® Aakash ce ‘Orporate office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-1 10005, Ph.011-47623456 FINAL TEST SERIES for NEET-2023 Test -5 Hrs. 20 Mins Time: Physics v' # Electric Charges aid Fields, Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance che : BRAMISITY + The Sold suse, Solution, Electrochemisty, Chemical Kneis, Surface LhemstY fotany Prant Growth and Development, Reproduction in Organisms, Sexval Reproduction in Flowering mn Zoology + Chemical Coordination and Integration, Reproduction in Organisms, Human Reproduction Instructions: (There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions from Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15. i) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from the total score. Unanswered / unattempted questions will be given no marks. (ii) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle. (iv) Mark should be dark and completely fil the circle. (v)_ Dark only one circle for each entry. (vi) tk the circle in the space provided only. (vil) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material fon the Answer sheet ay mS (MYERS x 1076 4, Two conducting spheres of radius ri and re have (2) -8.85% 1076 same electric fields near their surfaces. The ratio of their respective electric _potential_at their (3) 6.195 « 10°C ace (4) 358% 104 2 @ a 3. The electric field in a region is given by Og " E=(ai-+4,j) the potential at point P having & oe OF co-ordinates (2 m, 1 m) is (assume potential at we origin is zero) ‘the flux entering and leaving a closed surface maw aay ae aie 408 and 4 * 10° SI units respectively, then orev @) -18v sre total charge inside the closed surface wil be =4. Two equal Positive point charges.q are held at a fixed distance @ apart. A point test charge is located in a plane that is normal to the line joining these charges and exactly midway between them. Radius of the circle in this plane for which the force on the test particle is maximum, will Be a a 8 1 (2-3 q OZ PTR @ 5 (4) 2a Consider a rhombus ABCD as shown in figure. A charge *@ placed at comer A produces field E and potential V at comer D. If we now placed charges -2Q and +Q at comers B and C respectively. Now the magnitude of electric field ‘and potential at 2 will be 9. ae Final Test Series for' (2) 3 (3) 4c 3c MZ Volume charge density for a solid nonconducting iven by p=. mere Q is total sphere is given bY p= where @ sris distance > ge on sphere and Rs ts radius) is quarge fre of sphere.(Magnitude of electric feld at a distance f from centre of sphere (I< R) will “ae 4regR* (2y Bs (4) Zero, In the circuit shown in figure the charge stored in 2 uF capacitor on applying a potential difference of 60 V between A and Bis A - v = SB bz, VB Go) == ue (y EB. @ we ane rian eo @BPefeatNEETL,( Fuk a SN = gue Four particles, each having a charge ‘q' are T placed at the four vertices of a regular hexagon of | side a. The electric field at the centre of hexagon Bur is 228 q (1) 40 ne: (2) 80 pC (3) 60 uc (4) 120 pc q 10. There are two charges +1 uC and +5 uC The ratio of the forces acting on them will be @ q (1) 1:5 (2) 1:1 (3) 5:4 (4-425 (6 11. Two positive point charges of 9 uC and 6 uC are 10 cm apart. The work done in bringing them 18a penis slowly to a separation of 4 mis ) tre ') aaa? ; arses, (2) 6.295 The equivalent capacitance of combination es (4) 8.254 Shown in figure between points A and Bis [P| Acapacitor of capacitance C, = 1 uF withstand 8 C maximum voltage V, = 6 kV, while a capacitor of —-- capacitance C, = 3.0 4F withstand the maximum” [ er vollage V, = 4 kV. The maximum voltage wh! A ==2cy t—B the capacitors can withstand when connected it fe ie series teed ta (1) kv eyon 2c (3) 10 kv (4) SkV @) ahee charges are arranged on the vertices ranged on the vertices of an equilateral tangle as shown i Hue. The dipole moment of combination s 2q abs O 7 a de 3g," (1) ga (2) qav5 lle (3) qav7 (4) 34a Wf 10° electrons move out of a body to another body every second, then the time required to get a total charge of 1G is no (1) 6258 7 (2) 625s (2) 6250s (4) 100s 15. Figure show a charge q placed at the centre of hemisphere. A second charye Q's placed at one of the positions , 8 and C. In which position(s) of the second charge, the flux of electric field through the hemispherical surface remains unchanged? & { 14, (A (2) 8 ac UAT Both A and 8 46. The correct arrangement of identical dipoles in descending order of potential energy in uniform electric field Eis ol] BO a (B) (1) Uc > Uo = Un Uo (2) Up> Uc? Ua” Ur (3) Uc > Uo? Un? Uo AA) Us > Un = Un? Ue A) sO > Ee 8) A molecule of a substance has electric dipole moment of magnitude specimen of this substance molecules is placed in strong electro ev 2 * 10° T. The direction of field is int of neat ew released in aligning ts dipoles 31009 ™ ave neld Of adenl¥ changed by an angle of 60", The amou! sirection is (4s (2) 25 etd (4) 35 : 18. Two charges of unit magnitude placed at points ‘and B produce electrostatic potential along the line AB as shown