FT [TYM] Medical 2223 Test (1)

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25/06/2022
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5
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13-07-2022 TYMR
CODE-A
Phase-1
Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456
MM : 360 FORTNIGHTLY TEST SERIES Time :90 min.

(for NEET 2024)
Test - 2
Physics : Units and Measurements: Errors in measurements, Significant figures, Dimensions of physical
quantities, Dimensional formulae & dimensional equations, Dimensional analysis and its
applications
Chemistry : Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry: Dalton's atomic theory, Atomic and molecular masses:
Atomic mass, Average atomic mass, Molecular mass, Formula mass, Mole concepts & Molar
masses, Percentage Composition, Empirical formula for molecular formula, Stoichiometry and
stoichiometric calculations, Limiting reagent
Botany : Cell: The Unit of Life: Cell wall, endomembrane system - endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi body,
lysosome, vacuole, mitochondria, plastid, ribosome, cytoskeleton, centrosome and centrioles, cilia
and flagella, Nucleus, Chromosome, Microbodies
Zoology : Structural Organisation in Animals: Animal tissues-II: Dense connective tissues- characters
with examples, Supportive connective tissue: Cartilage, Types of cartilage-Hyaline, Elastic, white
fibrocartilage & Calcified cartilage, Bone, its structure & composition, Differences between cartilage
& bone, Types of bones: Compact bone, Spongy bone, Dried bone & decalcified bone; Investing
bone, Sesamoid bone and Visceral bone. Muscular Tissue: Types of Muscles, Skeletal muscles
Instructions :
(i) Use Blue/Black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
(iii) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing
material on Answer sheet.
(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.
PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer :
1. The dimensional formula of density is 2. The error in the measurement of radius of sphere
(1) [MLT 2] is 3%. The maximum percentage error in the
(2) [ML 3T0] measurement of its volume is
(3) [M0L 3T] (1) 1% (2) 6%
(4) [ML2T 2] (3) 2% (4) 9%
(1)
Vivek Krishna
Fortnightly Test-2 (TYMR_Code-A) Two Year Medical-2024
3. The distance x covered by a particle in time t is 12. The dimension of length in the dimensional
given by x = a + bt + ct2 + dt3. The dimensions of formula of energy is
the quantity c is (1) 1 (2) 2
(1) [LT 2] (2) [L 4T6]
(3) 1 (4) 2
(3) [L4T4] (4) [L 4T 4]
13. Which of the following quantities is
4. One newton is equal to dimensionless?
(1) 105 dyne (2) 106 dyne (1) Relative velocity (2) Angle
(3) 107 dyne (4) 109 dyne (3) Displacement (4) Both (1) and (2)
5. If an object of mass m has velocity v, then the 14. Three physical quantities A, B and C are related
dimensions of mv2 is same as that of as A = B + C, then
(1) Work (2) Energy (1) Dimensions of A, B and C are same

(2) Dimensions of A, B and C are different
(3) Force (4) Both (1) and (2)
(3) Dimensions of A and B are same but
6. If the percentage error in measuring a, b and c
dimensions of A and C are different
are 1%, 2% and 3% respectively, then the
maximum percentage error in the quantity (4) Dimensions of B and C are same but
dimensions of A and C are different
a
Z is 15. If position (x) of a moving body depends on
bc
acceleration (a) and time (t), then select the
(1) 2% (2) 1%
(dimensionally) correct relation.
(3) 3% (4) 6%
7. The length of two rods l1 and l2 are (3.0 ± 0.2) cm (1) (2) x at2
and (2.0 ± 0.1) cm respectively. The difference in
their length is reported as (3) (4) x a2t
(1) (1.0 ± 0.3) cm (2) (1.0 ± 0.1) cm
16. If the dimensions of force is represented as
(3) (1.0 ± 0.2) cm (4) (1.0 ± 0.0) cm
[MaLbTc], then the value of a, b and c respectively
8. If the percentage error in the measurements of are
mass and velocity of body are 4% and 5%
(1) 1, 1, 1 (2) 1, 2, 2
respectively, then the maximum percentage error
in the measurement of momentum of the body is (3) 1, 1, 2 (4) 1, 1, 2
(1) 4% (2) 9% 17. Which of the following equations is dimensionally

