nucleic acid 4

22-15 Recombinant DNA and Genetic Engineering 833
There is no known form of life that is not subject to attack by viruses. Viruses
attack bacteria, plants, animals, and humans. Many human diseases are of viral ori-
gin. Among them are the common cold, mumps, measles, smallpox, rabies, influenza,
infectious mononucleosis, hepatitis, and AIDS.
Viruses most often attach themselves to the outside of specific cells in a host
organism. An enzyme within the protein overcoat of the virus catalyzes the break-
down of the cell membrane, opening a hole in the membrane. The virus then injects
its DNA or RNA into the cell. Once inside, this nucleic acid material is mistaken by
the host cell for its own, whereupon that cell begins to translate and/or transcribe
the viral nucleic acid. When all the virus components have been synthesized by the
host cell, they assemble automatically to form many new virus particles. Within 20 to
30 minutes after a single molecule of viral nucleic acid enters the host cell, hundreds
of new virus particles have formed. So many are formed that they eventually burst the
host cell and are free to infect other cells. ◀ ▶ Viral infections are more dif-
If a virus contains DNA, the host cell replicates the viral DNA in a manner simi- ficult to treat than bacterial
lar to the way it replicates its own DNA. The newly produced viral DNA then proceeds infections because viruses, unlike
bacteria, replicate inside cells. It
to make the proteins needed for the production of protein coats for additional viruses. is difficult to design drugs that
An RNA-containing virus is called a retrovirus. Once inside a host, such viruses prevent the replication of the virus
first make viral DNA. This reverse synthesis is governed by the enzyme reverse tran- that do not also affect the normal
scriptase. The template is the viral RNA rather than DNA. The viral DNA so produced activities of the host cells.
then produces additional viral DNA and the proteins necessary for the protein coats.
The AIDS (acquired immunodeficiency syndrome) virus is an example of a retro-
virus. This virus has an affinity for a specific type of white blood cell called a helper T
cell, which is an important part of the body’s immune system. When helper T cells are
unable to perform their normal functions as a result of such viral infection, the body
becomes more susceptible to infection and disease.
A vaccine is a preparation containing an inactive or weakened form of a virus or
bacterium. The antibodies produced by the body against these specially modified
viruses or bacteria effectively act against the naturally occurring active forms as well.
Thanks to vaccination programs, many diseases, such as polio and mumps (caused by
RNA-containing viruses) and smallpox and yellow fever (caused by DNA-containing
viruses), are now seldom encountered.
Section 22-14 Quick Quiz

1. Which of the following statements about a virus is correct?
a. Bacteria are not subject to attack by a virus.
b. A virus contains both DNA and RNA.
c. A virus cannot reproduce itself without aid of a host cell.
d. no correct response
2. Which of the following pairings of concepts is an incorrect pairing?
a. vaccine and inactive virus
b. DNA-containing virus and retrovirus
c. RNA-containing virus and viral DNA
Answers: 1. c; 2. b
22-15 Recombinant DNA and Genetic Engineering

L e a r n i n g F oc u s
Be familiar with procedures by which recombinant DNA is produced; be able to give examples of
important end products obtained using genetic engineering techniques.
Ever-increasing knowledge about DNA molecules and how they function under
various chemical conditions has opened the door to an increasingly important
field of technology known by several names, including genetic engineering, genetic
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834 Chapter 22 Nucleic Acids
Figure 22-29 Percentage of 54%

major crops in the United States Soybeans
that were genetically engineered in 93%
2000 and in 2013.
61%
Cotton
90%
25%
Corn
90%
0 20 40 60 80 100
2000 2013
modification, bioengineering, and biotechnology. The term genetic engineering will be

used in this text to refer to this developing field.
Genetic engineering is the process whereby an organism is intentionally changed at
the molecular (DNA) level so that it exhibits different traits. The first organisms to
be genetically engineered were bacteria in 1973 and mice in 1974. Insulin-producing
bacteria were commercialized in 1982, and genetically modified food crops have been
available since 1994. Genetically modified forms of foods and fibers now dominate
▶ Genetic engineering has been several major crops in the United States, as is shown by the data in Figure 22-29. ◀
alluded to in several sections in For the plant crops listed in Figure 22-29, the most common genetic modification
previous chapters of the text, involves introduction of a herbicide-tolerance trait. A gene is inserted that allows the
although no details were given
about the process. Mentions of crops to be sprayed with the weed killer glyphosate (also known as Roundup) without
this subject are found in the fol- harm to the plants. These crops also frequently have an insect-resistant trait that is
lowing locations: obtained from the presence of a gene obtained from the soil bacteria Bacillus thuring-
Section 19-5 in the omega-3 fatty iensis. This gene’s presence causes the plants to produce their own pesticide. Plantings
acid discussion of insect-resistant corn and cotton are common and research continues on tomato
Section 19-6 in the trans-fatty plants that carry this gene.
acid discussion In 2011, the United States Department of Agriculture (USDA) gave approval
Section 20-3 in the complete pro- for planting corn that is genetically modified to produce the enzyme a-amylase, an
tein discussion enzyme that rapidly breaks down starch into glucose (Section 18-6). For corn des-
Section 20-10 in the insulin tined for ethanol production, the presence of this amylase improves the economics of
discussion the production process.
Section 21-8 in the extremozyme Two additional examples, still in the developmental stage, of the direction that
discussion genetic engineering can take are:
Section 21-11 in the “grapefruit 1. Genetically engineered tomato plants with a longer shelf life now exist. In this
effect” discussion
case, gene insertion is not needed. Instead, a gene naturally present in the tomato
plant that is involved in the ripening process is “turned off ” (deactivated). This
slows, but does not completely stop, the ripening process, resulting in less over-
ripening, softening, and overall deterioration.
2. A strawberry gene is introduced into a mustard plant variety that is very sus-
ceptible to attack by spider mites. The gene produces a chemical attractant for
predator mites that eat the spidermites, thus solving a “mitey” problem.
Bacteria are now routinely used as “protein factories.” These genetically engi-
neered bacteria, which contain genes for human proteins, can produce large quanti-
ties of designated proteins because of their rapid reproduction rate. Human proteins
in short supply that are produced in this manner include insulin (see Chemical
Connections 20-A—Substitutes for Human Insulin), erythropoietin (see Chemi-
cal Connections 22-D—Erythropoietin (EPO): Red Blood Cells, Mutations, and
Athletic Performance), and human growth hormone. Table 22-3 gives additional
▶ Table 22-3 STechnology

elected Human Proteins Produced Using Recombinant DNA
and Their Uses
Protein Treatment
insulin diabetes
erythropoietin (EPO) anemia
human growth hormone (HGH) stimulate growth
interleukins stimulate immune system
interferons leukemia and other cancers
lung surfactant protein respiratory distress
serum albumin plasma supplement
tumor necrosis factor (TNF) cancers
tissue plasminogen activator (TPA) heart attacks
epidermal growth factor healing of wounds and burns
fibroblast growth factor ulcers
examples of human proteins used in therapeutic medicine that have become available
through the use of genetic engineering technology.
Principles and Procedures of Genetic Engineering

