.

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

T.B.C: P–SIA–D–UPGI PRESTORMINGTM TEST BOOKLET

Serial: 848302 CSAT

A
TEST - 2

Time Allowed: Two hours Maximum Marks: 200

INSTRUCTIONS

1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT
THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS,
ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
2. ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOK SERIES A, B, C or D AS THE CASE MAY BE IN THE
APPROPRIATE PLACE IN THE ANSWER SHEET.
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box.
Provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 80 items (questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item
comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the
Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which
you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in
the Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Sooner than you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test
Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with
your Admission Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has
concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take
away with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for Wrong Answers
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE
TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a
wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third (0.83) of the marks assigned to that
question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of
the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that
question.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for
that question.

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

 1
 .


S.(1-2) Directions for the following 2 (two) 2. According to the author of the above passage
item: Read the following passage and answer which of the following is the real problem of
the item that follow. Your answer to the items which climate crisis is only a symptom:
should be based on the passage only.
(a) Not using technology to assist us on the
PASSAGE 1
pathway to a sustainable regenerative and
The IPCC Land Report estimates that land
equitable world.
serves as a large CO2 sink. There is a growing
(b) Excessive consumerism and unbridled
body of evidence that a large proportion of the
required removals could be achieved by capitalism.
conserving natural sinks, improving (c) Not protecting earth’s cyclical processes and
biodiversity protection, and restoring natural sinks.
ecosystems. Preserving earth’s cyclical (d) Over exploitation of natural resources
processes by protecting terrestrial ecosystems beyond the point of no return spurred by
and natural sinks and transformative
man’s greed and deed.
agricultural practices under the leadership of
indigenous people and local communities is a
S.(3-5) Directions for the following 3 (three)
far more equitable and cost-effective way of
item: Read the following passage and answer
tackling the climate crisis than it is being done
now. We need to realize that the climate crisis the items that follow. Your answer to the items
is just a symptom; our real problem is that should be based on the passage only.
human consumption and activity have PASSAGE 2
exceeded the regenerative. Technology, at best, World Food Day is a reminder to ‘Leave No One
can assist us, not lead us, on the pathway to a Behind’, and is an opportunity – perhaps the
sustainable, regenerative and equitable world.
most urgent one in recent history – for nations
to strengthen food security nets, provide access
1. Which of the following is the most rational and
to essential nutrition for millions and promote
logical inference from the above passage?
livelihood for vulnerable communities.
(a) Climate crisis can be best handled with the
help of technology. One of India’s greatest contributions to equity
(b) Real problem that has to be addressed on in food is its national Food Security Act (NFSA)
priority is the excessive human 2013 which anchors the Targeted Public
consumption and unbridled capitalism.
Distribution System (TPDS), the PM POSHAN
(c) Afforestation and conservation measures
scheme (earlier known as the Mid-Day Meals
aided with technology and people’s
involvement could address the climate scheme), and the Integrated Child Development

crisis effectively. Services (ICDS). Today, India’s food safety nets

(d) Preserving earth’s cyclical processes by collectively reach over a billion people. The WFP
protecting terrestrial ecosystems and works with State and national governments to
natural sinks is a far more equitable and
strengthen these systems to reach the people
cost-effective way of tackling climate crisis
who need them most. The Government
than it is being done now.

2



continues to take various measures to improve
these programmes with digitisation
measures such as rice fortification, better
health, and sanitation.
Food safety nets and inclusion are linked with
public procurement and buffer stock policy –
visible during the global food crisis (2008-12)
and the COVID-19 pandemic fallout, whereby
vulnerable and marginalized families in India
continued to be buffered by the TPDS which
became a lifeline. An International Monetary
Fund paper titled ‘Pandemic, Poverty, and
Inequality: Evidence from India’ asserted that
‘extreme poverty was maintained below 1% in
2020 due to the Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan
Anna Yojana (PMGKAY). India’s upcoming G20
presidency is an opportunity to bring food and
nutrition security to the very centre of a
resilient and equitable future.
Nutrition and agricultural production are not
only impacted by climate change but also
linked to environmental sustainability. Soil
degradation by the excessive use of chemicals,
non-judicious water use, and declining
nutritional value of food products need urgent
attention.
Millets have received renewed attention as
crops that are good for nutrition, health, and
the planet. As climate-smart crops, they are
hardier than other cereals. Since they need
fewer inputs, they are less extractive for the soil
and can revive soil health. Additionally, their
genetic diversity ensures that agrobiodiversity
is preserved.

