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Major Test-2 19_04_2024 (2)
Major Test-2 19_04_2024 (2)
Course: Excel, Conquer, Master Pro, Master Pro Elite Batch | Major Test-2
Time: 3:20 Hours Test Date: 19 April 2024 Maximum Marks: 720
Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.
egRoiw.kZ funsZ’k (Important Instructions):
1. mŸkj iqfLrdk ij dsoy uhys@dkys ckWy ikWbaV isu ls lkbM&1 rFkk 1. On the Answer Sheet, fill in the particulars on Side-1 and
Side-2 carefully with blue/black ballpoint pen only.
lkbM& 2 ij fooj.k lko/kkuh ls HkjsA 2. The test is of 3 hours 20 minutes duration and the Test
2. Ikjh{kk 3 ?kaVs 20 feuV dh vof/k dh gSA VsLV cqdysV esa HkkSfrdh] jlk;u foKku Booklet contains 200 multiple-choice questions (four options
,oa tho foKku ¼ouLifrfoKku o çk.khfoKku½ ls 200 cgqfodfYi; iz'u ¼,d lgh with a single correct answer) from Physics, Chemistry and
Biology (Botany & Zoology). 50 questions in each subject are
mŸkj ds lkFk pkj fodYi½ gSA izR;sd fo"k; esa 50 iz’u uhps fn;s x;s divided into two Sections (A and B) as per details given below:
fooj.k ds vuqlkj nks [kaMksa ¼A rFkk B½ esa foHkkftr gS% (a) Section A shall consist of 35 (Thirty-five) Questions in
each subject (Questions Nos- 1 to 35, 51 to 85, 101 to 135
(a) [k.M A esa izR;sd esa 35 iz’u gksaxs ¼iz’u la[;k - 1 ls 35, 51 ls 85, 101 ls
and 151 to 185). All questions are compulsory.
135 rFkk 151 ls 185½ lHkh iz’u djuk vfuok;Z gSA (b) Section B shall consist of 15 (Fifteen) questions in each
(b) [k.M B esa izR;sd fo"k; esa 15 iz’u gksaxs ¼iz’u la[;k 36 ls 50, 86 ls 100, subject (Question Nos- 36 to 50, 86 to 100, 136 to 150 and
186 to 200). In Section B, a candidate needs to attempt any
136 ls 150 rFkk 186 ls 200½ [k.M B esa] 15 esa ls 10 iz’uksa dks djus 10 (Ten) questions out of 15 (Fifteen) in each subject.
vko’;drk gSA Candidate are advised to read all 15 questions in each subject
mEehnokjksa dks lykg nh tkrh gS fd os iz’u i= gy djus ls igys [k.M B ds of Section B before they start attempting the question paper.
In the event of a candidate attempting more than ten
izR;sd fo"k; ds lHkh 15 iz’uksa dks i<+ ysaA mEehnokjksa }kjk 10 ls vf/kd iz’uksa dks questions, the first ten questions answered by the candidate
gy djus ij] mŸkj fn;s x, igys 10 iz’uksa dk ewY;kadu fd;k tk;sxkA shall be evaluated.
3. Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the
3. izR;sd iz’u 4 vad dk gSA izR;sd lgh mŸkj ds fy, mEehnokj dks 4 vad feysaxsaA
candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one
izR;sd xyr izfrfØ;k ds fy, dqy vadksa esa ls ,d vad dkVk tk,xkA vf/kdre mark will deducted from the total scores. The maximum are
vad 720 gSaA 720.
4. Use Blue/Black Ball point Pen only for writing particulars on
4. fooj.k fy[kus rFkk mŸkj i=d ij mŸkj Hkjus ds fy, dsoy uhys@dkys ckWy ikWbaV
these page/marking responses on the Answer Sheet. Use of
isu dk mi;ksx djsaA white fluid for correction is not permissible on the Answer
5. mEehnokj dks ;g lqfuf’pr djuk pkfg, fd mŸkj i=d eqM+k gqvk ugha gSaA mŸkj Sheet.
iqfLrdk ij fdlh Hkh izdkj dksbZ fu’kku u yxk,aA ijh{kk iqfLrdk@mŸkj i=d esa 5. The candidate should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not
folded. Do not make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet. Do
fufnZ"V LFkku dks NksM+dj viuk jksy uEcj dgha vkSj u fy[ksaA not write your Roll No. anywhere else except in the specified
6. mŸkj i=d esa lq/kkj ds fy, lQsn rjy ¼okbVuj½ dk iz;ksx djus dh vuqefr ugha space in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.
6. Use of white fluid for correction is NOT permissible on the
gSA Answer Sheet.
7. izR;sd mEehnokj dks dgs tkus ij viuk izos’k&i= fujh{kd dks fn[kkuk gksxkA 7. Each candidate must show on-demand his/her Admit card to
8. dksbZ Hkh vH;FkhZ dsUnz v/kh{kd ;k fujh{kd dh fo’ks"k vuqefr ds fcuk viuk LFkku the Invigilator.
8. No candidate, without special permission of the centre
ugha NksM+sxkA Superintendent or Invigilator, would leave his/her seat.
9. mEehnokj dks viuh mŸkj iqfLrdk M~;wVh ij ekStwn fujh{kd dks lkSais fcuk ijh{kk 9. The candidate should not leave the Examination Hall without
gkWy ls ckgj ugha tkuk gSA mifLFkfr i= ij 2 ckj gLRkk{kj fd;s tk,xsaA ftu handing over their Answer Sheet to the invigilator on duty and
sign (with time) the Attendance Sheet twice. Cases, where a
ekeyksa esa mEehnokj us nwljh ckj mifLFkfr i=d ij gLrk{kj ugha fd;k gS mUgsa candidate has not signed the Attendance Sheet second time,
vuqfpr lk/ku ekeys ds :i esa fuiVk tk;sxkA will be deemed not to have handed over the Answer Sheet
10. bysDVªkWfud@eSuqvy dSYdqysVj dk mi;ksx izfrcaf/kr gSA and dealt with as an Unfair Means case.
10. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.
11. mEehnokj ifj{kk d{k@gkWy esa muds vkpj.k ds laca/k esa ijh{kk ds lHkh fu;eksa vkSj 11. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of
fofue;ksa }kjk ’kkflr gSAa vuqfpr lk/kuksa ds lHkh ekeyksa dks bl ijh{kk ds fu;eksa the examination with regard to their conduct in the
vkSj fofue;ksa ds vuqlkj fuiVk;k tk;sxkA Examination Room/Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt
with as per the Rules and Regulation of this examination.
12. fdlh Hkh ifjfLFkfr esa VsLV oqdySV vkSj mŸkj i=d dk dksbZ Hkh fgLlk vyx ugha
12. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be
fd;k tk,xkA detached under any circumstances.
13. vH;FkhZ lgh VsLV cqdySV dksM] tSlk fd VsLV cqdySV@mŸkj i=d esa fn;k x;k gS] 13. The candidate will write the Correct Test Booklet Code as
given in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet in the Attendance
dks mifLFkfr i=d esa fy[ksaA Sheet.