in igure. The values of charge Aand B can be Mos (ener @enet eBy-1.41 (1-1 19. Ata point 20 cm from the centre of a uniformly charged sphere of radius 10 cm electric field is 100 ¥. The electric eld at 3 em from the centre of sphere is a) 150u @) vas (3) 120%. (4) Zero 20. A dipole is placed parallel to the electric field. f W is work done in rotating dipole by 60°, then the work done in rotating it by 180° is () Ww @) Ww 3) aw wo & 21. The flux of electic field through a. spherical 1co of radius 10 cm surrounding a charge is 10 NY the tue over another concentic sphore of radius 20 m surrounding the same charge will be New Nov 1) 2 2) 40 Nee (1 20% 2) 0° @ 0 (8) Zer0 feTest-5 (Code-A) 22. Six identical capacitors each of capacitance 2 uF are connected in a circuit as shown in figure. The effective capacitance between A and BS 4 dH 42) 4 uF (3) 2uF (4) 8 nF avy 4 ar ft 24, The potential of a large liquid drop formed by combining 64 drops of same size is 80 V. Then the potential of a single smaller drop is (1) 10v (2) 5V (3) BV (4) 1.25 25. & charge moving with a constant acceleration in space produces (1) Only electric field (2) Only magnetic field (2) 80th electric and magnetic field and also produce electromagnetic radiation _{4) Both electric and magnetic field but don't produce any radiation having @ paraboloidal surface and a Js placed in a uniform electric 26. body, circular “surfat ficis of magnitude E as shown in the figure. Electric flur associated with the paraboloidal f the body is > (1) Aan‘e 2 (2) 2R°E ee (3) nRLE (4) Zero 27. which of the following charge can't pe: 28, 29, 4) Final Test Series tory ‘on a body? (1) 16 106 (232x196 \ °¢ (3) 4.8 x 10°C 1816 x 1096 Four metallic plates each with a surface area\, one side ‘A’ are Placed at a distance ‘a’ fron, each other. The Plates are connected as shown in the figure. Equivalent capacitance of the system between Points A & Big 2eA A (1 24 @ 360A 2eyA ®) Sid. i] Work done by an external force to carry a point charge qo slowly from point A to B in an uniform electric field E as shown in the figure, will be oa A (4B =<) = What should be the capacitance of the capact X in the following arrangement so_that te Potential difference between points B ani 2 becomes zero in the circuit shown in the fau® below? 6 WN, a X AKAN ci — = wa Nae 6 tt — 20v «96 ou (3) 2c (a) 4cnee large placed parallel figure. Plates and-9¢ identical conducting plates are to each other as shown in the Aand C are given charges with § C Fespectively. Value of charge X and Y Ro respectively on the two faces of plate B will be % A eee 4 xv sc -9¢ (1) -2Cand7c (2) 7Cand—7 6 (3) -7Cand7¢ (4) 2C and-2c. 32, A charge 2 is distributed on two spherical conducting shell A and 8 having radii R and 2R respectively such that they have equal surface charge densities, Charge on shell A and B, wl be respectively Q 4Q 2Q Q (1) = and = (2) < and = 5 5 @ 3 a 3 42 ang 22 aq 82 (3) = and = (4) = = 5 5 “ 5 ey 5 33. In the circuit shown in figure C = 8 uF, Total energy stored in the two capacitors will be (1) 9600 ws (2) 4800 ns @) ae (4) 1600 ps 34 A small element of length '7 is cut from a circular ring of radius Rand linear charge density 2. Net Slectic field al the centre of the remaining ring i py oe (1) Zero (2) ee aM u “ 8) ger aa? A charged block is projected on a rough 3 Pazontal surace wit spac vw, The va of orn of friction. kinlic energy ofthe bla remains constant is q250——P B= 2NC ial poner ae 205 % A (04 a 36. 37, 39 6) SECTION -B A Volume charge density for a solid non-condct ‘g sphere of radius Ris given BY P= Por - ; 7 ss tric fil ‘a constant. Magnitude of elect Jistance from surface of sphere (outside it) will be (Total charge on sphere is Q) Qe BJ" ce reg a @ —- : Fre —o_, are (R IF 8) (a) Capacitance of any capacitor depends on (4 Size of plates of capacitor (2) Charge on the plates of capacitor (3) Potential ditference between the plates of ‘capacitor (4) Both (2) and (3) ‘The electric potential ata point having coordinate x.y. 2 is given by V =~ [e+ y+ 2, The: magnitude of electric field at point having coordinate (0, 2, 1) is (all quantities are in SI units) N N 4) 7N N a) c @ 0s N N @ st wy 2k the potential of point A when jeroany oF gE — 1+ aay " I - ta MF Bar (aay @) 96v ( 42v (4) 18.6VTost-s (Code-A) article of mass m and charge q is fastened to 10. ope end of sting xed at point O. The whole system lies on a frictionless horizontal plane, Initially the mass is at rest at A a uniform electric field E is switched on in the direction shown in figure. The tension in the string when particle reach at point Bis é. + y 6 (1) (2) 29 (3) 39& (4) 4qE 41. Fow electric lines of force for a system of two charges having magnitude Q; and Qe are fixed at {wo different points as shown in figure, These lines suggest that Closed Surface Q, (1) [Os] < [Qa]. . (2) At finite distance of left of Q: electric field must be zero (2) Net electric flux through the closed surface is (2,49, ) (4) Net electric flux through the closed surface is 