.
3. Which of the following is the most important
and message of the above passage?
(a) Nutrition, agricultural production and
environmental sustainability are vital for
providing food security.
(b) Nations have to focus on climate-smart
crops like millets as they are good for
nutrition, health and the planet.
(c) India should use the upcoming G20
presidency to bring food and nutrition
security to the very centre of a resilient and
equitable future.
(d) Providing nutrition and food security for all
citizens in addition to livelihood should be
the urgent focus for nations.
4. From the above passage following assumptions
have been made :
I. Millet conservation and promotion aligns
with sustainable Development goals.
II. Millet will soon become the staple diet in
India.
Which of the above assumption is/are valid?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II.
5. Which of the following is the biggest food
security contributor in India?
(a) World Food Programme (WFP)
(b) Millet and other climate smart crops
(c) Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana
(d) National Food Security Act
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6. In a box of pens, there are three less red pens 10. The tank-full of water in an apartment lasts for
than the black ones and five more red pens 10 days. If the people start using 25% more
than the blue ones. If there are a total of 10 Red every day, how many days will the tank-full of
pens, how many pens are there in the box? water last?
(a) 26 (a) 5
(b) 28 (b) 6
(c) 32 (c) 7
(d) 36 (d) 8

7. From a metal rod of 30 m long, a person cuts Directions for (Questions 11 to 13): Study the
off as many pieces as possible, each 3 1/4 m following information and answer these
long. What fraction of the whole will be left? questions.
(a) 1/40 Eight Optional books are arranged in a row one
(b) 3/4 above the other. Two books are on Physical
(c) 8/13 Geography, two books are on Governance,
(d) 7/13 three books on Sociology and one book is on
Economics. Counting from the top, the second,
8. 30 Rose plants, 45 Hibiscus plants and 60 fifth and sixth books are on Sociology. Two
Jasmine plants have to be planted in rows such books on Sociology are between two books on
that each row contains the same number of Governance. One book Sociology is between two
plants of one variety only. What is minimum books on Physical Geography while the book
number of row in which the plants may be above the book of Economics is a book of
planted? Governance.
(a) 10
(b) 15 11. Which book is the last book from the top?
(c) 25 (a) Economics
(d) 9 (b) Governance
(c) Sociology
9. The average salary of the entire staff in a school (d) Physical Geography
is 200 per day. The average salary of teaching
staff is 550 and that of non-teaching staff is 12. Which of the following book is not present
120. If the number of teaching staff is 16, then within bottom four rows?
find the number of non-teaching in the office. (a) Economics
(a) 72 (b) Governance
(b) 60 (c) Sociology
(c) 70 (d) Physical Geography
(d) 65

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13. Which of the following books are available in
both odd and even positions?
(a) Governance & Economics
(b) Sociology and Governance
(c) Physical Geography and Sociology
(d) Economics and Physical Geography
14. Introducing a girl, Prabhu said “She is the only
daughter of only daughter of my grandparents”.
How is the girl related to prabhu?
(a) Daughter
(b) Niece
(c) Sister
(d) Grand daughter
S.(15) Direction for the following 1 (one)
item: Read the following passage and answer
the item that follows. Your answer to the item
should be based on the passage only.
PASSAGE 1
The boom of India’s service sector as well as the
success of the educated Indian diaspora was
made possible thanks to the proficiency of
Indians in English. The link language of the
world is English. India’s beauty and stability lie
in its plurality and unity in diversity. Any
attempt to destroy this via the imposition of one
language will threaten India’s unity. You can
either have unity or uniformity; you cannot
have both. The Union government must
understand that the Indian Union is an
agglomeration of ethno-linguistic nationalities
that have their own languages and cultures and
let them live in peace.

.
15. What is the most rational and logical
conclusion of the above passage?
(a) You can either have unity or uniformity
(b) The boom of India’s service sector as well as
success of education. Indian diaspora was
made possible thanks to proficiency in
English.
(c) The Union government must not impose one
language and destroy the beauty and
stability of nations plurality and unity in
diversity.
(d) The Union government must understand
that the Indian Union is an agglomeration of
ethno linguistic nationalities.
S.(16) Direction for the following 1 (one)
item: Read the following passage and answer
the item that follows. Your answer to the item
should be based on the passage only.
PASSAGE 2
Activists of the Right to Food Campaign have
accused the Centre here on Friday of diverting
the issue of hunger away from the real situation
on the ground and the food and nutritional
insecurity in the country. Countering the
Centre’s stand on the Global Hunger Index that
it overlooked Central schemes and that the
sample size of the survey was too small, the
activists argued that the survey was validated
by the national data on unemployment and
stagnant wages.
5


16. What are the contentions of the activists of
Right to Food campaign according to the above
passage?
I. Centre instead of countering Global
Hunger Index should address the reasons
for the poor showing.
II. The said survey had been validated using
national data.
III. The sample size of the survey was too small
and central schemes were overlooked.
IV. Activists of the right to food campaign are
anti government.
Select the right answer using the following
codes.
(a) All of the above
(b) I, III and IV only
(c) III and IV only
(d) I and II only
S.(17) Direction for the following 1 (one)
item: Read the following passage and answer
the item that follows. Your answer to the item
should be based on the passage only.
PASSAGE 3
Kamalpreet Kaur, the 26 year-old Indian discus
thrower, was banned for three years with effect
from March 29 after she tested positive for a
prohibited substance earlier this year. With
Kaur, 62 Indian athletes have been caught
doping or in possession of banned substances,
according to the Athletics Integrity Unity (AIU)
of World Athletics. Only Russia has recorded
more doping violations than India with 87
athletes receiving punishment.