(Hindi + English)
TEST SYLLABUS
Major Test-2
19 April 2024
;gk¡ vkSj ehVj esa gSa vkSj lsd.M esa gSA rjax
ds lapj.k dk osx gS
dk eku esa
dk eku esa
dk eku esa
dk eku esa
leku yackbZ vkSj vuqizLFk dkV dh rhu NM+kas ls cuh
,d fefJr NM+ gS] tSlk fd fp= esa fn[kk;k x;k gSA
NM+kas ds inkFkZ dh Å"ek pkydrk Øe'k%
vkSj gSA fljs vkSj fljs fLFkj rkieku ij gSaA
fljs esa ços'k djus okyh lHkh Å"ek fljs ls ckgj
pyh tkrh gS] NM+ ds fdukjksa ls Å"ek gkfu ugha gksrh
gSA NM+ dh çHkkoh Å"ek pkydrk gS
ijkcSx
a uh fpfdRlk esa fuj{k.k
fdj.ksa ¼Mk;Xuksl½ ds fy,
fdj.ksa ty 'kqf)dj.k
lw{e rjaxas lapkj jkMkj
vkd"kZ.k
izfrd"kZ.k
izfrd"kZ.k
vkd"kZ.k
ls rFkk ls
ls rFkk ls
ls rFkk ls
ls rFkk ls
;fn bysDVªkWu dks le:i fo|qr {ks= esa j[kk tk, rks
bysDVªkWu
dksbZ cy vuqHko ugha djsxk
{ks= dh fn'kk esa ,d leku osx ls xfr djsxk
{ks= dh fn'kk ds foijhr ,d leku osx ls xfr
djsxk
{ks= dh fn'kk ds foijhr Rofjr xfr djsxk
,d o.khZ; izdk'k L=ksr tks ij lapkfyr gksrk
gS] izfr lsd.M QksVksu mRlftZr djrk gS
rks izdk'k dh rjaxnS/;Z gS
nks ySl
a ftudh 'kfDr rFkk gS dks ,d
nwljs ds lEidZ esa j[ks x, gS] rks la;kstu dh Qksdl
nwjh D;k gksxh
,d d.k ewy fcanq ls le; ij çkjaHk gksrk gS
vkSj /kukRed v{k ds vuqfn'k xfr djrk gSA
osx≤ dk xzkQ fp= esa fn[kk;k x;k gSA le;
ij d.k dh fLFkfr D;k gS
rFkk
rFkk
xsV xsV
xsV xsV
nks dyklEc) L=ksrks ls izkIr izdk'k rjax
rFkk
rks –';rk
;gk¡ vf/kdre rhozrk gS
rFkk U;wure rhozrk gSA
fn;k gS → →
→
rFkk →
lSy vfHkfØ;k
→ →
dk Js"B izn’kZu gS%
+ + + +
+ + + +
+ +
+ +
+ +
+ +
rFkk nksuks
fuEufyf[kr es ls vlR; O;atd gS%
= −
= −
lerkih; izØe esa
mRØe.kh; − −
− −
= =
− −
= =
dksbZ ugh
lkE; ij
− + − +
+ + + +
fuEufyf[kr es ls dkSulk ,flfVd vEy
dh lkUnzrk es o`f) djrk gS
vkW;u feykus ij
vkW;u de djus ij
mRizsjd tksMus ij
vfHkfØ;k feJ.k ds nkc es o`f) djus ij
rFkk gSaA
+ +
vk;u çfrpqEcdh; gSA
MkbDyksjks cst
a hu
MkbDyksjks cst
a hu
MkbDyksjks cst
a hu
⎯⎯⎯⎯→ ⎯⎯⎯⎯→
d‚ye esa fn, x, mnkgj.k dks d‚ye esa vfHkfØ;k
ds uke ls feyk,a
d‚ye d‚ye
mnkgj.k vfHkfØ;k
fÝMy Øk¶V
,lhyhdj.k
− −
⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→ ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→
vfHkfØ;k
,YMksy
la?kuu
dsfutkjks vfHkfØ;k
⎯⎯ ⎯ ⎯ ⎯⎯
→ ⎯⎯ ⎯ ⎯ ⎯⎯
→
jkstsueqaM vip;u
⎯⎯ ⎯ ⎯ ⎯ ⎯⎯
→ ⎯⎯ ⎯ ⎯ ⎯ ⎯⎯
→
LVhQu vfHkfØ;k
⎯ ⎯ ⎯ ⎯→ ⎯ ⎯ ⎯ ⎯→
fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lh vuvipk;d 'kdZjk gS\
Xyqdkst ÝDVkst
lqØkst ekYVksl
ØksesVksxzkQh es fuEufyf[kr es ls dkSulk vo’kks"kd ds
:i es mi;ksx vkrk gS\
flfYkdk tsy ;k ,yqfeuk
gsDlsu
,fFky ,flVsV
fuugkbfMªu foy;u
uke gS%
gkbMªksDlhisVusa MkbvkWu
MkbvkDlksiVsa suvkWy
dkcksDZ lhC;wVsu vkWu
vkWDlksisUVsuvkWbd vEy
ds laHkkfor lajpukRed leko;oh;ks dh la[;k
gS\
••
• •
••
• •
• •
• •
• •
• •
isVa su& &vkWu vkSj isVa su& &vkWu dks fdlds }kjk
foesfnr fd;k tk ldrk gS%&
V‚ysu vfHkdeZd
ukbVªksfQuksy rFkk
ukbVªksfQuksy ds ckjs esa lgh dFku gS%
vEyh; lkeF;Z
DoFkukad
vkSj dks Hkki vklou ds ek/;e ls vyx fd;k
tk ldrk gS
;s lHkh
[k.M++
→
→
− − − − − −
= = = =
− −
= − = = − =
− −
= − = = = − = =
→ →
→ →
vfHkfØ;k rhoz gS rFkk vfHkfØ;k ls de
m"ek{ksih gSA
vfHkfØ;k rhoz gS rFkk vfHkfØ;k ls vf/kd
m"ek{ksih gSA
vfHkfØ;k ean gS rFkk vfHkfØ;k ls de
m"ek{ksih gSA
vfHkfØ;k ean gS rFkk vfHkfØ;k ls vf/kd
m"ek{ksih gSA
dFku dk f}èkzqo vk?kw.kZ 'kwU; gSa A
dkj.k esa dk ladj.k gSA
dFku rFkk dkj.k nksuksa lR; gSaA rFkk dkj.k] dFku
dk lgh Li"Vhdj.k gSaA
dFku rFkk dkj.k nksuksa lR; gSaA rFkk dkj.k] dFku
dk lgh Li"Vhdj.k ugha gSaA
dFku lgh gS rFkk dkj.k vlR; gSa
dFku vlR; gS rFkk dkj.k lR; gSa
,fYdy gSykbM
foukby gSykbM
,fyy gSykbM
dFku Dyksjksct
as hu ds ukbVhªdj.k ls ukbVªksDyksjksct
as hau
dk fuekZ.k gksrk gSA
dkj.k lewg ,d funs’Z kh lewg gSA
dFku rFkk dkj.k nksuks lR; gS ijUrq dkj.k dFku
dh lgh O;k[;k djrk gS
dFku rFkk dkj.k nksuks lR; gS ijUrq dkj.k dFku
dh lgh O;k[;k ugh djrk gS
dFku lR; gS ijUrq dkj.k vlR; gS
dFku vlR; gS ijUrq dkj.k lR; gS
vEyh; lkeF;Zrk c<+us dk lgh Øe gSA
fQuksy ,Fksuky Dyksjks,flfVd vEy
,lhfVd vEy
,Fksuky ,lhfVd vEy fQuksy
Dyksjks,flfVd vEy
,Fksuky fQuksy ,lhfVd vEy
Dyksjks,flfVd vEy
Dyksjks,flfVd vEy ,lhfVd vEy fQuksy
,Fksuky
103. Liksjksiksysfuu ds ckjs es fuEu es ls dkSulk dFku 103. Which of the following statements about
xyr gS% sporopollenin is wrong
(1) ,Dlkbu Liksjksiksysfuu dh cuh gksrh gS (1) Exine is made up of sporopollenin
(2) Liksjksiksysfuu fdlh Kkr ,atkbe ls u"V ugh (2) Sporopollenin is not degraded by any
gksrs gS known enzyme
(3) Liksjksiksysfuu dsoy tuu fNæ {ks= es gh ik;s (3) Sporopollenin occurs in the area of
tkrs gSA germ pores only
(4) Liksjksiksysfuu lcls vf/kd izfrjks/kh dkcZfud (4) Sporopollenin is most resistant
inkFkZ gS organic material
105. vlR; dFku dk p;u djsa & 105. Select the wrong statement
(1) tc 'olu esa VªkbikekfVu dk mi;ksx ,d (1) When tripalmitin is used as a
substrate in respiration, the RQ is 0.7
fØ;kèkkj dh rjg djrs gSa rc bldk 'olu
(2) One glucose molecule yields a net
xq.kkad 0.7 gksrk gS gain of 2 ATP molecules during
(2) fd.ou ds le; ,d v.kq Xywdkst ls 'kq) nks fermentation
ATP v.kqvksa dk ykHk gksrk gS (3) The intermediate compound which
links glycolysis with Kreb’s cycle is
(3) Xykbdksfyfll vkSj ØsCl pØ ds chp e/;LFk
malic acid
;kSfxd eSfyd vEy gksrk gS (4) One glucose molecule yields a net
(4) vkDlh'olu ds le; ,d v.kq Xywdkst ls 'kq) gain of 38 ATP molecules during
38 ATP vq.kvksa dk ykHk gksrk gS aerobic respiration
NEET (Pre-Medical) | Excel, Conquer, Master Pro, Master Pro Elite Batch | Major Test-2 29
106. Xykbdksyhfll esa fØ;kèkkj Lrj dk QkLQksfjfydj.k 106. Substrate level phosphorylation occurs
rc gksrk gS tc ifjorZu gksrk gS in glycolysis when there is conversion of
(1) BPGA → PGA vkSj QkLQksfXyljsV (1) BPGA → PGA and phosphoglycerate
→ PEP → PEP
(2) BPGA → PGA vkSj PEP → ikb:fod ,flM (2) BPGA → PGA and PEP → Pyruvic acid
(3) ÝDVkst-6-QkLQsV → ÝDVkst (3) Fructose-6-phosphate → Fructose
1, 6-ckbZQkLQsV 1,6-biphosphate
(4) Xywdkst → Xywdkst-6-QkLQsV (4) Glucose → Glucose-6-phosphate
107. ewyxksi ls dqN fefyehVj Åij tM+ks dk og {ks= 107. The region of root few millimetres above
tks iryh fHkfÙk;ksa rFkk l?ku dksf’kdknzO; lfgr the root cap possessing very small cells
cgqr lw{e dksf’dkvkssa ;qDr gksrk gS] og gS with thin walls and dense protoplasm is
(1) ewyjkse {ks= (1) Root hair zone
(2) nh?khZdj.k {ks= (2) Region of elongation
(3) foHkT;ksÙkdks dk {ks= (3) Region of meristems
(4) ifjiDou {ks= (4) Region of maturation
108. uhps nks dFku fn, x, gSaA 108. Given below are two statements.
