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CST 1
CST 1
CST 1
PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer :
SECTION-A 3. Charge Q is given to a conducting shell of radius
R such that it has surface charge density .
1. A body is displaced from x = –1 m to x = 2 m
Which of the following is the correct expression
under the effect of a force F = (5x2 – 2) N acting
of electric field intensity just outside the shell?
along x-axis. Work done by this force is
1
(1) –19 J (2) 9 J K =
40
(3) 27 J (4) 13 J
2. Consider the following statements. KQ KQ
(1) 3
(2)
(A) Electrostatics field lines do not form any R R2
closed loop.
(B) In a charge free region, electric field lines can (3) (4) Both (2) and (3)
0
be taken to be continuous curves without any
break. 4. The contribution of electric field in energy density
of an EM wave is u. Then half of the contribution
Which of the following option is correct?
of magnetic field in average energy density of the
(1) Statement A is correct while statement B is EM wave will be
incorrect
u
(2) Statement B is correct while statement A is (1) u (2)
incorrect 2
(1)
CST-1 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2022
5. An unpolarized light beam of intensity I is incident 11. Some logic gates are given in column I and
on a polarizer and then it passes through an column II contains their names.
analyzer which has its axis perpendicular to the
Match the column I with column II.
polarizer. The final intensity of the emergent
beam is Column-I Column-II
I
(1) Zero (2) A P OR
2
I I
(3) (4)
6 4
6. Two identical plates of different metals but with B Q AND
same area of cross-section, are joined to form a
single plate whose thickness is double the
thickness of each plate. If the coefficients of C R NAND
thermal conductivity of each plate are 4 and 3
unit respectively, then conductivity of composite
plate will be D S NOT
(1) 3.43 unit (2) 1.21 unit
(3) 3.99 unit (4) 5.21 unit
7. A slab consists of two parallel layers of copper (1) A → R, B → S, C → Q, D → P
and brass of same thickness and equal area are
(2) A → R, B → Q, C → S, D → P
having thermal conductivities in the ratio 1 : 4. If
the free face of brass is at 100°C and that of (3) A → P, B → S, C → Q, D → R
copper at 0°C, the temperature of interface is
(4) A → P, B → Q, C → R, D → S
(1) 80°C (2) 20°C
12. The force versus time graph of a body of mass
(3) 60°C (4) 40°C
18 kg is shown in figure. The velocity of the body
8. Choose the correct statement.
12 seconds after stating from rest is
(1) Nuclear forces are attractive only for all
ranges
(2) Gravitational forces are repulsive only
(3) Electromagnetic force can be attractive or
repulsive
(4) Nuclear forces are central force
9. A student of class XI have two iron rods one of
length (4.89 ± 0.01) cm and other of length (7.01
± 0.02) cm. He welded both the rods to form a
single rod. If the extra length of rod increased (1) 5 m/s (2) 10 m/s
due to welding material is (0.05 ± 0.01) cm, then
the total length of the rod will be (3) 12 m/s (4) 15 m/s
(1) (11.95 ± 0.02) cm (2) (11.95 ± 0.04) cm 13. What is the depth of lake at which the density of
(3) (11.90 ± 0.03) cm (4) (11.90 ± 0.04) cm water is 1.5% more than at the surface, if the
10. Consider the following two statements compressibility of water is 50 × 10–11 m2 N–1?
Statement A: p-type semiconductor is (1) 1.5 km (2) 2.0 km
electrically positive charged.
(3) 2.5 km (4) 3.0 km
Statement B: The conductivity of pure
germanium is given as = nie(e + h), where ni 14. A cylinder contains 5 litre of oxygen gas at STP.