Genetic engineering procedures involve a type of DNA called recombinant DNA.
Recombinant DNA is DNA that contains genetic material from two different organisms.
The notation rDNA is often used to designate recombinant DNA.
The bacterium E. coli, which is found in the intestinal tract of humans and ani-
mals, is the organism most often used in recombinant DNA experiments. Yeast cells
are also used, with increasing frequency, in this research.
In addition to their chromosomal DNA, E. coli (and other bacteria) contain
DNA in the form of small, circular, double-stranded molecules called plasmids. These
plasmids, which carry only a few genes, replicate independently of the chromosome.
Also, they are transferred relatively easily from one cell to another. Plasmids from E.
coli are used in recombinant DNA work.
The procedure used to obtain E. coli cells that contain recombinant DNA
involves the following steps (Figure 22-30):
Step 1: Cell membrane dissolution. E. coli cells of a specific strain are placed in a
solution that dissolves cell membranes, thus releasing the contents of the cells.
Step 2: Isolation of plasmid fraction. The released cell components are separated into
fractions, one fraction being the plasmids. The isolated plasmid fraction is the
material used in further steps.
Step 3: Cleavage of plasmid DNA. A special enzyme, called a restriction enzyme, is
used to cleave the double-stranded DNA of a circular plasmid. The result is a
linear (noncircular) DNA molecule.
Step 4: Gene removal from another organism. The same restriction enzyme is then
used to remove a desired gene from a chromosome of another organism.
Step 5: Gene–plasmid splicing. The gene (from Step 4) and the opened plasmid
(from Step 3) are mixed in the presence of the enzyme DNA ligase,
which splices the two together. This splicing, which attaches one end of
the gene to one end of the opened plasmid and attaches the other end of the
gene to the other end of the plasmid, results in an altered circular plasmid
(the recombinant DNA).
Figure 22-30 Recombinant Isolated plasmid

DNA is made by inserting a (bacterial DNA)
gene obtained from DNA of one E. coli bacterium
organism into the DNA from DNA from foreign cell
another kind of organism.
Desired
foreign gene
Plasmids
DNA segment is
“opened up” by
restriction enzyme.
Foreign gene is
“clipped out” by
restriction enzyme.
E. coli with Foreign gene and bacterial

recombinant DNA are spliced together in
DNA molecules the presence of DNA ligase
to produce recombinant DNA.
Step 6: Uptake of recombinant DNA. The altered plasmids (recombinant DNA) are
placed in a live E. coli culture, where they are taken up by the E. coli bacteria.
The E. coli culture into which the plasmids are placed need not be identical to
that from which the plasmids were originally obtained.
Note in Step 3 that the conversion of a circular plasmid into a linear DNA mol-
ecule requires a restriction enzyme. A restriction enzyme is an enzyme that recognizes
specific base sequences in DNA and cleaves the DNA in a predictable manner at these
sequences. The discovery of restriction enzymes made genetic engineering possible.
Restriction enzymes occur naturally in numerous types of bacterial cells. Their
function is to protect the bacteria from invasion by foreign DNA by catalyzing the
cleavage of the invading DNA. The term restriction relates to such enzymes placing a
“restriction” on the type of DNA allowed into the bacterial cells.
To understand how a restriction enzyme works, consider one that cleaves DNA
between G and A bases in the 5′-to-3′ direction in the sequence G–A–A–T–T–C.
This enzyme will cleave the double-helix structure of a DNA molecule in the manner
shown in Figure 22-31.
Figure 22-31 Cleavage pattern Cleavage point

resulting from the use of a 5' 3'
restriction enzyme that cleaves T T GAA T T C T G C A
DNA between G and A bases AA C T T AAGA C G T
in the 5′-to-3′ direction in the 3' 5'
sequence G!A!A!T!T!C. Cleavage point
The double-helix structure is not
cut straight across.
T T G Sticky ends A A T T C T G C A
AA C T T AA GA C G T
G
Cut gene Figure 22-32 The “sticky ends”
C T T
A A A A T T
C of the cut plasmid and the cut
T T
T T A A
A A
G gene are complementary and
Complementary combine to form recombinant
sticky ends DNA.
G G A A
T
TT T T
C AA C TA
G A
C A
T
T A
A T
A T A T A
G T A
C A A
A T
T
G G
T T
C C
Plasmid Cut plasmid Recombinant

DNA
Note that the double helix is not cut straight across; the individual strands are cut
at different points, giving a staircase cut. (Both cuts must be between G and A in the
5′-to-3′ direction.) This staircase cut leaves unpaired bases on each cut strand. These
ends with unpaired bases are called “sticky ends” because they are ready to “stick to”
(pair up with) a complementary section of DNA if they can find one.
If the same restriction enzyme used to cut a plasmid is also used to cut a gene from
another DNA molecule, the sticky ends of the gene will be complementary to those of
the plasmid. This enables the plasmid and gene to combine readily, forming a new, mod-
ified plasmid molecule. This modified plasmid molecule is called recombinant DNA.
In addition to the newly spliced gene, the recombinant DNA plasmid contains all of the
genes and characteristics of the original plasmid. Figure 22-32 shows diagrammatically
the match between sticky ends that occurs when plasmid and gene combine.
Step 6 involves inserting the recombinant DNA (modified plasmids) back into
E. coli cells. The process is called transformation. Transformation is the process of
incorporating recombinant DNA into a host cell.
The transformed cells then reproduce, resulting in large numbers of identical cells
called clones. Clones are cells with identical DNA that have descended from a single cell.
Within a few hours, a single genetically altered bacterial cell can give rise to thou-
sands of clones. Each clone has the capacity to synthesize the protein directed by the
foreign gene it carries.
Researchers are not limited to selection of naturally occurring genes for trans-
forming bacteria. Chemists have developed nonenzymatic methods of linking nucleo-
tides together such that they can construct artificial genes of any sequence they desire.
In fact, benchtop instruments are now available that can be programmed by a micro-
processor to synthesize any DNA base sequence automatically. The operator merely
enters a sequence of desired bases, starts the instrument, and returns later to obtain
the product. Such flexibility in manufacturing DNA has opened many doors, acceler-
ated the pace of recombinant DNA research, and redefined the term designer genes!
Section 22-15 Quick Quiz

1. The meaning for the lower case r in the designation rDNA is
a. restriction
b. recombinant
c. retro
(continued)
2. Which of the following statements about rDNA is correct?

a. It is naturally present in E. coli bacteria.
b. It is naturally present in restriction enzymes.
c. It contains genetic material from two different organisms.
3. The role of E. coli plasmids in obtaining rDNA is to
a. create “sticky ends” on an extracted gene
b. activate restriction enzymes
c. serve as a host for a “foreign gene”
4. A restriction enzyme is an enzyme that
a. prevents formation of rDNA
b. produces a straight-across cut in a DNA double helix
c. dissolves cell membranes
5. The process of inserting recombinant DNA into a host cell is called
a. translocation
b. transformation
c. cloning
Answers: 1. b; 2. c; 3. c; 4. d; 5. b
22-16 The Polymerase Chain Reaction