.
17. The following assumptions have been made
from the above passage:
I. The integrity of the Athletics Integrity Unity
(AIU) of world Athletics is questionable.
II. Most of the Indian Athletics desire to win
by questionable means.
Which of the above assumptions are/is valid:
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
S.(18) Direction for the following 1 (one)
item: Read the following passage and answer
the item that follows. Your answer to the item
should be based on the passage only.
PASSAGE 4
Credai Chennai has welcomed the decision to
expand the Chennai Metropolitan Planning
Area and demanded speedy implementation of
development projects. According to a press
release from Credai Chennai, the population of
the city is currently estimated at 1.2 crore,
and by 2050, it is projected to touch 1.8 crore.
“The speedy rollout of the new master plan,
detailed development plans and
implementation of the same is of utmost
importance. A replay of the OMR situation
should be avoided at all cost. Even today,
OMR residents lack access to drinking water
and sewage systems. This kind of slow
infrastructure development is unacceptable,”
the release said.
6
 .


18. Based on the above passage the followings 20. For which institution does Dinesh work?
assumptions have been made: (a) Q
I. Once the New Master Plan is rolled out (b) L
OMR issues will be resolved. (c) N
II. The speedy rollout of the New Master Plan (d) S
is of utmost importance.
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid? 21. What is the profession of Chandru?

(a) I only (a) Call center assistant

(b) II only (b) Accounts Officer

(c) Engineer
(c) Both I and II
(d) Cannot be determined
(d) Neither I nor II

22. Who amongst the following works as a Teacher?

Directions for (Questions 19 to 23): Study
(a) Chandru
the following information and answer these
(b) Bala
questions.
(c) Farook
A group of seven friends, Ajay, Bala, Chandru,
(d) Dinesh
Dinesh, Ezhil, Farook and Guna work as
Engineer, Accounts Officer, Doctor, Call center
23. Which of the following combinations of person,
Assistant, Teacher, Hotel manager and Quality
profession and Institution is correct ?
Inspector for Institutions L, M, N, P, Q, R and S
(a) Ajay – Hotel Manager - M
but not necessarily in the same order. Chandru (b) Dinesh - Teacher - L
works for Institution N and is neither a Quality (c) Farook - Accounts Officer - Q
Inspector nor a Teacher. Ezhil is a Doctor and (d) None of the above
works for Institution R. Ajay works as Hotel
manager and does not work for Institution L or Q. 24. Which of the following conclusions follows
The one who is an Accounts officer works for based on the given statements?
Institution M. The one who works for Institution L Statements:
works as a Call center assistant. Farook works for Some Vegetables are Fruits.
Institution Q. Guna works for institution P as a Some Fruits are Nuts.
Quality Inspector. Dinesh is not an Accounts All Nuts are Seeds.
officer. Conclusions:
I. Some Nuts are Vegetables.
19. Who amongst the following works as an II. Some Seeds are Fruits.
Accounts Officer? III. Some Seeds are Vegetables.
(a) Chandru (a) Only I Follows
(b) Bala (b) Only II Follows
(c) Farook (c) Only III Follows
(d) Dinesh (d) Either II or III Follows

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25. In a certain code, ‘ZOOM’ is written as ‘FEEL’
and ‘BEAD’ is written as ‘ROCK’. How would
‘ZEOD’ be coded in that code language?
(a) ROEL
(b) CEDM
(c) FOEK
(d) BACE
S.(26) Direction for the following 1 (one)
item: Read the following passage and answer
the item that follows. Your answer to the item
should be based on the passage only.
PASSAGE 1
The National Livestock Policy (NLP) of 2013,
aimed at increasing livestock production and
productivity in a sustainable manner, rightly
states that around 70% of the labour for the
livestock sector comes from women. One of the
goals of this policy was the empowerment of
women. The National Livestock Mission (NLM)
of 2014-15 was initiated for the development of
the livestock sector with a focus on the
availability of feed and fodder, providing
extension services, and improved flow of credit
to livestock farmers. However, the NLM doesnot
propose any shames or programmes specific to
women livestock farmers. The policy proposes
that the State government allocates 30% of
funds from centrally-sponsored schemes for
women. There is no logic for the 30% quota.
26. What is the most logical and rational
conclusion from the above passage?
(a) Women’s labour is critical to the livestock
economy and hence they should be included
in every stage of decision making and
development of livestock’s sector.
(b) NLP and NLM need to synchronise their
data.

.
(c) More funds need to be allocated to women
livestock farmers.
(d) NLM should propose more schemes and
programmes specific to women livestock
farmers
S.(27) Direction for the following 1 (one)
item: Read the following passage and answer
the item that follows. Your answer to the item
should be based on the passage only.
PASSAGE 2
To allay fears and anxieties in patients and
families, alongside treatment of any illness, is
not something new in the medical profession. A
16th century aphorism describes the duty of
every physician: “To cure sometimes, to relieve
often, to comfort always.” This age-old concept
of a holistic approach is of immense importance
but has been forgotten over the years. This
missing link – the palliative approach – is now
fortunately getting its due importance and
being reintroduced into our medical curriculum
and practice across the country.
27. What is the crux of the above passage?
(a) Duty of every physician is to “To cure
sometimes to relieve often, to comfort
always”.
(b) Palliative care stresses the humane aspects
of medical care and is now getting its due
back again.
(c) To allay fears and anxieties alongside
treatment of any illness is not new in the
medical profession.
(d) Medical profession has now become more of
a business.
8
 .