is intrinsic carrier concentration, e is electron If the cylinder is cooled by 60 K, what amount of
mobility and h is hole mobility. heat will be lost by the gas? (At S.T.P., P = 1 bar,
Choose the correct statement(s). T = 0°C)
(1) A only (2) B only (1) 240 J (2) 274.7 J
(3) Both A and B (4) Neither A nor B (3) 321.6 J (4) 156.2 J
(2)
Intensive Program for NEET-2022 @neet2022testSeriesop CST-1 (Code-A)
A A (4) A → P, B → Q, C → S, D → R
(1) tan (2) cot
2 2 23. The frequency of a particle performing SHM is
10 Hz. Its amplitude of oscillations is 6 cm. Its
A A
(3) sin (4) cos initial displacement is 3 cm and velocity towards
2 2
positive extreme position then its equation for
19. When an object is at distances 12 cm and 4 cm displacement is
from the optical centre of a convex lens, a real
and a virtual image of same magnification are
(1) x = 0.06sin 10t + m
obtained. The focal length of the lens is 6
(1) 16 cm (2) 4 cm
(3) 8 cm (4) 6 cm (2) x = 0.06sin 20t + m
6
20. The radius of a coil decreases steadily at the rate
of 2 × 10–3 m/s. A constant and uniform magnetic
(3) x = 0.06sin 40t + m
field of induction 10–4
Wb
acts perpendicular to 4
m2
the plane of the coil. The radius of the coil when (4) x = 0.06sin 20t + m
the induced emf of the coil is 2 V is 4
2 5 24. Displacement time graph of a particle moving in a
(1) m (2) m
straight line is shown in the figure below. Then
3 4
(3) m (4) m
21. A solid cylinder of mass M and radius R starts
falling under gravity at t = 0 as shown in figure. If
the mass of chord is negligible and there is no
slipping of chord on cylinder, the angular
acceleration of the cylinder will be
(1) In region A, acceleration is negative
(2) In region B, acceleration is negative
(3) In region C, acceleration is non zero
(4) In region D, acceleration is non zero
(3)
CST-1 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2022
q 5q
(1) (2)
60 0
5q q (1) 1 (2) 2
(3) (4)
60 40 (3) 3 (4) 4
27. Resistance of a wire at temperature t°C is 31. Figure shows a string of linear mass density
R = R0(1 + 2t + 3t2). Here R0 is the resistance at 2 kg m–1 on which a wave pulse is travelling.
0°C. The temperature coefficient of resistance at Find time taken by pulse in travelling a distance
temperature t is of 4 m on the string. (g = 10 m/s2)
(1) (2 + 6t) (2) Constant
1 + 3t 2 + 6t
(3) (4)
1 + 2t + 3t 2 1 + 2t + 3t 2
28. The value of current ‘i’ in the part of circuit shown
in the figure is
(1) 2 10 s (2) 3 10 s
(3) 1.26 s (4) 2.3 s
32. Consider a transverse wave propagating as
Y = 10 mm sin[(2 cm–1) x – (50 s–1)t]. The time
period and linear wave number of wave
respectively are
(1) s, 1 cm–1 (2) s, 2 cm–1
30 40
(1) 8 A (2) 12 A 1
(3) s, cm–1 (4) s, 2 cm–1
(3) 16 A (4) 4 A 25 30
29. A drone flying horizontally at height 20 m with 33. In which of the following transition, in hydrogen
velocity 10 m s–1 has to hit stationary enemy atom, will the wavelength of emitted photon be
target. At what horizontal distance H before maximum?
target should the drone drop the bomb so as to (1) n = 5 to n = 4 (2) n = 4 to n = 3
hit the target? (g = 10 m s–2) (3) n = 3 to n = 2 (4) n = 2 to n = 1
(4)
Intensive Program for NEET-2022 CST-1 (Code-A)
34. The half life of a radioactive nuclide is 30 hr. 38. A transistor is used in common emitter
What fraction of original activity will remain after configuration. If = 100 and VBE = 0.7 V, then for
60 hr? the given amplifier (in figure) the co-ordinates of
(1) One-third (2) Half operating point (VCE, Ic) is
(3) One-fourth (4) One-sixth
35. A square loop of side length 25 cm is partially
hanged in magnetic field of 4 T by an insulated
pan of a spring balance as shown. The loop
carries an anti-clock wise current of 4 A. Find the
increase in tension of spring if direction of current
is reversed in the loop.
(1) (5 V, 5 mA)
(2) (7 V, 5 mA)
(3) (7 V, 0.05 mA)
(4) (4.3 V, 0.05 mA)
39. The parallax of a far off planet, measured from
two diametric extremes on equator of the earth is
(1) 4 N (2) 6 N 1 minute. If radius of earth is 6400 km, then the
(3) 8 N (4) 10 N distance of planet from earth is
(1) 2.2 × 1010 m
SECTION-B
(2) 1.1 × 1010 m
36. Two identical discs ‘A’ & ‘B’ collides elastically (3) 4.4 × 1010 m
such that disc ‘A’ hits disc ‘B’, which was at rest,
while moving in a straight line as shown in figure. (4) 5.5 × 1010 m
40. For the shown situation in figure, how much time
block A will take lining up with front face of B?
(g = 10 m s–2)
(mA = 1 kg and mB = 2 kg & = 0.2)
If radius of each disc is R, then speed of disc A
and disc B after collision are respectively
2V0 V0 V0 2V0
(1) and (2) and
3 3 3 3
V0 2 2V0
(3) and (4) 0 and V0
3 3
(1) 0.2 s (2) 0.3 s
37. A beam of light contains two wavelengths
(3) 0.6 s (4) 0.9 s
4000 nm and 6000 nm. The beam is used to
obtain interference fringes in Young’s double slit 41. A monoatomic gas at pressure P and volume V is
experiment. The distance between the slits is expanded adiabatically to volume 8V. Final
2 mm and the distance of screen from the slit pressure is
plane is 100 cm. What is the least distance from
P P
central maximum where the bright band due to (1) (2)
32 16
both wavelengths coincide?