L e a r n i n g F oc u s
Be familiar with the nature of the polymermase chain reaction and what it accomplishes.
The polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is a method for rapidly producing multiple copies
of a DNA nucleotide sequence. Billions of copies of a specific DNA sequence (gene)
can be produced in a few hours via this reaction. The PCR is easy to carry out, requir-
ing only a few chemicals, a container, and a source of heat. (In actuality, the PCR
process is now completely automated.)
By means of the PCR process, DNA that is available only in very small quantities
can be amplified to quantities large enough to analyze. The PCR process, devised in
1983, has become a valuable tool for diagnosing diseases and detecting pathogens in
the body. It is now used in the prenatal diagnosis of a number of genetic disorders,
including muscular dystrophy and cystic fibrosis, and in the identification of bacterial
pathogens. It is also the definitive way to detect the AIDS virus.
The PCR process has also proved useful in certain types of forensic investiga-
tions. A DNA sample may be obtained from a single drop of blood or semen or a
single strand of hair at a crime scene and amplified by the PCR process. A forensic
chemist can then compare the amplified samples with DNA samples taken from sus-
pects. Work with DNA in the forensic area is often referred to as DNA fingerprinting.
DNA polymerase, an enzyme present in all living organisms, is a key substance
in the PCR process. It can attach additional nucleotides to a short starter nucleotide
▶ PCR temperature condi- chain, called a primer, when the primer is bound to a complementary strand of DNA
tions are higher than those in that functions as a template. The original DNA is heated to separate its strands, and
the human body. This is possible then primers, DNA polymerase, and deoxyribonucleotides are added so that the DNA
because the DNA polymerase polymerase can replicate the original strand. The process is repeated until, in a short
used was isolated from an organ-
ism that lives in the “hot pots” time, millions of copies of the original DNA have been made. ◀
of Yellowstone National Park at Figure 22-33 shows diagrammatically, in very simplified terms, the basic steps in
temperatures of 70°C–75°C. the PCR process.
22-16 The Polymerase Chain Reaction 839
5' Target area 3'

A DNA solution is heated
5' Target area 3' 90˚C
to cause the base-paired
double helix to unwind
into single strands. 3' Target area 5'
3' Target area 5'
5' Target area 3' 5' Target area 3'

Primers complementary to 50˚C
the DNA on either side of
3' Primer 5'
the target area of the single-
stranded DNA are added.
5' Primer 3'

DNA polymerase is used to
3' Primer 5' 70˚C 3' Target area 5'
extend the primers to create
segments of DNA identical
Cycle
to the original segment.
5' Primer 3' 5' Target area 3' 1

3' Primer 5' 3' Target area 5'
The process is repeated for
as many cycles as necessary, 3' Target area 5' Repeat 3' Target area 5'
and in a short time millions Cycle
of identical DNA molecules
5' Target area 3' cycle 5' Target area 3' 2
have been produced.
Figure 22-33 The basic steps, in simplified terms, of the polymerase chain reaction process.
Each cycle of the polymerase chain reaction doubles the number of copies of the target DNA
sequence. ◀ ▶ After n cycles of the PCR
process, the amount of DNA will
have increased 2n times.
210 is approximately 1000.
Section 22-16 Quick Quiz 20
2 is approximately 1,000,000.
1. The polymerase chain reaction is a method for rapidly Twenty-five cycles of the PCR
a. producing multiple copies of a DNA base sequence can be carried out in an hour in a
b. producing multiple copies of an individual base present in a DNA sequence process that is fully automated.
c. altering base sequence in a DNA segment
2. Each cycle of the polymerase chain reaction
a. doubles the number of product molecules
b. produces two new product molecules
c. removes three nucleotides from a reactant DNA molecule
Answers: 1. a; 2. a
Concepts to Remember
Nucleic acids. Nucleic acids are polymeric molecules in which RNA molecules. Five important types of RNA molecules, distin-
the repeating units are nucleotides. Cells contain two kinds of guished by their function, are ribosomal RNA (rRNA), messenger
nucleic acids—deoxyribonucleic acids (DNA) and ribonucleic RNA (mRNA), heterogeneous nuclear RNA (hnRNA), transfer
acids (RNA). The major biochemical functions of DNA and RNA (tRNA), and small nuclear RNA (snRNA) (Section 22-8).
RNA are, respectively, transfer of genetic information and Transcription. Transcription is the process in which the genetic
synthesis of proteins (Section 22-1). information encoded in the base sequence of DNA is copied
Nucleic acid building blocks. Three types of subunits are present into hnRNA/mRNA molecules (Section 22-9).
in a nucleic acid. They are (1) a pentose sugar (ribose or de- Gene. A gene is a portion of a DNA molecule that contains the
oxyribose), (2) a nitrogen-containing base (either a purine or a base sequences needed for the production of a specific hnRNA/
pyrimidine derivative), and (3) a phosphate group. The nitrogen- mRNA molecule. Genes are segmented, with portions called
containing bases are of five types: adenine (A), guanine (G), exons that contain genetic information and portions called
cytosine (C), thymine (T), and uracil (U) (Section 22-2). introns that do not convey genetic information (Section 22-9).
Nucleosides and nucleotides. A nucleoside is a compound Codon. A codon is a three-nucleotide sequence in mRNA that
formed from a pentose sugar and a purine or pyrimidine base codes for a specific amino acid needed during the process of
derivative. A nucleotide is a nucleoside to which a phosphate protein synthesis (Section 22-10).
group has been added (bonded to the sugar). Nucleotides are
the monomers for nucleic acid polymers (Section 22-3). Genetic code. The genetic code consists of all the mRNA
codons that specify either a particular amino acid or the
Primary nucleic acid structure. The “backbone” of a nucleic termination of protein synthesis (Section 22-10).
acid molecule is a constant alternating sequence of sugar and
phosphate groups. Each sugar unit has a nitrogen-containing Anticodon. An anticodon is a three-nucleotide sequence in
base attached to it (Section 22-4). tRNA that binds to a complementary sequence (a codon) in
mRNA (Section 22-11).
Complementary bases. Complementary bases are specific pairs
of bases in nucleic acid structures that hydrogen-bond to each Translation. Translation is the stage of protein synthesis in
other (Section 22-5). which the codons in mRNA are translated into amino acid
sequences of new proteins. Translation involves interactions
Secondary DNA structure. A DNA molecule exists as two between the codons of mRNA and the anticodons of tRNA
polynucleotide chains coiled around each other in a double-helix (Section 22-12).
arrangement. The double helix is held together by hydrogen
bonding between complementary pairs of bases. Only two Mutations. A point mutation is a mutation in which one base
base-pairing combinations occur: A with T and C with G in a DNA sequence is replaced with another base. A framework
(Section 22-5). mutation is a mutation that inserts or replaces a base in a DNA
sequence (Section 22-13).
DNA replication. DNA replication occurs when the two strands
of a parent DNA double helix separate and act as templates for Recombinant DNA. Recombinant DNA molecules are synthe-
the synthesis of new chains using the principle of complemen- sized by splicing a segment of DNA, usually a gene, from one
tary base pairing (Section 22-6). organism into the DNA of another organism (Section 22-15).
Chromosome. A chromosome is a structure that consists of Polymerase chain reaction. The polymerase chain reaction is a
an individual DNA molecule bound to a group of proteins method for rapidly producing many copies of a DNA sequence
(Section 22-6). (Section 22-16).
Exercises and Problems