2, J aa 42. charged parallel plate capacitor is charged up ‘0.4 certain potential difference. When a diclecttic Slab is introduced between the plato, potential Ailercnce between the plates bacome hall of is inlisl value. The diclectrc constant of slab is Ga ye (2 (4) 6 43. An electric field is presont in any togion; This electric fied is (1) Always conservative (2) May be conservative or non-conservative (3) Always non-conservative (4) Always discontinuous 45, 46. side r. Electric field at the centre of this will be uate a () Frege 3, Gregr (2) a ed Fer (4) Zero A ting of radius R is uniformly charged. Linear charge density of ring is 2. An imaginary sphere of radius Ris drawn with its centre on circumference of ring. Total electric ux passing through the sphere would be 2nRd Rh 1) 7 ns at 2nRA (3) 3p (4) Zero Figure shows two conducting thin concenttic shells of radii r and 37. The outer shell caries charge q. Inner shell is neutral. The charge thal will low from inner shell to earth on closing the switch *S* will bo (6)shown in the figure. If X is positively charged and anc, @=-590) 44 nC, qe= 12nC, = Y is earthed, then which ofthe following i true? aoe D surface ‘S' at 2 Nm (y 1928 (2) 446 (1) Charge density on Vis samo as on X : ne (2) Skt eld bemoan and isto te) saotia ore (3) Electric potential inside xis zero ic (A) Electric field outside Vis zero 50. The charge slored on 4 uF capacitor in the 48. A pattie having charge q and mass m is steady state of given circuit is projected wih velocity ¥=(7i—4j)ymis in a iv uniform electric field & =E,/. Change in : momentum of the particle during @ time internal 1 tis aarp Plu (1) 77-4) (2) qEaat (2) Tmasat (4) 4maeat ! Our 49. The electric fx for Gaussian surface ‘s' that!| (1) 36 uC (2) 24 uc enclosed some charged particles as shown in the figure, will be nearly (@) 12nC (4) 54uc CHEMISTRY 2 z [SECTION =A ['55. Statement A: Crystalline solids are anisotropic in nature. — 51. If NaCl is doped with 10-' mol% of BaClz then the ‘Statement B: Crystalline solids have long range cationic vacancy per mole of NaCl crystal will be |* ordar. (Ne =6.0 » 107) In the light of above statements select the corect ootion, 1) 6 102 740% : ane aren * | UCAYBoth statements A and B are true (3) 3* 10" (4) 2« 108 (2) Both statements A and B are false 52, The most unsymmetrical crystal systemis ;, =f (3) Statement Ais true but statement B is false (1) Onthorhombic (2 Cubic 1, (4) Statement Ais false but statement B is tue ; ~ $75. Match the ype of solids given in List with theie 8) Titcfinie (4) Monoctinie ‘examples in List-l, 53. The % vacant space in fer lattice unit cell id** ~ List __Ustll gy t6% (2) 14% a, | Molacularsotets. | () | SiOs (3) 32% (4) 45% b c solids Ww [As 54. The ratio of number of totrahedal voids with total c. alts | i) | MgO number of atoms in hexagonal cuble closod ra eseaerr erat packing structure is respectively Zhoose tho coract option uta (ay 4:2 i, i, iv) 2) a, BC, eC, ev) (aya 4, ct, c)_ (4) a, BCH, ty Bris @Test-s (Code-a) 87. Which among the following can show both Schottky and Frenkel defects? (1), Csct (2) AgCl )\Naci way Ager 58. 0.2 molal acid HX is 50% ionized in solution. The freezing point of the solution is, [Kr of H20 = 1.86 K kg molt] (1) -1.12° (2) -0.56°C (3) -1.50°C (4) -0.25°C 59. Molarity of a solution obtained after mixing 9 g of, glucose in its 250 mL of solution is (1) 02M (2) 0.5M (3) 2M (4) 15M 60. The correct relation for a solution showing negative deviation from Raoult’s law (1) 8Grme> 0, ASme> 0 (2) AG <0, ASme < 0 (B)- Hm > 0, AVine <0 {4} AF < 0, AV <0 The properties which decrease with dilution is (1) Equivatent conductance (2) Molar conductance 43) Specific conductance (4) Conductance 62. The correct graphical representation for a first order chemical reaction is (where [A] is concentration of reactant) 61 , De or Ly v Tt tal ry 6 ) ‘ i 62 The sone of gph in versus 2 iy 2046 (1) 2 ay 2.303 F : ad R ‘ 6A. The unit of tale eonstint tor ascend exdor reaction is (1) mol 7175 ¢ 2) molt s* (3) mor Ls! (4) molt (8) the specific rate constant of the reaction } (5% 109 54 (2) 2% 1095-1 (8) 15% 1095+ (4) 1.5% 10-4541 Mechanism of a hypothetical reaction Aa + Bz — 2AB is given below () A, +B, —2C (fast) (ii) 2C + 2A8 (slow) The overall order of the reaction will be 66. (3 (20 (3) 1 (4) 2 67. If the rate constant for a reaction is 2.303 x 102s"! then the time required for 90% Completion of reaction is (1) 75s (2) 100s (3) 25s (4) 50s 68. If the rate of reaction is doubled with every 10° rise in temperature, then what will the rate when temperature is increased from 10°C to 40°C? Oimes (2) 16 times (3) 8 times (4) 32 times 69. The incorrect statement about chemisorption is (1) Itincreases with surface area of adsorbent (2) tt ific in nature s3. UB) Tis reversible in nature (4)-Itreslts into unimolecular layer of adsorption 70. Which among the following is not a method of Purification of colloids? (1) Dialysis y. (2) Ultrafitration (3) Electrodialysis. (A) Bredig’s Arc method The size of colloidal particles ranges from AAYI0%m—10%m — (2) 16 m— 10 m (3) 10m 10-m (4) 10 m—10-% m 72. Which of the following does not change with change in temperature? (1) Volume percentage (2) Normality (3) Motarity \(4) Mole fraction Tho vapour pressure of two liquids A and B a 123 and 167 torr rospectively. The total. vapoo! piessura of solution obtained by mixing @ moe ‘of A.and 3 motos of B would be approximately (1) 138 torr (2) 151 torr (3) 93 torr (4) 1239 tore m1. 