READING SECTION

PRACTICE 1
PASSAGE 1: QUESTIONS 1-10
READ THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE AND CHOOSE THE BEST ANSWERS.

Sharks have gained an unfair reputation for being fierce predators of large sea
animals. Humanity's unfounded fear and hatred of these ancient creatures is leading to a
worldwide slaughter that may result in the extinction of many coastal shark species. The
shark is the victim of a warped attitude of wildlife protection; we strive only to protect the
beautiful, non-threatening parts of our environment. And, in our efforts to restore only non-
threatening parts of our earth, we ignore other important parts.
A perfect illustration of this attitude is the contrasting attitude toward another large sea
animal, the dolphin. During the 1980s, environmentalists in the United States protested the
use of driftnets for tuna fishing in the Pacific Ocean since these nets also caught dolphins.
The environmentalists generated enough political and economic pressure to prevent tuna
companies from buying tuna that had been caught in driftnets. In contrast to this effort on
behalf of the dolphins, these same environmentalists have done very little to help save the
Pacific Ocean sharks whose population has decreased nearly to the point of extinction.
Sharks are among the oldest creatures on earth, having survived in the seas for more
than 350 million years. They are extremely efficient animals, feeding on wounded or dying
animals, thus performing an important role in nature of weeding out the weaker animals in a
species. Just the fact that species such as the Great White Shark have managed to live in the
oceans for so many millions of years is enough proof of their efficiency and adaptability to
changing environments. It is time for US humans, who may not survive another 1,000 years
at the rate we are damaging the planet, to cast away our fears and begin considering the
protection of sharks as an important part of a program for protection of all our natural
environment.
1. How long have sharks been living on the planet?
A. More than 25 million years. B. More than 150 million years.
C. More than 350 million years. D. More than 500 million years.
2. Which of the following is most similar to the meaning of the word “warped”?
A. distorted B. wasteful C. extravagant D. unnecessary
3. The word “generated” means _________
A. produced B. consumed C. absorbed D. designated
4. How did the environmentalist manage to protect dolphins?
A. They prevented fishermen from selling them for meat.
B. They pressured fishermen into protecting dolphins by law.
C. They brought political pressure again tuna companies.
D. They created sanctuaries where dolphins fishing was not allowed.
5. The phrase “to cast away” means mostly nearly _____________.
A. to throw off B. to bring in C. to see through D. to set apart
6. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. We are only protecting the beautiful and nonthreatening parts of our environment
B. Worldwide slaughter of sharks may lead to the extinction of these animals
C. Environmentalists didn't approve of using driftnets to catch tuna because they also caught
dolphins
D. Tuna fishing is one of the causes that lead to the decrease in the number of tuna in the
Pacific Ocean
7. Which of the following best describes the organization of this passage?
A. order of importance B. cause and effect
C. statement and example D. chronological order
8. What is the author’s tone in this passage?
A. accusatory B. explanatory C. gentle D. proud
9. The best summary of the passage is __________.
A. sharks have such a bad reputation
B. how sharks become some of the oldest creatures on earth
C. sharks should be put under wildlife protection
D. the campaign to save dolphins was not extended to save sharks
10. What can be inferred from the passage?
A. We should protect not only the non-threatening parts but also the other important parts.
B. Sharks manage to survive better than dolphins.
C. Tuna companies were not allowed to buy tuna from the fishermen anymore.
D. We are destroying our environment by fishing too many fish.
PASSAGE 2: QUESTIONS 11-20
READ THE FOLLOWING E-MAIL AND CHOOSE THE BEST ANSWERS
Michael,
This may be arriving to you a little too late, as I know you 're leaving for your vacation
in a week and probably don't want to make any last-minute changes; however, I thought
you should read this. I was surfing around online and found this review of The Seaside
Inn and remembered you saying that this is where you were planning on staying. This
may be a rare instance, but I thought I should forward it to you, just in case. I would
hate to hear that you didn't have a perfect time on your much-needed vacation
See you later,
Ed
 HOTEL REVIEWS
I visited this hotel in January for one week, lust to take a break from my studies. I
believe it to be one of the worst hotels out there. I know that I am not alone in my
opinion of this hotel, I overheard at least four other guests complaining to the
representative at the same time I was.
I do not know how it can get away with being called a 5-star hotel. There was no
variety in the menu, and we had no other options for food as all the nearby restaurants
were closed. This is also true of the movie theaters and bars.
The bars that were over only had a very limited selection of drinks and no
entertainment. There were shops on site - but they were never open. The room was
freezing and when I informed the hotel that the heating was not working they kindly
offered me a blanket to keep me warm.
This was my second visit to the area. The first time, I stayed at the Rosetta, which is
only a 3-star hotel, but the accommodation was a thousand times better.
 11. The word “instance” is the closest meaning to ______
A. sample B. situation C. trip D. vacation
12. The word “lust” is the closest meaning to ______
A. want B. like C. interest D. thinking
13. Based on the email, what does Ed want Michael to do?
A. consider what is said in the review
B. cancel his reservation at The Seaside Inn
C. leave for his vacation immediately
D. tell him what he thinks of the review
14. Why might this email be coming to Michael too late?
A. He may have already left for vacation.
B. He may have everything already planned out.
C. It isn't allowed to cancel reservations.
D. He is too busy to do anything about the problem.
15. How does the hotel reviewer know that others share her opinion?
A. She read other reviews.
B. Others told her their opinions while she was there.
C. Her four friends agree with her.
D. She witnessed the complaints happening.
16. Why does the hotel reviewer say they "kindly" gave her blanket?
A. She is being sarcastic.
B. That is the only thing she appreciated about the hotel.
C. She misinterpreted their kindness.
 D. She is being altruistic.
17. How many times has the writer stayed at the Seaside Inn hotel?
A. 4 B. 3 C. 2 D. 1
18. Why is the Rosetta hotel mentioned in the review?
A. To give a comment on the food of the two hotels
B. To introduce the name of a nearby hotel
C. To compare the service quality of the two hotels.
D. To rate for both hotels
19. According to the review, which of the following is true?
A. All the movie theaters and bars near the Seaside Inn hotel were closed.
B. The staff of the Seaside Inn hotel was kind to the reviewer by giving her a drink.
C. The reviewer and other customers were satisfied with the Seaside Inn hotel's service.
D. Michael is the one writing the negative review to the Seaside Inn hotel.
20. According to the review, what does the reviewer imply about the Seaside
Inn hotel?
A. The heating of the 5-star Seaside Inn hotel works very well in the rooms.
