
Seasons Indian Calendar Port Darwin and comparatively lower
1. Grishma Ritu Chaitra-Vaisakha pressure over Tahiti.
2. Sharad Ritu Asvina-Kartika Which of the statements given above is/are
3. Varsha Ritu Jyaistha-Asadha correct?
4. Hemant Ritu Margashirsa-Pausa a) 1 only
How many of the pairs given above are b) 2 and 3 only
correct? c) 1 and 3 only
a) Only one d) 3 only
b) Only two
c) Only three Q.18) With reference to the Western
d) All four Disturbances, consider the following
statements:
Q.15) With reference to the Right to 1. It is a temperate cyclonic condition that
Information (RTI) Act, consider the following: originates in the Mediterranean Sea.
1. National and State political parties. 2. It usually brings rainfall in the region of
2. All Constitutional bodies. Tamil Nadu and Kerala.
3. All bodies established by the Parliament or 3. It is associated with frontal rainfall.
State legislatures. 4. It is beneficial for some crops like cotton
4. Non-Governmental body substantially and Rice.
financed by the Government Which of the statements given above are
How many of the above are required to correct?
disclose information on demand from citizens a) 1, 2, and 3 only
under the RTI act? b) 1 and 3 only
a) Only one c) 1, 2, and 4 only
b) Only two d) 1, 3, and 4 only
c) Only three
d) All four Q.19) Amongst the states through which the
tropic of cancer passes, which state capital is
Q.16) With reference to Indian Climate, located to the north of the tropic of cancer?
consider the following statements: a) Rajasthan
Assertion (A): Mawsynram receive the highest b) Jharkhand
rainfall in the world. c) West Bengal
Reason (R): Rising warm air carrying water d) Gujarat
vapour causes Orographic rainfall.
For the Assertions (A) and Reasons (R), choose
the correct alternative from the following.

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PTS 2024 | B4 / B5 / B5(Alt) | L1 Test 10 |

Q.20) With reference to the Digital Personal 1. Project Tiger has been converted into a
Data Protection Act of 2023, consider the statutory authority called National Tiger
following statements: Conservation Authority.
1. The act applies to the processing of 2. India currently harbors almost 75% of the
personal data within India that have been world’s wild tiger population.
collected offline and later digitised. 3. The state of Karnataka has highest tiger
2. The act generally guarantees individuals Population in India.
the right to request access to their How many of the above statements are
personal data and to have it corrected or correct?
deleted. a) Only One
3. The act includes strict penalties for data b) Only two
breaches, whereas it does not require c) All three
organisations to report breaches to the d) None
affected individuals.
4. The act prohibits transfer of personal data Q.24) Consider the following pairs National
outside the territory of India. Park and their location:
How many of the statements given above are National Park located in State
correct? 1. Dachigam National Park Arunachal Pradesh
a) Only one 2. Manas National Park Assam
b) Only two 3. Palamau National Park Jharkhand
c) Only three Rajasthan
4. Bandhavgarh National
d) All four
Park
How many of the above pairs are correctly
Q.21) Which of the following forest produce is matched?
known as ‘Poor man’s Timber’? a) Only one
a) Teak b) Only two
b) Ebony c) Only three
c) Sal d) All four
d) Bamboo
Q.25) With reference to PM Jan Arogya Yojana
Q.22) The term ‘Social Forestry; is often heard (PM-JAY), consider the following statements:
in the news. In this context, consider the 1. There is no restriction on the family size,
following statements: age or gender to avail benefits under this
1. The term was first time used by the scheme.
National commission of Agriculture in 1976. 2. It is a health insurance scheme that aims to
2. It aims to reduce pressure on traditional provide free healthcare services to all
forest areas. Indian citizens.
3. Recreational forestry and Expansion 3. The scheme covers certain pre-
forestry are part of Social Forestry. hospitalisation and post hospitalisation
How many of the above statements are expenses of beneficiaries.
correct? 4. A beneficiary can avail benefits of this
a) Only One scheme only in hospitals located inside
b) Only two his/her states.
c) All three How many of the statements given above are
d) None correct?
a) Only one
Q.23) Consider the following statement with b) Only two
reference to Tigers and Projects related to it: c) Only three
d) All four

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PTS 2024 | B4 / B5 / B5(Alt) | L1 Test 10 |