Exercises and problems are arranged in matched pairs with 22-2 Indicate whether each of the following statements
the two members of a pair addressing the same concept(s). concerning nucleic acids is true or false.
The answer to the odd-numbered member of a pair is given a. The monomer units in nucleic acids are amino acids.
at the back of the book. Problems denoted with a ▲ involve b. The primary function for DNA is storage and
not only concepts found in the section under consideration transfer of genetic information.
but also concepts found in one or more earlier sections of c. RNA is found throughout a cell.
the chapter. d. RNA is passed from existing cells to new cells during
cell division.
Types of Nucleic Acids (Section 22-1)
Nucleotide Building Blocks (Section 22-2)
22-1 Indicate whether each of the following statements
concerning nucleic acids is true or false. 22-3 Indicate whether each of the following pentoses is
a. All cells in higher organisms contain both DNA present in DNA molecules.
and RNA. a. Ribose b. 2-Deoxyribose
b. Structurally, DNA, but not RNA, is an unbranched c.c. HOCH2 2 OO
HOCH d.d. HOCH2 2 OO
HOCH
OH
OH OH
OH
polymer.
c. Involvement with protein synthesis is the primary
function for RNA.
d. DNA is found primarily in a cell’s nucleus.
OH
OH HH OH
OH OH
OH
Exercises and Problems 840-a
22-4 Indicate whether each of the pentoses in Problem 22-3 is 22-14 Indicate whether each of the following statements about
present in RNA molecules. nucleosides is true or false.
a. Some, but not all, nucleosides contain deoxyribose.
22-5 With the help of Figure 22-2, identify each of the fol-
b. All nucleosides contain a phosphate group.
lowing nitrogen-containing bases as a purine derivative
or a pyrimidine derivative. c. Some, but not all, nucleosides contain a nitrogen-
containing base.
a. Cytosine b. Adenine
d. Both subunits in a nucleoside can be nitrogen-
c. c. O O d. d. O O
B B B B containing bases.
N N E H EH EH E H
N N N N 22-15 What is the name of the nucleoside that contains the
H NH
H NH N N following subunits?
N N N N 2 2 N NO O a. Ribose and adenine
D D A A
H H b. Uracil and ribose
H H
c. Deoxyribose and cytosine
22-6 With the help of Figure 22-2, identify each of the fol- d. Thymine and deoxyribose
lowing nitrogen-containing bases as a purine derivative
22-16 What is the name of the nucleoside that contains the
or a pyrimidine derivative.
following subunits?
a. Uracil b. Guanine
a. Ribose and guanine
c. c. NH2NH2 d. d. O O b. Cytosine and ribose
A A B B
N N H H
N N CH3H 3H NKNK
CH c. Deoxyribose and adenine
d. Uracil and deoxyribose
N N
N N N N N NO O 22-17 Indicate whether each of the following statements about
D D A A
H H nucleotides is true or false.
H H
a. All nucleotides contain ribose.
22-7 With the help of Figure 22-2, what is the one-letter b. Some, but not all, nucleotides contain a phosphate
abbreviation for the name of each of the bases in group.
Problem 22-5? c. All nucleotides contain a purine base.
22-8 With the help of Figure 22-2, what is the one-letter d. Two of the three subunits in a nucleotide can be
abbreviation for the name of each of the bases in nitrogen-containing bases.
Problem 22-6? 22-18 Indicate whether each of the following statements about
nucleotides is true or false.
22-9 With the help of Figure 22-2, indicate whether each of
the bases in Problem 22-5 is found in DNA only, RNA a. Some, but not all, nucleotides contain deoxyribose.
only, or both DNA and RNA. b. All nucleotides contain a pyrimidine base.
c. All nucleotides contain a phosphate group.
22-10 With the help of Figure 22-2, indicate whether each of d. Two of the three subunits in a nucleotide can be
the bases in Problem 22-6 is found in DNA only, RNA pentose sugars.
only, or both DNA and RNA.
22-19 Indicate whether each of the following is a DNA
22-11 How many different choices are there for each nucleotide or a RNA nucleotide.
of the following subunits in the specified type of a. contains ribose, uracil, and phosphate
nucleotide? b. contains deoxyribose, adenine, and phosphate
a. Pentose sugar subunit in DNA nucleotides c. dTMP
b. Nitrogen-containing base subunit in RNA d. CMP
nucleotides
c. Phosphate subunit in DNA nucleotides 22-20 Indicate whether each of the following is a DNA
nucleotide or a RNA nucleotide.
22-12 How many different choices are there for each a. contains deoxyribose, guanine, and phosphate
of the following subunits in the specified type of b. contains ribose, uracil, and phosphate
nucleotide? c. dGMP
a. Pentose sugar subunit in RNA nucleotides d. AMP
b. Nitrogen-containing base subunit in DNA
nucleotides 22-21 Nucleotides containing ribose, thymine, and phosphate
c. Phosphate subunit in RNA nucleotides are not found in ribonucleic acids. Explain why this is
the case.
Nucleotide Formation (Section 22-3) 22-22 Nucleotides containing deoxyribose, uracil, and
phosphate are not found in deoxyribonucleic acids.
22-13 Indicate whether each of the following statements about
Explain why this is the case.
nucleosides is true or false.
a. All nucleosides contain ribose. 22-23 What nitrogen-containing base and what sugar are
b. Some, but not all, nucleosides contain a phosphate present in each of the following nucleotides?
group. a. AMP
c. All nucleosides contain a nitrogen-containing base. b. dGMP
d. The two subunits present in a nucleoside can be c. dTMP
identical. d. UMP
840-b Chapter 22 Nucleic Acids
22-24 What nitrogen-containing base and what sugar are pres- Primary Nucleic Acid Structure (Section 22-4)
ent in each of the following nucleotides?
a. GMP b. dAMP
22-31 For the trinucleotide 5′ G–C–A 3′
a. How many nucleotide subunits are present in its
c. CMP d. dCMP
“backbone”?
22-25 What is the name of each of the nucleotides in b. How many nucleotide “nonbackbone” subunits are
Problem 22-23? present?
22-26 What is the name of each of the nucleotides in c. How many phosphodiester linkages are present?
Problem 22-24? d. What is the overall charge carried by the
trinucleotide?
22-27 Consider the following nucleotide.
22-32 For the trinucleotide 5′ U–C–G 3′
O a. How many nucleotide subunits are present in its
CH3 H “backbone”?
N b. How many nucleotide “nonbackbone” subunits are
O2
A present?
O P P OOO CH2 N O c. How many phosphodiester linkages are present?
A O d. What is the overall charge carried by the
O2 trinucleotide?
22-33 Is the trinucleotide in Problem 22-31 found only in
DNA, found only in RNA, or found in both DNA and
OH H
RNA? Explain the basis for your answer.
a. What is the name of the nucleotide? 22-34 Is the trinucleotide in Problem 22-32 found only in
b. Would this nucleotide be found in both DNA and DNA, found only in RNA, or found in both DNA and
RNA, only in DNA, or only in RNA? RNA? Explain the basis for your answer.
c. What is the name for the type of bond that connects
the phosphate and sugar subunits? 22-35 In the lengthening of a polynucleotide chain, which type
d. What is the name for the type of bond that connects of nucleotide subunit would bond to the 3′ end of the
the sugar and base subunits? polynucleotide chain?
22-28 Consider the following nucleotide. 22-36 In the lengthening of a polynucleotide chain, which type
of nucleotide subunit would bond to the 5′ end of the
O polynucleotide chain?
H
N 22-37 Draw the structure of the RNA dinucleotide 5′ U–G 3′.
O2 N
A 22-38 Draw the structure of the DNA dinucleotide 5′ T–A 3′.
O P P OOO CH2 N N NH2
A O 22-39 For the trinucleotide 5′ T-G-A 3′
O2 a. How many b-N-glycosidic linkages are present?
b. How many phosphoester linkages are present?
c. How many phosphodiester linkages are present?
OH OH d. How many by-product water molecules are produced
during the formation of the trinucleotide from three
a. What is the name of the nucleotide? mononucleotides?
b. Would this nucleotide be found in both DNA and
RNA, only in DNA, or only in RNA? 22-40 For the trinucleotide 5′ U-C-G 3′
c. What is the name for the type of bond that connects a. How many b-N-glycosidic linkages are present?
the phosphate and sugar subunits? b. How many phosphoester linkages are present?
d. What is the name for the type of bond that connects c. How many phosphodiester linkages are present?
the sugar and base subunits? d. How many by-product water molecules are produced
during the formation of the trinucleotide from three
▲22-29 Indicate whether each of the following is (1) a mononucleotides?
nucleoside, (2) a nucleotide, or (3) neither a nucleoside
nor a nucleotide. The DNA Double Helix (Section 22.5)
a. Adenosine
b. Adenine 22-41 Indicate whether each of the following statements about
c. dAMP the double-helix secondary structure of DNA is true
or false.
d. Adenosine 5′-monophosphate
a. The two polynucleotide strands are complementary
▲22-30 Indicate whether each of the following is (1) a rather than identical.
nucleoside, (2) a nucleotide, or (3) neither a nucleoside b. Bases present extend outward from the
nor a nucleotide. double helix.
a. Cytosine c. Covalent bonding occurs between the two
b. Cytidine polynucleotide strands.