73:76. 7B. 79. Nich of the following ions has highest limiting. | ‘molar conductivity in water at 298 K? | (1) Ch ve (2) cae? | (@) Bes NP to Bt Which of the following reactions takes place at anode of a mercury cell? (1) Ha(!) +204 —Hg0 +404 267 (2) MnO(OH) + NH, —s¥n0, +NHY +6 8) Za Ha) + 204+ —s2n0¥6)+H,0+26 (4) 2n(8)—42n?* +20 Which of the following statements is incorrect? (1) The main source of energy that is driving our economy is fossil fuels such as coal, oll and gas (2) Hydrogen produced by electrolysis of water is resulting in the Greenhouse Effect (3) The hydrogen combustion in a fuel cell is based on electrochemical principles (4) Fuel cells produce electricity with an. efficiency of about 70% The half life of a substance in a certain frst order ZSM-5 catalysed reaction is 72 s. The time required for the concentration of the substance to fall from 2.56 mmol L~* to 0.02 mmol Lt is (1) 680s (2) 4345 (3) 5745 (4) 5045 Which of the following sols is negatively charged? (3) Gold sol (2) AkO5xH,0 sol (3) Methylene blue sol (4) Haemoglobin The coagulation of lyophobic sols cannot be carried out by (1) Electrophoresis, 12) Ultafitration (2) Addition of electrolytes Ady Boiling Given below are two statements: one is labelld a5. Assertion (A) and other is labelled as Reason (R) ‘Assertion (A): On addition of excess NaOH in Foch, 2 negatively charged sol of Fes XxH,OIOH is obtained \ of coagulating power for Reason (R): Order of Goagelig a" regavely charged so6 AN? B>c (2) A>C>B @) C>ArB a) C>B>A SECTION-B ‘The vapour pressure of solution depends upon (i) Temperature (i) Xs ii) Xana (iv) Surface area 1) (Qian () onty (2) (aidan (0) (3), and Gv 0 (4) (9 (idan id ontTest-5 (Code-A) 87. 89. 1 92. 93, The correct relation for molal elevation constant is where Mi = molar mass of solvent ‘nol = Enthalpy of vapourisation RAN ae oy i (Feta a ct ee a XM AH RMT, Ok ‘oor 0 p00 ‘The conductivity of 1.02 x 10-9 M acetic acid is 4.95 * 10-5 S cm”. The degree of dissociation of acetic acid if its molar conductivity at infinite dilution is 390.5 S cm? mol (1) 0.42 (2) 0.12 (3) 0.50 (4) 0.86 The standard free energy change for the following reaction is -210 kJ. What is the standard cell potential? 2H,0,(aq)—»2H,0())+ 0,(9) (1) 1.09 V (2) -0.78V (3) -1.09V (4) 0.78 V, The product obtained at anode upon electrolysi of concentrated H2SOs with platinum electrode is (1) HO (2) Oz () SOF () He Which among the following has. high flocculating power for a negatively charged. sol”, (1) APY (2) Ba (3) Na * (4) Corr Which among the following is an»example homogeneous catalysis? 7 (1) 280,(g) + 0,()—“" 280,(g) (2) CHO, (aq) +H,0() 4 4C,H,,0,(aq) + C\H,,0,(aq) (2) Vegetable oil + H,(g)—"**-» Vegetable ghee (4) 4NH,(g) + 50,(g)—"*)>4NO(g) + 6H,0(g) Which among the following is an example of ‘multimolecular colloids? (1) Nylon (2) Au sol (3) Protein (4) Starch Benzoic acid undergoes 40% dimerization in benzene. The observed molar mass of benzoic acid will be (1) 182.49 (3) 105g (2) 1224 (4) 182.59 95, 96, 97. Final Test Series 11 of acetone that ‘sented by this equation ) + CHsCOCH. +H¥(aq)+ of reaction is given as rate = k [Bre]. The value of rate constan, The brominatior solution is repres CH,COCH,(a9) + Br(@d The rate [CH,COCH: be decreased by (1) Increasing the (2) Increasing the concentration of Bre (3) Decreasing the concentration of Brz (4) Decreasing the temperature The number of collisions per second per unit volume of the reaction mixture is known as (1) Enthalpy (2) Activation energy (3) Collision frequency (4) Rate constant A compound is formed by two elements A and B. ‘Atoms.of element B makes CCP and those of element A occupy half of the octahedral voids. ¢ ae concentration of acetone The formula of compound is (ay AB? (2) AB 3) AB (4) ABs Which of the following is an incorrect match? © Column, Column tt <1 (Crystal system) (Examples) (1) Tetragonal ‘SnOz (2) Oithothombic ZnO mm XS) Gexagonal Graphite ~) (4) Rhombohedral Calcite 99, The fraction of total volume occupied by the atoms present in a hady centred cube is, = Rey M5 @ Bx eT Bed ore @ Bn 100. Which of the following is known as rate law? (1) The representation of rate of reaction in terms of concentration ofthe reactants (2) The representation of reaction Quotient in torms of ratio of concentrations of prodots 0 concentration of reactants, (3) The sum of powers of the conce, concentration the reactants inthe rate law expreseicat (4) The numberof reacting species taking pati an elementary reaction, which must Pande simultaneously in order to bring axon 2 chemical reaction ee (10)‘Series for NEET.2023 “SECTION-A : (01. Apical dominance can be counteracted by (1) Applicaton of ethylene 2 Application of benzyl amino purine }} Removal of lateral buds (2) Providing auxins to plant 102, Identify the incorrect statement regarding life span. (1) Itis specific trait of each species. 