(1) 2 mm (2) 3 mm P
(3) (4) P
(3) 5 mm (4) 6 mm 8
(5)
CST-1 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2022
42. A series LCR circuit is shown in figure below 46. A physicist wants to eject electrons by making
light incident on a metal surface. If wavelength of
light is 600 nm, then which of the following metal
will produce most energetic electrons (work
function of lithium & tungsten is 2.3 eV, 2.5 eV
respectively)?
(1) Lithium (2) Tungsten
The correctly matched row for the given
parameters are (3) Both (1) and (2) (4) Neither (1) nor (2)
S. Value Resonance Inductive Average 47. The equation of equipotential line in an electric
No of R frequency reactance power field is y = 4x, then electric field vector at (1, 4)
consumption
may be
A 2 100 Hz 2 5 kW
(1) 4iˆ + 3 jˆ (2) 4iˆ + 4 ˆj
B 4 50 Hz 2 400 W
(1) 4 3 10 –5 T (2) 6 3 10 –5 T
(3) 8 3 10 –5 T (4) 2 2 10 –5 T
50. Two particles A and B of masses 2 kg and 4 kg
respectively are kept 1 m apart, are released to
move under the mutual gravitational force of
10 10 attraction. The separation between both the
(1) A from A to B (2) A from B to A
3 3 particles when speed of B is 10–5 m/s, is
20 20 (1) 0.8 m (2) 0.6 m
(3) A from A to B (4) A from B to A
3 3 (3) 0.47 m (4) 0.125 m
(6)
Intensive Program for NEET-2022 CST-1 (Code-A)
CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A 59. The given reaction is called
51. The strength of ‘10 volume’ solution of Hydrogen
peroxide is nearly
(1) 35 g/L (2) 45 g/L
(3) 30 g/L (4) 40 g/L
(1) Wolff-Kishner reduction
52. In the metallurgy of silver and gold, the
respective metal is leached with a dilute solution (2) Clemmensen reduction
of NaCN or KCN in the presence of (3) Stephen reaction
(1) O2 (2) N2 (4) Etard reaction
(3) H2 (4) Cl2 60. Pernicious anaemia is caused by the deficiency
53. The oxidation state of central carbon atom in of
C3O2 is (1) Vitamin B6 (2) Vitamin B1
(1) +2 (2) 0 (3) Vitamin B2 (4) Vitamin B12
(3) +4 (4) +3 61. Which among the following ligand has highest
54. Excess of potassium makes KCl crystals violet field strength?
due to (1) H2O (2) CO
(1) Frenkel defect
(3) OH– (4) en
(2) Schottky defect
62. 1 mol of an ideal gas expanded reversibly from
(3) Metal deficiency defect 10 L to 100 L at 27°C. Work done involved in the
(4) Metal excess defect process is
55. If the molar conductivity of 10–3 M HA is 39 S cm2 (1) –11.5 kJ (2) –5.74 kJ
mol–1, then its dissociation constant will be
(3) –57.4 kJ (4) –109.8 kJ
[Given: m (HA) = 390 S cm2 mol–1] 63. Ratio of time taken for 99.9% and 99%
(1) 10–7 M (2) 10–6 M completion of a first order reaction is
(3) 10–8 M (4) 10–5 M 2 10
(1) (2)
56. The formula of compound formed by two 1 1
elements A and B if they form cubic solid in
3 9
which atoms of A are at the corners of cube and (3) (4)
2 1
B are at the body centre, will be
64. Molar solubility of Zn(OH)2 in 0.1 M NaOH
(1) A2B (2) AB
solution is (Ksp Zn(OH)2 = 1 × 10–15)
(3) AB2 (4) A2B3
(1) 10–9 M (2) 10–13 M
57. Which among the following is yellow coloured
(3) 10–14 M (4) 10–15 M
species?
65. Correct order of bond order is
(1) [Fe(SCN)]2+ (2) (NH4)3PO4·12MoO3
(3) PbS (4) [Fe(CN)5NOS]4– (1) O2 O2− O2+ (2) O2− O2 O2+
58. Which compound on reductive ozonolysis gives
(3) O2+ O2 O2− (4) O2 O2+ O2−
propanone as one of the product?
66. Which of the following does not depend upon
(1) (2) charge on colloidal particle?
(1) Electrophoresis (2) Peptization
(3) (4) (3) Tyndall effect (4) Coagulation
(7)
CST-1 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2022
67. Number of significant figures in 2140 pencils are 72. Which of the following graph is not according to
(1) 3 (2) 4 Boyle’s law?