incorrect? (Symbols have their usual meanings)
(3) 1% (4) 5%
9. The number of significant figures in the measured (1) v = u + at (2)
value 0.4010 g is
(1) One (2) Two (3) v2 u2 = 4as (4)
(3) Four (4) Three
18. If physical quantity y is given by y = a log(bt),
10. Rounding off the given measured value up to where y is in meter and t is in second, then the
three significant figure 3.965 m gives dimensions of a is same as the dimensions of
(1) 3.96 m (2) 3.97 m (1) Velocity (2) Length
(3) 3.95 m (4) 3.90 m (3) Acceleration (4) Time
11. The number of significant figures in measured 19. The dimensional formula of change in linear
value 5.40 × 103 are momentum is
(1) 2 (2) 3 (1) [MLT 1] (2) [MLT 2]
(3) 5 (4) 6 (3) [MLT 3] (4) [ML2T 1]
(2)
Vivek Krishna
Two Year Medical-2024 Fortnightly Test-2 (TYMR_Code-A)
20. If z = A + B, where A = (a ± a), B = (b ± b) then 22. The number of significant zeros in the number
mean absolute error z is given as 6.0023 are
(1) ( a + b) (2) ( a b) (1) 2 (2) 5
(3) 4 (4) 3
(3) (4) (b a + a b)
23. A force F is applied on a square plate of side L. If
21. If velocity (V), time (T) and force (F) were chosen the percentage error in determination of L is 1%
as basic quantities, the dimensions of momentum and that in F is 4%, then the permissible error in
would be pressure is
(1) [FTV 1] (2) [FTV0] (1) 6% (2) 8%
(3) [FTV 2] (4) [FT 1V2] (3) 4% (4) 2%
CHEMISTRY
24. Mass percentage of sulphur in SO3 is (Atomic (1) 6.02 × 1023 (2) 6.02 × 1020
mass of sulphur = 32 u) (3) 1.806 × 1021 (4) 1.204 × 1020
(1) 25% (2) 60% 32. A hydrocarbon contains 92.3% carbon by mass.
(3) 50% (4) 40% The empirical formula of the hydrocarbon is
25. Molecular mass of glucose (C6H12O6) molecule is (1) CH4 (2) CH2
(1) 80 g (2) 180 u (3) CH (4) CH3
(3) 96 g (4) 96 u 33. 10 g of S reacts with excess of O 2 to form 15 g of
26. 134.5 g of metal chloride contain 71 g of chlorine. SO2. The % yield of the reaction is
The equivalent weight of the metal is (1) 25% (2) 50%
(1) 63.5 g (2) 31.75 g (3) 75% (4) 100%
(3) 180 g (4) 13.45 g 34. Incorrect postulate of Daltons atomic theory is
27. Number of He atoms in 52 u of He is (1) Matter consists of indivisible atoms
(1) 52 (2) 13 (2) Atoms of different elements have same mass
(3) 26 (4) 65 (3) Compounds are formed when atoms of
28. In which of the following, formula mass is different elements combined in a fixed ratio
preferred over molecular mass? (4) Chemical reactions involve reorganisation of
(1) H2O (2) NaCl atoms
(3) CH4 (4) NH3 35. 1 amu is
(1) 1.66 × 10 24 kg (2) 1.66 × 10 27 kg
29. The ratio of the number of atoms present in 16 g
of O2 and 32 g of O3 is (3) 1.66 × 10 27 g (4) 6.02 × 1023 g
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 2 : 1 36. An element X exist in two isotopes 10X(40%) and
12X(60%). The average atomic mass of element X
(3) 1 : 3 (4) 1 : 2
is
30. Total number of electrons in 81 g of Al3+ ion
are (Given : atomic no. of Al = 13 and atomic (1) 10.5 g (2) 11.2 g
mass = 27 u) (3) 10 g (4) 11.4 g
(1) 1.806 × 1025 (2) 6.02 × 1024 37. The number of protons present in 90 ml of water
(3) 1.22 × 1025 (4) 2.347 × 1025 is (NA = Avogadro number, density of water is
1 g/mL)
31. The number of oxygen atoms present in 100 mg
of CaCO3 is (Atomic mass of Ca = 40 u, C = 12 u, (1) 0.5 NA (2) 5 NA
O = 16 u) (3) 50 NA (4) 0.05 NA
(3)
Vivek Krishna
38. The mass of carbon present in 0.5 mole of 42. If two elements A and B form two compounds
K4[Fe(CN)6] is AB2 and AB3. If 0.5 mole of AB2 weighs 32 g and
(1) 1.8 g (2) 18 g 2 moles of AB3 weighs 160 g. Then the atomic
weights of A and B will be respectively
(3) 3.6 g (4) 36 g
39. 7.5 g of a gas occupy 5.6 litre of volume at S.T.P. (1) 16, 32 (2) 32, 16
The gas will be (3) 16, 16 (4) 32, 32
(1) NO (2) N2O 43. Volume of O2 required at STP for the complete
(3) CO (4) CO2 combustion of 2.4 g of carbon is
40. If 56 g of N2 reacts with 9 g of H2, then the mass (1) 4.48 L (2) 2.24 L
of ammonia formed is (3) 5.6 L (4) 6.72 L
(1) 45 g (2) 64 g 44. Total number of atoms present in 2 mole of
(3) 62 g (4) 51 g ammonium ion is
41. Haemoglobin contains 0.25% iron by weight. The (1) NA × 8 atoms (2) NA × 10 atoms
molecular weight of haemoglobin is 89000 u. The
(3) NA atoms (4) NA × 12 atoms
number of iron atom(s) per molecule of
haemoglobin is 45. Mass of 0.2 moles of urea (NH2CONH2) is
(1) 3 atoms (2) 4 atoms (1) 30 g (2) 15 g