B. The service quality of the 5-star Seaside Inn hotel is not commensurate with its reputation.
C. The food of the 5-star Seaside Inn hotel is not enough for the customers.
D. There are shops on site of the Seaside Inn hotel.
PASSAGE 3: QUESTIONS 21-30
READ THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE AND CHOOSE THE BEST ANSWERS
The green anaconda is the world’s heaviest snake. It is also one of the world’s
longest snakes. When the first Europeans came to South America, they reported finding
snakes that were 100 feet long. Snakes of this size have not been found since, but native
people say that they have found snakes up to 50 feet long. Most scientists think that the
largest green anacondas are about 25 feet long.
The snakes spend most of their time in rivers. They are very heavy, so it is much
easier for them to move around and hunt in the water. They are very good at staying
camouflaged. They are green and yellow, perfect colors for the murky waters of the
Amazon River. When anything gets close enough to the water, the green anaconda
strikes and eats. They like fish, birds, small alligators, and anything else that might get
close.
The Amazon Basin is one of the least explored places on Earth. People still live
deep in the jungle with almost no contact with the outside world. To find the biggest
anacondas, this is where scientists need to go. However, there are no roads and the
place can be very dangerous. The jungles are full of dangerous animals such as
poisonous tree frogs. Native people can become violent on account of
misunderstandings. Also, the snakes themselves are very good at hiding in the wet
swamps of the Amazon. These things make it quite difficult for scientists to study them.
21. In paragraph 1, the word “they” refers to ________
A. snakes B. native people
C. scientists D. Europeans
22. In paragraph 2, the word “camouflaged” is closest in meaning to ______
A. safe B. secret C. dangerous D. hidden
23. In paragraph 3, the word poisonous is closest in meaning to ______
A. heavy B. harmful C. long D. hungry
24. Why does the author mention that most scientists think the largest green
anacondas are about 25 feet long?
A. To show the scientific opinion against the natives’ opinion
B. To prove that the Europeans were wrong
C. To give an example of scientists not knowing the truth for sure
D. To explain that 25 feet is the longest any snake can be
25. According to the passage, why do green anacondas live in rivers?
A. The river is ideal because they are so heavy.
B. They can’t move very quickly in rivers.
C. They are better swimmers than crocodiles.
D. Rivers are a good place for them to find food.
26. According to the passage, all of the following can be threats in the Amazon
River Basin EXCEPT ______.
A. native people B. lack of roads
C. local disease D. dangerous animals
27. Which of the following is true about the Amazon River Basin?
A. It is highly unexplored. B. It often rains and floods.
C. It is home to yellow anacondas. D. It is relatively more developed.
28. Which of the following is not mentioned in the passage?
A. They hardly communicate with the outside world.
B. The green anacondas eat anything nearby.
C. The first Europeans who came to South America found 100-foot snakes.
D. Native people protect this kind of snakes from hunters.
29. How many reasons make scientists have difficulty coming to this region?
A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5
30. What is the main topic of the passage?
A. Finding and studying large green anacondas
B. The green anaconda’s river life
 C. The weight of anaconda snakes
D. Scientists searching the Amazon River Basin
PASSAGE 4: QUESTIONS 31-40
READ THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE AND CHOOSE THE BEST ANSWERS
BASKETBALL
Although he created the game of basketball at the YMCA in Springfield, Massachusetts,
Dr. James A. Naismith was a Canadian. Working as a physical education instructor at the
International YMCA, now Springfield College, Dr. Naismith noticed a lack of interest in
exercise among students during the wintertime. The new England winters were fierce,
and the students balked at participating in outdoor activities. Naismith determined a fast-
moving game that could be played indoors would fill a void after the baseball and
football seasons had ended.
First, he attempted to adapt outdoor games such as soccer and rugby to indoor play, but
he soon found them unsuitable for confined areas. Finally, he determined that he would
have to invent a game.
In December of 1891, Dr. Naismith hung two old peach baskets at either end of the
gymnasium at the school, and, using a soccer ball and nine players on each side,
organized the first basketball game. The early rules allowed three points for each basket
and made running with the ball violation. Every time a goal was made, someone had to
climb a ladder to retrieve the ball. Nevertheless, the game became popular. In less than a
year, basketball was being played in both the United States and Canada. Five years later,
a championship tournament was staged in New York City, which was won by the
Brooklyn Central YMCA.
The teams had already been reduced to seven players, and five became standard in 1897
season. When basketball was introduced as a demonstration sport in the 1904 Olympic
Games in St. Luis, it quickly spread throughout the world. In 1906, a metal hoop was
used for the first time to replace the basket, but the name basketball has remained.
31. When was the first demonstration game of basketball held during the
Olympics?
A. in 1904 B. in 1891 C. in 1892 D. in 1897
32. The word "them" in the second paragraph refers to _______________.
A. seasons B. games C. indoors D. areas
33. The author mentions all of the following as typical of the early game of
basketball EXCEPT __________.
A. running with the ball was not a foul
B. three points were scored for every basket.
C. nine players were on a team.
D. the ball had to be retrieved from the basket after each score.
 34. The phrase “balked at” in the first paragraph could best be replaced by
_________.
A. resisted B. enjoyed C. excelled at D. was exhausted
by
35. The word "fierce" in line 6 is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. boring B. long C. extreme D. dark
36. The word “retrieve” in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to
__________.
A. get back B. reclaim C. get along D. reform
37. Why did Naismith decide to invent basketball?
A. He did not like soccer or rugby.
B. He was tired of baseball and football.
C. He wanted his students to exercise during the winter.
D. He could not convince his students to play indoors.
38. What does the author mean by the statement in lines 24-26: “When
basketball was introduced as a demonstration sport in the 1904 Olympic Games
in St. Louis, it quickly spread throughout the world”?
A. Basketball became popular worldwide after its introduction at the Olympic
Games in St. Louis.
B. Basketball was not considered an Olympic sport at the St. Louis games.
C. Basketball players from many countries competed in the Olympic Games in St.
Louis.
D. Basketball was one of the most 3 popular sports at the Olympic Games in St.
Louis.
39. What does this passage mainly discuss?
A. Dr. James Naismith
B. The development of basketball
C. The YMCA athletic program
D. The Olympic Games in St. Luis in 1904
40. It can be inferred from the passage that the original baskets __________.
A. did not have a hole in the bottom B. had a metal rim
C. were not placed very high D. were hung on the same side
 PRACTICE 2
PASSAGE 1: QUESTIONS 1-10
READ THE FOLLOWING MEMO AND CHOOSE THE BEST ANSWERS.
Survey: Destination Preferences of 500 Potential Customers