7 WPA is always conolated with size and {complexity of organisms {BY Lite span of crow is shorter than parroty. (4) Itis period from birth to the natural death) 103. The anther wall layer that provides nourishment to developing pollen grains is, (1) Endothecium (2) Tapetum 3) Epidermis (4) Middle layer Plant cells which are in elongation phase show all of the following features, except Jay Large vacuoles (2) New cell wall deposition. (3) Increase in cell sizev JAy-Dense cytoplasm with prominent nucleus Consider the following statements and choose the correct option. 104, 108, Statement A: In a young anther, group of compactly arranged horingenous, cells. called sporogenous tissue Statement B: In typical stamen, the distal end Of the filament is attached to the thalamus of the flower. (1) Only statement A is correct (2) Only statement B is correct +) Both state (4) Both st Match the following columi correct option ints ane contact vents a inconract 106. Column! Column a.| Rhizome — | 0 | Agave b. | Bulbil A (iy Pistie c. | Offset lc Onio d\| Bulb Nivy | Ging + (1) ati. DG, i) ~* (2) afi), BG), ci), (3) av. b¢. efi. A) 4yAti), (ei), i) 107, Which one is a dedifferentiated tissue? en (1) Cork cambium «2 Gecondary Pho (a) Cork (4) Secondary cortex 108, The ovule is a small structure attached to the placenta by a stalk called (1) Hilum (2) Nycellus (3) Micropyle \(4y Funicle 109. Heterophylly is found irr all the plants given below, except (1) Cotton (2) Coriander (3) Larkspur Jay Maize 410. Pollen grains can be stored for years in liquid Nz at (y ore _Ry=196°C (3) 196%¢ (4) 100°c. AR? State true (7) oF false (F) to the giver: statements land select the correct option. A. Vegetative reproduction is seen in some lower plants only B. Sexual reproduction can be uniparental . Call division iat is a mode of reproduction jin Monera and Protista ae ay PAM. BN.) (2) ACT), BEF), CCT) » = BFAF).BM CM. 4) AF). BCT), CIF). (C242. Find te odd one out vert sibbereins {AF Highly basic in nature (2) Induce bolting in rosette plants. () Induce seed germination hvees in malting process 113. Read the folowing statements and select the correct option Assortion (A): Ovules generally differentiate a single mogaspore mother cell (MMC) in the Imicropylar region of the nucellus. Ronson (R): In a majority of fowering plants eerie ona sa siaceen tinare (1) a) tu nt (RY ae (2) (A) ola ut) ste va (yan (2) t¥e WU ave (Ris tho Pe mg {nary na Re PD tho cearroct explanation of (A) mmst (Code) gest cll ofthe embns tests (6 121. Select the large imbry« sae 114 115. 116. 117. 118, 119, 120, ‘The outermost layer of pollen grain (2) Lacks sporopolionin (0) Proteets it from hazardous environment (c) Is called intine Which ofthe above statement(s) is/are correct? 44) (a) and (by (2) (b) and (c) (3) (a) and (0) (4) Only (b) Select an incorrect match (1) GA. Delays ripening of fruits (2) Cytokinin ~ Induces senescence (3) Ethylene — Thinning of fruits in cotton (4) ABA During differentiation of xylem, a strong but flasie and A. secondary cell wall develops wich does not alow tracheid to collapse under extreme tension Fil in the blank by choosing the correct option fora (1) Siberses 42) Lignoceltulosic (3) Proteinaceous (4) Cellulosic Select the incorrect one for cleistogamous flowers (1) These flowers do not open at all 2) They help to produce high genetic variability inthe ofsprings (2) These flowers assure seed set even in the absence of polinators (4) In these flowers there is no chance of cross zolination = Antitranspirant ‘The most vital event of sexual reproduction is, (1) Gemnete formation (2) Zygote differentiation (3) Fusion of gametes (4) Transfer of gametes In plants, relative growth rate can be represented by the fora (1) RGR = Total growth per unit time 2) RoR Final growth Groth per unit time Growth per unit time (ay RGR - Growth per unit time aq Initial size | Grovah per ne fey RGR SFOMAH per Uni LIME 4 Final size Al of the following plants have waler-polinatod flowers, except (1) Hydia (2) Vallisnoria (3) Zostera v (ay Eichhornia Final Test SF MP, fd ay Central coll (2) Synergigs ws vsa (3) aniposal cat (8) Eageat \ eee 3 4122. 