(3) Infinite (4) 2
68. Molarity of 6% (w/v) glucose solution will be
(1) (2)
M
(1) 1 M (2)
3
M M
(3) (4)
4 6
69. Which of the following is not true for a solution
that shows negative deviation from Raoult’s law?
(3) (4)
(1) mixH < 0 (2) mixV < 0
(3) mixG < 0 (4) mixS < 0
70. Which of the following alkyl halides is most
reactive towards SN1 reaction?
(1) CH3 = CH – CH2 – Cl 73. Which of the following elements will have the
highest number of unpaired electrons in ground
state?
(2)
(1) Cr (2) Mn
(3) V (4) Fe
(3) 74. Consider the following statements
I. TeO2 is an oxidising agent.
II. TeF4 is solid while SeF4 is liquid.
(4)
III. Hybridization of S in SF4 is sp3d.
Correct statements among the following are
71. (1) I and II (2) I and III
(3) II and III (4) I, II and III
Organic compounds (A) and (B) formed in the 75. Which of the following oxoacids of phosphorus
above reaction sequence are respectively
has maximum number of P – OH bonds?
(1) Phosphinic acid
(1) (2) Phosphonic acid
(3) Orthophosphoric acid
(4) Pyrophosphorous acid
(8)
Intensive Program for NEET-2022 CST-1 (Code-A)
h h (3) (4)
(1) x p x (2) x p x
4 2
h h
(3) x p x (4) x p x
2 4 89. Consider the following statements
82. The correct order of decreasing ionic size is a. Cyclopentadienyl anion is aromatic in nature.
(1) N3– > F– > Mg2+ (2) Na+ > F– > O2– b. Pyrole is a heterocyclic aromatic compound.
c. Naphthalene and anthracene contain 14 and
(3) F– > O2– > Na+ (4) Mg2+ > N3– > F–
10 electrons respectively.
83. Which among the following does not give flame
The correct statement(s) is/are
test?
(1) (a) and (b) only (2) (a) only
(1) Mg (2) Ca
(3) (b) only (4) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) Sr (4) Ba 90. Consider the following reaction sequence
84. Lewis acidity of boron halides decreases in the
sequence
(1) BF3 > BCl3 > BBr3 (2) BBr3 > BCl3 > BF3
(3) BF3 > BBr3 > BCl3 (4) BBr3 > BF3 > BCl3
Product B formed is a/an
85. The incorrect statement regarding photochemical
(1) Ether (2) Acetal
smog is
(3) Ester (4) Ketal
(1) It occurs in warm, dry and sunny climate
91. Which among the following complexes shows
(2) It is mixture of smoke, fog and sulphur optical isomerism?
dioxide (1) [Pt(NH3)2ClBr]
(3) Nitrogen oxides produced from automobiles (2) [Pt(NH3)(H2O)(Cl)(Br)]
and factories contributes in it (3) [Co(en)3]Cl3
(4) It is also called as oxidising smog (4) [Fe(H2O)5NO]SO4
(9)
CST-1 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2022
92. The bond dissociation energies of X2, Y2 and XY 97. If 10 g He diffuses from a tiny hole in 2 s, then
are in the ratio of 3 : 2 : 4. H for the formation of amount of SO2 diffused from same tiny hole in
XY is –450 kJ mol–1. The bond dissociation 5 s at same temperature and pressure conditions
energy of X2 will be will be
(1) 50 g (2) 100 g
(1) 400 kJ mol–1
(3) 1.56 g (4) 40 g
(2) 900 kJ mol–1
98. Most basic compound among the following is
(3) 300 kJ mol–1
(1) N-ethylethanamine
(4) 150 kJ mol–1
(2) Benzenamine
93. Shape of ICl3 molecule is
(3) Phenylmethanamine
(1) Pyramidal (4) N, N-Dimethylaniline
(2) Trigonal planar 99. Statement-I : Salts of lithium are mostly
(3) Tetrahedral hydrated.
(4) Bent T-shape Statement-II : Hydration enthalpy increases with
decrease in ionic sizes of cations.
94. Which of the following pair can act as a buffer
solution? In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below.
(1) NaOH + HCl
(1) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is
(2) NaOH + CH3COONa correct
(3) CH3COOH + HCl (2) Both statements-I and II are correct
(4) CH3COONa + CH3COOH (3) Both statements-I and II are incorrect
95. Unit of rate constant for a zero order reaction is (4) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is
incorrect
(1) s–1 (2) mol L–1 s–1
100. The total number of electrons that can be
(3) L mol–1 s–1 (4) L2 mol–2 s–1
accommodate in an orbital having n = 2 and l = 1
96. Positively charged sol among the following is is
(1) TiO2 sol (2) Ag sol (1) 14 (2) 10
(3) As2S3 sol (4) Gum (3) 6 (4) 2
BOTANY
SECTION-A (3) The reduced ubiquinone is then oxidised by
101. Self-consciousness is a characteristics feature transferring its electrons to complex II
not the defining, because (4) It is found in the matrix of the mitochondria
(1) It is seen in non-living objects too 104. The major advantage of producing plants by
(2) It is not seen in all living organisms micropropagation is that
(3) It is seen in all mammals only (1) A large number of plants can be propagated
in very short duration.