(3) 2 atoms (4) 1 atom (3) 42 g (4) 12 g
BOTANY
46. Space between the two membranes of nuclear 51. Select the statement which is not true for the cell
envelope is called organelle first observed by George Palade.
(1) Pericentriolar space (1) These are composed of RNA and proteins
(2) Luminal space
(2) In eukaryotes, these organelles are
(3) Perinuclear space composed of 60S and 40S subunits only
(4) Intranuclear space
(3) These organelles are also found in bacteria
47. An elaborate network of filamentous
(4) These are not surrounded by any membrane
proteinaceous structures present in the cytoplasm
is called 52. Which one is odd w.r.t. endomembrane system?
(1) Cytoskeleton (2) Spoke (1) ER
(3) Axoneme (4) Vesicle (2) Lysosome
48. The arrangement of axonemal microtubules in (3) Golgi complex
eukaryotic cilia and flagella is
(4) Peroxisome
(1) 9 + 2 (2) 9 + 0
(3) 18 + 2 (4) 27 + 2 53. Match the column-I with column-II and select the
correct option.
49. Membrane bound minute vesicles that contain
various enzymes, present in both plants and Column-I Column-II
animal cells are called (Examples)
(Types of leucoplast)
(1) Vacuoles (2) Macrobodies
(3) Microbodies (4) Centrosomes a. Elaioplast (i) Potato
50. Choose odd one w.r.t. the presence of nucleus. b. Amyloplast (ii) Maize
(1) Mature Sieve tube cell
c. Aleuroplast (iii) Castor
(2) Nerve cell
(3) Mesophyll cell (1) a(iii), b(i), c(ii) (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii)
(4) White blood cell (3) a(ii), b(iii), c(i) (4) a(i), b(iii), c(ii)
(4)
Vivek Krishna
54. A chromosome has centromere slightly away 61. Middle lamella of plant cells
from the centre, resulting into one shorter arm (1) Is composed of cellulose only
and one longer arm, known as
(2) Is composed of galactans and mannans
(1) Telocentric (2) Sub-metacentric
(3) Holds the two neighbouring cells together
(3) Acrocentric (4) Metacentric
(4) Is composed of hemicellulose mainly
55. Two ribosome subunits remain united with each 62. In animal cells, detoxification of drugs and steroid
other due to a specific concentration of synthesis are associated to
(1) Ca++ (2) Mn++ (1) Golgi apparatus
(3) Mg++ (4) Fe++ (2) Rough endoplasmic reticulum
56. Both mitochondria and chloroplast (3) Microbodies
(1) Have two membranes in which inner (4) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
membrane forms cristae
63. Which of the following is continuous with outer
(2) Lack ribosomes nuclear membrane and have attachment of
(3) Contain photosynthetic pigments ribosomes for protein synthesis?
(4) Are semi-autonomous organelles (1) Lysosome
57. Which of the cell organelles is known as suicidal (2) Golgi complex
bag of the cell? (3) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
(1) Vacuole (4) Rough endoplasmic reticulum
(2) Lysosome 64. Basal body of cilia and flagella in eukaryotes is
(3) RER formed by
(4) Peroxisome (1) Mesosomes (2) Centrioles
58. Select the correct option for the given (3) Lysosomes (4) Golgi apparatus
statements A and B. 65. Primary constriction of a chromosome is known
A. Centrosome is an organelle without as
membrane. (1) Centromere (2) Kinetochore
B. Centrioles in a centrosome lie parallel to each (3) Centrosome (4) Satellite
other like the cartwheel. 66. The living connection of two adjacent plant cells
(1) Only A is correct is formed by
(2) Both A and B are correct (1) Middle lamella
(3) Only B is correct (2) Carrier proteins
(4) Both A and B are incorrect (3) Plasmodesmata
59. In plant cells, Golgi apparatus is called (4) Cell wall
(1) Heterophagosome 67. The site for rRNA synthesis in eukaryotes is
(2) Diplosome (1) Cytosol
(3) Sphaerosome (2) Centrosome
(4) Dictyosome (3) Nucleolus
60. The matrix of an ATP producing cell organelle in (4) Perinuclear space
an animal cell contains all, except 68. Plant cell wall
(1) RNA molecules (1) Is made up of chitin
(2) Single circular DNA molecule (2) Protects the cell from infection
(3) 80S ribosomes (3) Is selectively permeable
(4) 70S ribosomes (4) Is impermeable
(5)
Vivek Krishna
ZOOLOGY
69. Voluntary with striation condition is reported in 77. Select the correct example of dense regular
(1) Smooth muscle fibres connective tissue.
(2) Biceps (1) Cartilage (2) Bone
(3) Cardiac muscles (3) Lymph (4) Tendon
(4) Collagen fibres 78. Connective tissue that links bone to bone is
70. Read the following statements w.r.t. skeletal (1) Tendon