S.(28) Direction for the following 1 (one) 29. In the question given below, three out of four
item: Read the following passage and answer options are somehow similar and therefore
the item that follows. Your answer to the item form a group. Find the option which is odd one
should be based on the passage only.
out which does not form a group.
PASSAGE 3
(a) Radhika – Sonia
I rarely experience as much undiluted joy as at
(b) Radhika – Rakesh
the euphoric moment when I strike a terrific
(c) Poonam – Praveen
bargain. Only seasoned campaigners will
(d) Rakesh – Arun
understand this. Non-bargainers will ask
irritating questions such as how much money
did you save after all the wrangling, but that is 30. Who is sitting to the second left of rakesh?
beside the point. Those who have cut their teeth (a) Sonia
on Mumbai’s Linking Road or in the legendary (b) Poonam
Chor Bazaar or their matches in other cities will (c) Radhika
vouch that winning an intense mind game of
(d) Praveen
negotiation feels like a million dollars even if it
is only a matter of a few rupees.
31. 3 boys take three more days for a work which
can be completed in 2 days by 5 men. How
28. According to the above passage what is the
much time it would take for the same work to
most important reason why people bargain?
(a) To save some hard earned money be completed by 10 men and 3 boys?

(b) The exhilaration of being successful in the (a) 1/6

battle of wits. (b) 5/6
(c) Being ruthless and selfish. (c) 7/6
(d) Winning attitude. (d) 10/6

Directions for (Questions 29 to 30): Study

32. A second-hand motorbike was bought on
the following information and answer these
marked at Rs. 25000 with successive discounts
questions.
of 20% and 10%. If the buyer spends Rs. 3000
Three girls Sonia, Radhika & Poonam and three
for its repair and sells it for Rs. 28000, what
boys Rakesh, Arun & Praveen are sitting in a
circular table facing the center. Radhika is would be the profit or loss percentage?

sitting to the left of Praveen. Sonia and Poonam (a) 21.22%

are sitting together. Similarly, Arun and (b) 26.66%
Radhika are sitting together. There are two (c) 33.33%
persons between Rakesh and Arun. Sonia and (d) 42.22%
Arun are not together.

9

 .


33. The average weight of 5 types among 6 types of Directions for (Questions 37 to 39): Study the
vegetables is 95 kg. The weight of 6th type following information and answer these
vegetable is 10 kg more than the average weight questions.
of all 6 types vegetables. The weight of 6th type
Akshita, Shreya, Vineetha, Ramya and Swetha
vegetable is
belong to five different cities P, Q, R, S and T
(a) 106 kg
(b) 107 kg (not necessarily in that order). Each one of

(c) 108 kg them comes from a different city. Further it is

(d) 109 kg given that:
1. Shreya and Vineetha do not belong to Q.
34. Santhosh invested his income in two separate 2. Shreya and Swetha do not belong to P
Schemes at rate of interest 12% and 9%
and R.
respectively. What would be his income if both
3. Akshita and Vineetha do not belong to R,
schemes are in simple interest and after 2 years
he received a total sum of Rs 21780? S, and T.

(a) 9600 4. Ramya and Swetha do not belong to Q

(b) 9000 and T.
(c) 8400
(d) 8000 37. Which one of the following statements is not
correct?
1 1
35. If x + y = 72, what would be  if LCM and (a) Vineetha belongs to P
x y
(b) Ramya belongs to R
HCF of x and y is 6 and 210?
(a) 1/35 (c) Akshita belongs to Q

(b) 3/37 (d) Shreya belongs to S

(c) 5/37
(d) 2/35 38. Who belongs to city T?
(a) Vineetha
36. Vignesh drives his bike and goes to office for 13
(b) Shreya
km which is northwest to his house. He come
(c) Ramya
back home in the same route. He again drives
from his home towards north and reaches the (d) Akshita

theatre which is 12 km from his home. What is

the direction and distance of his office with 39. Swetha belongs to which of the following cities?
respect to the theatre? (a) P
(a) 5 kms East (b) R
(b) 5 kms West
(c) S
(c) 4 kms East
(d) T
(d) 4 kms West

10



S.(40) Direction for the following 1 (one)
item: Read the following passage and answer
the item that follows. Your answer to the item
should be based on the passage only.
PASSAGE 1
Mr. Modi said India had been combating trans-
national terrorism for several decades. “Long
before the world woke up to it, we knew the
price of safety and security. Thousands of our
people made the ultimate sacrifice in this fight.
But, it is no longer enough that terrorism is
fought only in the physical space. It is now
spreading its presence through online
radicalization and cyber threats,” he said.
“At the click of button, an attack can be
executed or systems can be brought to their
knees. Each nation is working on strategies
against them. But what we do within our
borders is no longer enough,” said the Prime
Minister.
40. What is the most rational and logical inference
from the above passage:
(a) India is well aware of the cost of trans-
national terrorism as it has suffered due to
it for decades.
(b) Today terrorism is spreading across cyber
space in addition to the physical realm.
(c) Terrorism across all spectrums needs to be
countered by more international
cooperation.
(d) India due to past experiences garnered over
years is well kitted to address terrorism in
all formats.
11