1n the equation W = Woe", Ws represents oe 4, (1) Final growth (2) Initial growtn (3y Growth rate (4) Time of grow Aas. Some organisms are considered to be immona, such as (1) Amoeba (2) Drosophia (3) Pistia (4) Penicillium: 424. tf the number of chromosomes in the secondary nucleus of the Zea mays is 20, what is tho umber of chromosomes in PEC, polar nuclei, Coleorhiza and aleurone layer respectively? (1) 60, 20, 60 and 40 (2) 30, 10, 10 and 30 (3) 30, 10, 20 and20 (4) 30, 10, 20 and 30 Which of the given occurs in stationary phase of geometrical growth? (1) Growth progresses rapidly due to abundance of food (2) Growth ceases due to enormous supply of food BY Growth slows down due to accumulation of <=" toxic substances, ABYGrowth. progresses rapidly first and then stops 126. Choose the feature not seen in flowers pollinated by wind. (1) Wel-exposed stamens \U2)-targe and sticky pollens (3) Feathery stigma to trap pollen grains (4) Generally have single ovule in each ovary 127. In pollen grains, the generative cell differs from vegetative cell as the former (1) Stores food reserve (2) Has irregularly shaped nucleus (3) 1s spindle-shaped with dense cytoplasm (4) 1s larger than the latter 128, At maturity, a typical angiospermic embryo sacs (1) Seven-nucleated and seven-celled U2) Seven-nucleated and eight-celled (8) Eight-nucteated and seven-celled (4) Eight-nucteated and eight-celled | 129. Allof the following are dioecious plants, except (1) Papaya (2) Coconut (3) Date palm (4) Marchantia 128, (12)es for NEET-2023, ¢r Ferilsation, the ovary wall develops into a thick wall called (1) Testa (3) Mesocarp (Q) Integument (4) Pericarp. "51. Read the statements given below and choose the correct option Statement (a); 2, 4.0 is widely used as weedicide, Statement (8): Auxin controls differentiation process, the xylem (1) Both statements (A) and (8) are correct (2) Only statement (A) is correct. (3) Only statement (8) is correct (4) Both statements (A) and (B) are incorrect 132. In an angiosperm, the egg apparatus consists of (1-Synergids, antipodal cells and egg cells (2) Three antipodal cells (3) Two synergids and one egg cell (4) Three antipodal cells, two synergids and one egg cell, 133. Which of the given is a pre-fertiisation event in plants? (1) Syngamy (2) Embryogenesis (3) Pollination (4) Zygote formation 134, Match the following columns and select the correct option, Column | ‘column (Plants) | (Ovary) Le ad a.| Papaver | (iy ‘Multicarpellary b. | Wheat | (i), | Many ovules per ovary f= | paceman | ‘syncarpous: «| Paoeye ()| Single ove per ovary | a ob oc 4 Mm mm Gi Qi) ww) WO Wi @ Gi) Oi (4) i) (iv) iit) 35. Which of the followin parts of ovule has (™ abundant reserve food material and its enclosed inside integuments? (1) Micropyle (2) Embryo sac (3) Chalaza (4) Nucetius SECTION -B 136, In geitonogamy (1) Transfer of pollen grains occurs within the same flower som the (2) Tr grain occurs. fron 1 Jar fo signa of Saher wor of S2e plant (3) No agents are required for pollination (4) Always genetically identical type of offsprings are produced 137. The structure known as vital link between two generations is (1) 2ygote (2) Gamete (3) Fruit (4) Vegetative propagule 138. Which organism reproduces or divides by ‘multiple fission? (1) Hydra x 2} Spirogyra (3) Amoeba. (4) Peniciium 139. Which plant growth re carotenoids? (1) Auxin (3) Abscisic acia 140. Consider the followin, the incorrect one, ‘Gulators is a derivative of (2) Gidberetiic acig (4) Ethylene 19 statements and choose (1) Long-day plants requite exposure to light for 4 period exceeding critical period (2) The sites of perception of light/dark duration in plants are shoot apices (3) Photopetiodism is the res changes in relative length: period Ponse of plants to 18 Of light and dark. (4) During flowering shoot apices modify into floral apices 141. A typical anther is (a) Tetrasporangiate (b) Tetragonal ele) Thtobed (4) Surrounded by four wal layers The correct ones are (1) Only (a), (0) and (a) (2) Only (a) and (4) (3) Only (b) and (e) (4)-All(a),(b), (@) and (4)Fg Soca 6 Greeti (1) Two polar nuclei fuse together (2) One male gamete fuses with an egg (3) One polar nucleus fuses with a male gamete (4) One male gamete fuses with another male gamete x 143. Presence of which chemical do not cause seed dormancy? (1) Phenolic acid (2) Para-ascorbic acid (3) Abscisic acia (4) Giberelic acid Who isolated auxin from the tips of coleoptile of oat seedlings? 144, (1) FW. Went (2) Charles Darwin (3) F. Skoog (4) Francis Darwin 145, Select the auxin which is not isolated from plants (A) IA (8) NAA (c) IBA (0)2,4.0 (1) (A) and (8) only (3) (B) and (0) only 148. Arithmetic growth (1) Occurs in exponential manner (2) Usually occurs in zygote and meristematic cells 4GF Usually occurs at constant rate 14) Can be represented by W, = Wye" \@YAll except (0) (4) (A), (O) and (c) 147. Which cell plays an important role in guiding pollen tube entry in embryo sac? (1) Antipodal cel (2)-Synergids (3) Egg cet (4) Central cot Read the following statements and select the correct option Assertion (A: Embryo develops atthe micropylar end of the embryo sac. 148. vondaty nucleus wR TTT Reason (R): USUAMY the maga, ° \ Ad Final Test Seig\ iW o a VSS Ghalazal end is the functional ong, eg (1) (A) is true but (R) is false S & (2) (A)is false but (R) is true Fr h (A) and (R) are true ang . Be beth ‘explanation of (A) WH S ‘@ th (A) and (R) are true but (R) ig (0 sec explanation ok) m4 149. Mark the following columns and ct \ correct