(4) It cannot be seen in multicellular forms
(2) Genetically different plants can be produced
102. Mark the correctly written scientific name of
mango. (3) Without use of hormones, plants can be
produced
(1) Mangifera Indica (2) Mangifera indica
(4) Commercially important vegetables or fruits
(3) mangifera indica (4) mangifera Indica
can be produced which are genetically
103. Select the correct statement about ubiquinone of different from parent plant.
electron transport system of mitochondria.
105. All of the given factors may increase the
(1) It receives reducing equivalents via FADH2. population density of an area, except
(2) It transfers electrons to NADH (1) Food availability (2) Natality
dehydrogenase (complex I) (3) Emigration (4) Immigration
(10)
Intensive Program for NEET-2022 CST-1 (Code-A)
106. The organisms present at first trophic level in a 114. In DNA replication, DNA unwinds to form two
pond are strands: the leading strand and the lagging
(1) Phytoplanktons (2) Zooplanktons strand.
(3) Fishes (4) Birds Which of the following statements about these
strands is true?
107. Which of the following statement is incorrect
(1) The leading strand is formed on template
w.r.t. hydroponics?
with polarity 3 → 5
(1) It was first demonstrated by Julius von Sachs
(2) The lagging strand can only be synthesized
(2) It controls soil borne pathogens once the leading strand has been completed
(3) It is used for commercial production of (3) The lagging strand of DNA is synthesized
seedless cucumber, lettuce continuously
(4) It does not help in identifying the deficiency (4) The leading strand requires DNA ligase
symptoms of an essential element during its formation on template DNA.
108. Which of the following represents the correct 115. The smallest unicellular organism
relationship between s, p and w? (1) Is a eukaryote
(1) w = s + p (2) w = s – p (2) Has cellulosic cell wall
s + p (3) Does not have cell organelles
(3) w = (4) w = s × p
2 (4) Has both DNA and RNA
109. Which among the following shows isogamous as 116. Which of the following is/are present in cytidine?
well as anisogamous type of reproduction? (A) Cytosine (B) Hydrogen bond
(1) Volvox (2) Fucus (C) Deoxyribose sugar (D) N-glycosidic linkage
(3) Chlamydomonas (4) Spirogyra (1) A only (2) A, C and D
110. Stored food in Porphyra is (3) A and D (4) A, B and D
(1) Floridean starch 117. In eukaryotes, RNA polymerase is not found in
which of the given organelles?
(2) Starch
(1) Mitochondria (2) Golgi apparatus
(3) Mannitol
(3) Nucleus (4) Chloroplast
(4) Laminarin
118. Select the incorrect match from the following.
111. Which of the following statement is not correct
w.r.t. G1 phase of cell cycle? (1) Amyloplast – Stores starch
(1) Cell does not replicate its DNA (2) Stroma – Space enclosed between
(2) Cell synthesizes nucleotides, ATP, protein, outer and inner membrane
amino acids, RNA of chloroplast
(3) Synthesis of tubulin protein takes place (3) Thylakoid – Flattened membranous sac
(4) Duplication of most of the cell organelles (4) Chromoplast – Has fat soluble pigments
occur in this phase
119. The IUCN red list (2004) documents the recent
112. The best stage to study shape of chromosomes extinction of steller’s sea cow from
is (1) Mauritius (2) Africa
(1) Prophase (2) Metaphase (3) Austria (4) Russia
(3) Telophase (4) Anaphase 120. Smaller sub-unit of ribosome associated with
113. Which of the given is both reactant as well as mitochondria and rough endoplasmic reticulum
product in various stages of Calvin cycle? are of
(1) 3-phosphoglycerate (1) 60S
(2) CO2 (2) 30S
(3) NADPH (3) 30S and 40S respectively
(4) ATP (4) 50S and 60S respectively
(11)
CST-1 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2022
121. In which among the given organisms of an 129. How many chromosomes are present in the
aquatic food chain, biomagnification of heavy gamete of fruit fly?