.
S.(41-44) Directions for the following 4 (four)
item: Read the following passage and answer
the items that follow. Your answer to the item
should be based on the passages only.
PASSAGE 2
On average, India’s coal mines use only two-
thirds of the capacity, with some large ones
using only 1%, says an analysis by Global
Energy Monitor (GEM), a firm that tracks
utilization of the fuel-source internationally.
This suggests that 99 of India’s coal mine
projects, expected to yield 427 million tonnes
per annum (MTPA), under development are
unnecessary, and opening new coal mines
would not contribute to easing short-term
supply-crunches.
At least twice last year, India experienced
severe coal crises, with more than 100 of 285
thermal power plants witnessing coal stocks
fall below the critical mark of 25% of the
required stock. In over 50 plants, it fell below
10%. This led to power shortages in several
States, including Andhra Pradesh, Jharkhand,
Uttarakhand and Madhya Pradesh.
GEM performed its analysis by surveying
annual reports o Coal India, the largest coal
producer in the world, and its subsidiaries and
underlines that the company has not listed
capacity constraints as among the reasons it
fails to reach production targets.
Instead, it blames “..competition from
renewables, infrastructure impasses, and land-
use concerns for hindering output…” the report
notes. Coal mines under development threaten
to displace at least 165 villages and affect
87,630 families, of which 41,508 live in areas
where the predominant population is tribal
 .


communities. These also threaten 22,686 44. From the above passage the following
hectares (ha) of agricultural land and 19,297 ha assumptions have been made:
of forest, and will consume at least 168,041 I. Developing new coal mines is not in

kiloliters of water per day, comparable to the keeping in line with PM’s Zero Net emission

daily water needs of over one million people, Target by 2070.

II. Developing new coal mines is a short
according to GEM.
sighted measure, more for the sake of
economic gain of some entrepreneurs.
41. What is the tone of the above passage?
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
(a) Critical
(a) Both I and II
(b) Descriptive
(b) Neither I nor II
(c) Pessimistic
(c) I only
(d) Laudatory (d) II only

42. According to the author what was the main Directions for (Questions 45 to 46): Study the
reason that led to coal crisis last year: following information and answer these
(a) State development of new coal mine questions.
projects. In chennai, there are 3 local train routes 1, 2

(b) Under utilization of existing capacity. and 3 between A and F. Route 1 has

(c) Competition from renewables, intermediate stops B and D. Route 2 has stops
at C and D. The shortest route is 3 with length
infrastructure impasses and land use
10 km and stops at C which is exactly at eh
concerns.
middle of the route. The difference between
(d) Political and bureaucratic hurdles.
longest and shortest route is 3km. The distance
between C and D, B and D and F and D are 4,
43. What is the main message of the above passage:
3 and 2 kms respectively.
(a) Renewable sources of energy is the way
forward for India. 45. Find the distance between A and B.
(b) The coal mine projects under development (a) 5 km
need to be hastened to increase overall coal (b) 6 km
availability. (c) 7 km
(c) Coal mines are environmental nightmares (d) 8 km
and hence should not be encouraged
(d) Instead of developing new coal mines the 46. What is the length of route 2?

capacity of underutilised mines have to be (a) 11 km

stepped up. (b) 12 km

(c) 13 km
(d) 14 km

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Direction for (Questions 47): Study the 50. A mixture of 70 litres of tea and honey contain
following information and answer these 10% honey. How much more honey should be
questions. added to the mixture to make 30% honey in the
In each of the following questions, a number resulting mixture?
series is given. After the series the first number (a) 35 litres
of another series is given followed by (a), (b), (c), (b) 33 litres
(d) and (e). Compete the series and answer the (c) 20 litres
given questions. (d) 25 litres

47. 51. Sharan can do a piece of work in 15 days and

9 7 10 24 88 430 Karthick alone can do it in 10 days. Karthick

12 (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) works at it for 5 days and then leaves. How
much time will Sharan take to complete the
What will come in the place of (e)?
remaining work alone?
(a) 630
(a) 7
(b) 850
(b) 7.5
(c) 790
(c) 8
(d) 920
(d) 8.5

48. A shopkeeper sells two shirts at Rupees 1500

52. A boy in train notices that he can count 25 trees
each. He earned a profit of 20% on one shirt
in 1 min. If they are known to be 40 m apart,
however suffered a loss of 20% on the other. Net
then at what speed is the train travelling?
profit or loss on this deal is:
(a) 52.4 km/h
(a) 4 % profit
(b) 57.6 km/h
(b) 4 % loss
(c) 48.2 km/h
(c) 10% profit
(d) 44.9 km/h
(d) 10% loss

53. Pavithra walking at a speed of 20 km/hr

49. A hostel of 3000 students has food provision for
reaches her college 1hr late. Next time she
60 days. After 15 days how many students
increases her speed by 5 km/hr, then she
must leave so that the remaining provision may
reaches her college 30 min early. What is the
last for 75 days?
distance of her college from her house?
(a) 1200
(a) 100 km
(b) 1400
(b) 125 km
(c) 1300
(c) 150 km
(d) 1500
(d) None of the above