Sunshine Holidays Marketing Division

Table of Results (to be posted in staff room of all branches)
Age\ Franc Englan
Italy Spain
Country e d
20 - 29 17 30 20 43
30 - 39 14 34 23 29
40 - 49 20 37 24 19
50 - 59 21 32 23 24
60 - 70 20 30 30 20

Research conducted March 22nd.

To: All Branch Managers

From: Sunshine Holidays Marketing Division
Re: Customer Preferences: Competition
As a result of recent research, we have decided to launch a staff competition.
500 British people were recently surveyed by Sunshine Holidays about their vacation plans for
the coming summer. 100 people in each of five different age ranges were surveyed. They were
asked to indicate which countries they planned to visit out of four possible choices. The choices
given were Italy, France, Britain, and Spain. It seems that as they get older, people tend to
choose not to travel overseas. As we can see from the table, the older participants chose
Britain as their first choice to visit. When asked about this choice, they gave several reasons,
including fears about health problems and access to medical care, worries about communicating
in a foreign language, and the desire to spend time with their grandchildren during the school
vacations. The youngest group of participants chose Spain as their favorite. They said it was
because of Spain’s reputation as a fun and lively place with beautiful beaches. However,
overall, France was the most popular destination for all age groups. This is because of its close
location to Britain.
We want to increase the number of older customers visiting Spain (target A), and the number of
younger visitors traveling within Britain (target B). For this reason, we are launching a staff
competition. Please submit your ideas to increase the number of customers in either target
group A or target group B. The two lucky winners will win an all-expenses paid trip to
Bermuda.