option. Poose a column! | Coleoptile (i extyledon in menocas | b. | Epiblast An undifferentiated sheath which encloses root cap A hollow foliar structure Which encloses few leaf primordia c. |Coleorhiza Remains of second cotyledon in some |__| monocots like grasses (1) ai, BGv), eG, ay (2) ativ), b¢i), c(i), diy 3) aii), bei), efi), iy (4) a(t, bt), ctiv), diy 180.'Some species of Asteraceae and grasses Produce seeds without fertilisation by a special mechanism called e() Apomixis, (2) Double fertsation (8) Parthenocarpy (4) Triple fusion i Seutetum | SECTION - A, Enlargement of thyroid gland, increased basal metabolic rate, restlessness and exophthalmos are the symptoms associated with (1) Hypothyroidism (2) Graves’ disease 161 Hyperparathyroidism (4) Cretinism 152. The function of thymus gland is mainly concemed with (1) Body temperature regulation (2) Growth of body (14) (3) Reproduction (4) Immunity 183. Choose the effect which is not caused » catecholamines, (1) Formation of glycogen \l9) Increased strength of ventricular contr (3) Increased heart beat (4) Raising of hair 164. Hormone which intates. ejection of mit it lactating mothers is (1) Prolactin (3) Vasopressin action 42) Oxytocin (4) Melatonin‘Choose an option that fills the blanks correctly. A 8 (1) Two a One Two (3) Two Two (4) One one 186. A Peptide hormone released by a composite gland plays a major role in regulation of glucose homeostasis, stimulates glycogenesis and acts on hepatocytes for enhanced glucose uptake. ‘dentify the hormone and choose the correct option, (1) Testosterone (2) Glucagon x3) Ansutin (4) Estrogen 157. A temporary endocrine gland formed in females during pregnancy is (1) Umbilical cord (2) Corpora quadrigemina 43)-Placenta (4) Inner cell mass 158. The target organs of hormone cholecystokinin are (1) Pancreas and liver (2) Stomach and pancreas (3) Stomach and liver (4) Pancreas and gall bladder 159. The hormones which interact with membrane- bound receptors do not include \(4y Insulin (2) FSH (3) GnRH (4) Progesterone 160. Select the incorrect option w.r.1. hormones (1) Nutrient chemicals (2) Act as intercellular messengers (9) Produced in trace amounts (4) Produced by endocrine glands 461. Complete the analogy ws. chromosome number in meiocyte. n Human beings : 46 =: House fly: _ Choose the correct option. (1) 12 (2) 42 (3) 8 “ayaa Tost-5 (Gode-A) 162, Female mammals exhibiting cyclical changes in the activities of ovaries, accessory ducts as well as hormones only during favourable seasons in their reproductive phase are called (1) Seasonal breeders \\2) Continuous breeders (3) Induced ovulators only (4) Reproductively isolated 163. Exogenous budding occu (1) Obetia (2) Earthworm (3) Pila 3) Hydra 164. In which of the following animals, oestrous cycle does not occur? (1) Humans: (2) Deer (3) Tigers (4) Sheep 165. The phenomenon exhibited by Amoeba under unfavourable conditions, is (1 Binary fission (2) Encystation (3) Budding (4) Sporulation 166. The approximate life span of crow is (1) 1/2 the life span of parrot (2) 114% the life span of crocodile (3) 1/4* the life span of tortoise {4)-113" the life span of elephant 167. Site of synthesis of sperms in a healthy human male is (1) Prostate gland {2} Seminiferous tubule (3) Seminal vesicle (4) Bulbourethral gland 168, Select the mismatch w.r. a normal menstrual cycle of 28 days. (1) Follicular phase (2) Proliferative phase 5 to 13% day 15" to 25" day (3) Ovulatory phase 14h day (4) Monstrual phase 110.4" day 169. Which of the following stuctures differentiates into endoderm, mesoderm and ectoderm and have the potency to give rise to all the tissues. and organs? (4) Yolk sac: (2) Umbilical cond (3) Inner cell mass (4) Trophoblast170. During human embryonic development, by the end of which week, most of the major organ systems are formed? (1) 2 week (3) 8 week (2) 4” week 44) 12" week 171, During fertilization, in humans, a sperm comes in contact with an acellular layer of ovum called (1) Corona radiata (3) Theca layer (2) Vitetline membrane (4) Zona pellucida 172. Secretion of all of the following are essential for ‘maturation and motility of sperms, except (1) Epididymis (2 Serotum 3) Vas deferens (4) Seminal vesicle ¢ ¢ 173. Oogonial cells that get temporarily arrested at rophase-t of the 1+ meiotic division are called ~(1) Primary oocytes (2) Secondary oocytes (3) Graafian folicle (4) First potar body 174. Select the odd one wart ploidy level (1) Secondary spermatocyte {2) Spermatogonia (3) Secondary oocyte (4) Spermatozoa 175, The correct path of transport of sperm passing through a male body is 47 Seminiterous tubules — Rete testis -» Vasa fferentia > Epididymis -» Vas deferens ~ Elaculatory duct > Urethra (2) Seminiterous tubules» Rete testis => Vas deferens» Epididymis -> Vasa efferentia ~ Ejaculatory duct -» Urethra (3) Seminiferous tubules» Epididymis -> Vas deferens -+ Rete testis» Vasa eferentia Ejaculatory duct + Urethra (4) Seminiferous tubules» Epididymis -» Vas deferens + Rete testis -» Vasa