c. CMP d. The two polynucleotide strands run in the
d. Deoxycytidine 5′-monophosphate 5′-to-3′ direction.
Exercises and Problems 840-c
22-42 Indicate whether each of the following statements about the ▲ 22-55 For the DNA segment 5′ TTGCAC 3′ how many of
double-helix secondary structure of DNA is true or false. each of the following are present?
a. Hydrogen bonding occurs between the two a. nucleotides b. purine bases
polynucleotide strands. c. phosphate groups d. ribose subunits
b. Bases present extend inward to the interior of the helix.
c. The two polynucleotide strands run in opposite ▲ 22-56 For the DNA segment 5′ TAGATG 3′ how many of
directions: (5′ to 3′) and (3′ to 5′). each of the following are present?
d. The two polynucleotide strands are identical. a. nucleotides b. purine bases
c. phosphate groups d. ribose subunits
22-43 Indicate whether each of the following are
complementary base pairs in DNA molecules. Replication of DNA Molecules (Section 22-6)
a. A–A b. A–C
c. A–T d. G–T 22-57 What is the base sequence, specified in the 5′-to-3′
direction, for a segment of newly formed DNA if it was
22-44 Indicate whether each of the following are complemen- formed using the following template DNA segments?
tary base pairs in DNA molecules. a. 3′ AATGC 5′ b. 5′ AATGC 3′
a. C–A b. C–C c. 3′ GCAGC 5′ d. 5′ GCAGC 3′
c. C–G d. G–A
22-58 What is the base sequence, specified in the 5′-to-3′
22-45 The base content of a particular DNA molecule is 36% direction, for a segment of newly formed DNA if
thymine. What is the percentage of each of the following it was formed using the following template DNA
bases in the molecule? segments?
a. Adenine b. Guanine a. 3′ GGCAA 5′ b. 5′ GTCCG 3′
c. Cytosine c. 3′ ACGTA 5′ d. 5′ ACGTA 3′
22-46 The base content of a particular DNA molecule is 24% 22-59 In the replication of a DNA molecule, two daughter
guanine. What is the percentage of each of the following molecules, Q and R, are formed. The following base
bases in the molecule? sequence is part of the newly formed strand in daughter
a. Adenine b. Cytosine molecule Q.
c. Thymine
5′ ACTTAG 3′
22-47 What structural consideration prevents the bases A and
G from forming a complementary base pair? Indicate the corresponding base sequence in
a. the newly formed strand in daughter molecule R.
22-48 What structural consideration prevents the bases C and b. the “parent” strand in daughter molecule Q.
T from forming a complementary base pair? c. the “parent” strand in daughter molecule R.
22-49 The base composition for one of the strands of a DNA 22-60 In the replication of a DNA molecule, two daughter
double helix is 19% A, 34% C, 28% G, and 19% T. What molecules, S and T, are formed. The following base
is the percent base composition for the other strand of sequence is part of the “parent” strand in daughter
the DNA double helix? molecule S.
22-50 The base composition for one of the strands of a DNA 5′ TTCAGAG 3′
double helix is 23% A, 31% C, 22% G, and 24% T. What
is the percent base composition for the other strand of Indicate the corresponding base sequence in
the DNA double helix? a. the newly formed strand in daughter molecule T.
b. the newly formed strand in daughter molecule S.
22-51 Convert each of the following 3′-to-5′ DNA base
c. the “parent” strand in daughter molecule T.
sequences to 5′-to-3′ DNA base sequences.
a. 3′ ATCG 5′ b. 3′ AATA 5′ 22-61 How does the synthesis of a daughter DNA strand
c. 3′ CACA 5′ d. 3′ CAAC 5′ growing toward a replication fork differ from the syn-
thesis of a daughter DNA strand growing away from a
22-52 Convert each of the following 3′-to-5′ DNA base
replication fork?
sequences to 5′-to-3′ DNA base sequences.
a. 3′ CGTA 5′ b. 3′ CGCG 5′ 22-62 In the context of DNA replication, what is the
c. 3′ ATTA 5′ d. 3′ CTAA 5′ difference between a “leading DNA strand” and a
“lagging DNA strand”?
22-53 Using the concept of complementary base pairing, write
the complementary DNA strands, with their 5′ and 22-63 Indicate whether each of the following statements
3′ ends labeled, for each of the following DNA base relating to aspects of DNA replication is true or false.
sequences. a. The lagging strand grows in the same direction as the
a. 5′ ACGTAT 3′ b. 5′ TTACCG 3′ replication fork moves.
c. 3′ GCATAA 5′ d. AACTGG b. Growth of the leading strand involves the production
of Okazaki fragments.
22-54 Using the concept of complementary base pairing, write c. Lagging strands always involve “daughter” DNA
the complementary DNA strands, with their 5′ and 3′ segments, and leading strands always involve
ends labeled, for each of the following DNA base sequences. “parent” DNA segments.
a. 5′ CCGGTA 3′ b. 5′ CACAGA 3′ d. The enzyme DNA ligase effects the unwinding of a
c. 3′ TTTAGA 5′ d. CATTAC DNA double helix.
840-d Chapter 22 Nucleic Acids
22-64 Indicate whether each of the following statements RNA Molecules (Section 22-8)
relating to aspects of DNA replication is true
or false. 22-71 Indicate whether each of the following statements
involving differences between DNA and RNA molecules
a. Leading strands always involve newly synthesized
is true or false.
DNA, and lagging strands always involve
template DNA. a. Base pairing occurs in DNA but not in RNA.
b. The concept of “nicks” is associated with the growth b. Both DNA and RNA are double-stranded molecules.
of a lagging strand. c. RNA molecules are much larger than DNA
c. The leading strand involves template DNA. molecules.
d. The enzyme DNA polymerase effects the formation of d. The base T in DNA is replaced by the base A in RNA.
new phosphodiester linkages. 22-72 Indicate whether each of the following statements
22-65 Indicate whether each of the following statements involving differences between DNA and RNA molecules
relating to chromosomes is true or false. is true or false.
a. Chromosomes contain proteins called histones. a. DNA is a double-stranded molecule and RNA is a
single-stranded molecule.
b. Two identical DNA molecules are present in a
chromosome. b. RNA and DNA molecules have about the same
length.
c. Chromosomes occurs in matched pairs.
c. Base pairing occurs in both DNA and RNA.
d. Most of the mass of a chromosome comes from the
DNA present. d. DNA and RNA have the same sugar unit present in
their structural backbones.
relating to chromosomes is true or false. 22-73 Relative to various types of RNA, what does the small
capital letter(s) stand for in each of the following
a. Chromosomes are DNA–protein complexes.
designations?
b. An alternate name for a chromosome is a histone.
a. tRNA b. mRNA
c. Two nonidentical DNA molecules are present in a
c. rRNA d. hnRNA
chromosome.
d. Cells of all higher organisms contain the same 22-74 Relative to various types of RNA, what is the abbreviated
number of chromosomes. designation for each of the following RNAs?
a. transfer RNA
▲22-67 Suppose that 28% of the nucleotides in a DNA molecule
are deoxythymidine 5′- monophosphate, and that during b. small nuclear RNA
DNA replication the percentage amounts of available c. heterogeneous nuclear RNA
nucleotide bases are 22% A, 22% C, 28% G, and 28% T. d. messenger RNA
Which base would be depleted first in the replication 22-75 Indicate whether the predominant cellular location
process? where each of the following types of RNA carries out
▲22-68 Suppose that 30% of the nucleotides in a DNA mol- its biochemical functions is (1) the cell nucleus, (2) the
ecule are deoxyguanosine 5′- monophosphate, and that cell cytoplasm, or (3) both the nucleus and cytoplasm.
during DNA replication the percentage amounts of a. mRNA
available nucleotide bases are 20% A, 20% C, 30% G, b. tRNA
and 30% T. Which base would be depleted first in the c. ribosomal RNA
replication process? d. small nuclear RNA
22-76 Indicate whether the predominant cellular location
Overview of Protein Synthesis (Section 22-7) where each of the following types of RNA carries out
its biochemical functions is (1) the cell nucleus, (2) the
22-69 Indicate whether each of the following statements cell cytoplasm, or (3) both the nucleus and cytoplasm.
relating to protein synthesis is true or false.
a. rRNA
a. RNA is involved in both the transcription and
b. hnRNA
translation phases of protein synthesis.
c. transfer RNA
b. DNA is the starting material for protein synthesis.
d. messenger RNA
c. The translation phase of protein synthesis converts
RNA to DNA. 22-77 Indicate whether each of the following situations occurs
d. Transcription precedes translation in protein within the nuclear or cytoplasmic regions of a cell.
synthesis. a. DNA transcription
b. hnRNA is formed from DNA
c. tRNA is needed
relating to protein synthesis is true or false.
d. snRNA is needed
a. The three phases of protein synthesis are
transcription, translation, and transformation. 22-78 Indicate whether each of the following processes occurs
b. Translation precedes transcription in protein within the nuclear or cytoplasmic regions of a cell.
synthesis. a. RNA translation
c. RNA is the starting material for protein synthesis. b. mRNA is formed