Q.26) Which of the following statements best 3. Green Collar People employed in the
explains the term ‘Saltation erosion’? Workers environmental sectors
a) It is a wind erosional process where 4. White Collar People working in
massive particles migrate through rolling Workers government enterprises
only. How many of the above pairs are correct?
b) It is a wind erosional process in which the a) Only one
wind lifts and drops particles at short b) Only two
intervals. c) Only three
c) It is a type of sea wave erosion in which salt d) All four
accumulates on the coast.
d) It is a sea wave erosional process that Q.30) With reference to recent status of debt
erodes beaches made of high salty Level of the Government, consider the
materials. following statements:
1. The share of cumulative debt of all State
Q.27) Consider the following pairs about Governments to India’s GDP is higher than
shifting cultivation and their location: that of the Central government.
Shifting Location 2. Interest payment accounts for nearly one
Cultivation fourth of the total expenditure of the
1. Podu Western Ghats Central government.
2. Kumari Himalayan Belt 3. Large borrowing by the Government
3. Valre Assam generally leads to an increase in the rate of
4. Kuruwa Jharkhand private investment in the nation.
How many of the pairs given above are How many of the statements given above are
correctly matched? correct?
a) Only one a) Only one
b) Only two b) Only two
c) Only three c) All three
d) All four d) None

Q.28) Consider the following statements about Q.31) Consider the following statement
different types of farming to control soil regarding Metropolitan cities in India:
erosion: 1. Census of India has defined metropolitan as
1. Contour ploughing involves plowing along an urban agglomeration/city having a
the contour lines of a slope. population of one million and above.
2. Terrace farming involves creating flat 2. Delhi was the only metropolitan city in the
platforms on a slope. whole of India in the start of 20th Century.
3. Strip cropping involves the planting of 3. The number of metropolitan cities
multiple crops on the same field. increased to 10 in 1951 soon after
How many of the above statements are independence.
correct?
How many of the statements given above are
a) Only one
b) Only two correct?
c) All three a) Only one
d) None b) Only two
c) All three
Q.29) Consider the following pairs regarding d) None
different categories of workers and nature of
their work:
Types of Workers Nature of their work
1. Red Collar People involved in
Workers manual labour
2. Blue Collar People engaged in
Workers mental or clerical work

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PTS 2024 | B4 / B5 / B5(Alt) | L1 Test 10 |

Q.32) With reference to the Teesta River, Statement-II: Article 16(4) of the Constitution
consider the following statements: empowers State governments to provide
1. It originates from the Pahunri glacier in reservation for underrepresented
Sikkim. communities in government jobs.
2. It joins Padma River upon entering into Which one of the following is correct in
Bangladesh. respect of the above statements?
3. Rangeet River is one of its main tributaries. a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
4. Teesta basin receives major part of its correct and Statement-II is the correct
rainfall during the South-West monsoon explanation for Statement-l.
period. b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
How many of the statements given above are correct and Statement-II is not the correct
correct? explanation for Statement-I.
a) Only one c) Statement-l is correct but Statement-II is
b) Only two incorrect is incorrect.
c) Only three d) Statement-l is incorrect Statement-II is
d) All four correct.

Q.33) The Central Ground Water Authority is Q.36) Consider the following statement
formed under which of the following acts? regarding 3 stage nuclear power programme
a) The Environment Protection Act, 1986 of India:
b) The Water (Prevention and Control of 1. Stage-I was initiated with Pressurized
Pollution) Act , 1974 heavy-water Reactor (PHWR) as the initial
c) The Water (Prevention and Control of choice.
Pollution) Cess Act , 1977 2. Stage-II is concerned with setting up
d) The Societies Registration Act, 1860 thorium-based reactors and associated fuel
cycle facilities.
Q.34) Consider the following pairs: 3. Stage-III envisages setting up of Fast
River Dispute States in Conflict Breeder Reactors (FBRS) heated by
1. Mahi river Gujarat, Madhya plutonium-based fuel fabrication plants.
Pradesh and Rajasthan How many of the statements given above are
2. Cauvery water Tamil Nadu, Karnataka correct?
dispute and Kerala a) Only one
3. Tungabhadra Andhra Pradesh and b) Only two
Karnataka c) All three
4. Aliyar and Bhivani Tamil Nadu and d) None
Karnataka
How many pairs given above are correctly Q.37) With reference to oil fields in India,
matched? consider the following pairs:
a) Only one Onshore/Offshore Location
b) Only two oilfields
c) Only three 1. Lunej Onshore Field Maharashtra
d) All four 2. Ankleshwar onshore Gujarat
field
Q.35) Recently the State government of Bihar 3. Aliabet Gulf of Kutch
decided to undertake a caste based survey. In 4. Bassein North of Mumbai
this context, consider the following High
statements: How many pairs given above are correctly
Statement-I: The State Government can matched?
undertake Census activities to identify a) Only one
backward classes in their respective b) Only two
boundaries. c) Only three
d) All four