metals would be least? (1) Eight (2) Fourteen
(1) Fish eating birds (2) Zooplankton (3) Twenty (4) Four
(3) Small fish (4) Large fish 130. In a given typical dicot embryo diagram, select
122. In Whittaker’s classification system saprophytic the correct option for labelling A-D.
organisms are not included in the kingdom
(1) Monera (2) Animalia
(3) Fungi (4) Plantae
123. Chemosynthetic autotrophs
(1) Play great role in recycling of nutrients
(2) Are found in Kingdom Protista
(3) Fix nitrogen in legume plants A B C D
(4) Have heterocysts
(1) Hypocotyl Cotyledons Plumule Radicle
124. Mark the wrongly matched pair.
(2) Plumule Cotyledons Hypocotyl Radicle
(1) Trichoderma – Meiospores are exogenously
(3) Epicotyl Scutellum Radicle Hypocotyl
produced
(2) Albugo – Parasite on mustard (4) Plumule Scutellum Hypocotyl Root cap
(3) Ustilago – Branched and septate mycelium 131. Match the following column I with column II and
(4) Aspergillus – Ascus is the site of meiosis select the correct option
(2) It can affect multiple metabolic pathways C. Acetobacter (iii) Butyric acid
(3) It has more than two alleles D. Saccharomyces (iv) Citric acid
(4) Mutation of a gene that codes for the enzyme
A B C D
phenylalanine hydroxylase can show
pleiotropy (1) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
126. Term recombination was given by (2) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(1) Sturtevant (2) Morgan (3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(3) Mendel (4) Punnett (4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
127. In birds 132. The structure which cannot be seen in mature
(1) Males are heterogametic sugarcane plant is
(2) Egg decides sex of progeny (1) Axillary bud (2) Primary root
(3) Egg has one chromosome less than the (3) Node (4) Expanded leaf base
sperm 133. Select the option which is not true for the plant
(4) Males produce two different types of sperms that has following floral formula.
(12)
Intensive Program for NEET-2022 CST-1 (Code-A)
(4) Topoisomerase functions ahead of the (1) Pyramid of biomass in aquatic ecosystem
replication fork to prevent supercoiling may be inverted
137. Read the given statements stating them true (T) (2) Energy content gradually decreases from first
or false (F) and select the correct option. to fourth trophic level
(A) The Evil quartet describes four major causes (3) Pyramid of biomass in tree ecosystem is
of biodiversity loss. inverted
(B) The most dramatic examples of habitat loss (4) Pyramid of number in grassland ecosystem is
come from tropical rain forests upright
(C) In Rajasthan, the sacred groves are the last 141. The natural classification system
refuge for a large number of rare and
threatened plants (1) Is based mainly on the androecium structure
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CST-1 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2022
142. Read the following statements and mark True (T) 147. Which biocontrol agent is used to get rid of
or false (F). mosquitoes?
(A) Diffusion is the only means for gaseous (1) Dragonflies (2) Ladybird
movement within plant body. (3) Trichoderma (4) B. thuringiensis
(B) Diffusion rate is not affected by the 148. The following diagram represents the aestivation
permeability of the membrane separating of corolla. Which option is correct regarding the
them. type and example of this aestivation?
(C) Diffusion is a fast process and is dependent
on a ‘living system’.
A B C
(1) F F T
(2) T F F
(3) T T F
(1) Imbricate – Cassia
(4) F T T
(2) Twisted – China rose
143. Euglenoids
(3) Vexillary – Bean
(1) Are majorly found in marine environment
(4) Valvate – Calotropis
(2) Have cell wall
149. The component of primary tissue in dicot plant
(3) Have pigments identical to those of green that is not a part of bark is
plants
(1) Cortex (2) Phloem
(4) Are multicellular eukaryotes
(3) Xylem (4) Pericycle
144. A heterozygous round seeded pea plant is
crossed with wrinkled seeded pea plant. Identify 150. Match the following columns and select the
the correct option w.r.t. above given cross. correct option.
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Intensive Program for NEET-2022 CST-1 (Code-A)
ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A 156. Which of the following statements is not a
connotation of the theory of special creation?
151. The vital link that ensures continuity of species (1) All living organisms that we see today were
between organisms of one generation and the created as such.
next is
(2) Diversity was always the same since creation
(1) Ootid (2) Zygote and will be same in future also.
(3) Sperm (4) Embryo (3) Earth is about 4000 years old.
152. Choose the incorrect statement. (4) Fitness refers ultimately and only to
reproductive fitness.
(1) Embryonal protection and care are better in
157. Choose the incorrect match.
viviparous organisms.
(1) Vertebrate hearts – Homology
(2) In both plants and animals, embryo is
progenitor of next generation. (2) Thorns of Bougainvillea – Divergent
and tendrils of Cucurbita evolution
(3) Reproduction enables continuity of the
species, generation after generation. (3) Sweet potato and potato – Convergent
evolution
(4) The most vital event of sexual reproduction is
gametogenesis. (4) Bones of forelimbs in – Analogy
whale and bat
153. Which of the following is not a component of
seminal plasma? 158. Intestinal perforation and death may occur in
severe cases of
(1) Fructose (2) Sperms
(1) Typhoid fever (2) Pneumonia
(3) Enzymes (4) Calcium (3) Ascariasis (4) Malaria
154. Assertion (A): Scientifically it is correct to say 159. Complete the analogy w.r.t drugs and their
that the sex of the baby is determined by the effects.
father and not by the mother. CNS depressant : Heroin : : CNS stimulant :
Reason (R): All ova produced by female have _____
the sex chromosome X whereas in sperms sex (1) Morphine (2) Smack
chromosomes could be either X or Y.