d. The transcription phase of protein synthesis converts c. actual protein formation occurs
DNA to RNA. d. rRNA is needed
Exercises and Problems 840-e
Transcription: RNA Synthesis (Section 22-9) 22-89 What mRNA base sequence, specified in the 5′-to-3′
direction, would be obtained from the following portion
of an hnRNA molecule?
concerning the transcription phase of protein synthesis
is true or false. exon intron exon
a. DNA helicase causes a parting unwinding of a DNA 39 UUAC–AACG–GCAU 59
helix.
b. RNA ribonucleotides align themselves along the 22-90 What mRNA base sequence, specified in the 5′-to-3′
DNA’s informational strand. direction, would be obtained from the following portion
c. RNA polymerase effects the linkage of ribonucleotides of an hnRNA molecule?
associated with the DNA template strand. exon intron exon
d. The type of RNA molecule initially produced in 39 UCAG–UAGC–UUCA 59
transcription is mRNA.
22-80 Indicate whether each of the following statements 22-91 What mRNA base sequence, specified in the 5′-to-3′ direc-
tion, would be obtained from the following portion of a gene?
concerning the transcription phase of protein synthesis
is true or false. exon intron exon
a. The enzymes DNA helicase and RNA polymerase 59 TCAG–TAGC–TTCA 39
are both needed in transcription.
b. The DNA template strand is involved in converting 22-92 What mRNA base sequence, specified in the 5′-to-3′ direc-
hnRNA to mRNA. tion, would be obtained from the following portion of a gene?
c. hnRNA base sequence is the same as that of the exon intron exon
DNA informational strand. 59 TTAC–AACG–GCAT 39
d. The type of RNA molecule initially produced in
transcription is hnRNA. 22-93 In the process of splicing, which type of RNA
22-81 What is the base sequence, given in the 5′-to-3′ a. undergoes the splicing?
direction, of the RNA initially synthesized from the b. is present in the spliceosomes?
following DNA template strand base sequences. 22-94 What is the difference between snRNA and snRNPs?
a. 5′ ATAT 3′ b. 5′ ACCC 3′
c. 5′ ATCG 3′ d. 5′ AAAA 3′ 22-95 An hnRNA molecule contains three exons, with the
middle one being an “alternative” exon. How many
22-82 What is the base sequence, given in the 5′-to-3′ different mRNA molecules can be produced from this
direction, of the RNA initially synthesized from the hnRNA molecule?
following DNA template strand base sequences.
a. 5′ TAAT 3′ b. 5′ CGCG 3′ 22-96 An hnRNA molecule contains three exons, with the
c. 5′ TCAG 3′ d. 5′ TTTT 3′ middle one and one other being “alternative” exons.
How many different mRNA molecules can be produced
22-83 For each of the following DNA template strands, from this hnRNA molecule?
determine (1) the base sequence of the DNA
informational strand and (2) the base sequence of the ▲ 22-97 Indicate whether each of the following base-pairing
hnRNA synthesized using the DNA template strand. situations (1) involves two DNA strands, (2) involves a
Specify base sequences in the 5′-to-3′ direction. DNA strand and an RNA strand, or (3) could involve
a. 3′ TACGGC 5′ b. 3′ CCATTA 5′ either two DNA strands or a DNA strand and an
RNA strand?
c. 3′ ACATGG 5′ d. 3′ ACGTAC 5′
a. A G T b. A C T c. A G U d. CG
22-84 For each of the following DNA template strands,
determine (1) the base sequence of the DNA U CA TGA TCA GC
informational strand and (2) a.
the base
A G sequence
T ofb. theA C T c. AGU d. CGC
hnRNA synthesized using the DNA template strand.
U C direction.
Specify base sequences in the 5′-to-3′ A TGA TCA GCG
a. 3′ TTCGTA 5′ b. 3′ CCGAAT 5′ ▲ 22-98 Indicate whether each of the following base-pairing
c. 3′ CATCAT 5′ d. 3′ TGCTGC 5′ situations (1) involves two DNA strands, (2) involves a
22-85 What is the base sequence, specified in the 5′-to-3′ DNA strand and an RNA strand, or (3) could involve
direction, for the DNA strand from which each of the either two DNA strands or a DNA strand and an
following hnRNA base sequences was transcribed? RNA strand?
a. 5′ CCUUAA 3′ b. 5′ ACGUAC 3′ a. A A T b. A A T c. C G U d. CC
c. 5′ ACGACG 3′ d. 5′ UACCAU 3′
T TA UUA GCA GG
22-86 What is the base sequence, specified
a. A A in Tthe 5′-to-3′
b. AAT c. C G U d. C C G
direction, for the DNA strand from which each of the
following hnRNA base sequences TwasTAtranscribed? U U A GCA GGC
a. 5′ CUAGGC 3′ b. 5′ UACUGG 3′
c. 5′ GACGAC 3′ d. 5′ UAAUAU 3′ The Genetic Code (Section 22-10)
22-87 What is the relationship between an exon and a gene? 22-99 What is a codon?
22-88 What is the relationship between an intron and a gene? 22-100 On what type of RNA molecule are codons found?
840-f Chapter 22 Nucleic Acids
22-101 Using the information in Table 22-2, determine what Anticodons and tRNA Molecules (Section 22-11)
amino acid is coded for by each of the following
codons. 22-113 Indicate whether each of the following statements about
tRNA molecules and their structures is true or false.
a. CUU b. AAU
a. Four hairpin loops are always present in a tRNA
c. AGU d. GGG
molecule.
22-102 Using the information in Table 22-2, determine what b. The anticodon site involves the hairpin loop opposite
amino acid is coded for by each of the following codons. the open end.
a. GUA b. CCC c. The amino acid attachment site involves the tRNAs
c. CAC d. CCA 5′ end.
d. An amino acid hydrogen bonds to its attachments site.
22-103 Using the information in Table 22-2, determine the
possible codons for each of the following amino acids? 22-114 Indicate whether each of the following statements about
a. Tyrosine b. Alanine tRNA molecules and their structures is true or false.
c. Leu d. Cys a. The amino acid attachment site involves a hairpin loop.
b. An amino acid covalently bonds to its attachment site.
22-104 Using the information in Table 22-2, determine the c. Three hairpin loops are always present in a tRNA
possible codons for each of the following amino acids? molecule.
a. Valine b. Serine d. An anticodon is located at each hairpin loop site.
c. Gly d. Lys
22-105 Explain why the base sequence ATC could not be a codon. involving codons and anticodons is true or false.
22-106 Explain why the base sequence AGAC could not be a codon. a. All codons involve three bases.
b. Anticodons are found on rRNA molecules.
22-107 Predict the sequence of amino acids coded by the c. The base U can be present in anticodons but not in
mRNA sequence codons.
5′ AUG–AAA–GAA–GAC–CUA 3′ d. Interaction of a codon with an anticodon involves
complementary base pairing.
22-108 Predict the sequence of amino acids coded by the
mRNA sequence
involving codons and anticodons is true or false.
5′ GGA–GGC–ACA–UGG–GAA 3′ a. All anticodons involve four bases.
b. Codons are found on tRNA molecules.
c. The base U can be present in codons but not in
mRNA sequence
anticodons.
3′ AUG–AAA–GAA–GAC–CUA 5′ d. Interaction of a codon with an anticodon involves
hydrogen bonding.
mRNA sequence 22-117 What is the anticodon that would interact with each of
the following codons?
3′ GGA–GGC–ACA–UGG–GAA 5′ a. AGA b. CGU
▲ 22-111 Determine each of the following items using the c. UUU d. CAA
hnRNA nucleotide sequence 22-118 What is the anticodon that would interact with each of
the following codons?
exon intron exon
a. CCU b. GUA
59 UCCG–CCAU–UAACA 39
c. AUC d. GCA
a. The sequence of bases on the DNA template strand 22-119 Which amino acid will a tRNA molecule be carrying if
from which the hnRNA was synthesized its anticodon is the following?
b. The sequence of bases on the DNA informational a. CCC b. CAG
strand associated with the DNA template strand. c. UGC d. GAG
c. The sequence of bases in the mRNA produced from
the hnRNA 22-120 Which amino acid will a tRNA molecule be carrying if
d. The sequence of amino acids in the peptide its anticodon is the following?
synthesized from the mRNA a. GGG b. GAC
c. AUA d. CGA
▲ 22-112 Determine each of the following items using the
hnRNA nucleotide sequence
22-121 Identify the amino acid associated with each of the fol-
lowing entities.
exon intron exon a. 5′ ACG 3′ codon
59 AGGC–GGAU–UCACA 39 b. 3′ ACG 5′ codon
c. 5′ ACG 3′ anticodon
a. The sequence of bases on the DNA template strand
d. 3′ ACG 5′ anticodon
from which the hnRNA was synthesized
b. The sequence of bases on the DNA informational 22-122 Identify the amino acid associated with each of the fol-
strand associated with the DNA template strand. lowing entities.
c. The sequence of bases in the mRNA produced from a. 5′ CCG 3′ codon
the hnRNA b. 3′ CCG 5′ codon
d. The sequence of amino acids in the peptide c. 5′ CCG 3′ anticodon
synthesized from the mRNA d. 3′ CCG 5′ anticodon
Exercises and Problems 840-g
▲ 22-123 The following is the base sequence of an exon portion d. The shifting of a ribosome three base positions
of a template strand of a DNA molecule: further down an mRNA molecue is called
transribation.
5′ TCCGCATTAACA 3′
a. What is the base sequence of the hnRNA strand 22-129 Write a possible mRNA base sequence that would lead
synthesized from the DNA template strand? to the production of the following pentapeptide. (There
b. What is the base sequence of the mRNA strand is more than one correct answer.)