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PTS 2024 | B4 / B5 / B5(Alt) | L1 Test 10 |

Q.38) Consider the following pairs: 3. The act prohibits projects like running
Pipeline State it Passes zoos, safaris and eco-tourism facilities in
through the forests.
1. Salaya-Koyali-Mathura Gujarat How many of the statements given above are
Pipeline. correct?
2. Hajira-Bijapur-Jagdishpur Maharashtra a) Only one
(HBJ) Gas Pipeline. b) Only two
3. Jamnagar-Loni LPG Haryana c) All three
Pipeline d) None
4. Naharkatia –Nunmati - Jharkhand
Barauni Pipeline Q.41) ‘This river originates near Gurla
How many pairs given above are correctly Mandhata peak, south of Manasarovar in Tibet.
matched? It is also known as the Karnaili in Western
a) Only one Nepal. It's important tributary is river Sarda. It
b) Only two is one of the left bank tributaries of Ganga.’
c) Only three Which of the rivers is discussed in the above
d) All four paragraph?
a) Ramganga
Q.39) With reference to the comparisons b) Kosi
between the Western & Eastern Coastal Plains, c) Ghagara
consider the following statements: d) Mahannda
1. The Eastern Coast was formed due to
subsidence, while the Western Coast was Q.42) Consider the following statements:
formed due to emergence. Statement I: The Himalayan ranges show a
2. Unlike the Eastern Coast, the Western succession of vegetation from tropical to
Coast does not have many deltas. tundra.
3. The Eastern Coast has more ports and Statement II: The mountain range of
natural harbours compared to the Western Himalayas obstruct the passage of cold
Coast. continental air from the north into India.
How many of the statements given above are Which one of the following is correct in
correct? respect of the above statements?
a) Only one a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
b) Only two correct and Statement-II is the correct
c) Only three explanation for Statement-I
d) None b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct and Statement-II is not the correct
Q.40) With reference to the Forest explanation for Statement-I
Conservation Amendment Act of 2023, c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
consider the following statements: incorrect
1. The act resolves to achieve net zero d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is
emission by 2070 by increasing the forest correct
cover.
2. The State government requires prior
approval of the central government to
assign any forest land to private or
government entities.

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PTS 2024 | B4 / B5 / B5(Alt) | L1 Test 10 |

Q.43) Consider the following pairs: 4. Excessive road construction activity is one
Type of Forest Amount of average of the main reasons for increased instances
rainfall it receives (in of floods in the State.
cm) How many of the statements given above are
1. Boreal Forest 25-100 cm correct?
2. Tropical Above 200 cm a) Only one
evergreen b) Only two
forests c) Only three
3. Tropical Thorn More than 100 cm d) All four
Forests
4. Tropical 70-200 cm Q.46) With reference to Urbanization, consider
Deciduous the following states:
Forests 1. Goa
How many of the above pairs are correctly 2. Mizoram
matched? 3. Tamil Nadu
a) Only One 4. Himachal Pradesh
b) Only two Which of the following options correctly
c) Only three represents the level of Urbanisation of
d) All four different states of India in ascending order?
a) 1-2-3-4
Q.44) Consider the following statements: b) 4-3-2-1
Statement- I: Badland topography is often c) 4-1-2-3
characterized by rapid erosion. d) 2-3-1-4
Statement-II: The rocks in Badlands are soft
and are easily erodible. Q.47) Consider the following statements:
Which one of the following is correct in Statement-I: The Peninsular rivers are more
respect of the above statements? suitable for Hydroelectric projects than
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are Himalayan rivers.
correct and Statement-II is the correct Statement-II: There should be Perennial flow
explanation of Statement-I of large volumes of water for power
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are generation.
correct and Statement-II is not the correct Which of the following is correct with
explanation of Statement-I reference to the above statements?
c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
incorrect correct and Statement II is the correct
d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is explanation for Statement-I
correct b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct and Statement II is not the correct
Q.45) With reference to recent floods and explanation for Statement-I
associated damage in Himachal Pradesh, c) Statement-I is correct but Statement II is
consider the following statements: incorrect
1. Heavy snowfall and hailstorms were the d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is
primary factors responsible for triggering correct
flash floods.
2. Convectional rainfall contributes Q.48) Which of the following major ports is a
significantly to flooding in the State during landlocked harbour in India?
monsoon season. a) Visakhapatnam port
3. Some regions of the State are vulnerable to b) Jawaharlal Nehru Port
riverbank erosion and floods due to narrow c) Ennore Port
valleys. d) Tuticorin Port