1. Which country was the most popular with all age groups?
A. Italy B. France C. England D. Spain
 2. Which country was the most popular with people in their twenties?
A. Britain B. France C. Italy D. Spain
3. How many people in their sixties were interviewed?
A. 100 B. 30 C. 20 D. 2
4. What were the people surveyed about?
A. ski resorts in Europe B. countries they had visited
C. their vacation plans D. general knowledge about four countries
5. According to the memo, which of the following is not true?
A. People in all different ages were surveyed in the research.
B. The company wants to increase the number of customers in target A and target B.
C. The result of the survey is published in staff room of all branches.
D. The persons who win the competition will get a travel package paid for by the
company.
6. Who is the memo sent to?
A. Survey participants B. Sunshine Holidays Marketing Division
C. All Branch Managers D. Customer Preferences
7. The word “surveyed” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _________
A. interviewed B. looked for C. participated D. conducted
8. The word “participants” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to________.
A. researchers B. organizers C. attendees D. constructors
9. The word “launching” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _________
A. initiating B. throwing C. establishing D. supporting
10. What is the purpose of this memo?
A. To introduce Sunshine Holidays
B. To announce a competition
C. To talk about medical care and health
D. To introduce France, Italy, Spain and Britain
PASSAGE 2: QUESTIONS 11-20
READ THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE AND CHOOSE THE BEST ANSWERS
Games and Activities - Toxic Waste
This is a popular, engaging small group activity which provides a rich teamwork
challenge. The challenge is to be the "toxic waste" contents of a bucket to the
"neutralization" container using minimal equipment and maintaining a safe distance
within a time limit. It is moderately difficult and works best for groups that have already
dealt with basic teamwork issues. Avoid using this activity with groups who are still in
the early stages of group development.
Set-Up
Use the rope to create a circle at least 8 feet in diameter on the ground to represent the
toxic waste radiation zone. The larger the zone, the more difficult the activity. Place the
small bucket in the center of the radiation zone and fill it with water or balls to represent
the toxic waste. Place the large neutralization bucket approximately 30 to 50 feet away.
The greater the distance, the more difficult the activity. Put all other equipment (i.e.,
bungee, cords) in a pile near the rope circle.
Directions
The challenge is for the group to work out how to transfer the toxic waste from the small
bucket into the large bucket, using only the equipment provided within a lime frame. The
waste will blow up and destroy the world after 20 minutes if it is not neutralized. Anyone
who ventures into the radiation zone will suffer injury and possibly even death, and
spillage will create death arid destruction. Therefore, the group should aim to save the
world and do so without injury to any group members.
Facilitator Notes
Toxic Waste is not an easy exercise and most groups will benefit from some coaching
along the way. The solution involves attaching the cords to the bungee loop, then guiding
the bungee with the strings to sit around and grab the toxic waste bucket. Then with
everyone pulling on their cord and with good coordination and care, the toxic waste
bucket can be lifted, moved and tipped into the empty neutralizing bucket.
 11. In the second passage, the word “it” refers to _________
A. the small bucket B. the radiation zone
C. the toxic waste D. the water
12. What is the main idea of the second passage?
A. give requirements for teamwork in the activity
B. provide coaching offers for teamwork in the activity
C. give suggestions for performing in the activity
D. provide data and instructions in the activity
13. What is the main idea of the third passage?
A. tell a story to inspire the teamwork
B. warn work hazards to workgroups
C. set hypothetical goals for team performance
D. provide solutions to the risks in group works
14. Based on the last passage, what will most teams get along the way?
A. some coaching benefits B. some cords
C. some bungee strings D. some toxic waste buckets
15. Which of the following does the game NOT involve?
A. working with a group B. working individually
 C. working to a time limit D. using minimal equipment
16. What can you do to make the exercise more difficult?
A. increase the distance to the neutralization bucket
B. decrease the radiation zone
C. use balls instead of water
D. offer coaching
17. Who is this text written for?
A. a health and safety officer B. a teacher
C. a manager D. an office worker
18. What group would benefit most from this exercise?
A. a brand new team B. any team at all
C. one that can't work together D. an experienced team
19. Where would this text most likely be found?
A. in a book on team building B. in a financial magazine
C. posted in a staff canteen D. on the front page of a newspaper
20. What is the passage mainly about?
A. an environmental activity B. a name of game
C. a group activity D. a recruitment flyer
PASSAGE 3: QUESTIONS 21-30
READ THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE AND CHOOSE THE BEST ANSWERS
MARY'S FIRST JOB
When I was just fifteen, my father purchased an old hostel in the country where
we lived and decided to turn it into a luxury hotel. At the early stages of the hotel, he
experimented with everything. None of us had ever worked in a hotel before, but my dad
had a vision of what guests wanted. His standards were extremely high and he believed
that to reach those standards the most important thing was work.
For a month that summer I worked as a waitress at breakfast and dinner. As part of
the job I had to lay the tables in the dining room beforehand and clean up afterwards.
This gave me the middle of the day free for studying because my school report
predictably had not lived up to my father's high expectations.
Like all the other waitresses, I was equipped with a neat uniform and told to treat
the guests as though they were special visitors in my own home. Although I felt more
like a stranger in theirs, I did not express my feelings. Instead I concentrated on doing the
job as well as, if not better than, the older girls.
In the kitchen I learned how to deal with Gordon, the chef, who I found rather
daunting. He had an impressive chef's hat and a terrifying ability to lose his temper and
get violent for no clear reason. I avoided close contact with him and always grabbed the
dishes he gave me with a cold look on my face. Then, as I walked from the kitchen to the
dining room, my cold expression used to change into a charming smile.
I found waiting at breakfast was more enjoyable than at dinner. The guests came
wandering into the dining room from seven-thirty onwards, staring with pleasure at the
view of the sea and the islands through the dining room window. I always made sure that
everyone got their order quickly and I enjoyed getting on well with the people at each
table.
In the evenings it was funny how differently people behaved; they talked with
louder, less friendly voices, and did not always return my smile. However, that all
changed when Dad created a special role for me which improved my status considerably.
I started by making simple cakes for guests' picnics and soon progressed to more
elaborate cakes for afternoon teas. I found that recipes were easy to follow and it was
amusing to irriprovise. This led to a nightly event known as Mary's Sweet Trolley. I used
to enter the dining room every evening pushing a trolley carrying an extraordinary
collection of puddings, cakes and other desserts. Most of them were of my own
invention, I had cooked them all myself, and some were undeniably strange.
21. The word "it" in line 2 refers to ___________
A. an old hostel B. the country
C. a luxury hotel D. Mary's first job
22. What did the people working at the hotel have in common?
A. They enjoyed the work. B. They knew what the guests expected.
C. They shared all the jobs. D. They lacked experience.
23. Mary's working day was organized in order to give her ___________
A. time at midday to relax. B. working experience.
C. time for her school work. D. time to have lunch with her father.
24. In the second paragraph, what best paraphrases the sentence "my school
report predictably had not lived up to my father's high expectations"
A. My father has not satisfied with my results at school.
B. The school made a report about my expectations to my father.
C. The report from school is highly predictable to my father.
D. My father expects to receive the school report soon.
25. In paragraph 4, the word "daunting" is closest in meaning to __________.
A. disgusting B. frightening
C. interesting D. strange
26. What did Mary do while she walked from the kitchen to the dining room?
A. She avoided touching Gordon.
B. She started to look more friendly.
C. She checked the food Gordon gave her.
 D. She smiled at Gordon in a friendly way.
27. Why did Mary enjoy serving breakfasts more than dinners?
A. She had a better relationship with the guests.
B. She enjoyed the view from the dining room while working.
C. The guests were more punctual than at dinner.
D. She worked more efficiently at breakfast.
28. How did Mary's father improve her position in the hotel?
A. He put her in charge of the restaurant.
B. He asked her to provide entertainment for the guests.
C. He made her responsible for part of dinner.
D. He gave her a special uniform.
29. What was special about the food on Mary's Sweet Trolley?
A. Mary made most of it without following recipes.
B. Mary made the same food for picnics.
C. Mary and Gordon made it together.
D. Mary made it following traditional recipes.
30. What impression does Mary give of her job throughout the passage?
A. It was quite easy to do.
B. It brought her closer to her father.
C. It was always enjoyable.
D. It was sometimes uncomfortable.
PASSAGE 4: QUESTIONS 31-40
READ THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE AND CHOOSE THE BEST ANSWERS
Potash (the old name for potassium carbonate) is one of the two alkalis (the other
being soda, sodium carbonate) that were used from remote antiquity in the making of
glass, and from the early Middle Ages in the making of soap: the former being the
product of heating a mixture of alkali and sand, the latter a product of alkali and
vegetable oil. Their importance in the communities of colonial North America need
hardly be stressed.