synthesized from the hnRNA strand? Gly–Ala–Cys–Val–Tyr
c. What codons are present in the mRNA strand
produced from the DNA template strand? 22-130 Write a possible mRNA base sequence that would lead
d. What tRNA molecule anticodons are needed to to the production of the following pentapeptide. (There
interact with the codons present in the mRNA strand is more than one correct answer.)
produced from the template DNA strand? Lys–Met–Thr–His–Phe
▲ 22-124 The following is a base sequence for an exon portion of 22-131 Consider the translation of the following mRNA base
a template strand of a DNA molecule: sequence during protein synthesis.
5′ TAACGCTTCACG 3′ 5′ CAA CGA AAG 3′
a. What is the base sequence of the hnRNA strand a. What are the codons associated with this base sequence?
synthesized from the DNA template strand? b. What tRNA anticodons are compatible with this base
b. What is the base sequence of the mRNA strand sequence?
synthesized from the hnRNA strand? c. What are the amino acids specified by this base sequence?
c. What codons are present in the mRNA strand
produced from the DNA template strand? 22-132 Consider the translation of the following mRNA base
d. What tRNA molecule anticodons are needed to sequence during protein synthesis.
interact with the codons present in the mRNA strand 5′ CGC CGU UAC 3′
produced from the template DNA strand?
a. What are the codons associated with this base sequence?
Translation: Protein Synthesis (Section 22-12) b. What tRNA anticodons are compatible with this base
sequence?
22-125 Indicate whether each of the following statements about c. What are the amino acids specified by this base sequence?
ribosomes is true or false.
a. Ribosomes have two subunits that are approximately ▲ 22-133 Which of these RNA types—(1) mRNA, (2) hnRNA,
the same size. (3) rRNA, or (4) tRNA—is most closely associated with
b. The active site of a ribosome is predominantly RNA each of the following terms or descriptions?
rather than protein. a. Codon b. Intron
c. The mRNA involved in protein synthesis binds to the c. Amino acid carrier d. Interacts with ribosomes
small subunit of a ribosome. ▲ 22-134 Which of these RNA types—(1) mRNA, (2) hnRNA,
d. A ribosome functions as an enzyme in protein (3) rRNA, or (4) tRNA—is most closely associated with
synthesis. each of the following terms or descriptions?
22-126 Indicate whether each of the following statements about a. Exon
ribosomes is true or false. b. Anticodon
a. The active site of a ribosome is located in its smaller c. Ribosome structural component
subunit. d. Interacts with spliceosomes
b. A ribosome is a tRNA–protein complex.
c. Ribosome subunits are approximately 75% protein Mutations (Section 22-13)
and 25% RNA. 22-135 Consider the following mRNA base sequence
d. Human cells contain from 10 to 20 ribosomes.
5′ CUU CAG 3′
22-127 Indicate whether each of the following statements concern-
a. What dipeptide is coded for by this mRNA?
ing the translation phase of protein synthesis is true or false.
b. What dipeptide is formed if a point mutation
a. Elongation is the second step in the translation
converts CUU to CUC?
process.
c. What dipeptide is formed if a point mutation
b. The first amino acid in a developing polynucleotide
converts CAG to AAG?
chain is always Met.
d. What dipeptide is formed if a point mutation
c. The second site in an mRNA–ribosome complex is
converts CUU to CUC and CAG to AAG?
called the P site.
d. A polyribosome is a complex involving several 22-136 Consider the following mRNA base sequence
mRNA molecules and a ribosome.
5′ ACC CAC 3′
22-128 Indicate whether each of the following statements concern- a. What dipeptide is coded for by this mRNA?
ing the translation phase of protein synthesis is true or false.
b. What dipeptide is formed if a point mutation
a. Initiation is the first step in the translation process. converts CAC to AAC?
b. An amino acid must be activated before it can be c. What dipeptide is formed if a point mutation
attached to a tRNA molecule. converts ACC to ACU?
c. Incoming tRNA molecules always interact with the d. What dipeptide is formed if a point mutation
A site of an mRNA–ribosome complex. converts CAC to AAC and ACC to ACU?
840-h Chapter 22 Nucleic Acids
▲ 22-137 Consider the following DNA base sequence 22-147 Describe what happens during transformation.
3′ TTA ATA 5′ 22-148 How are plasmids obtained from E. coli bacteria?
a. What dipeptide is formed from the transcription and 22-149 A particular restriction enzyme will cleave DNA
translation of this DNA segment? between A and A in the sequence AAGCTT in the
b. What dipeptide is formed if a DNA point mutation 5′-to-3′ direction. Draw a diagram showing the
converts ATA to ATG? structural details of the “sticky ends” that result
c. What dipeptide is formed if a DNA point mutation from cleavage of the following DNA segment.
converts ATA to AGA?
d. What dipeptide is formed if a DNA point mutation 5¿ 3¿
converts TTA to TTT? C C A A G C T T G
G G T T C G A A C
22-138 Consider the following DNA base sequence
▲
3¿ 5¿
3′ TAT CGG 5′
a. What dipeptide is formed from the transcription and
22-150 A particular restriction enzyme will cleave DNA
between A and A in the sequence AAGCTT in the
translation of this DNA segment?
5′-to-3′ direction. Draw a diagram showing the
b. What dipeptide is formed if a DNA point mutation
structural details of the “sticky ends” that result
converts CGG to CGT?
from cleavage of the following DNA segment.
c. What dipeptide is formed if a DNA point mutation
converts CGG to AGG? 5¿ 3¿
d. What dipeptide is formed if a DNA point mutation G G A A G C T T A
converts TAT to TTT? C C T T C G A A T
3¿ 5¿
22-139 The DNA template strand segment
3′ TTC AAA CCG TAC 5′ ▲ 22-151 Which of the following processes—(1) transcription
phase of protein synthesis, (2) translation phase
upon transcription and translation produces the amino
of protein synthesis, (3) replication of DNA, and
acid sequence Lys-Phe-Gly-Met. What is the amino acid
(4) formation of recombinant DNA—is associated
sequence produced if a frameshift mutation occurs in which
with each of the events below?
the third A base in the original DNA sequence is removed?
a. Complete unwinding of a DNA molecule occurs.
22-140 The DNA template strand segment b. Partial unwinding of a DNA molecule occurs.
3′ TTC AAA CCG TAC 5′ c. An mRNA–ribosome complex is formed.
upon transcription and translation produces the amino d. The process of transformation occurs.
acid sequence Lys–Phe–Gly–Met. What is the amino ▲ 22-152 Which of the following processes—(1) transcription
acid sequence produced if a frameshift mutation occurs phase of protein synthesis, (2) translation phase
in which a G base is inserted after the first C in the of protein synthesis, (3) replication of DNA, and
original DNA sequence? (4) formation of recombinant DNA—is associated
with each of the events below?
Viruses and Vaccines (Section 22-14) a. Amino acid–tRNA molecules are formed.
22-141 Indicate whether each of the following statements b. Anticodon–codon base pairing occurs.
concerning viruses and vaccines is true or false. c. Restriction enzymes are used.
a. No DNA is present in a virus. d. Okazaki fragments are formed.
b. A virus cannot reproduce itself without the help of a
host cell. Polymerase Chain Reaction (Section 22-16)
c. Viruses that cause disease are called retroviruses.
22-153 Indicate whether each of the following statements concern-
d. Some, but not all, vaccines contain an active virus.
ing the polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is true or false.
22-142 Indicate whether each of the following statements a. The first step in the PCR process involves heating of
concerning viruses and vaccines is true or false. a DNA solution.
a. All viruses contain both DNA and RNA. b. The PCR process has applications in forensic
b. Some, but not all, vaccines contain a virus in an investigations.
inactive form. c. The PCR process requires that the target DNA
c. A retrovirus contains RNA but not DNA. sequence be bound to a primer.
d. All life-forms except bacteria are subject to attack by d. After four cycles of the PCR process eight DNA
viruses. molecules have been produced.
Recombinant DNA and Genetic Engineering (Section 22-15) 22-154 Indicate whether each of the following statements concern-
ing the polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is true or false.
22-143 How does recombinant DNA differ from normal DNA? a. The enzyme DNA polymerase is needed in the first
22-144 Give two reasons why bacterial cells are used for step of the PCR process.
recombinant DNA procedures. b. A primer, a short starter nucleotide chain, is needed
in the second step of the PCR process.
22-145 What role do plasmids play in recombinant DNA c. The PCR process has applications in detecting the
procedures? AIDS virus.
22-146 Describe what occurs when a particular restriction d. Replication of DNA does not begin until the second
enzyme operates on a segment of double-stranded DNA. cycle of the PCR process.