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PTS 2024 | B4 / B5 / B5(Alt) | L1 Test 10 |

Q.49) “These are the alluvial floodplains found Q.52) With reference to the Indus River,
at the foothills of the Eastern Himalayas. The consider the following statements:
region has Teesta River on the west and 1. The Indus originates from Rakshas Tal Lake
Sankosh river on the east. It forms the gateway of the Tibetan Plateau.
to Bhutan from India” 2. Shyok and Gilgit are the Right-Bank
Which of the following region is mentioned in tributaries of the Indus.
the above paragraph? 3. The river cuts across the Pir-Panjal range
a) Bugyals to form a gorge near Kashmir Valley.
b) Marg How many of the above statements are
c) Duars correct?
d) Payar a) Only one
b) Only two
Q.50) With reference to Parliamentary Select c) All three
Committee, consider the following statements: d) None
1. It is an ad hoc in nature, meaning the
committee will be dissolved once the Q.53) “This soil is formed in hilly areas where
purpose is served. sufficient rainfall and vegetation are available.
2. As per the Rajya Sabha Rules and The soils vary in structure and texture
Procedures, only government members depending on the mountain environment
may move an amendment that a bill be where they are formed. They are loamy and
referred to a Select Committee. silty on valley sides and coarse-grained on the
3. No member is appointed to a Select upper slopes. In the snow-bound areas of the
Committee if he/she is not willing to serve Himalayas, they experience denudation and
on the Committee. are acidic with low humus content. The soils
4. The Chairperson of the Committee is found in the lower valleys are fertile.”
elected by the members of the committee The above paragraph refers to which of the
from amongst themselves. following soil types?
How many of the statements given above are a) Forest soil
correct? b) Arid soil
a) Only one c) Red soil
b) Only two d) Laterite soil
c) Only three
d) All four Q.54) Which of the following are the reasons
behind the occurrence of dry spells of
Q.51) With reference to the Andaman & monsoons?
Nicobar Islands group, consider the following 1. Less frequency of rain-bearing storms
statements: along the Inter Tropical Convergence Zone
1. It is considered an extension of the 2. Blowing of the monsoon winds parallel to
Arakan–Yoma Mountains of Myanmar. the west coast
2. Unlike the Lakshadweep Islands, Andaman 3. Southward shifting of the monsoon trough
& Nicobar Islands are of coral origin. 4. Pressure gradient at Gangetic plains
3. The island group is marked by the presence weakens
of the Mangrove forests. Select the correct answer using the code given
4. The Ritchie’s Archipelago is a part of this below:
Island group. a) 1 and 2 only
Which of the statements given above are b) 2, 3 and 4 only
correct? c) 1, 3 and 4 only
a) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
b) 1 and 4 only
c) 2, 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 3 and 4 only

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PTS 2024 | B4 / B5 / B5(Alt) | L1 Test 10 |