Statement I : After primary treatment of
dFku I : okfgr ey ds çkFkfed mipkj ds ckn] uhps
sewage, all solids that settle down form
teus okys lHkh Bksl çkFkfed vkaid dk fuekZ.k djrs the primary sludge and the supernatant
forms the effluent.
gSa vkSj Iykoh cfg% L=ko dk fuekZ.k djrk gSA
Statement II : Spent slurry of biogas
dFku II : ck;ksxSl la;a= ds dnZe dk mi;ksx moZjd plant is used as fertilizer.
In the light of the above statements,
ds :i esa fd;k tkrk gSA
choose the correct answer from the
mijksä dFkuksa ds vkyksd esa uhps fn, x, fodYiksa options given below.
(1) Both statement I and statement II
esa ls lgh mÙkj pquAsa
are correct.
(1) dFku I vkSj dFku II nksuksa lgh gSaA (2) Both statement I and statement II
are incorrect
(2) dFku I vkSj dFku II nksuksa xyr gSa
(3) Statement I is correct, but statement
(3) dFku I lgh gS] ysfdu dFku II xyr gS II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect, but statement
(4) dFku I xyr gS] ysfdu dFku II lgh gS
II is correct
109. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdlus iqf"V dh fd vf/kd 109. Which of the following confirmed that
çtkfr;ksa okys leqnk; de çtkfr;ksa okys leqnk;ksa communities with more species tend to
be more stable than those with less
dh rqyuk esa vf/kd fLFkj gksrs gSa\
species?
(1) vysDtsMa j o‚u gEcksYV (1) Alexander von Humboldt
(2) MsfoM fVyeSu (2) David Tilman
(3) i‚y ,fyZp (3) Paul Ehrlich
(4) ,MoMZ foYlu (4) Edward Wilson
NEET (Pre-Medical) | Excel, Conquer, Master Pro, Master Pro Elite Batch | Major Test-2 30
110. fuEufyf[kr feykuksa ij fopkj djsa vkSj xyr feyku 110. Consider the following matches and
dh igpku djsAa identify the incorrect match.
(1) ckáijthfo&ekuo 'kjhj dh tw¡ (1) Ectoparasites–Human body lice
(2) var%ijthfo&vfj=ikn (2) Endoparasites–Copepods
(3) ijthfork&dqLdqVk (3) Parasitism–Cuscuta
(4) v.M ijthfork ¼czwM iSjkflfVTe½&dks;y rFkk (4) Brood parasitism–Cuckoo and
dkSvk Crow
111. ,d U;wfDyd vEy esa 30% A, 20% G, 20% T 111. Given that a nucleic acid has 30% A, 20%
rFkk 30% C gS rks ;g U;wfDyd vEy gksxk - G, 20% T, and 30% C, this nucleic acid is-
(1) f} jTtqdh DNA (1) double stranded DNA
(2) ,dy jTtqdh DNA (2) single stranded DNA
(3) f} jTtqdh RNA (3) double stranded RNA
(4) ,dy jTtqdh RNA (4) single stranded RNA
112. ,d fuf'pr ikni esa yky iq"i] lQsn iq"Ik ij çHkkoh gSA 112. In a certain plant red flower is dominant
over white colour flower. When
vxj le;qXeth yky iq"Ik (RR) ikni dk lQsn iq"Ik
homozygous (RR) Plant is crossed with
ikni ls ladj.k djkrs gS rks 2000 larkus çkIr gksrh gSA white flower plant 2000 offsprings are
rks yky iq"Ik okyh larkuksa dh la[;k crkb;s - obtained. Then find out the number of
red flower offsprings.
(1) 1500 (2) 2000
(1) 1500 (2) 2000
(3) 500 (4) 1000
(3) 500 (4) 1000
113. fuEu esa ls dkSu lk iksyhU;wfDy;ksVkbM ,d rjQ 113. Which of the following polynucleotides
iksyhisIVkbM dh ,dyd bZdkbZ dks igpkurk gS rFkk recognizes a monomer of polypeptide on
one hand and on the other hand
nwljh rjQ ,d çdwV dks igpkurk gS \
recognises a codon ?
(1) t-RNA
(1) t-RNA
(2) r-RNA
(2) r-RNA
(3) m-RNA
(3) m-RNA
(4) SnRNA
(4) SnRNA
114. vehuksa vEyksa ds jklk;fud rFkk HkkSfrd xq.kksa esa 114. The differences in chemical and physical
fHkUurk vko';d :Ik ls fuEu esa ls fdlds gksrs properties of amino acids are essentially
gS \ of the :-
(1) vehuksa lewg (1) Amino group
(2) dkcksfZ Dly lewg
(2) Carboxyl group
(3) R lewg
(3) R group
(4) mijksDr lHkh
(4) All of the above
NEET (Pre-Medical) | Excel, Conquer, Master Pro, Master Pro Elite Batch | Major Test-2 31
115. uhps nks dFku fn;s x;s gS% ,d dFku (A) gS vkSj nwljk 115. Given below are two statements; one is
labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is
dkj.k (R) gSA
labelled as Reason (R).
dFku (A) : vuko`Ùkchth fo"kechtk.kqd gksrs gSA Assertion (A) : The gymnosperms are
heterosporous.
dkj.k (R) : vuko`Ùkchth ikni nks fHkUu çdkj ds
Reason (R) : Gymnosperms produce two
chtk.kqvksa dk mRiknu djrs gS] xq:chtk.kq ,oa y?kqchtk.kqA kind of spores, macro (large) and micro
(small) spores.
uhps fn;s x;s fodYiksa esa ls lgh mÙkj pqfu, :
Correct answer from the options given
(1) A vkSj R nksuksa lR; gS ijUrq R, A dh lgh O;k[;k below:
(1) Both A and R are true but R is not the
ugha gSA
correct explanation of A.
(2) A lR; ijUrq R vlR; gS (2) A is true but R is false.
(3) A is false but R is true.
(3) A vlR; ijUrq R lR; gS
(4) Both A and R are true and R is the
(4) A vkSj R nksuksa lR; gS R, A dh lgh O;k[;k gSA correct explanation of A.
116. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk dFku eSFksukstsu ds fy, lgh 116. Which of the following statements is not
ugha gS? correct for methanogens?
(1) They are archaebacteria.
(1) os vk| cSDVhfj;k gSaA
(2) They live in marshy areas.
(2) os nynyh {ks=ksa esa jgrs gSaA (3) They are responsible for the
(3) os tUrqvksa ds xkscj ls feFksu ¼ck;ksxSl½ ds mRiknu production of methane (biogas) from
ds fy, mÙkjnk;h gSaA the dung of animals.
(4) os lHkh tkuojksa dh vkar esa ekStwn gksrs gSaA (4) They are present in the guts of all
animals.
117. fuEu esa ls dkSu lk lgh gS : 117. Which amongst the following is correct :
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118. fuEufyf[kr esa dkSu lR; fodYi gS - 118. Which of the following is correct
(1) f'kjPNsn vkerkSj ij ik'oZ dfy;ksa ds o`f) dk option -
ifj.kke gSA (1) Decapitation usually results in the
growth of lateral buds
(2) f'kjPNsn O;kid :Ik ls pk; ckxku esa ç;qDr
(2) Decapitation is widely used for tea
gksrk gSA
plantations
(3) f'kjPNsn O;kid :i ls gst&esfdax ¼ckM+ cukus
(3) Decapitation is widely used for
es½a ç;qDr gksrk gSA hedge-making
(4) mijksDr lHkh (4) All of these
119. ty laoguh ÅÙkd ds ,dek= ltho ?kVd esa 119. The only living component of water
conducting tissue is/has
(1) mPp LFkwfyr fHkfÙk;k¡ rFkk foyksfir dsUæh; (1) Highly thickened walls and
vodkf'kdk gksrh gS A obliterated central lumen
(2) [kk| inkFkks± dk lap;u çksVhu ds :i esa gksrk (2) Store food materials in the form of
gS protein
(3) vjh; laogu ds fy;s mÙkjnk;h gksrs gSa A (3) Responsible for radial conduction
(4) cgqdksf'kdh; rRo fNæ.k ds }kjk vUr% lEcfUèkr (4) Multicellular elements interconnected
gksrs gSa through perforations
120. vi?kVu ds fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl pj.k esa lw{ethoksa 120. Which of the following steps of
dh fØ;k dh vko';drk ugha gksrh gS\ decomposition does not need action of
microorganisms?
(1) fo[kaMu
(1) Fragmentation
(2) áwfefQds'ku (2) Humification
(3) [kfuthdj.k (3) Mineralisation
(4) fu{kkyu (4) Leaching
121. ,d fo'ks"k le; ij çR;sd iks"kh Lrj ij thfor 121. Each trophic level has a certain mass of
inkFkZ dk ,d [kkl ek=k gksrh gS ftls [kM+h Qly living material at a particular time called
as the standing crop, it is measured as
dgk tkrk gS] bls bl çdkj ekik tkrk gS &
the -
(1) ,d bdkbZ {ks= esa thfor thoksa dk æO;eku vkSj (1) Mass of living organisms and used
ç;qä ÅtkZA energy in a unit area.