muscles and identify the characteristic feature. (2) Ligament
A. Skeletal muscles are closely attached to (3) Dense irregular connective tissue
bones with the help of tendon. (4) Areolar tissue
B. Typical example of skeletal tissue is biceps. 79. Read the statements carefully.
C. These tissues show parallel arrangement of Statement A: The matrix of bone is very hard
muscle fibres. and non-pliable.
Select the correct option. Statement B: Deposition of inorganic salts
(1) A only (2) A and B only makes a bone hard and non-pliable.
(3) B and C only (4) A, B and C Choose the correct option from the given below.
71. Skeletal muscle fibres are also described as (1) Both statements A and B are correct
(1) Smooth muscle fibres (2) Statement A is correct
(2) Fusiform muscle fibres (3) Both statements A and B are incorrect
(3) Involuntary muscle fibres (4) Statement B is correct
(4) Striped muscle fibres 80. In animal body, the most widely distributed
connective tissue is
72. Muscle fibres are composed of numerous fine
(1) Adipose tissue
fibrils called
(2) Areolar tissue
(1) Biceps (2) Fibroblasts
(3) Dense regular connective tissue
(3) Myofibrils (4) Striations
(4) Specialized connective tissue
73. Select the correct statement w.r.t. bone.
81. The intercellular material of the given figure is
(1) Provides flexibility to the body parts.
rich in calcium salts and it provides structural
(2) Does not resist compression. frame of the body.
(3) Smoothens surface of joints.
(4) Structural frame work of the body.
74. Cartilage is not related to
(1) Osteocytes (2) Tip of nose
(3) Ear pinna (4) Chondrocytes
75. Lacunae contain bone cells referred to as
Choose the correct option that states the name
(1) Osteocyte (2) Chondrocyte
of the tissue and the function.
(3) Chondroblast (4) Mast cell (1) Bone Help in locomotion and
76. All connective tissues except ______, contains movement
cells which secrete fibres like collagen or elastin. (2) Cartilage Resists compression
Select the option which fills the blank correctly. (3) Bone No lacunae
(1) Cartilage (2) Bone (4) Bone No role in locomotion and
(3) Blood (4) Adipose movement
(6)
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82. Which one among the following is false about 86. Matrix of bone is characterised by the presence
cartilage? of
(1) Its intercellular matrix is hard and non-pliable. (1) Calcium salts, osteocytes and elastin fibres
(2) Chondrocytes are enclosed in small cavities (2) Calcium salts, lacunae and chondrocytes
within matrix secreted by them. (3) Collagen fibres only
(3) Most of the cartilages in vertebrate embryos (4) Calcium salts, collagen fibres, lacunae and
are replaced by bones in adults. osteocyte
(4) It is present between adjacent bones of 87. The type of tissue present at the tip of nose is
vertebral column.
(1) Cartilage (2) Bone
83. Nasal septum is formed by
(3) Tendon (4) Protein fibres
(a) Cartilage
88. If ligaments are torn, then
(b) Bone
(1) Bones will become unfixed only
(c) Cartilage and tendon
(2) Bones will become freely movable at joints
(d) Tendon and ligament
(3) Formation of RBC will not occur
(1) Both (b) and (d)
(4) Bones will become fixed
(2) (b) only
89. Matrix occurs in the form of concentric rings in
(3) (b), (c) and (d)
A. Cartilage
(4) (a) only
B. Bone
84. Characteristic feature of a mammalian bone does
not include presence of C. Areolar tissue
(1) Bone marrow in some bones for the D. Tendon