Q.55) The Rule 176 and Rule 267 of the Rajya Q.59) Consider the following statements:
Sabha, sometimes seen in news is related to: 1. Deltaic alluvium is formed by the deposits
a) Suspension of a member. carried by the rivers.
b) Raise a matter of public importance. 2. Coastal alluvium is formed by the deposits
c) Extend the duration of a session carried by the sea waves.
d) Introduction of private members' bills 3. Deltaic alluvium is usually more fertile than
coastal alluvium
Q.56) Consider the following statements with How many of the above statements are
reference to the Man and the Biosphere (MAB) correct?
programme: a) Only one
1. Two third of Biosphere Reserves of India b) Only two
have been part of the World Network of c) All three
Biosphere Reserves of the MAB Programme. d) None
2. India is part of the East Asian Biosphere
Reserve Network of MAB. Q.60) With reference to the successful launch
3. The 'Seville Strategy' is used for the of Chandrayaan-3 mission, consider the
appropriate functioning of the World following statements:
Network of Biosphere Reserves. 1. India is the first country to land a
How many of the above statements are spacecraft near the south pole of the moon.
correct? 2. After the US, India is the only country to
a) Only one complete a soft landing on the Moon.
b) Only two 3. India is the first country to successfully soft
c) All three land the spacecraft on the surface of moon
d) None in its very first attempt.
How many of the statements given above are
Q.57) Consider the following statements correct?
regarding Kendu Leaf: a) Only one
1. Kendu Leaf is a species of non-flowering b) Only two
tree that is native to India only. c) All three
2. It is a Minor Forest Produce under the d) None
Forest Rights Act, 2006.
3. Due to its anti-cancerous properties, it is Q.61) Consider the following statements with
an important export item. reference to “Kari Soil”.
Which of the statements given above is/are 1. It is generally found in Kutch region of
correct? Gujarat.
a) 1 and 2 only 2. It is extremely alkaline (basic) in nature.
b) 2 only 3. It has accumulation of large amounts of
c) 2 and 3 only organic matters.
d) 1 and 3 only How many of the above statements are
correct?
Q.58) Which amongst the following is not a a) Only one
major group of Indian soil as per the b) Only two
categorization of Indian Council of c) All three
Agricultural Research (ICAR)? d) None
a) Forest soils
b) Loamy soils
c) Saline soils
d) Peaty soils

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Q.62) With reference to 2011 Census of India, b) Only two


consider the following statements: c) All three
1. The census collected data on various d) None
religious groups in India.
2. The census for the first time collected data Q.65) With reference to “Other Backward
related to Other Backward Classes (OBCs) Classes (OBCs)” in India, consider the following
in India. statements:
3. The census for the first time introduced a 1. While the Sub categorisation of Scheduled
new gender category ‘Other’ in addition to Castes (SCs) is unconstitutional, the sub
male and female. categorisation of OBCs is constitutional in
How many of the statements given above are India.
correct? 2. The Constitution of India provides
a) Only one reservation benefits for OBCs in the Lok
b) Only two Sabha in proportion to their total
c) All three population in the country.
d) None 3. The Constitution empowers the President
to declare specific groups in States as
Q.63) With reference to the demographic backward classes after consultation with
history of India, consider the following the Governor of the state.
statements: How many of the statements given above are
Statement I: The year 1921 is known as the correct?
year of the ‘Great divide’. a) Only one
Statement-II: India has witnessed a sustained b) Only two
increase in population since 1921. c) All three
Which one of the following is correct in d) None
respect of the above statements?
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are Q.66) With reference to Population density of
correct and Statement-II is the correct India, consider the following statements:
explanation for Statement-l. 1. Population density is calculated by dividing
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are the total land area of a region by the total
correct and Statement-II is not the correct population living in that region.
explanation for Statement-I. 2. The population density in India in 2011 was
c) Statement-l is correct but Statement-II is nearly five times that of 1921.
incorrect is incorrect. 3. Among the Indian states, Arunachal
d) Statement-l is incorrect Statement-II is Pradesh has the lowest population density.
correct. How many of the statements given above are
correct?
Q.64) With reference to the demography of a) Only one
India during 1921 to 1951, consider the b) Only two
following statements: c) All three
1. India witnessed a population explosion d) None
during this period.
2. During this period, there was seen a Q.67) Between which of the given regions is
decline in the mortality rate. the Duncan Passage situated?
3. The population distribution in this period a) South Andaman and Little Andaman
was affected majorly by instances of b) Suheli and Minicoy islands
famines. c) Little Nicobar and Great Nicobar
How many of the statements given above are d) Minicoy and Addu Atoll
correct?
a) Only one