Potash and soda are not interchangeable for all purposes, but for glass-or soap
making either would do. Soda was obtained largely from the ashes of certain
Mediterranean sea plants, potash from those of inland vegetation. Hence potash was
more familiar to the early European settlers of the North American continent.
The settlement at Jamestown in Virginia was in many ways a microcosm of the
economy of colonial North America, and potash was one of its first concerns. It was
required for the glassworks, the first factory in the British colonies, and was produced in
sufficient quantity to permit the inclusion of potash in the first cargo shipped out of
Jamestown. The second ship to arrive in the settlement from England included among its
passenger experts in potash making.
The method of making potash was simple enough. Logs was piled up and burned
in the open, and the ashes collected. The ashes were placed in a barrel with holes in the
bottom, and water was poured over them. The solution draining from the barrel was
boiled down in iron kettles. The resulting mass was further heated to fuse the mass into
what was called potash.
In North America, potash making quickly became an adjunct to the clearing of
land for agriculture, for it was estimated that as much as half the cost of clearing land
could be recovered by the sale of potash. Some potash was exported from Maine and
New Hampshire in the seventeenth century, but the market turned out to be mainly
domestic, consisting mostly of shipments from the northern to the southern colonies. For
despite the beginning of the trade at Jamestown and such encouragements as a series of
acts "to encourage the making of potash," beginning in 1707 in South Carolina, the
softwoods in the South proved to be poor sources of the substance.
31. What aspect of potash does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Its importance in colonial North America.
B. How it was made.
C. Its value as a product for export.
D. How it differs from other alkalis.
32. All of the following statements are true of both potash and soda EXPECT
_____
A. They are alkalis.
B. They are used in making soap.
C. They are used in making glass.
D. They are made from sea plants.
33. They phrase "the latter" in paragraph 1 refers to ________
A. soap B. alkali C. glass D. sand
34. The word "stressed" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ________
A. emphasized B. defined C. adjusted D. mentioned
35. The word "interchangeable" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _____
A. identifiable B. convenient
C. equivalent D. advantageous
36. It can be inferred from the passage that potash was more common than soda
in colonial North America because __________
A. the materials needed for making soda were not readily available.
 B. making potash required less time than making soda.
C. potash was better than soda for making glass and soap.
D. the colonial glassworks found soda more difficult to use.
37. According to paragraph 4, all of the following were needed for making
potash EXCEPT ________
A. water B. wood C. fire D. sand
38. The word "adjunct" in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to _______
A. problem B. answer C. addition D. possibility
39. According to the passage, a major benefit of making potash was that_____
A. it could be exported to Europe in exchange for other goods.
B. it helped finance the creation of farms.
C. it could be made with a variety of materials.
D. stimulated the development of new ways of glassmaking.
40. According to paragraph 5, the softwoods in the South posed which of the
following problems for southern settles?
A. The softwoods were not very useful for making potash.
B. The softwoods were not very plentiful.
C. The softwoods could not be used to build houses.
D. The softwoods were not very marketable.
 PRACTICE 3
QUESTIONS 1-10

READ THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE AND CHOOSE THE BEST ANSWERS.