formation of blood cells Select the correct option from given below.
(2) Osteocytes in lacunae (1) A and B (2) A, B and C
(3) Collagen fibres and calcium salts for strength (3) B, D and C (4) D and A
(4) Elastin fibres for extensibility and pliability 90. Among the following, which one is not an
85. Cartilage example of dense regular connective tissue?
(1) Is harder than bone (a) Ligament

(2) Is present only in mammals (b) Tendon
(3) Provides support and flexibility to body parts (c) Dermis (skin)
and resists compression. (1) Only (a) (2) (a) and (b) only
(4) Is an example of loose connective tissue. (3) Only (c) (4) (a) and (c) only
(7)
Vivek Krishna
1 -07-2022 TYMR
CODE-A
Phase-1
MM : 360 FORTNIGHTLY TEST SERIES Time : 90 min.
(for NEET 2024)
Test - 2
Answer Key
1. (2) 19. (1) 37. (3) 55. (3) 73. (4)
2. (4) 20. (1) 38. (4) 56. (4) 74. (1)
3. (1) 21. (2) 39. (1) 57. (2) 75. (1)
4. (1) 22. (1) 40. (4) 58. (1) 76. (3)
5. (4) 23. (1) 41. (2) 59. (4) 77. (4)
6. (4) 24. (4) 42. (2) 60. (3) 78. (2)
7. (1) 25. (2) 43. (1) 61. (3) 79. (1)
8. (2) 26. (2) 44. (2) 62. (4) 80. (2)
9. (3) 27. (2) 45. (4) 63. (4) 81. (1)
10. (1) 28. (2) 46. (3) 64. (2) 82. (1)
11. (2) 29. (4) 47. (1) 65. (1) 83. (4)
12. (2) 30. (1) 48. (1) 66. (3) 84. (4)
13. (2) 31. (3) 49. (3) 67. (3) 85. (3)
14. (1) 32. (3) 50. (1) 68. (2) 86. (4)
15. (2) 33. (3) 51. (2) 69. (2) 87. (1)
16. (3) 34. (2) 52. (4) 70. (4) 88. (1)
17. (4) 35. (2) 53. (1) 71. (4) 89. (Del)
18. (2) 36. (2) 54. (2) 72. (3) 90. (3)
(1)
Vivek Krishna
Two Year Medical-2024 Fortnightly Test-2 (TYMR_Code-A)_(Hints and Solutions)
13-07-2022 TYMR
CODE-A
Phase-1
(for NEET 2024)