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Q.68) Which of the following best describes 1. Internal migration usually has no effect on
the definition of a migrant according to the the natural growth rate of the population in
International Organization for Migration a country.
(IOM)? 2. The increase in the rate of emigration
a) Anyone who moves from one country to generally results in a negative growth of
another permanently for any reason. population in a home country.
b) Only people who move within their own 3. In the short term, the rural to urban
country due to natural disasters. migration of men may increase sex ratio in
c) Only people who are seeking asylum in the Urban area.
another country on account of persecution How many of the statements given above are
in his/her native country. correct?
d) Anyone who moves from one country to a) Only one
another either permanently or temporarily b) Only two
for any reason. c) All three
d) None
Q.69) With reference to Girmitiya countries,
consider the following statements: Q.72) Consider the following statements
Statement-I: Fiji, Mauritius, and Trinidad and regarding the longitudinal and latitudinal
Tobago are generally referred to as Girmitiya extent of India:
countries. Statement 1: The longitudinal and latitudinal
Statement-II: During colonial rule, the British extent of India is roughly the same.
recruited Indian labourers bound by a legal Statement 2: The distance between two
agreement to work on plantations in various latitudes and two longitudes is standard and
countries. remains the same everywhere.
Which one of the following is correct in Which one of the following is correct with
respect of the above statements? respect to the above statements?
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are a) Both the Statement 1 and Statement 2 are
correct and Statement-II is the correct correct and Statement 2 is the correct
explanation for Statement-l. explanation for statement 1.
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are b) Both statement 1 and Statement 2 are
correct and Statement-II is not the correct correct but Statement 2 is not the correct
explanation for Statement-I. explanation for Statement 1.
c) Statement-l is correct but Statement-II is c) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is
incorrect is incorrect. incorrect.
d) Statement-l is incorrect Statement-II is d) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is
correct. correct.

Q.70) Which of the following organisations Q.73) What does the term "Conurbation" refer
publishes the Global Education Monitoring to in urban geography?
Report? a) An urban area with low population density.
a) United Nations Educational, Scientific and b) A cluster of rural areas whose economic
Cultural Organization (UNESCO) activities are primarily linked to nearby
b) United Nations Children’s Fund (UNICEF) urban centres.
c) Organisation for Economic Co-operation c) A continuous and heavily populated urban
and Development (OECD) area formed by the merging of several
d) United Nations Development Programme cities or towns.
(UNDP) d) An isolated and sparsely populated
settlement, especially in hilly areas.
Q.71) With reference to the most likely
consequences of Migration, consider the
following statements:

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Q.74) With reference to Tank irrigation, a) Maikal


consider the following statements: b) Mahadeo Hills
Assertion (A): Tank irrigation is generally c) Banasura Hills
suitable for small-scale farming practices. d) Kalibhit
Reason (R): Tank irrigation systems are less
expensive and easier to manage. Q.79) Consider the following States of India in
Which one of the following is correct in respect of their iron ore production in the
respect of the above statements? financial year 2021-2022:
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct 1. Jharkhand
explanation of A. 2. Odisha
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the 3. Chhattisgarh
correct explanation of A. 4. Karnataka
c) A is true and R is false. Arrange the above states by their contribution
d) A is false and R is true. to total iron ore production of India and select
the correct answer using the code given
Q.75) Which of the following States of India is below:
the first to pass a legislation to protect the a) 1-2-3-4
welfare of ‘Gig workers’? b) 1-3-2-4
a) Gujarat c) 2-3-4-1
b) Rajasthan d) 2-3-1-4
c) Tamil Nadu
d) Karnataka Q.80) With reference to the distinction
between Full and Fractional Reserve Banking
Q.76) With reference to the Water Resources system, consider the following statements:
in India, consider the following statements: 1. Unlike the Fractional reserve banking
1. Inundation canals are long canals that are system, in full reserve banking system the
supplied with water by floodwaters from banks are not allowed to lend out money
rivers. deposited in demand deposits
2. Perennial canals are linked to dams and 2. The full reserve banking carries a lower risk
barrages to irrigate a larger area. of bank runs compared to the fractional
3. For effective utilization of the flood water, reserve banking system.
more number of perennial canals are Which of the statements given above is/are
nowadays transformed into inundation correct?
canals. a) 1 only
How many of the statements given above are b) 2 only
correct? c) Both 1 and 2
a) Only one d) Neither 1 nor 2
b) Only two
c) All three Q.81) With reference to Chromium mineral,
d) None consider the following statements:
1. More than three fourth of the chromite
Q.77) Which of the following regions are ores found in India are from the State of
known as the 'Mineral heartland of India'? Rajasthan.
a) Deccan Plateau 2. India is the largest producer of chromite
b) Chota Nagpur Plateau minerals in the world.
c) Western Ghats 3. Chromium is a key component in the
d) Aravalli Range production of stainless steel.
How many of the statements given above are
correct?
Q.78) “Satpura Mountain Range is a series of
a) Only one
seven mountains ranges or folds”. In this b) Only two
context, which one of the following is not the c) All three
part of the Satpura Mountain range? d) None