efferentia » Urethra -» Ejaculatory duct 176. Select the hormone which is secreted Pregnant and non-pregnant women, (1) hee (2) hPL (3) Relaxin (4) Oestrogen 177. In a functional mammary gland, the cells of secrete milk, which is stored in the cavit alveoli both Choose the opton that isthe bang e = t4y Mammary aval (2) Lact §® oe ° (3) Mammary ducts (4) Areolg\® a cS 178, Select the odd! one wet. phases oy \ os 4 cycle. ‘ oe (1) Foticular phase (2)-Ovdlatory phay\ (G) Menstrual phasé (4) Luteal phase Cs 178, The secretions of which of the following Slang, \~ help in the lubrication of penis? (1) Seminal vesicles (2) Prostate gland (3) Testis {4} Bulbourethral glands 180. During oogenesis, first meiotic division completed in LA)-Primary follicle (2) Graafan folicle (3) Tertiary follicle (4) Secondary follicle 181. The layer of uterus which exhibits strong uterine contractions during delivery of the baby, is (1) Mesometrium (2) Myometrium (3) Endometrium (4) Perimetrium 182. Implantation is embedding of the into the ‘endometrium of uterus. is ‘Choose the option that fils the blank correctly. (1) Zygote (2) Blastocyst (3) Morula (4) Primary oocyte 183. During ovulation, which of the following folice fuptures to release secondary oocyte from ovary? (Tertiary folicle (2) Graafian follicle (3) Ootia (4) Secondary follicle 184. Consider the given events. Secretion of gonadotrophins increases ‘gradually >. Gradual increase in secretion of estrogen ©. Regeneration of endometrium The above events occur ‘menstrual cyclo? {1)-Luteal phase (3) Follicular phase rin which phase of (2) Menstrual phase (4) Secretory phase Sn tinalt Sees for NEET-2023 'e signals for parturition originate from 1) Fully developed foetus only (2) Placenta only (2) Maternal pituitary and placenta (2) Fully developed foetus and placenta SECTION -B 186. Hormone which stimulates cutaneous pigmentation by dispersion of melanin granules is (1) TSH (2) PRL (3) FSH say MSH 187. Hormones °x’ ang originate in the hypothalamic neurons and reach pituitary gland ‘through a portal circulatory system. Hormone *X’ inhibits the release of growth hormone from anterior pituitary \dentify hormone “x and select the correct option, (1) Oxytocin (3) Vasopressin (2) GnRH (4) Somatostatin 188. Hypersecretion of growth hormone (GH) in adults, will result in (1) Addison's disease (2) Acromegaly (3) Dwarfism (4) Cretinism 189, Match Column with Column-t a _ Column-| Column-tt la. To and Te () |Diabetes melitus b.| Insulin (ii) Addison's disease «. Cortisol (ii) Graves’ disease Select the correct option (1) alii, bai), ef) (i), et) 43) al (4) ali, bai, ef) 190, Choose the incorrect match 42 al fi). Hones (ay (2) fodothyronin Thyroid hot Steroid hormone ‘Amino-acid Norepinephrine derivative (4) Polypeptide Cortisol a Test-s (Code-A) | 191. A peptide hormone secreted by atrial wall of our heart is (1) ANF (2) GIP (3) TSH (4) GnRH 192, Choose the incorrect statement. (1) Gametogenesis and gamete transfer are pre-fertiization events. (2) Syngamy is fusion of male and gametes. female (3) Sexual reproduction is a complex and slower Process as compared to. asexual reproduction, (4) In humans, at the end of meiosis-ll, two diploid gametes are formed. 193. Select the odd one w.r.t unisexual organisms. (1) Ants, (2) Wasps (3) Leech (4) Bees 194. All of the following are functions of placenta, except (1) Faciitate the supply of nutrients to embryo (@) Remove the oxygen producuc by embryo @) Actas an endocrine tissue (4) Remove ‘the excretoryiwaste materials produced by embryo 195. Scrotum helps in maintaining a temperature of the testes which is A lower than the normal Each testis has about 8. ‘compartments called testicular lobules. Select the option that fils the blanks correctly. body temperatur. A 8 (1) 13°C 300 (2) 225°C 250 (3) 335°C 250 ( 225°C 380 196. Sporms. undergo biochemical changes in the fomale reproductive tract whit enables them to fortihze anv ovum. This process is called (1) Spermiation (2) Sperma (3) (4) tnsenin tion anTests (code) 197, Given below is a structure of sperm of human male Identify the structure °X’ and choose the option representing the correct description/unction of x ) Contains chromosomal material a (2} Provides energy source for swimming oaa ‘Scan the QR Code for Detailed Video Solutions Video wi be avaiable to access post ‘Gam. 3" Apel, 2023 onwards) asee | Sean the QR Code to know ‘How FTS Helps to Boost. | the NEET Score” {@) Contains enzyme that helps in fertilisation of ovum (4) Secretes hormone for maturation and motity of sperms 198. During fertilisation, the layer present outside the zona pellucida of an ovum surrounded by few sperms is (1) Zona fasciculata (2) Perivtelline space (3) Corona radiata (4) Trophoblast 19. How many functional ova can be produced from 100 oogonia after completion of oogenesis? (1) 200 (2y 400 (3) 100 (4) 800 0. A tiny finger-like structure which lies at the upper junction of two labia minora, is (1) Hymen say Clitoris (3) Mons pubis (4) Labia majora