Bees, classified into over 10,000 species, are insects found in almost every part of
the world except the northernmost and southernmost regions. One commonly known
species is the honeybee, the only bee that produces honey and wax. Humans use the wax
in making candles, lipsticks, and other products, and they use the honey as a food. While
gathering the nectar and pollen with which they make honey, bees are simultaneously
helping to fertilize the flowers on which they land. Many fruits and vegetables would not
survive if bees did not carry the pollen from blossom to blossom.
Bees live in a structured environment and social structure within a hive, which is a
nest with storage space for the honey. The different types of bees each perform a unique
function. The worker bee carries nectar to the hive in a special stomach called a honey
stomach; other workers make beeswax and shape it into a honeycomb, which is a
waterproof mass of six-sided compartments, or cells. The queen lays eggs in completed
cells. As the workers build more cells, the queen lays more eggs.
All workers, like the queen, are female, but the workers are smaller than the
queen. The male honeybees are called drones; they do no work and cannot
sting. They are developed from unfertilized eggs, and their only job is to impregnate a
queen. The queen must be fertilized in order to lay worker eggs. During the season, when
less honey is available and the drones is of no further use, the workers block the drones
from eating the honey so that they will starve to death.
1. Which of the following is the best title for this reading?
A. The Useless Drone
B. Making Honey
C. The Many Species of Bees
D. The Honeybee — Its Characteristics and Usefulness
2. The word “species” in paragraph one is closest in meaning to ________
A. varieties B. mates C. killers D. enemies
3. The word “which” in paragraph one refers to ________
A. honey B. fertilizer C. flowers D. bees
4. The word “simultaneously” in paragraph one is closest in meaning to ________
A. skillfully B. concurrently C. diligently D. stubbornly
5. The passage implies that bees can be found in each of the following parts of the
world except ________.
A. Antarctica B. Africa C. Asia D. Europe.
6. It can be inferred from the reading that “beeswax” is ________
 A. sweet B. absorbent
C. pliable D. complex in structure
7. All of the following are characteristic of a honeycomb except ________
A. it contains hexagonal sections. B. it is made of honey.
C. it is made of wax. D. it is impermeable
8. According to the passage, honey is carried to the hive in a honey stomach by
the _____.
A. males B. queens C. drones D. workers
9. The author implies that ________
A. drones are never female B. bees are unnecessary in the food
chain
C. drones are completely dispensable. D. the queen can be a worker.
10. In what way does the reading imply that bees are useful in nature?
A. They pollinate fruit and vegetable plants.
B. They make marvelous creations from wax.
C. They kill the dangerous drones.
D. They create storage spaces.
PASSAGE 2
QUESTIONS 11-20
READ THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE AND CHOOSE THE BEST ANSWERS
The evidence that humans are causing global warming is strong, but the question of
what to do about it remains controversial. Economics, sociology, and politics are all
important factors in planning for the future.
Even if we stopped emitting greenhouse gases (GHGs) today, the Earth would still
warm by another degree Fahrenheit or so. But what we do from today forward makes a
big difference. Depending on our choices, scientists predict that the Earth could
eventually warm by as little as 2.5 degrees or as much as 10 degrees Fahrenheit.
A commonly cited goal is to stabilize GHG concentrations around 450-550 parts per
million (ppm), or about twice pre-industrial levels. This is the point at which many
believe the most damaging impacts of climate change can be avoided. Current
concentrations are about 380 ppm, which means there isn't much time to lose. According
to the IPCC, we'd have to reduce GHG emissions by 50% to 80% of what they're on
track to be in the next century to reach this level.
Is this possible?
Many people and governments are already working hard to cut greenhouse gases, and
everyone can help.
 Researchers Stephen Pacala and Robert Socolow at Princeton University have
suggested one approach that they call "stabilization wedges." This means reducing GHG
emissions from a variety of sources with technologies available in the next few decades,
rather than relying on an enormous change in a single area. They suggest 7 wedges that
could each reduce emissions, and all of them together could hold emissions at
approximately current levels for the next 50 years, putting us on a potential path to
stabilize around 500 ppm.
There are many possible wedges, including improvements to energy efficiency and
vehicle fuel economy (so less energy has to be produced), and increases in wind and
solar power, hydrogen produced from renewable sources, biofuels (produced from
crops), natural gas, and nuclear power. There is also the potential to capture the carbon
dioxide emitted from fossil fuels and store it underground—a process called "carbon
sequestration."
In addition to reducing the gases we emit to the atmosphere, we can also increase the
amount of gases we take out of the atmosphere. Plants and trees absorb C02 as they
grow, "sequestering" carbon naturally. Increasing forestlands and making changes to the
way we farm could increase the amount of carbon we're storing.
Some of these technologies have drawbacks, and different communities will make
different decisions about how to power their lives, but the good news is that there are a
variety of options to put us on a path toward a stable climate.
11. The word "we" in paragraph 2 refers to __________.
A. animals B. economists, sociologists, and politicians
C. humans D. scientists
12. According to paragraph 2, how many degrees could the Earth warm up?
A. from 2.5 or 10 B. from 2.5 to 10
C. 10 D. 2.5
13. According to paragraph 3, why should we stabilize GHG concentrations
around 450-550 parts per million?
A. to avoid the most serious effects of climate change
B. to avoid all damaging impacts of climate change
C. to mend the most damaging impacts of climate change
D. to stop climate change
14. The word "which” in paragraph 3 refer to _______________.
A. current concentrations
B. that current concentrations are about 380 ppm
C. 380 ppm
D. ppm
15. Why does the author mention Stephen Pacala and Robert Socolow?
 A. to introduce one way to reduce GHG emission
B. to prove that researchers are working to reduce GHG emission
C. to introduce two researchers in the field
D. to introduce Princeton University
16. What stabilization wedges are NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. grow more trees
B. capture and store carbon dioxide underground
C. increase the use of renewable energy
D. create environment-friendly materials
17. The word "them" refer to __________________.
A. wedges B. humans
C. renewable resources D. researchers
18. What is the best title for this passage?
A. Global Warming and its Causes B. Global Warming Solutions
C. Global Warming's Effect on Earth D. Arguments over Global Warming
19. "Sequestering" has closest meaning to _________
A. emit B. isolate C. release D. absorb
20. Why does the writer mention "drawbacks" in the last paragraph?
A. to emphasize the advantages of the solutions in different contexts
B. to introduce the disadvantages of solutions in the following paragraph
C. to emphasize the disadvantages of the solutions in the previous paragraph
D. to recommend readers not to use the solutions
PASSAGE 3
QUESTIONS 21-30
READ THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE AND CHOOSE THE BEST ANSWERS
A new study, conducted by scientists from Oxford University, the Chinese