Test - 2
Hints and Solutions
PHYSICS
1. Answer (2) 9. Answer (3)
Number of significant figures in 0.4010 g is four.
10. Answer (1)
2. Answer (4) After rounding off to three significant figures value
is reported as 3.96 m.
11. Answer (2)
In (5.40 × 103), number of significant figures 3.
3. Answer (1)
12. Answer (2)
[x] = [ct2]
[E] = [ML2T 2]
So, [c] = [LT 2]
13. Answer (2)
4. Answer (1)
Angle has no dimensions. It has only unit.
1 N = 105 dyne.
14. Answer (1)
5. Answer (4)
The quantities which are added, subtracted or
[mv2] = [ML2T 2]
equated should have same dimensions.
[Work] = [Energy] = [ML2T 2] 15. Answer (2)
6. Answer (4) at2 has same dimension of x
16. Answer (3)
[F] = [MLT 2] = [MaLbTc]
= 1 + 2 + 3 = 6% a = 1, b = 1, c = 2
l1 = (3.0 ± 0.2) cm
l2 = (2.0 ± 0.1) cm For equation
l1 l2 = (1.0 ± 0.3) cm [LT 1] = LHS and RHS = [L]

8. Answer (2) Since dimensions on LHS and RHS are not equal
p = mv hence this equation is dimensionally incorrect.
18. Answer (2)
y = a log(bt)
= 4 + 5 = 9% [a] = [L]
(2)
Vivek Krishna
Fortnightly Test-2 (TYMR_Code-A)_(Hints and Solutions) Two Year Medical-2024

p = [MLT 1]
The zeroes appearing between two non-zero
20. Answer (1) digits are significant. Hence the number of
z=A+B significant zeros is 2.
(z ± z) = (a + b) ± ( a + b)
23. Answer (1)
z = ( a + b)
21. Answer (2)
F=M×Q
Mass = [FTV 1]
and P = MV = [FTV 1][V] = [FT]
CHEMISTRY
24. Answer (4)
Mass percentage of sulphur
25. Answer (2)

30. Answer (1)
Molecular mass of C6H12O6
= 6 × 12 + 12 × 1 + 6 × 16 = 180 u
26. Answer (2)
Total number of electrons = n × number of
Mass of metal (M) = 134.5 71 = 63.5 g electrons in 1 AI3+ × NA
= 3 × 10 × 6.02 × 1023
= 1.806 × 1025
31. Answer (3)
Number of moles of oxygen = 3 × 10 3
Number of atoms of O = 3 × 10 3 × 6.02 × 1023