(2) iks"kh Lrj dh la[;k vkSj futhZo lkexzh dk (2) Number of trophic level and mass of
æO;ekuA non-living material.
(3) dkcZfud inkFkZ dh la[;k vkSj HkkjA (3) Number and weight of the organic
material.
(4) thfor thoksa dk æO;eku ;k ,d bdkbZ {ks= esa
(4) Mass of living organism or the
la[;kA number in a unit area.
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122. llhedsUædh esa thu vfHkO;fDr dk fu;eu dbZ Lrj 122. In eukaryotes, the regulation of gene
ij gks ldrk gS tSls :- expression could be exerted at :-
I. vuqy[ s ku Lrj I. Transcriptional level
II. lalk/ku Lrj II. Processing level
III. nwr vkj,u, dk dsUæd ls dksf'kdk æO; esa III. Transport of mRNA from nucleus to
vfHkxeu the cytoplasm.
IV. Translational level
IV. çksVhu la'ys"k.k ds Lrj ij
Choose the correct combination for
Åij fn, x;s okD;ksa esa ls lgh dFkuksa dks pqus :- given statements :-
(1) I, II, III (2) dsoy IV (1) I, II, III (2) Only IV
(3) I, II, III, IV (4) II, III (3) I, II, III, IV (4) II, III
123. DNA ds ,d [kaM esa ;fn nksuksa DNA jTtqdksa dk 123. If both strands of DNA in a given segment
vuqy[s ku gks tk, rks blls cuus okys RNA dSls of DNA are transcribed then the two RNA
gksx
a s? molecules formed will be :-
(1) lekukUrj o iwjd (1) Parallel and complementary
(2) lekukUrj o leku (2) Parallel and identical
(3) çfrlekukUrj o iwjd (3) Antiparallel and complementary
(4) çfrlekukUrj o leku (4) Antiparallel and identical
124. dksf'kdk f>Yyh dk fyfiM ?kVd eq[;r% fdlls cuk 124. The lipid component of cell membrane
gksrk gS ? mainly consists of :-
(1) QkWLQksfXyljkWbM (1) Phosphoglycerides
(2) dksysLVªkWy (2) Cholesterol
(3) XykbdksfyfiM (3) Glycolipid
(4) fLQaxksfyfiM (4) Sphingolipid
125. fjDr LFkkuksa dh iwfrZ dhft;s rFkk lgh fodYi dk 125. Fill in the blanks and choose the correct
p;u dhft;s: option:
I. tc ,d çjksg 'kh"kZ ,d iq"i esa :ikUrfjr gks
I. When a shoot tip transforms into a
tkrk gS rks ;g lnSo P gksrk gSA
II. Q rus ij mxus okyh ,d ik'ohZ;] lkekU;r% flower, it is always P.
126. xSj ,YC;qehul cht gksrk gS: 126. Non albuminous seed occurs in
(1) dSLVj (2) xsgw¡ (1) Castor (2) Wheat
(3) eVj (4) eDdk (3) Pea (4) Maize
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127. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulk dFku xyr gSa\ 127. Which one is incorrect statement?
(1) çksfVLVk esa iks"k.k çdk'k la'ys"kh vkSj fo"keiks"kh çdkj (1) Protista have photosynthetic and
gksrs gSaA heterotrophic modes of nutrition.
(2) Some fungi are edible.
(2) dqN dod [kk| ;ksX; gksrs gSaA
(3) Nuclear membrane is present in
(3) dsUæd f>Yyh txr eksusjk esa mifLFkr gksrh gSA
kingdom Monera.
(4) ,fuesfy;k esa dksf'kdk fHkfÙk vuqifLFkr gksrh gSA
(4) Cell wall is absent in Animalia.
128. th;k est dh caMy'khFk dksf'kdkvksa ds fo"k; esa D;k 128. What is not true about bundle sheath
lR; ugha gS : cells of Zea maize :
(1) muesa vla[; gfjryod gksrs gSa (1) They have numerous chloroplast
(2) varjk dks'khdh; LFkku vuqifLFkr gksrs gSa (2) Intercellular spaces absent
(3) mudh fHkfRr;k¡ xSl folj.k ds fy, vikjxE; (3) Their walls are not impervious to
ugha gksrh gS gaseous exchange
(4) mudh fHkfRr;k¡ eksVh gksrh gSa (4) Their walls are thick
129. vi?kVu dk og egRoiw.kZ pj.k] ftlds }kjk ty 129. The important step of decomposition, by
foy; vdkcZfud iks"kd rRo Hkwfe esa tkdj vo{ksfir which water-soluble inorganic nutrients
gks tkrs gSa] dgykrk gSA go down into the soil and get
(1) fo[kaMu precipitated is called.
(1) Fragmentation
(2) fu{kkyu
(2) Leaching
(3) áwehfQds'ku
(3) Humification
(4) [kfutdj.k
(4) Mineralization
132. nh?khZdj.k {ks= ds lanHkZ es xyr dFku dk p;u 132. Choose Incorrect statement with
fdft;s respect to the region of elongation
(1) dksf’kdk,¡ foHksfnr gksrh gS rFkk /khjs&/khjs (1) Cells differentiate and mature
gradually
ifjiDo gksrh gS
(2) Situated proximal to meristematic
(2) foHkT;ksrdh {ks= ds fudV fLFkr gksrk gS
zone
(3) tM+ks dh yackbZ esa o`f) ds fy, mÙkjnk;h gksrk gS (3) Responsible for root growth in length
(4) dksf’kdk,¡ l?ku dksf’kdknzO; ;qDr gksrh gS ijUrq (4) Cells have dense cytoplasm but are
dsUnzh; rFkk fjfDrdk&foghu gksrh gS nucleated and non-vacuolated
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133. o`{k vkSj ?kkl ds eSnku ds ikfjfLFkfrdh ra= ds fy,] 133. For Tree and grassland ecosystem,
tSoHkkj dk fijkfeM gS - pyramid of biomass is -
(1) lh/kk (1) Upright
(2) myVk (2) Inverted
(3) rdqZ vkdkj (3) Spindle shape
(4) lh/kk ;k mYVk gks ldrk gS (4) May upright or inverted
134. vi?kVu ds ckjs esa fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk dFku 134. Which of the following statements is
xyr gS\ incorrect about decomposition?
(1) vijngkjh tSls ¼dsp a ,q ½ vijn dks [kafMr djrs (1) Detritivores like earthworm
gSa breakdown the detritus
(2) In leaching the soluble inorganic
(2) fu{kkyu esa ?kqyu'khy vdkcZfud iks"kd rRo
nutrients go down into the soil
e`nklaLrj esa pys tkrs gSaA horizon.
(3) thok.kq vkSj dod ,atkbe fo[kaMu dh çfØ;k (3) The bacterial and fungal enzymes
}kjk vijn dks ljy vdkcZfud yo.k esa cny degrades detritus into simple inorganic
nsrs gSaA salts by the process of fragmentation.
(4) ;g ,d ok;oh; çfØ;k gS (4) It is an aerobic process
135. fuEu esa ls dkSulk ,d vko';d vehuksa vEy gS? 135. Which of the following is an essential
(1) feFkhvksuhu (2) ,ysuhu amino acid?