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54. Prakash invests Rs. 3,000 at the rate of 5% per
annum. How much more should he invest at the
rate of 8% so that he can earn a total of 6% per
annum?
(a) 1200
(b) 1,300
(c) 1,500
(d) 2,000
S.(55) Direction for the following 1 (one)
item: Read the following passage and answer
the item that follows. Your answer to the item
should be based on the passage only.
PASSAGE 1
“India is seen as an emerging manufacturing
hub in global value chains, as a growing
consumer market and as a hub for ongoing
digital transformation. In addition, in a rapidly
changing geopolitical environment, India’s
large and stable democracy and consistent
reform measures are recognized by the MNCs
(multinational company),” the report said.
S.(56) Direction for the following 1 (one)
item: Read the following passage and answer
the item that follows. Your answer to the item
should be based on the passage only.
PASSAGE 2
Cyber threats are not confined to merely one set
of conflicts – such as Ukraine, where no doubt
cyber tools are being extensively employed –
extending well beyond this and other conflicts
of a varied nature. The cyber threat is in this
sense all-pervading, embracing many regions
and operating on different planes. Hence,
dealing with the cyber threat calls for both
versatility and imaginative thinking. Demands
for a cyber command by the Indian military
ignore the widely varying nature of the cyber
threat. That a group of United nations
government experts have been deliberating
endlessly on how to promote responsible
behavior of states in cyber space, without much
success is testimony to the difficulties that
prevail.

55. What is the main inference that can be made 56. What are the important and urgent
from the above passage? implications of the above passage:
(a) India due to the present geopolitical I. Create a National Cyber Command to
environment will overtake China as a identify, deter and defeat any and all cyber
manufacturing hub. threats.
(b) India’s stable democracy and consistent II. UN to facilitate formulator of rules and
reform measures ensures rapid growth of norms amongst nations for regulating
the economy. cyber space.
(c) Global geopolitical winds favour Indian III. Reduce dependency on technologically
economic growth. driven, remote accesses functioning day to
(d) Present all around Indian environment day activities.
combined with geopolitics is likely to attract IV. Create a Military Cyber Communal to take
hugh FDI. care of all and any cyber threats to the
nation.

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 .


Select the right answer using the following (c) Clear energy supply chains for key minerals
code. like lithium, cobalt and rare metals are
(a) All of the above fragile and hence needs to be secured
(b) I and II only
(d) Increasing renewable energy sources and
(c) I, II and IV only
building robust and secure pathways for
(d) I, II and III only
procurement of needed rare earth metals is
imperative.
S.(57-58) Directions for the following 2 (two)
item: Read the following passages and answer
the items that follows. Your answer to the items 58. From the above passage the following

should be based on the passages only. assumptions have been made :

PASSAGE 3 I. Due to India’s standing procuring rare
Concerns over the pricing and availability of oil earth metal from other nations for its clean
and gas in the wake of the Ukraine crisis energy technologies will never be a
continue to fuel global policy debates on energy
challenge.
security. However, the fragility of clean energy
II. Dwindling multilateral corporation can
supply chains obscures pathways for countries
impact supply chains for clear energy
to reduce dependence on fossil fuels.
technologies.
Imported inflationary pressures through
Which of the above assumptions are/is valid?
exposure to volatile oil and gas markets also
pose risks to macroeconomic growth and (a) I only

stability, particularly for India, import- (b) II only

dependent for around 85% of its oil and half of (c) Both I and II
its gas needs. Therefore, securing access to key (d) Neither I nor II
minerals such as lithium, cobalt, nickel and
rare earth metal is critical for building resilient
S.(59) Direction for the following 1 (one)
and indigenous supply chains for clean energy
item: Read the following passage and answer
technologies.
the item that follows. Your answer to the item
should be based on the passage only.
57. What is the most logical and rational
PASSAGE 4
conclusion of the above passage?
(a) Build strategic oil reserves across India to The world is increasingly turning into a virtual

prevent volatile oil and gas markets arena, with cyber attacks becoming a norm. As
impeding India’s macroeconomic growth. technology has become more intertwined with
(b) Encourage enhanced use of ethanol out daily lives, every day, we come across news
based/mixed oil across the board of some kind of cyber attack or data breach.

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 .


59. What are the likely implications of the above 62. A room has to be painted around the four walls.
passage? On one wall of the room, a door is present
I. Demand of professionals for protecting
which has to be excluded from painting. The
data integrity and threat of security
length, breadth and height of the room are 8m,
breaches will increase.
II. Governments and corporations will incur 10m, and 4m respectively and the dimensions

heavier expenditure to ensure data of the door is 3m and 1.5m. Find the cost of
security. painting the room if the cost per sq.m is 200 Rs.
III. Online scams, ransomware, phishing and (a) Rs. 26700
hacking will cease once cybersecurity
(b) Rs. 25300
exports are employed.
(c) Rs. 27900
IV. Newer forms of cyber attacks will keep
surfacing. (d) Rs. 28200
Select the right answer using the following
code: Directions for (Questions 63 to 66): Study the
(a) All of the above
following table and answer these questions.
(b) I and II only
The following table shows the amount for
(c) I, II and IV only
Cash on delivery from one state to another.
(d) I and III
From Cities to