27. Answer (2)
= 1.806 × 1021
Atomic mass of He is 4 u.
32. Answer (3)
Number of He atoms
Relative
Atomic No. of
28. Answer (2) Element % no. of
mass moles
moles
NaCl is an ionic compound and for ionic
compounds, formula mass is preferred instead of
C 92.3 12 u 7.7
molecular mass.
29. Answer (4) 100 92.3
H 1u 7.7
= 7.7
The empirical formula of the compound is

CH.
(3)
Vivek Krishna
So, H2 is the limiting reagent
So, amount of ammonia formed
41. Answer (2)
100 g Haemoglobin 0.25 g Fe
= 75%
89000 g Haemoglobin
34. Answer (2)
Atoms of different elements differ in mass. Number of Fe-atom

35. Answer (2)
24 42. Answer (2)
1 amu = 1.66 × 10 g
27 1 mole of AB2 weighs = 64 g
or 1.66 × 10 kg
1 mole of AB3 weighs = 80 g
36. Answer (2)
WA + 2WB = 64, where WA = atomic weight of A
Average atomic mass
WB = atomic weight of B
37. Answer (3) WA + 3WB = 80
On solving,
Number of protons in 1 mole of H2O = 10 NA
Number of protons in 5 mole of H2O = 5 × 10 NA 43. Answer (1)

= 50 NA
38. Answer (4)
1 mole K4[Fe(CN)6] 6 mol of C
0.5 mole of K4[Fe(CN)6] 3 mol of C

44. Answer (2)
= 36 g of C
1 mole of ion contains 5 NA atoms
39. Answer (1)
So, 2 mole of ion contains 10 NA atoms
45. Answer (4)
[Molar mass of NH2CONH2 is 60 g]
So, the gas is NO. w = 0.2 × 60 = 12 g
(4)
Vivek Krishna
BOTANY
Space between the two membranes of nuclear The cell organelle, which has hydrolytic enzymes
envelope is called perinuclear space. is known as suicidal bag of the cell. This cell
47. Answer (1) organelle is lysosome.
58. Answer (1)
An elaborate network of filamentous
proteinaceous structures present in the Both centrioles in a centrosome lie perpendicular
cytoplasm of an eukaryotic cell is called to each other in which each has an organisation
cytoskeleton. like cartwheel.

In plant cells, Golgi apparatus is known as
The arrangement of axonemal microtubules in
dictyosome.
eukaryotic cilia and flagella is 9 + 2.
60. Answer (3)
49. Answer (3)
Ribosomes present in the matrix of mitochondria
Membrane bound minute vesicles that contain
are of 70S type.
various enzymes, present in both plants and
61. Answer (3)
animals are called microbodies.
Middle lamella is composed of calcium pectate
50. Answer (1)
and magnesium pectate mainly and holds the
Mature Sieve tube cell lacks nucleus. two neighbouring cells together.
Eukaryotes have both 70S and 80S ribosomes. In animal cells, detoxification of drugs and steroid
70S ribosome has 50S and 30S subunits, synthesis are associated to smooth endoplasmic
whereas 80S ribosome has 60S and 40S reticulum.
subunits. 63. Answer (4)
52. Answer (4) Rough endoplasmic reticulum is continuous with
ER, Golgi complex, lysosome and vacuole nuclear membrane and is involved in protein
constitute endomembrane system of an synthesis.
eukaryotic cell. Peroxisome is a microbody. 64. Answer (2)
53. Answer (1) The basal body of cilia and flagella is formed by
Elaioplast Castor centrioles.
Amyloplast Potato 65. Answer (1)
Aleuroplast Maize Chromatids of chromosomes are held together at