(1) Methionine (2) Alanine
(3) Vkbjkslhu (4) Xykblhu
(3) Tyrosine (4) Glycine
[k.M++-B SECTION-B
136. fn;s x;s fp=ksa dks igpkfu;s ,oa lgh feyku dk irk 136. Recognise the given figures and find out
yxkb;s : the correct match :
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137. ¶yks;e ds lanHkZ esa xyr feyku dk p;u dhft,: 137. Identify the incorrectly matched pair
with respect to Phloem:
a lgpj dksf'kdk;sa lHkh QsusjksxSEl esa a Companion Specialised
mifLFkr fof'k"V cells parenchymatous cells
e`nqÙkdh; dksf'kdk;sa present in all
phanerogams
b ¶yks;e js'ks lkekU;r% çkFkfed b Phloem Generally present in
¶yks;e esa mifLFkr gksrs fibers primary phloem
gSa
c Sieve tube Tube like structures
c Pkyuh ufydk rRo ifjèkh; dksf'kdkæO; rFkk
elements with peripheral
ifjiDork ij cM+s dsUæd
cytoplasm and large
;qDr ufydk leku
lajpuk;sa nucleus at maturity
d ¶yks;e e`nqÙkd nhf?kZr] 'kq.Mkdkj] latho d Phloem Elongated tapering
csyukdkj dksf'kdk;sa parenchyma living cylindrical cells
(1) dsoy (a) (1) Only (a)
(2) dsoy (a) rFkk (b) (2) Only (a) and (b)
(3) Only (a), (b) and (c)
(3) dsoy (a), (b) rFkk (c)
(4) All incorrect
(4) lHkh xyr gS
138. Given below are two statements
138. uhps fn, x, nks dFku gSa :
Statement I: Wind pollination is quite
dFku – I : ?kklksa esa ok;qijkx.k cgqr de gksrk gSaA rare in grasses
Statement II : Pollination by water is
dFku - II: iq"ih ikniksa esa ty }kjk ijkx.k cgqr
common in flowering plants
lkekU; gksrk gSA Choose the correct answer from the
option given below:
uhps fn, fodYiksa esa ls lgh mÙkj pqusa (1) Both Statement I and Statement II
are incorrect
(1) nksuksa dFku I vkSj dFku II xyr gSA
(2) Statement I correct but Statement II
(2) dFku I lgh ijUrq dFku II xyr gSA is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but
(3) dFku I xyr gS ijUrq dFku II lgh gSA
Statement II is correct
(4) nksuksa dFku I vkSj dFku II lgh gSA (4) Both Statement I and Statement II
are correct
139. fodkl'khy Hkzw.k n'kkZrk gS : 139. Developing embryo shows :
(1) T;kferh; o`f) (1) Geometric growth
(2) vadxf.krh; o`f) (2) Arithmetic growth
(3) rkfdZd ¼yksftLVhd½ o`f) (3) Logistic growth
(4) nksuksa (1) rFkk (2) (4) Both (1) and (2)
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140. vk;q fijkfeM ds laca/k esa fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu 140. Which among the following is/are correctly
matched regarding age pyramid?
lk/ls lgh lqesfyr gS a\
(1) Young population pyramid – Pyramid
(1) vfèkd tUeiwoZ lef"V & pkSM+k vk/kkj okyk with broad base
fijkfeM (2) Stable population – Urn-shaped
pyramid
(2) fLFkj lef"V & dy'k ds vkdkj dk fijkfeM
(3) Declining population – Bell-shaped
(3) ?kVrh lef"V & csy ds vkdkj dk fijkfeM pyramid
(4) vf/kd i'ptuuksÙkj O;f"V & myVs fijkfeM (4) More post reproductive individuals –
Inverted pyramid
141. AATTCGATACGATA ØEk ,d ekuo xq.klw= esa 15 141. AATTCGATACGATA sequence in a human
ckj iqujko`r gksrk gSA buesa ls ,d iqujko`r vuqØe chromosome is repeated 15 times. Due
mRifjorZu ds ckn AATTCGATACGTTA esa to mutation one of the repeat sequences
ifjofrZr gks tkrk gSA ;g ifjorZu dgykrk gS - gets changed to AATTCGATACGTTA. This
(1) SNP (2) STP change is called -
(3) VNTR (4) ISR (1) SNP (2) STP (3) VNTR (4) ISR
142. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulk dFku ekuo thukse 142. Which of the following is not the salient
ifj;kstuk dh eq[; fo'ks"krk ugha gS? feature of human genome project?-
(1) neudkjh }kjk ySd çpkysd ds fu;eu dks (1) Regulation of lac operon by repressor
_.kkRed fu;eu dgrs gSA is referred to as negative regulation.
(2) nks çfr'kr ls de ekuo thukse çksVhu dk (2) Less than 2 percent of human
dwVys[ku djrk gSA genome codes for protein.
(3) ekuo thukse ds cgqr cM+s Hkkx dk fuekZ.k (3) Repeated sequences make up very
iqujko`fRr vuqØe }kjk gksrk gSA large portion of the human genome.
(4) xq.klw= 1 esa lokZf/kd thu o y xq.klw= esa lcls (4) Chromosome 1 has most genes and y
de thu feyrs gSA has the fewest.
143. nh x;h oa'kkoyh esa dkSulh oa'kkxfr lEHko ugha 143. Which of the following inheritance is not
gS – possible in the given pedigree ?
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145. lwph-I dks lwph-II ds lkFk lqesfyr dhft;s : 145. Match List-I with List-II :
lwp h -I lwp h -II List-I List-II
(A) ,fYtu (i) ikbul (A) Algin (i) Pinus
(B) ,xkj&,xkj (ii) ,DVksdkiZl (B) Agar-agar (ii) Ectocarpus
(C) Mycorrhiza (iii) Cycas
(C) dod ewy (iii) lkbdl
(D) Coralloid roots (iv) Gelidium
(D) çoky ewy (iv) tsfyfM;e
Choose the correct answer from the
Ukhps fn;s x;s fodYiksa esa ls lgh mÙkj pqfu, : options given below :
(1) (A)-(i) (B)-(iii) (C)-(iv) (D)-(ii) (1) (A)-(i) (B)-(iii) (C)-(iv) (D)-(ii)
(2) (A)-(iv) (B)-(iii) (C)-(ii) (D)-(i) (2) (A)-(iv) (B)-(iii) (C)-(ii) (D)-(i)
(3) (A)-(i) (B)-(ii) (C)-(iii) (D)-(iv) (3) (A)-(i) (B)-(ii) (C)-(iii) (D)-(iv)
(4) (A)-(ii) (B)-(iv) (C)-(i) (D)-(iii) (4) (A)-(ii) (B)-(iv) (C)-(i) (D)-(iii)
146. lwph I dks lwph II ls lqesfyr djsAa 146. Match List I with List II.
List-I List-II
lwph-I lwph-II
A First trophic i Birds, fishes and
A igyk iks"k.k Lrj i. i{kh] eNyh rFkk
HksfM+;k level wolf
B Third ii Zooplankton,
B r`rh; iks"k.k Lrj ii. tUrqIyod] trophic level grasshopper and
fVM~Mk rFkk xk;
cow
C prqFkZ iks"k.k Lrj iii. ikni Iyod] C Fourth iii Phytoplankton,
?kkl rFkk isM+ trophic level grasses and trees
D Second iv Man, lion and
D f}rh; iks"k.k Lrj iv.
euq";] 'ksj rFkk trophic level vulture
fx)
Choose the correct answer from the
uhps fn, x, fodYiksa esa ls lgh mÙkj pquAsa options given below.
A B C D A B C D
(1) iii i iv ii (1) iii i iv ii
(2) iii ii iv i (2) iii ii iv i
(3) i iv iii ii (3) i iv iii ii
(4) ii iv iii i (4) ii iv iii i
147. fuEu esa ls dkSu lk ikni jksxk.kqvksa ds fy;s eqDrthoh 147. Which of the following is a free living
lw{etSfod tSofu;U=.k dkjd gS ? microbial biocontrol agent for plant
pathogens?
(1) jkbtksil (2) VªkbdksMekZ
(1) Rhizopus (2) Trichoderma
(3) ysMhcMZ chVy (4) Xyksel (3) Lady bird beetle (4) Glomus
148. fuEu esa ls dkSulk ,d ukbVªkstu fLFkjdkjh tho 148. Which one of the following is not a
ugha gS? nitrogen-fixing organism?
(1) ,ukfcuk (2) ukWLVkWd (1) Anabaena (2) Nostoc
(3) ,tksVkscSDVj (4) L;wMkseksukl (3) Azotobacter (4) Pseudomonas
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149. igyk vkuqokaf'kd inkFkZ laHkor;k Fkk :- 149. The first genetic material probably was :-
(1) çksVhu (1) Protein
(2) dkcksgZ kbMªsV (2) Carbohydrates
(3) DNA (3) DNA
(4) RNA (4) RNA
150. vlR; dFku dks vafdr dhft, - 150. Mark the incorrect statement -
(1) DNA çfrÑfrdj.k ds nkSjku] DNA ds nksuksa (1) During DNA replication, both strands
jTtqdksa dh çfrfyfi curh gSA of DNA are copied.
(2) vuqy[s ku ds nkSjku DNA dk ,d jTtqd m- (2) In transcription one of the DNA
RNA esa vuqyfs [kr gksrk gSA strands is transcribed into m-RNA.
(3) vuqy[s ku esa ,d ,dy thu dk dbZ ckj (3) In transcription a single gene can be
vuqy[s ku gks ldrk gSA transcribed several times.
(4) During transcription unwinding of
(4) vuqy[s ku ds nkSjku DNA dk vdqaMyu gsfydst
DNA is carried out by helicase
}kjk fd;k tkrk gSA
Hkkx-D: tho foKku ¼çk.khfoKku½ PART-D: BIOLOGY (ZOOLOGY)
SECTION-A
[k.M++-A
151. dkSu lk tho rackdw ds ikS/kksa dh tM+ksa dks laØfer 151. Which organism infects the roots of a
dj mldh iSnkokj dks dkQh de dj nsrk gS? tobacco plant and causes a great
(1) cSflyl Fkwfjaft,afll reduction in yield?
(2) esyksbMksxkbuh budksxuhVk (1) Bacillus thuringiensis
(2) Meloidogyne incognita
(3) LVSQkbyksdkWdl
(3) Staphylococcus
(4) ,sLdsfjl
(4) Ascaris
152. fuEu esa ls fdl lajpuk esa lSMy lfU/k gksrh gS? 152. Which of the following structures have
(1) á;wesjl rFkk vales[kyk ds e/;A saddle joint?