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22-15 Recombinant DNA and Genetic Engineering 833

Section 22-14 Quick Quiz

22-15 Recombinant DNA and Genetic Engineering

Figure 22-29 Percentage of 54%

modification, bioengineering, and biotechnology. The term genetic engineering will be

▶ Table 22-3 STechnology

Principles and Procedures of Genetic Engineering

Figure 22-30 Recombinant Isolated plasmid

E. coli with Foreign gene and bacterial

Figure 22-31 Cleavage pattern Cleavage point

Plasmid Cut plasmid Recombinant

Section 22-15 Quick Quiz

2. Which of the following statements about rDNA is correct?

22-16 The Polymerase Chain Reaction

5' Target area 3'

5' Target area 3' 5' Target area 3'

5' Target area 3' 5' Target area 3'

5' Target area 3' 5' Target area 3'

Exercises and Problems

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22-15 Recombinant DNA and Genetic Engineering 833

Section 22-14 Quick Quiz

22-15 Recombinant DNA and Genetic Engineering

Figure 22-29 Percentage of 54%

modification, bioengineering, and biotechnology. The term genetic engineering will be

▶ Table 22-3 STechnology

Principles and Procedures of Genetic Engineering

Figure 22-30 Recombinant Isolated plasmid

E. coli with Foreign gene and bacterial

Figure 22-31 Cleavage pattern Cleavage point

Plasmid Cut plasmid Recombinant

Section 22-15 Quick Quiz

2. Which of the following statements about rDNA is correct?

22-16 The Polymerase Chain Reaction

5' Target area 3'

5' Target area 3' 5' Target area 3'

5' Target area 3' 5' Target area 3'

5' Target area 3' 5' Target area 3'

Exercises and Problems

You might also like

▶ Table 22-3 STechnology