(3) Barbiturate (4) Cocaine
In the light of above statements, choose the 160. Following are the statements about MOET.
correct answer from the options given below. (a) It is a programme for herd improvement in
(1) (A) is false but (R) is true short time.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the (b) Hormones with FSH-like activity are
correct explanation of (A) administered in cattle to induce follicular
maturation and superovulation.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the (c) The cattle is only artificially inseminated with
correct explanation of (A) the semen collected from an elite bull.
(4) (A) is true but (R) is false (d) The fertilised eggs at 8-32 cells stages are
155. All of the following reasons are probably recovered non-surgically and transferred to
responsible for population explosion in India surrogate mothers.
except a rapid decline in Choose the correct answer from the options
given below.
(1) Death rate
(1) a, b and c are correct
(2) Maternal mortality rate
(2) b, c and d are correct
(3) Infant mortality rate (3) a, b and d are correct
(4) Number of people in reproducible age (4) a, c and d are correct
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CST-1 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2022
161. Which of the following is not a critical research 167. Read the following statements A and B and
area of biotechnology? choose the correct answer from the following
(1) Providing the best catalyst in the form of given options.
improved organism usually a microbe or pure Statement A: The intercellular material of
enzyme. cartilage is solid and pliable and resist
compression.
(2) Creating optimal conditions through
engineering for a catalyst to act. Statement B: Bones have a hard and non-pliable
matrix rich in calcium salts and collagen fibres.
(3) In vivo fertilisation and embryo transfer to
(1) Only statement A is correct
assist those females who can conceive but
cannot produce ovum (2) Both statements A and B are correct
(3) Distinguishes from other vectors developed (1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
in the same laboratory (3) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii) (4) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
(4) Size of the plasmid 171. An adult human has
166. What is the ratio of numbers of spermathecae (1) 20 milk teeth
found in earthworm and cockroach? (2) 12 deciduous teeth
(1) 2 : 4 (2) 1 : 6 (3) Only 20 permanent teeth
(3) 4 : 1 (4) 8 : 1 (4) 32 permanent teeth
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Intensive Program for NEET-2022 CST-1 (Code-A)
172. Statement I: Living state is a non-equilibrium 177. Select the incorrect match.
steady-state to be able to perform work.
(1) Planaria – Protonephridia
Statement II: The living state and metabolism
are synonymous. Without metabolism there (2) Pheretima – Nephridia
cannot be a living state. (3) Periplaneta – Malpighian tubules
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below. (4) Ascaris – Flame cells
(1) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is 178. Choose the correct statement w.r.t humans.
correct (1) The first step in urine formation is filtration of
(2) Both statement I and statement II are correct blood which is carried out by malpighian
(3) Both statement I and statement II are tubules.
incorrect (2) Roughly 1/5th of blood pumped out by each
(4) Statement I is correct but statement II is ventricle of the heart in a minute is filtered by
incorrect the kidneys per minute.
173. Which of the following is not the function of (3) The glomerular capillary blood pressure
conducting part of respiratory system in humans? causes filtration of blood through 3 cellular
(1) Transports atmospheric air to the alveoli layers.
(2) Clears air of foreign particles (4) Capillary pores present in glomerulus are
actually responsible for filtration and called
(3) Site of actual diffusion of O2 and CO2
filtration slits or slit pores.
(4) Humidifies and also brings the air to body
temperature 179. A perfect coordinated activity of all of the
following systems are required for locomotion
174. Choose the incorrect match.
except
(1) pCO2 of atmospheric air – 0.3 mmHg
(1) Muscular system (2) Skeletal system
(2) pO2 of blood in pulmonary veins – 40 mmHg
(3) Neural system (4) Excretory system
(3) PO2 of blood in aorta – 95 mmHg
180. Cerebral aqueduct is a
(4) pO2 of alveolar air – 104 mmHg
(1) Canal in cerebrum
175. Read the following statements.
(2) Round swelling in midbrain
(a) All chordates and a few non-chordates have
a closed circulatory system. (3) Canal in midbrain
(b) SAN sets the pace of activities of the heart. (4) Ventricle in midbrain
(c) The cardiac cycle is formed by sequential 181. Match column-I with column-II and choose the
events in the heart which is cyclically correct answer from the following given options.