60. A student has to opt for 2 subjects out of 5 Mahara West Uttar
Gujarat Delhi
subjects for a course, namely, GS1, GS II, GS -shtra Bengal Pradesh
III, Elective I and Elective II. Elective II can be Gujarat -NIL- 100 50 150 100
offered only if Elective I is opted. The number of Mahara-
100 -NIL- 70 250 200
different combinations of two subjects which -shtra
can be opted is
West
(a) 5 50 70 -NIL- 200 150
Bengal
(b) 6
Delhi 150 250 200 -NIL- 100
(c) 7
Uttar
(d) 8 100 200 150 100 -NIL-
Pradesh

61. A student has 60% chance of passing in Bank

exams and 54% chance of passing in both Bank 63. Among the following, the charges will be the
exams and SSC. What is the fraction least for sending in COD from
probability that he will fail in SSC?
(a) Gujarat to Uttar Pradesh
(a) 1/12
(b) Maharashtra to Delhi
(b) 1/36
(c) Uttar Pradesh to Delhi
(c) 1/4
(d) 1/10 (d) West Bengal to Maharashtra

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 .


64. For sending in COD from West Bengal, the least submits its final report on the alleged illegal

charges will be for sending to cutting of trees inside the reserve for the

(a) Gujarat project. The tribunal had earlier taken

(b) Maharashtra cognizance of The Hindu report on felling of

(c) Delhi trees at the Reserve. The report had quoted a

(d) Uttar Pradesh Forest Survey of India (FSI) report saying that

over 6,000 trees were illegally felled to facilitate

65. If the cost per kg is directly proportional to the the project against the permission given for

distance between the states, it can be inferred cutting 163. The NGT Bench consisting of

that Maharashtra is farthest from Justice Adarsh Kumar Goel, Justice Sudhir

(a) Gujarat Agarwal and Professor A.Senthil Vel (expert

(b) West Bengal member) maintained that the FSI report

(c) Delhi acknowledges the illegality in cutting of trees.

(d) Uttar Pradesh “Thus, accountability needs to be fixed for such

violations and the damage to the environment

66. Which of the following stop routes will have no restored, following due process of law.

extra cost even if the parcel had been sent Accordingly, we constitute a three member

directly from origin to destination state? committee comprising the Directors-General of

(a) Maharashtra – Gujarat – Delhi the Forest Department, Wildlife Department

(b) Maharashtra – Gujarat – Uttar Pradesh and Project Tiger to identify the violators and

(c) West Bengal – Gujarat – Uttar Pradesh the steps required for restoration of

(d) All of the above environment,” the NGT said. It further ordered

the State government not to proceed with the

S.(67-68) Directions for the following 2 (two) project until the committee submits its report

item: Read the following passage and answer with specific recommendations that may be

the items that follow. Your answer to the items furnished to the Secretary of the Ministry of

should be based on the passage only. Forest, Environment and Climate Change

PASSAGE 1 within one month. The report should also

The National Green Tribunal (NGT) has asked include steps for further course of action, the

the Uttarakhand government not to proceed Bench ordered.

with the Pakhro tiger safari project inside the

Corbett Tiger Reserve until a committee

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 .


67. What are the directions / orders given by S.(69-70) Directions for the following 2 (two)
National Green Tribunal (NGT) in the case of item: Read the following passage and answer

Pakhro Tiger Safari Project inside the Corbett
Tiger Reserve according to the above passage?
I. Uttarakhand government not to proceed
with the project until the nominated
committee submits its final report on the
alleged illegal cutting of trees inside the
reserve for the project.
II. Uttarakhand government, to replant over
6000 trees that have been alleged to have
been felled illegally.
the items that follow. Your answer to the item
should be based on the passage only.
PASSAGE 2
Arguing that the line between the legislature
and the administration has already blurred,
what with things like the anti-defection laws,
Mr. Thiaga Rajan said the line between the
judiciary and the administration was now
getting blurred in good and bad ways. While
there is an overreach in some cases, there are
also instances in which judges refuse to step

III. Constituted a three member committee to into something that they should look into.
Referring to the recent issue over a public
fix accountability for the violations and
interest litigation petition on freebies, he asked
steps needed for restoration.
how can that be considered a justifiable matter.
IV. The Committee to submit its report at the
earliest.
69. According to the passage what is the line that
Select the right answer using the code below : is getting blurred?
(a) All of the above (a) The line between the legislature and
(b) I and III only administration.
(c) I and IV only (b) The separator between the executive and
(d) I, II and III only judiciary.
(c) The line between judiciary, legislature and
executive.
68. How did the NGT take up the case referred to in
(d) The overlap between judiciary and
the above passage?
administrator.
(a) The Hindu Newspaper reported the matter
of illegal felling of trees to NGT.
70. From the above passage what is the grudge Mr.
(b) NGT took note of the newspaper report Thiaga Rajan has against the Judges?
regarding the illegal felling of trees to (a) Some judges are good and some bad.
facilitate the project and followed us. (b) In some cases judges do not do what they
(c) The Forest and Wildlife Departments should and in some they overdo.

reported the matter to NGT. (c) Issues like freebies have become a
justifiable matter.
(d) It was Project Tiger which initiated the case.
(d) They focus on public interest litigation.