Academy of Medical Sciences and the Chinese Center for Disease Control, has warned
that a third of all men currently under the age of 20 in China will eventually die
prematurely if they do not give up smoking.
The research, published in The Lancet medical journal, says two-thirds of men in
China now start to smoke before 20. Around half of those men will die from the habit, it
concludes.
In 2010, around one million people in China died from tobacco usage. But
researchers say that if current trends continue, that will double to two million people -
mostly men - dying every year by 2030, making it a "growing epidemic of premature
death".
 But co-author Richard Peto said there was hope - if people can be persuaded to
quit. "The key to avoid this huge wave of deaths is cessation, and if you are a young man,
don't start," he said.
In many parts of China, meals often fit a comfortable pattern. After putting down
their chopsticks, men commonly push their chairs back from the table and light
cigarettes. No wonder China has struggled to impose a smoking ban in public places.
Here, relationships are often built amid clouds of smoke.
Expensive brands of cigarettes, often decorated with gold detailing on the cartons,
are given as gifts. And ordinary brands are affordable to all but the very poor, costing just
2.5 yuan ($0.4; £0.25) a pack.
In a country where smoking is so ingrained in daily life, few understand the
harmful effects of tobacco use. According to the World Health Organization (WHO),
only 25% of Chinese adults can list the specific health hazards of smoking, from lung
cancer to heart disease.
Perhaps it should come as no surprise, then, that only 10% of Chinese smokers
quit by choice. Instead, most are forced to give up their cigarettes because they're too
sick to continue.
While smoking rates have fallen in developed countries - to less than one in five in
the US - they have risen in China, as cigarettes have become more available and
consumers richer.
Authorities have shown concern over the rise, with Beijing even introducing a
public smoking ban. But efforts have been hampered by the habit's popularity, and its
usefulness as a source of tax - the government collects about 428 billion yuan
(£44billion, $67billion) in tobacco taxes each year.
Globally, tobacco kills up to half of its users, according to the World Health
Organization.
21. How many Chinese men start to smoke before the age of 20?
A. Two-thirds B. One-third C. Half D. All of them
22. What does the word “those men” in paragraph 2 refer to?
A. Men who smoke above the age.
B. Men who give up smoking.
C. Men who smoke under the age of 20.
D. Men who smoke in public.
23. By 2030, how many men in China may die smoking every year?
A. one million B. two million C. three million D. four million
24. In many areas of China, when do men usually smoke?
A. after a meal B. before a meal
 C. before they go to sleep D. when they get up
25. According to WHO, only _____ of Chinese adults can list bad effects of
smoking.
A. one- third B. one- fourth C. a half D. two-thirds
26. “Beijing” refers to________
A. the city of Beijing B. China
C. the Chinese government D. people who live in Beijing
27. What is Richard Peto’s attitude toward smoking in China?
A. He thinks that people possibly stop smoking if they see reasons.
B. He doesn’t believe that people will give up smoking.
C. He is disappointed with the Chinese government.
D. He is sure about the rise of future deaths in China.
28. Which of the following words does the word “hamper” have closest meaning
to?
A. basket B. restrict C. assist D. prohibit
29. What is the writer’s purpose?
A. to warn and prevent smoking in China
B. to argue over smoking policy in China
C. to support smoking in China
D. to report the result of a research paper
30. What does the writer imply about Chinese government?
A. They do not care about smoking.
B. They do not want to stop people from smoking.
C. They have tried to close tobacco companies.
D. They have tried to stop people from smoking in public but with little success.
PASSAGE 4
QUESTIONS 31-40
READ THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE AND CHOOSE THE BEST ANSWERS
A snowfall consists of myriads of minute ice crystals that fall to the ground in the
form of frozen precipitation. The formation of snow begins with these ice crystals in the
subfreezing strata of the middle and upper atmosphere when there is an adequate supply
of moisture present. At the core of every ice crystal is a minuscule nucleus, a solid
particle of matter around which moisture condenses and freezes. Liquid water droplets
floating in the super-cooled atmosphere and free ice crystals cannot coexist within the
same cloud, since the vapor pressure of ice is less than that of water. This enables the ice
crystals to rob the liquid droplets of their moisture and grow continuously. The process
can be very rapid, quickly creating sizable ice crystals, some of which adhere to each
other to create a cluster of ice crystals or a snowflake. Simple flakes possess a variety of
beautiful forms, usually hexagonal, though the symmetrical shapes reproduced in most
microscope photography of snowflakes are not usually found in actual snowfalls.
Typically, snowflakes in actual snowfall consists of broken fragments and clusters of
adhering ice crystals.
For a snowfall to continue once it starts, there must be a constant inflow of
moisture to supply the nuclei. This moisture is supplied by the passage of an airstream
over a water surface and its subsequent lifting to higher regions of the atmosphere. The
Pacific Ocean is the source of moisture for most snowfalls west of the Rocky Mountains,
while the Gulf of Mexico and the Atlantic Ocean feed water vapor into the air currents
over the central and eastern sections of the United States. Other geographical features
also can be the source of moisture for some snowstorms. For example, areas adjacent to
the Great Lakes experience their own unique lake-effect storms, employing a variation of
the process on a local scale. In addition, mountainous section or rising terrain can initiate
snowfalls by the geographical lifting of a moist airstream.
31. Which of the following questions does the author answer in the first
paragraph?
A. How are snowflakes formed?
B. What is the optimum temperature for snow?
C. In which months does most snow fall?
D. Why are snowflakes hexagonal?
32. The word "minute" is closest in meaning to ______________.
A. clear B. quick C. tiny D. sharp
33. What is at the center of an ice crystal?
A. a nucleus B. a small snowflake
C. a drop of water D. a hexagon
34. The word "adhere" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to_________.
A. speed B. relate
C. belong D. stick
35. What is the main topic of the second paragraph?
A. How ice crystals form.
B. How moisture affects temperature.
C. What happens when ice crystals melt.
D. Where the moisture to supply the nuclei comes from.
36. The word "it" in paragraph 2 refers to ________________.
A. moisture B. snowflake C. cluster D. snowfall
37. What is necessary for a snowfall to persist?
A. a continuous infusion of moisture
B. lowered vapor pressure in ice crystals
C. a decrease in the number of snowflakes
D. a change in the direction of the airstream
38. How do lake-effect snowstorms form?
A. Large quantities of wet air come off a nearby mountain.
B. Water temperature drop below freezing.
C. Moisture rises from a lake into the airstream.
D. Millions of ice crystals form on the surface of a large lake.
39. The word "initiate" is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. begin B. alter
C. increase D. enhance
40. Which of the following could account for the lack of snowfall in a
geographical location close to mountains and a major water source?
A. Too much moisture in the air
B. Ground temperatures below the freezing point
C. Atmospheric temperatures above the freezing point.
D. Too much wind off the mountains.
PRACTICE 4