(1) Between humerus and pectoral girdle.
(2) ,Vyl o ,fDll ds e/;A
(2) Between atlas and axis.
(3) VklZy ds e/;A (3) Between tarsals.
(4) vaxwBs ds dkiZy rFkk esVk dkiZy ds e/;A (4) Between carpal and metacarpal of thumb.
153. DNA dh i`FkDÑr ifV~V;ksa dks ,xjkst tsy ls 153. The separated bands of DNA are cut from
dkVdj fudkyrs gS] vkSj tsy ds VqdM+ksa ls fu"df"kZr the agarose gel and extracted from the
dj ysrs gSA bl çfØ;k dks D;k dgrs gS :- gel piece. This process is known as :-
(1) {kkyu (1) Elution
(2) ikjxeu (2) Transduction
(3) vuqçokg lalk/ku (3) Downstream processing
(4) :ikUrj.k (4) Transformation
154. ekuo efLr"d ds lUnHkZ esa lR; dk p;u djsa 154. Choose the correct statement w.r.t
human brain–
(1) vuqefLr"d lcls cM+k Hkkx gSA
(1) Cerebellum is the largest part of brain.
(2) izefLr"d efLr"d LraEHk dk ,d lajpukRed (2) Cerebrum is a structural constituent
Hkkx gSA of brain stem.
(3) Optic lobes are present in forebrain.
(3) n`d fi.M vxz efLr"d esa mifLFkr gSA
(4) Corpora quadrigemina is present in
(4) dkiksjZ k DokMªhtsfeuk e/; efLr"d es mifLFkr gSA midbrain.
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155. iksfy;ks Vhds dk ekuo ij ç;ksx djus ls igys 155. Transgenic _______ are used to test the
bldh lqj{kk tk¡p ds fy, ikjthuh _______ dk safety of polio vaccine before they are used
mi;ksx fd;k tkrk gSA on humans.
(1) pwgksa (2) HkSalksa (1) Mice (2) Buffalos
(3) dqÙkksa (4) fcYyh;ksa (3) Dogs (4) Cats
156. dSVsdksykehu fuEu esa ls ,d ds vfrfjDr vU; lHkh 156. Catecholamines are associated with all
ls lEcf/kr gksrs gS: the following except:
(1) iqryh dk izlkj (2) mPp jDr pki (1) Pupillary dilation (2) Hypertension
(3) izksVhu vi?kVu (4) Xykbdkstsusfll (3) Proteolysis (4) Glycogenesis
157. LrEHk-I dks LrEHk-II ls lqesfyr dhft, vkSj lgh dk 157. Match the column-I with column-II and
p;u dhft, :- choose the correct option :-
LrEHk-I LrEHk-II Column-I Column-II
(a) Amp R
(i) Restriction
(a) AmpR (i) çfrca/ku ,atkbe
enzyme
(b) pBR-322 (ii) çfrtSfod çfrjks/kh (b) pBR-322 (ii) Antibiotic
thu resistance gene
(c) GAATTC (iii) Ikgpku vuqØae (c) GAATTC (iii) Recognition
(d) Hind II (iv) Dyksfuax laokgd sequence
(d) Hind II (iv) Cloning vector
(1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
(1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
(3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(4) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(4) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
158. fuEu esa ls gkeksuZ dk dkSu lk lewg IykTek f>Yyh 158. Which of the following set of hormones
ij mifLFkr xzkfg;ksa ls ca/krk gS? bind with receptors present on plasma
membrane?
(1) FSH, ,LVªkstsu
(1) FSH, estrogen
(2) ,UMªkstsu, izkstsLVsjkWu
(2) Androgen, progesterone
(3) ,fMªuyhu, XywdkxkWu (3) Adrenaline, glucagon
(4) Fkk;jkWfDlu, lsØsfVu (4) Thyroxine, secretin
159. NksVs jklk;fud la'ysf"kr vkWfyxksU;wfDy;ksVkbM tks 159. Small chemically synthesized oligonucleotides
DNA {ks= ds iwjd gksrs gS] mUgsa D;k dgrs gS? that are complementary to the regions of DNA
(1) miØked is called?
(2) VSd ikWyhejst (1) Primers
(3) çfrca/ku ,atkbe (2) Taq polymerase
(4) ih lh vkj (3) Restriction enzyme
(4) PCR
NEET (Pre-Medical) | Excel, Conquer, Master Pro, Master Pro Elite Batch | Major Test-2 41
160. fuEu esa ls fdrus gkeksuZ 'kjhj esa dSfYl;e lUrqyu 160. How many of the given hormones play a
esa egRoiw.kZ Hkwfedk fuHkkrs gSa? significant role in calcium balance in the
a. iSjkFkkeksu
Z b. Fkk;jksdSYlhVksfuu body?
c. Fkk;eksflu d. Fkk;jkWfDlu a. Parathormone b. Thyrocalcitonin
(1) a rFkk c (2) b rFkk c c. thymosin d. Thyroxine
(1) a and c (2) b and c
(3) c rFkk d (4) a rFkk b
(3) c and d (4) a and b
161. fuEu esa ls dkSuls izØeksa / rduhdksa dk lekos'k 161. Which of the following processes /
vk/kqfud tSo çks|kSfxdh esa fd;k tkrk gS ? techniques are included under modern
(A) ik=s (bu ohVªks) fu"kspu }kjk ij[kuyh f'k'kq dk biotechnology?
164. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdlesa@fduesa nksgjk can ifjlapj.k 164. Which of these has a double closed type
ra= ik;k tkrk gS \ of circulatory system?
(1) d‚djksp] eNyh (1) Cockroach, Fish
(2) eNyh] es< a d (2) Fish, Frog
(3) dsp
a v
q k] euq"; (3) Earthworm, Human
(4) i{kh] euq"; (4) Birds, Human
Space for Rough Work
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165. usÝksu esa dkSuls inkFkksZa dk iqujko'kks"k.k lfØ; :i 165. Which substances are reabsorbed actively
ls gksrk gS ? in nephron?
(1) Xywdkst] ty (1) Glucose, water
(2) Xywdkst] Na+ (2) Glucose, Na+
(3) vehuksa vEy] ;wfj;k (3) Amino acids, Urea
(4) Na+ ty (4) Na+, Water
166. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdls ekuo ân; dk islesdj dgk 166. Which of the following is considered as
tkrk gS \ pacemaker of human heart?
(1) SA ?kq.Mh (SA Node) (1) SA node
(2) AV ?kq.Mh (AV Node) (2) AV node
(3) iqjfdats js'ks (3) Purkinje fibres
(4) fgt dk c.My (4) Bundle of His
167. fuEu esa ls fdrus tho f}ik'oZ lefefr çnf'kZr djrs 167. How many organisms show bilateral
gS? symmetry?
gkbMªk, ;wIySDVsyk, vkWfjfy;k, Iysusfj;k, ,Ldsfjl, Hydra, Euplectella, Aurelia, Planaria, Ascaris,
oqpjs sfj;k, ,Msefl;k rFkk Qkblsfy;k Wuchereria, Adamsia and Physalia
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 1 (4) 4 (1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 1 (4) 4
168. ekuo ân; esa v/kZpaækdkj dikVksa ds can gksus dk 168. Cause of closure of semilunar valves in
human heart is :-
D;k dkj.k gS ?
(1) Ventricular diastole and increase in
(1) fuy;h f'kfFkyu o fuy;h nkc dk c<+ukA ventricular pressure.
(2) Ventricular systole and increase in
(2) fuy;h ladqpu o fuy;h nkc dk c<+ukA ventricular pressure.
(3) fuy;h f'kfFkyu o fuy;h nkc dk de gksukA (3) Ventricular diastole and decrease in
ventricular pressure.
(4) vkfyanh; f'kfFkyu o vkfyanh; nkc dk de gksukA (4) Atrial diastole and decrease in atrial
pressure.
169. fuEu esa vlR; dFku dk p;u dhft;sA 169. Select the incorrect statement -
(1) piVs Ñfe;ksa esa vkgkj uky nks fNæksa ds ek/;e (1) Platyhelminthes have double
ls ckgj [kqyrh gSA vr] budk ikpura= viw.kZ opening of digestive system, so it is
gksrk gSA called incomplete.
(2) [kqyk ifjlapj.k esa dksf'kdk,sa jDr ds lh/ks (2) In open circulatory system, cell bath
lEidZ esa jgrh gSaA in blood.
(3) vf/kdka'k Liat vlefer gksrs gSaA (3) Sponges are mostly asymmetrical.
(4) o;Ld bdkbuksM~eV sZ k esa vjh; lefefr gksrh gSA (4) In adult Echinodermata, radial
symmetry is present.
NEET (Pre-Medical) | Excel, Conquer, Master Pro, Master Pro Elite Batch | Major Test-2 43
170. çkstsLVklVZ ds ckjs esa lgh dFku dks igpkfu, \ 170. Identify the correct statement about
(1) ;s rkack ekspd vr: xHkkZ'k;h ;qfä gSA Progestasert?