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Q.82) With reference to various metals and Q.85) With reference to STAR-C Initiative,
their primary constituents, consider the consider the following statements:
following pairs: 1. India played an instrumental role in the
Metals Primarily composed of establishment of this initiative.
1. Monel Copper and Nickel 2. It is an international program focused on
2. Duralumin Copper and Tin the advancement of space technologies for
3. Brass Copper and Zinc interplanetary missions.
4. Bronze Aluminium and Copper Which of the statements given above is/are
How many of the pairs given above are correct?
correctly matched? a) 1 only
a) Only one b) 2 only
b) Only two c) Both 1 and 2
c) Only three d) Neither 1 nor 2
d) All four
Q.86) Consider the following statements
Q.83) With reference to the Eastern Himalayas regarding the Great Indian Desert:
and the Western Himalayas, consider the 1. The underlying rock structure of the desert
following statements: is an extension of the Himalayan range.
1. The snowline in Eastern Himalayas is at 2. Barchans and Playas are some of the
higher level as compared to Western prominent features of the Indian desert.
Himalayas. 3. The rivers in this region are mostly fed by
2. The height of Eastern Himalayas rises the groundwater.
gradually in a series of ranges whereas Which of the statements given above is/are
Western Himalayas rises abruptly. correct?
3. The amount of rainfall in Western a) 1 and 2 only
Himalayas is lesser than that of Eastern b) 1 and 3 only
Himalayas. c) 2 only
Which of the statements given above are d) 2 and 3 only
correct?
a) 1 and 2 only Q.87) With reference to the peninsular block of
b) 2 and 3 only India, consider the following statements:
c) 1 and 3 only 1. The northern boundary of block runs from
d) 1, 2 and 3 Kachchh to Rajmahal Hills.
2. Karbi Anglong in the northeast and
Q.84) There is a sharp bending at the eastern Rajasthan in the west do not form part of
end of Himalaya, where the mountain range this block.
joins the north-trending Indo-Myanmar Which of the statements given above is/are
Range, represented by the Naga Hills and the correct?
Arakan Yoma range. This Geo morphotectonic a) 1 only
character is known as- b) 2 only
a) Great Turn of Eastern Himalayan range c) Both 1 and 2
b) Syntaxial bend at Namcha Barwa d) Neither 1 nor 2
c) Lithospheric Imbrication of Himalaya
d) Faulting at Convergence

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Q.88) With reference to the Jute Industry of c) All three