repeated. Column-I Column-II
(d) The electrical activity of the heart can be
a. Myasthenia (i) Decreased bone mass
recorded from the body surface by using gravis and increased chances of
electrocardiogram and the recording is called fractures
electrocardiography.
b. Muscular (ii) Auto-immune disorder
Choose the option representing correct
dystrophy affecting neuromuscular
statements only. junction
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (c)
c. Osteoporosis (iii) Rapid spasms in muscles
(3) (c) and (d) (4) (a) and (d) due to low Ca+2 in body
176. Choose the correct option to complete the fluid
analogy.
d. Tetany (iv) Progressive degeneration
Eosinophils : Resist infections : Platelets : _____ of skeletal muscles
(1) Form megakaryocytes mostly due to genetic
disorder
(2) Help in coagulation of blood
(3) Contract heart (1) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv) (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(4) Gas transport (3) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) (4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
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CST-1 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2022
(A) Progesterone Supports pregnancy 189. Genetically modified plants are useful in all of the
following ways except
Adrenal (B) Anabolic effects on (1) Crops are more tolerant to abiotic stresses
cortex protein and
carbohydrate (2) Decreased efficiency of mineral usage by
metabolism plants
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Intensive Program for NEET-2022 CST-1 (Code-A)
190. Which of the following diseases given in the box 194. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t human
are viral as well as vector-borne diseases? digestive system.
(1) Threadworm is a parasite in human’s
Malaria, Elephantiasis, Typhoid, Chikungunya,
intestine.
Dengue fever, Taeniasis, Ascariasis, Ringworm,
Amoebic dysentery (2) Absorption of glucose in small intestine takes
place by active transport mechanism.
(1) Malaria, amoebic dysentery and chikungunya (3) The digestive wastes, solidified into coherent
(2) Malaria, elephantiasis and dengue faeces in the colon initiate a neural reflex
(3) Dengue and chikungunya causing an urge for its removal.
(4) Taeniasis, ascariasis and typhoid (4) In constipation, the faeces are retained in
colon as the bowel movements occur
191. Which of the following animal is triploblastic irregularly.
pseudocoelomate?
195. Match items in column-I with those in column-II
(1) Fasciola and choose the correct answer from the
(2) Pheretima following given options.
(3) Wuchereria Column I Column II
(4) Ctenoplana a. Respiratory (i) EC – TV
192. Following are the statements about amphibians. minute volume
(a) Body forms do not vary greatly among b. Inspiratory (ii) TLC – RV
species as tail is absent in all the species of capacity
class Amphibia and body is divisible into
head and trunk.
c. Expiratory reserve (iii) TV × Breathing
volume
rate
(b) Limbs are usually two pairs
(c) Ectothermic, body temperature depends d. Vital capacity (iv) TV + IRV
upon environmental temperature (1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(d) Alimentary canal, urinary and reproductive (2) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
tracts open into a common chamber cloaca (3) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i)
which opens to the exterior.
(4) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
Choose the correct answer from the options 196. Percent of proteins in blood plasma is equal to
given below. percent of
(1) Only (b) and (c) are correct (1) Formed elements in blood
(2) (a), (b) and (c) are correct (2) Thrombocytes in formed elements
(3) (a), (b), (c) and (d) are correct (3) Eosinophils in leucocytes
(4) (b), (c) and (d) are correct (4) Monocytes in total number of WBCs
193. Rate of a chemical reaction can be expressed as 197. Which of the following is correct arrangement of
P nitrogenous wastes in decreasing order of
Rate = requirement of water for their elimination?
t
(1) Urea > ammonia > uric acid
Where P represents
(2) Ammonia > urea > uric acid
(1) Product formed per unit time
(3) Uric acid > urea > ammonia
(2) Product formed in time t
(4) Urea > uric acid > ammonia
(3) Amount of reactants which changes into 198. Total number of facial bones is equal to the total
products in unit time number of
(4) Reactants present at the beginning of (1) Wrist bones (2) Ankle bones
reaction (3) Girdles (4) Ribs
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CST-1 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2022
199. Assertion (A): Bacterial cells are treated with a 200. Match the hormones and their target glands/cells.
specific concentration of a divalent cation, such
Column-I Column-II
as calcium, which increases the efficiency with
(Hormones) (Target
which DNA enters the bacterium.
glands/cells)
Reason (R): DNA is a hydrophobic molecule, it
cannot pass through cell membranes. a. Thyrotrophin (i) Cells of zona
fasciculata
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below. b. Melanotrophin (ii) Follicular cells
(1) (A) is false but (R) is true c. Corticotrophin (iii) Melanocytes
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
d. Gonadotrophin (iv) Testis
correct explanation of (A).
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the Select the correct option.
correct explanation of (A) (1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
(4) (A) is true but (R) is false (3) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv) (4) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
❑ ❑ ❑
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