(1) They are Cu releasing IUDs
(2) ;s xHkZfujks/kd xksyh;k¡ gSA
(2) They are oral contraceptive pills
(3) ;s nqX/k L=o.k çfØ;k dks jksdrs gSA (3) They prevent lactation process
(4) ;s gkeksu
Z ekspd var: xHkkZ'k;h ;qfä gSA (4) They are the hormone releasing IUDs
173. iqu%mi;ksx okys xHkZfujks/kd dh igpku dhft, & 173. Identify the reusable contraceptive.
(1) daMkse (2) vUrjksi
Z (1) Condom (2) Implants
(3) fujks/k (4) Mk;Ýke (3) Nirodh (4) Diaphragm
174. ;kSoukjEHk ds le; izR;sd v.Mk’k; esa fdruh 174. At the time of puberty, how many
izkFkfed iqfVdk;sa gksrh gSa? primary follicles exist in each ovary?
(1) 60,000 – 80,000 (2) 450 – 580 (1) 60,000 – 80,000 (2) 450 – 580
(3) 1 – 1.5 yk[k (4) 'kwU; – ,d (3) 1 – 1.5 lacs (4) Zero – one
175. jl/kkuh ikS/kksa dh dksf'kdk dk fdrus çfr'kr Hkkx 175. Vacuoles in plants cells can occupy upto:
rd ?ksj ldrh gS : (1) 60% volume of the cell
(1) 60% dksf'kdk dk vk;ru (2) 80% volume of the cell
(2) 80% dksf'kdk dk vk;ru
(3) 75% dksf'kdk dk vk;ru (3) 75% volume of the cell
(4) 90% dksf'kdk dk vk;ru (4) 90% volume of the cell
NEET (Pre-Medical) | Excel, Conquer, Master Pro, Master Pro Elite Batch | Major Test-2 44
176. vifjiDo ylhdk.kq, dgk¡ ij çfrtu laosnu'khy 176. Differentiation of immature lymphocytes
ylhdk.kqvksa esa foHksfnr gksrs gS :- into antigen-sensitive lymphocytes occurs
in:
(1) Iyhgk esa
(1) Spleen
(2) ;Ñr esa
(2) Liver
(3) vfLFkeTtk rFkk Fkkbel esa (3) Bone marrow and Thymus
(4) f}rh;d ylhdkHk vaxksa esa (4) Secondary lymphoid organs
177. LiesfZ VM~l ds 'kqØk.kq esa :ikUrj.k ds i'pkr~ buds 177. After the transformation of spermatids
flj ,d izdkj dh dksf’kdkvksa 'X’ esa /kl tkrs gS into sperm, their heads become
embedded in a cell called 'X' and are
rFkk var esa 'Y’ ls ,d izØe }kjk eqDr gksrs gS ftls
finally released from 'Y' by the process
'Z’ dgrsa gSA X, Y rFkk Z dks igpkfu,A
called 'Z'. Identify X, Y and Z :
X Y Z X Y Z
(1) LiesVZ ksxksfu;k vf/ko`"k.k oh;Zlspu (1) Spermatogonia Epididymis Insemination
(2) fyfMax 'kqØokgd izlo (2) Leydig Vas deferens Parturition
(3) lVksy Z h 'kqØokgd LifeZ,’ku (3) Sertoli Seminiferous Spermiation
ufydk;sa tubule
(4) Lise
Z sVkslkbV 'kqØokgd 'kqØtud (4) Spermatocyte Seminiferous Spermiogenesis
ufydk;sa ufydk Tubule
178. çksVhu lap; djus okyk vo.khZ yod gS – 178. The protein storing leucoplast are –
(1) çksVhuyod (2) e.Myod (1) Aleuroplast (2) Amyloplast
(3) rsy yod (4) gfjr yod (3) Elaioplast (4) Chloroplast
179. fuEu esa ls fdl rduhd esa thfor ÅÙkdksa esa oSÑfrd 179. Which one of the following technique
dkf;Zdh; ifjorZuksa dk ,dne lgh irk yxkus ds uses strong magnetic fields and non-
fy, rhoz pqEcdh; {ks=ksa rFkk vuk;udkjh fofdj.kksa ionising radiations to accurately detect
dk ç;ksx fd;k tkrk gS? pathological and physiological changes in
(1) X-fdj.k jsfM;ksxzkQh living tissues?
(1) X-rays imaging
(2) vfHkdfyr VkseksxzkQh
(2) Computed tomography
(3) pqEcdh; vuqukn besftax
(3) Magnetic resonance imaging
(4) thowfr ijh{kk
(4) Biopsy
180. v)Zlw=h foHkktu dh fuEufyf[kr ?kVukvksa dks lgh 180. Arrange the following events of meiosis
Øe esa O;ofLFkr dfj;s : in correct sequence :
(i) thu fofue; (i) Crossing over
(ii) lw=;qXeu (ii) Synapsis
(iii) D;ktesVk dk mikarhHkou (iii) Terminalisation of chiasmata
(iv) dsfUædk dk foyqIr gksuk (iv) Disappearance of nucleolus
(1) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) (2) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i) (1) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) (2) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i)
(3) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii) (4) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv) (3) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii) (4) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)
NEET (Pre-Medical) | Excel, Conquer, Master Pro, Master Pro Elite Batch | Major Test-2 45
181. fuEu xzkQ lef"V esa fdl izdkj dk izkd`frd oj.k 181. This graph indicates which type of
bafxr djrk gS \ natural selection in a population?
183. fdl çdkj dh midyk esa E;wdl dks ,d fuf'pr 183. Movement of mucus in a specific
fn'kk esa xfr djk;h tkrh gS % direction over epithelium is function of:
(1) LrEHkkdkj midyk (1) Columnar epithelia
(2) ?kukdkj midyk (2) Cuboidal epithelia
(3) i{ekHkh midyk (3) Ciliated epithelia
(4) 'kYdh midyk (4) Squamous epithelia
184. vk/kqfud gkseks lsfi;Ul mn~fodflr gq, 184. Modern Homo sapiens evolved between:-
(1) 75,000-10,000 o"kZ iwoZ (1) 75,000-10,000 years ago
(2) 1,00,000-40,000 o"kZ iwoZ (2) 1,00,000-40,000 years ago
(3) 18000-1000 o"kZ iwoZ (3) 18000-1000 years ago
(4) 2,00,000-1,00,000 o"kZ iwoZ (4) 2,00,000-1,00,000 years ago
185. dkiqyVs jh iSM ik;k tkrk gS : 185. Copulatory pad found at:
(1) es<+d ds vxzikn~ dh vk[kjh maxyh ij (1) Last digit of frog forelimb
(2) es<+d ds vxzikn~ dh nwljh maxyh ij (2) Second digit of frog forelimb
(3) es<+d ds vxzikn~ dh rhljh maxyh ij (3) Third digit of frog forelimb
(4) es<+d ds vxzikn~ dh igyh maxyh ij
(4) First digit of frog fore limb
Space for Rough Work
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[k.M++-B SECTION-B
186. ,xjkst tsy bysDVªksQksjsfll }kjk i`Fkd fd, x, 186. Which of the given statements is correct
DNA [kaMksa ds fo"k; esa fn;s x, dFkuksa esa ls dkSulk in the context of observing DNA
lgh gS \ fragments separated by agarose gel
(1) DNA dks vojDr fofdj.k esa ns[kk tk ldrk electrophoresis?
(2) DNA dks fcuk vfHkjaftr fd;s n`'; izdk'k esa radiation
(2) DNA can be seen without staining in
ns[kk tk ldrk gSA
visible light.
(3) bFkhfM;e czksekbM ls vfHkjaftr DNA dks n`';
(3) Ethidium bromide stained DNA can
izdk'k esa ns[kk tk ldrk gSA
be seen in visible light.
(4) bFkhfM;e czksekbM ls vfHkjaftr DNA dks
(4) Ethidium bromide stained DNA can
ijkcSaxuh fofdj.k esa ns[kk tk ldrk gSA
be seen under exposure to UV light.
187. dFku (A): raf=dk dksf'kdk,sa mRrstu'khy dksf'kdk,sa 187. Assertion (A): Neurons are excitable cell.