QUESTIONS 1-10

READ THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE AND CHOOSE THE BEST ANSWERS.

In the past, a classic American school lunch included peanut butter and jelly
sandwich, but those days are over. Peanuts have become too dangerous to be in the
classroom. In the last 5 to 10 years, there has been an increase in the number of children
who have peanut allergies. Peanut allergies can be fatal. If someone with a peanut
allergy is exposed to peanuts, they can get very sick. They might get red bumps on their
bodies, have stomach pains, have trouble breathing, or stop breathing all together!
Because of this health issue, parents have tried to have peanuts taken out of schools and
restaurants. Governments have also tried to help people avoid allergic reactions by
making companies label their products with warnings. The label "MAY CONTAIN
PEANUTS" can be found on hundreds of foods in your local grocery store. In the future,
more steps could be taken to stop accidents involving peanut allergies. Over 1,500
Americans die each year because of peanuts. If you ever feel sick after eating foods
containing peanuts, go to the doctor and find out if you have a peanut allergy. The last
thing you want is the peanut butter in your sandwich to kill you!
1. The word “fatal” is closest meaning to _______
A. unlucky B. deadly C. sickly D. uncomfortable
2. The word “They” refers to _________
A. Restaurants B. peanut-allergic people
C. American parents D. schools

3. Based on the passage, what symptoms can peanut allergy cause?

A. red bumps and stop breathing
B. stomachache and headache
C. trouble breathing and pollen allergies
D. high fever and sore throat
4. Why does the author mention the peanut-allergic danger?
A. to make people aware of the potential dangers of eating peanuts
B. to advise people not to eat peanuts at schools
C. to recommend people eat more peanuts for health protection
D. to warn people that eating peanuts can be addictive
5. Which of the following is true of the allergies?
A. Only schools and restaurants can use peanuts.
B. Supermarkets and factories are not allowed for using peanuts.
C. Allergic reactions occurring all together.
D. Government recommend people eat more peanuts.
6. What solution is given by the government to prevent allergies?
A. Children are not allowed to eat peanuts and peanut products
B. Prohibit the sale of peanut-based products
 C. Allow only selling fresh peanuts
D. Getting companies to add notes on their products
7. What is the purpose of the notice "MAY CONTAIN PEANUTS" on the
product?
A. notify the peanut-allergic people to avoid eating these products.
B. notify that these products are safe for people with peanut allergy.
C. notify that the ingredients of the products are fresh and safe for everyone.
D. recommend everyone to avoid using these product containing peanuts.
8. Which of the following is NOT true?
A. 1500 Americans die each year because of peanut-allergic reactions.
B. Only Americans die each year because of peanuts on over the world.
C. Americans try to remove peanuts in schools and restaurants.
D. The government is still looking for a solution to prevent peanut allergy.
9. Based on the passage, what should we do when we have an allergic reaction?
A. buy and drink medicine on your own
B. relax and wait until the symptoms are gone
C. go to see the doctor
D. act as normal as if nothing happened
10. What is the main purpose of the passage?
A. To give the information about peanut allergies
B. To teach the history of peanuts in America
C. To explain the symptoms of peanut allergies
D. To argue that peanuts should not be in school
QUESTIONS 31-40
READ THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE AND CHOOSE THE BEST ANSWERS
Today’s cars are smaller, safer, cleaner, and more economical than their predecessors,
but the car of the future will be far more pollution-free than those on the road today.
Several new types of automobile engines have already been developed than run on
alternative sources of power, such as electricity, compressed natural gas, methanol,
steam, hydrogen, and propane. Electricity, however, is the only zero-emission option
presently available.
Although electric vehicles will not be truly practical until a powerful, compact battery or
other dependable source of current is available, transport experts foresee a new
assortment of electric vehicles entering everyday life: shorter-range commuter electric
cars, three-wheeled neighborhood cars, electric delivery vans, bikes and trolleys.
As automakers work to develop practical electrical vehicles, urban planners and utility
engineers are focusing on infrastructure systems to support and make the best use of the
new cars. Public charging facilities will need to be as common as today’s gas stations.
Public parking spots on the street or in commercial lots will need to be equipped with
devices that allow drivers to charge their batteries while they stop, dine, or attend a
concert. To encourage the use of electric vehicles, the most convenient parking in
transportation centers might be reserved for electric cars.
Planners foresee electric shuttle buses, trains, buses and neighborhood vehicles all
meeting at transit centers that would have facilities for charging and renting. Commuters
will be able to rent a variety of electric cars to suit their needs: light trucks, one-person
three-wheelers, small cars, or electric/gasoline hybrid cars for longer trips, which will no
doubt take place on automated freeways capable of handling five times the number of
vehicles that can be carried by freeway today.
31. The following electric vehicles are all mentioned in the passage
EXCEPT________.
A. planes B. trains C. vans D. trolleys
32. The word “charging” in this passage refer to ____________.
A. credit cards B. electricity C. parking D. lightening
33. According to the passage, public parking lots of the future will be _____.
A. much large than they are today B. as common as today’s gas stations
C. equipped with charging devices D. more convenient than they are today
34. The word “compact” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to
A. long-range B. inexpensive C. concentrated D. squared
35. In the second paragraph the author implies that _____________.
A. a dependable source of electric energy will eventually be.
B. everyday life will stay such the same in the future.
C. a single electric vehicle will eventually replace several modern of electric.
D. vehicles are not practical for the future.
36. The word “hybrid” in the last paragraph is closet in meaning to _______
A. hazardous B. futuristic C. automated D. combination.
37. This passage would most likely be found in a _________________.
A. textbook on urban planning. B. history book
C. popular psychology periodical D. medical journal
38. The author’s purpose in the passage is to ___________
A. criticize conventional vehicles.
B. narrate a story about alternative energy vehicles.
C. describe the possibilities for transportation in the future.
D. support the invention of electric cars
39. The passage would most likely be followed by details about _______________.
A. pollution restrictions in the future B. automated freeways
C. the neighborhood of the future D. electric shuttle buses
40. It can be inferred from the passage that ________________.
A. electricity is the best alternative source of power as it is almost free of pollution
B. the present cars are more economical than their future generation
C. the present electric engines are the best option as being practical
D. many new types of practical electric engines have been developed