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 .


71. If every alternate letter in the word ‘SOLITARY’ 73. Problem Figures

starting from the 1st letter is replaced by the

previous letter and each of the remaining letters

is replaced by the next letter in the English

Answer Figures
alphabet, which of the following will be the 3rd

letter from the right end after the substitution?

(a) B
(a) c
(b) S
(b) d
(c) Z (c) a
(d) b
(d) K
(e) e

72. If > denotes +, < denotes -, + denotes ൊ, ^ S.(74) Direction for the following 1 (one)
item: Read the following passage and answer
denotes ×, - denotes =, × denotes > and =
the item that follows. Your answer to the item
denotes <, choose the correct statement of the should be based on the passage only.
PASSAGE 1
following
The annual CSR budget is 15,000 crore, of
(a) 28+4^2=6>4+2 which a substantial portion goes unutilized.
(b) 13>7<6+2=3^4 CSR has traditionally been utilized for the
social sector. However, this growing corpus
(c) 9>5>4-18+9>16
should also be used for the development of
(d) 9<3<2>1×8^2 strategic technology. Large corporations can be
incentivized to use some of this budget to serve
the strategic needs of the nation. The
Direction for (Question 73): Study the Government should allow these funds to flow
following information and answer the following into certain strategic tech startups.

question.
74. The following assumptions are drawn from the
In each of the following questions, a group of above passage:
I. The social sector does not need additional
five figures following a certain sequence is given
funds as CSR funds go unutilized.
as problem figures. Problem figure are followed II. Strategic tech startups needs additional
by another group of five figures known as funding.

answer figures marked as (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e).

Select the valid assumption(s) using the codes
Find out the figure from the answer figures below:
(a) I only
which when placed next to the problem figures
(b) II only
will continue the sequence of problem figures. (c) Neither I nor II
(d) Both I and II

19

 .


S.(75-77) Directions for the following 3 (c) Judges should focus on rendering justice
(three) item: Read the following passage and and not spend precious time in selecting
answer the items that follows. Your answer to judges.
the items should be based on the passage only. (d) Appointment of judges should be as it was
PASSAGE 2
being done prior to 1993.
“Till 1993, every judge in India was appointed
by the Law Ministry in consultation with the
76. The Supreme Court defined in 1993
Chief Justice of India. We had very eminent
consultation as concurrence for appointment of
judges at that time,” Mr.Rijiju said. “The
Constitution is clear about it. It says that the judges. It means the following:

President of India will appoint judges, which I. Law Ministry does not have the final say in
means the Law Ministry will appoint judges in appointment of judges.
consultation with the Chief Justice of India. II. Supreme Court Collegium gets the right to
The Supreme Court in 1993 defined recommend the appointment of judges.
consultation as concurrence. In no other field III. President of India appoints judges in
has consultation been defined as concurrence
consultation with CJI
but in judicial appointments,” he noted, adding
IV. Judiciary unlike Legislature and Executive
that the Collegium system was expanded by the
will have no checks.
judiciary in 1998. The Supreme Court
Select the right answers using the code below :
Collegium is headed by the CJI and comprises
four senior most judges of the court. Nowhere (a) All of the above

in the world except India is there a practice that (b) I, III and IV only
judges appoint their brothers as judges,” he (c) I and II only
said. He noted the process of consultation for (d) III and IV only
the selection of judges is so intense that
groupism develops in it. “People can see politics 77. “Nowhere in the World except India is there a
among leaders but they do not know the politics practice that Judges appoint their brothers as
going on inside the judiciary.” Noting that the
judges”.
executive and the legislature are bound and
The following assumptions have been drawn
regulated by the judiciary, he said, “But if the
from the above quote.
judiciary goes astray, there is n o mechanism
I. Judiciary selects the judges without
to control it”.
approval of Law Ministry.

75. What is the main thrust of the passage? II. Law Ministry seeks unfettered power to
(a) Law Ministry should recommend nominate judges.
appointment of judges to the President Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
based on deliberations in the legislature. (a) I only
(b) The Supreme Court collegium is mired in (b) II only
politics and hence note in a position to (c) Neither I nor II
select suitable judges.
(d) Both I and II

20

 .


78. How many minimum number of straight lines Direction for (Questions 80): Study the
are there in the following figure? following table and answer these questions.
The question given below consists of six
statements followed by options consisting of
three statements put together in a specific
order. Choose the option which indicates a
valid argument containing logically related
(a) 5 statements that is, where the third statement is
(b) 10 a conclusion drawn from the preceding two
(c) 9 statements.
(d) 8
80. A: All synopses are poets
79. From the given four position of a single dice, B: Some synopses are mentors
find the colour at the face opposite to the face C: Some X are not mentors
having green colour. D: All X are poets
E: All synopses are mentors
F: All synopses are X
(a) ACB
(b) AEC
(a) Orange (c) FEC
(b) Red (d) DFA
(c) Silver
(d) Violet

*****

21