Reason(R): Their plasma membrane are
gSaA
in polarised state.
dkj.k (R): mudh IykTek f>Yyh /kzqfor voLFkk esa
(1) Assertion and Reason both are correct
gksrh gSA and Reason is correct explanation of
(1) dFku vkSj dkj.k nksu
a ks lR; vkSj dkj.k , dFku Assertion.
dh lgh O;k[;k gSaA (2) Assertion and Reason both are correct
(2) dFku vkSj dkj.k nksu
a ks lR; ijUrq dkj.k, dFku but Reason is not correct
explanation of Assertion.
dh lgh O;k[;k ugha gSaA
(3) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect
(3) dFku lR; gS ijUrq dkj.k vlR; gSaA
(4) Assertion is wrong but Reason is
(4) dFku vlR; gS ijUrq dkj.k lR; gSaA correct
188. _________ ,d ,dy jTtqd DNA ;k RNA gS 188. ________ is a single stranded DNA or
tks ,d fofdj.k lfØ; v.kq ds lkFk tqM+k gksrk gS RNA, tagged with a radioactive molecule
vkSj bls mRifjofrZr thu dk irk yxkus ds fy, and is used to detect mutated genes.
mi;ksx fd;k tkrk gSA Choose the option that correctly fills the
ml fodYi dk p;u dhft, tks fjDr LFkku dh blank.
iwfrZ lgh :i ls djrk gSA (1) Plasmid
(1) IykfTeM
(2) Primer
(2) miØked
(3) Molecular Probe
(3) vkf.od laijhf{k= ¼izksc½
(4) RNAi
(4) RNAi
NEET (Pre-Medical) | Excel, Conquer, Master Pro, Master Pro Elite Batch | Major Test-2 47
189. dFku (A): izR;sd is'khrUrqd esa ,dkUrj :i esa xgjs 189. Assertion (A): Each myofibril has
rFkk gYds cSUM ik, tkrs gSA alternate dark and light bands on it.
Reason(R): Myofibril has specific
dkj.k (R): is'khrUrqd esa ,fDVu rFkk ek;ksflu distribution pattern of actin and myosin
izksVhuksa dk fof'k"V forj.k gksrk gSA proteins.
(1) dFku vkSj dkj.k nksu
a ks lR; vkSj dkj.k , dFku (1) Assertion and Reason both are
correct and Reason is correct
dh lgh O;k[;k gSaA explanation of Assertion.
(2) dFku vkSj dkj.k nksu
a ks lR; ijUrq dkj.k, dFku (2) Assertion and Reason both are
dh lgh O;k[;k ugha gSaA correct but Reason is not correct
explanation of Assertion.
(3) dFku lR; gS ijUrq dkj.k vlR; gSaA
(3) Assertion is correct but Reason is
(4) dFku vlR; gS ijUrq dkj.k lR; gSaA incorrect
(4) Assertion is wrong but Reason is
correct
190. dks'kk foHkktu ds fy, fuEufyf[kr voLFkkvksa esa ls 190. Which stages of cell division do the
dkSu Øe'k% A vkSj B dk çfrfuf/kRo djrk gS % following figures A and B represent
respectively :
(1) (2)
(1) (2)
(1) Ik'p iwokZoLFkk - vaR;koLFkk
(1) Late prophase - Telophase
(2) e/;koLFkk - vaR;koLFkk
(2) Metaphase - Telophase
(3) vaR;koLFkk - e/;koLFkk
(3) Telophase - Metaphase
(4) Ik'p Ik'pkoLFkk - iwokZoLFkk
(4) Late Anaphase - Prophase
191. LrEHk&A dk LrEHk&B ls feyku djks : 191. Match the column-A with column-B :
LrEHk-A LrEHk-B Column-A Column-B
i. IRV a 1200 ml i. IRV a 1200 ml
ii ERV b 1000 ml ii ERV b 1000 ml
iii TV c 2500 ml iii TV c 2500 ml
iv RV d 500 ml iv RV d 500 ml
(1) i - c, ii - b, iii - d, iv - a (1) i - c, ii - b, iii - d, iv - a
(2) i - a, ii - c, iii - d, iv - b (2) i - a, ii - c, iii - d, iv - b
(3) i - b, ii - c, iii - a, iv - d (3) i - b, ii - c, iii - a, iv - d
(4) i - d, ii - b, iii - d, iv – a (4) i - d, ii - b, iii - d, iv – a
Space for Rough Work
NEET (Pre-Medical) | Excel, Conquer, Master Pro, Master Pro Elite Batch | Major Test-2 48
192. fuEufyf[kr LraHk dk feyku djk;sA 192. Match the following columns.
LraHk-I LraHk-II Column-I Column-II
(A) (i) LikWfUtyk (A) (i) Spongilla
(1) (A)-(iii), (B)-(ii), (C)-(i), (D)-(iv) (1) (A)-(iii) (B)-(ii) (C)-(i) (D)-(iv)
(2) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iii), (C)-(i), (D)-(iv) (2) (A)-(ii) (B)-(iii) (C)-(i) (D)-(iv)
(3) (A)-(iv), (B)-(i), (C)-(ii), (D)-(iii) (3) (A)-(iv) (B)-(i) (C)-(ii) (D)-(iii)
(4) (A)-(iii), (B)-(i), (C)-(ii), (D)-(iv) (4) (A)-(iii) (B)-(i) (C)-(ii) (D)-(iv)
194. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dsUæd dks [kkstk Fkk? 194. Who among the following discovered a
nucleus:
(1) ,UVksu oku Y;qosugkWd
(1) Anton Von Leeuwenhoek
(2) jkWcVZ czkmu (2) Robert Brown
(3) eSFkh;l LykbMsu (3) Matthias Schleiden
(4) fFk;ksMksj 'oku (4) Theodore Schwann
195. ;fn dksbZ o;Ld efgyk Mªx ysrh gS tks LH ds eqDr 195. If an adult human female took a drug
gksus dks jksdrk gS] fuEu esa ls D;k ugha gksxk? that inhibited the release of LH, which of
the following would not occur?
(1) v.Mtuuh dk ifjo/kZu (1) Development of Oogonia
(2) Release of an ovum from a mature
(2) ifjiDo iqfVdk ls v.Mk.kq dk eqDr gksuk follicle
(3) Secretion of FSH from the pituitary
(3) ih;w"k ls FSH dk L=ko.k
(4) Secretion of estrogen by the developing
(4) fodklh; iqfVdk }kjk ,LVªkstu dk L=ko.k follicle
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196. uhps fn, x, nks dFku gSa : 196. Given below are two statements
Statement I : Small disc-shaped
dFku I: xq.klw=fcUnq dh lrg ij r'rjh dh rjg structures at the surface of the
centromere are called kinetochores.
lajpuk dks dkbusVksdksj dgrs gSA
Statement II : Kinetochores serve as the
dFku II: xq.klw= esa dkbusVksdksj og txg gS tgk¡ sites of attachment of spindle fibres to
the chromosomes.
ij rqdZ /kkxs tqM+rs gSA Choose the correct answer from the
options given below
uhps fn, fodYiksa esa ls lgh mÙkj pqusa & (1) Both Statement I and Statement II
(1) dFku I vkSj dFku II nksuksa vlR; gSaA are incorrect.
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II
(2) dFku I lR; gS ysfdu dFku II vlR; gSaA is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement
(3) dFku I vlR; gS ysfdu dFku II lR; gSaA II is correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II
(4) dFku I vkSj dFku II nksuksa lR; gSaA
are correct.
197. LiksjkstksbV (sporozoite), tks ,d eknk ,ukWfQyht 197. The sporozoites that cause infection
ePNj ds ,d euq"; dks dkVus ij laØe.k mRiUu when a female Anopheles mosquito bites
djrk gS] og ik;k tkrk gS a human being are found in
(1) ekuo ds ;Ñr esa (1) liver of human
(2) ePNj dh RBCs esa (2) RBCs of mosquito
(3) ePNj dh ykj ;qDr xzfUFk;ksa esa (3) salivary glands of mosquito
(4) intestine of human
(4) ekuo dh vk¡r esa
198. fuEu esa ls dkSu ekuo mf}dklh; bfrgkl ds lanHkZ 198. Which of the following is correct with
esa lgh gS & respect to the evolutionary history of
(1) vkWLVªsyksfifFkdl 2.0 mya mn~Hko gq,A man?
(2) gkseks gsfcfyl ,d vPNs f’kdkjh FksA (1) Australopithecus evolved 2.0 mya
(3) gkseks bjsDVl us i’kqikyu fd 'kq:vkr dhA (2) Homo habilis was a good hunter
(3) Homo erectus developed domestication
(4) vkWLVªsyksfifFkdl iwohZ vesfjdk ds ?kkl ds eSnkuksa
(4) Australopithecus lived in east
esa jgrs FksA
American grasslands
199. eknk frypV~Vs esa D;k ugha gksrk gSA 199. Female cockroach lacks:
(1) xqnh; ywe (2) xqnk 'kwd (1) Anal cerci (2) Anal style
(3) tuukax FkSyh (4) ia[k (3) Genital pouch (4) Wings
200. Xykses:yj jä çokg esa fxjkoV lfØ; dj ldrk gS: 200. A fall in glomerular blood flow can activate-
(1) ADH ds la'ys"k.k gsrq U;wjksgkbiksQbfll dksA (1) The neurohypophysis to synthesize
(2) jsfUuu ds ekspu gsrq JG dksf'kdkvksa dksA ADH.
(2) JG cells to release rennin.
(3) jsfuu&,aft;ksVsfUlu fØ;kfof/k dksA
(3) Renin-angiotensin mechanism.
(4) ân; ds vkfyUnksa dks ,fVª;y usfVª;wjsfVd dkjd
(4) Atria of the heart to release atrial
lzko.k dksA natriuretic factor.
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