India, consider the following statements: d) None
1. Jute products are losing their markets due
to the availability of cheap alternatives. Q.91) With reference to the Sunrise Industries,
2. Decline of area under jute cultivation is one consider the following:
of the biggest challenges faced by the Assertion (A): Information Technology
Indian Jute industry. industry is considered as an example of the
3. India lags behind Bangladesh in the Sunrise industry.
production and supply of the superior Reason (R): Sunrise industry is characterized
quality Jute fibre. by high growth rates and high degree of
How many of the statements given above are innovation.
correct? Which one of the following is correct in
a) Only one respect of the above statements?
b) Only two a) Both A and R are correct, and R is the
c) All three correct explanation of A.
d) None b) Both A and R are correct, but R is not the
correct explanation of A.
Q.89) With reference to the commercial c) A is true and R is false.
varieties of Silk, consider the following d) A is false and R is true.
statements:
1. India is the only country to produce all Q.92) In context of Indian geology, what does
types of known commercial silk. the term ‘Rohi’ refer to?
2. India is one of the largest producers of a) The badlands developed by sudden floods
Mulberry Silk in the world. in arid to semiarid areas of western desert.
3. Muga silk, with its golden yellow glitter, is a b) The fertile land developed by the seasonal
distinctive product of India. rivers between Aravalli and western desert.
How many of the statements given above are c) The valleys created by collision of Eurasian
correct? plate and the Indian plate as a result of
a) Only one folding.
b) Only two d) The newer and younger deposits of the
c) All three floodplains in the terai region.
d) None
Q.93) While travelling from Mumbai to Kochi
Q.90) Consider the following statements by shortest possible land route, which of the
regarding the Northern Sea Route (NSR): following are the west flowing rivers which
1. It connects the eastern parts of the Arctic needs to be crossed?
Ocean with the Mediterranean Sea. 1. Sharavati
2. It is becoming an increasingly viable 2. Netravati
maritime route due to melting ice caused 3. Neyyar
by climate change. 4. Koyna
3. It significantly reduces the distance and 5. Bharathpuzha
transit time between Western Europe and Select the correct answer using the code given
Asia Pacific region compared to the below:
traditional Suez Canal route. a) 1, 2 and 3 only
How many of the statements given above are b) 1, 2 and 5 only
correct? c) 2, 3 and 5 only
a) Only one d) 3, 4 and 5 only
b) Only two

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Q.94) Consider the following statements Q.97) With reference to Shola Forest in India,
regarding irrigation in India: consider the following statements:
1. Area under the well irrigation is more than 1. They are temperate forest with evergreen
the canal irrigation in India. ecosystem.
2. In Tamil Nadu, canals are the principal 2. They are usually separated from one
source of irrigation. another by undulating montane grassland.
3. The plains of North India are mostly tube- 3. One of the important functions of shola
well irrigated. forest is conservation of water in the
4. Maharashtra has the largest area under region.
well irrigation in India. How many of the above statements are
How many of the above statements are correct?
correct? a) Only one
a) Only one b) Only two
b) Only two c) All three
c) Only three d) None
d) All four
Q.98) Consider the following pairs regarding
Q.95) The Sulina Channel, recently seen in Pilgrimage sites and Mountains/hills they are
news, is best explained by which of the situated on:
following statements? Pilgrimage sites Mountains / Hills
a) It connects the Black Sea to the Danube 1. Shravanabelgola The Shivalik Range
River, facilitating mainly grain trades in the 2. Hemkund sahib The Aravalli Range
Central and Eastern Europe region. 3. Mount Abu temple North-western
b) It connects the Red Sea to the Caspian Sea, Himalayas
facilitating trade between Asian and 4. Charar-e-Sharif Vindya Giri hills
European countries. How many of the above pairs are correctly
c) It connects the Red Sea to the Persian Gulf matched?
and is critical for oil trade in the gulf a) Only two
region. b) Only three
d) It connects the South China Sea to the c) All four
Pacific Ocean, facilitating trade in the Asia- d) None
Pacific region.
Q.99) Which of the following are the reasons
Q.96) With reference to the different Horizons for the diversity in the monsoon type climate
of the Soil, which among the following is the of India?
defining characteristic of the ‘Zone of 1. Presence of Himalayan Mountains
Eluviation’? 2. Temporary shift of the Pressure Belts
a) It contains a great concentration of dead 3. Latitudinal Extent of the Country
organic matter in various stages of decay. 4. Oppositely blowing monsoon winds in
b) In this zone; silicates, carbonates, iron and different times of the year.
aluminium have been leached and lost. Select the correct answer using the codes
c) The humified organic matter is very well given below:
mixed with mineral components and the a) 1 and 2 only
original parent rock is all gone in this zone. b) 1, 2 and 4 only
d) It contains huge pieces of un-weathered c) 2 and 3 only
parent bedrock, but hardly contains any d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
organic matter.

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Q.100) With reference to the recently notified


Green Hydrogen Standard in India, consider
the following statements:
1. The standard is issued by the Ministry of
New and Renewable Energy.
2. With this notification, India joins the select
group of nations that have established a
definition for Green Hydrogen.
3. The notification made the Bureau of Energy
Efficiency (BEE) as the nodal authority for
certifying Green Hydrogen production
projects.
How many of the statements given above are
correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

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