primary constriction. Primary constriction is
54. Answer (2) known as centromere which holds the two halves
Chromosomes having one shorter arm and one of a chromosome.
longer arm exhibit L-shape during anaphase. 66. Answer (3)
Such chromosomes are called sub-metacentric.
Symplast of two adjacent cells are connected via
55. Answer (3) cytoplasmic strands or plasmodesmata. They are
Specific concentration of Mg++ ions is required for lined by plasma membrane.
association of ribosome sub-units. 67. Answer (3)
56. Answer (4) Nucleolus is the site for rRNA synthesis.
Both mitochondria and chloroplast have their own 68. Answer (2)
DNA and ribosomes and are semiautonomous Cell wall allows materials to pass freely in and
and contain 70S ribosomes. Mitochondrial inner out of the cell. Hence cell wall is completely
membrane forms cristae. permeable. It protects the cell from infection.
(5)
Vivek Krishna
ZOOLOGY
Striated muscles are mostly voluntary. Bone have hard and non-pliable ground
substance rich in calcium salts and collagen
70. Answer (4)
fibres which provides structural frame to the
Skeletal muscle tissue is closely attached to body.
skeletal bones. In a typical muscle such as the
82. Answer (1)
biceps, striated (striped) skeletal muscle fibres
Matrix in cartilage is solid, pliable and resists
are bundled together in a parallel fashion.
compression.
71. Answer (4)
83. Answer (4)
Skeletal muscles have a stripe like appearance
Elastic cartilage/yellow fibrocartilage Tip of
and they also show alternate dark and light nose.
striations or band.
White fibrocartilage Joint between adjacent
72. Answer (3) vertebrae.
Muscle fibres are also called as muscle cells. 84. Answer (4)
73. Answer (4) Bone matrix is hard and non-pliable.
Cartilage provides support and flexibility to the 85. Answer (3)
body parts and resist compression. Cartilage is less harder than bone and provides
74. Answer (1) support and flexibility to the body parts and does
resist compression.
Osteocytes are present in lacunae of bone.
86. 4
75. Answer (1)
The matrix of bone is characterised by the
Osteocyte and osteoblast, are related to bones.
presence of calcium phosphate, calcium
76. Answer (3) carbonate, ossein and collagen fibres.
Blood is fluid connective tissue. 87. Answer (1)
77. Answer (4) Cartilage is present in the tip of nose, outer ear
In tendons, the collagen fibres are present in joints between adjacent bones of vertebral
column, limbs and hands in adults.
rows between many parallel bundles of fibres.
88. Answer (1)
78. Answer (2)
Ligament connects bone to bone. If it is torn,
Tendons link skeletal muscle to bone.
bones become unfixed and unstable.
79. Answer (1)
89. (Delete)
Bone have a hard and non-pliable ground Matrix occurs in the form of concentric rings in
substance rich in calcium and collagen which bones.
given bone its strength.
90. Answer (3)
80. Answer (2) Ligament and tendon are dense regular
Specialized connective tissue includes bone, connective tissue while dermis is formed by
cartilage and blood. dense irregular connective tissue.
(6)
Vivek Krishna
16-07-2022 TYMW
CODE-D
Phase-1

(for NEET 2024)
Test - 2
Physics : Units and Measurements: Errors in measurements, Significant figures, Dimensions of physical
quantities, Dimensional formulae & dimensional equations, Dimensional analysis and its
applications
Chemistry : Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry: Dalton's atomic theory, Atomic and molecular masses:
Atomic mass, Average atomic mass, Molecular mass, Formula mass, Mole concepts & Molar
masses, Percentage Composition, Empirical formula for molecular formula, Stoichiometry and
stoichiometric calculations, Limiting reagent
Botany : Cell: The Unit of Life: Cell wall, endomembrane system - endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi body,
lysosome, vacuole, mitochondria, plastid, ribosome, cytoskeleton, centrosome and centrioles, cilia
and flagella, Nucleus, Chromosome, Microbodies
Zoology : Structural Organisation in Animals: Animal tissues-II: Dense connective tissues- characters
with examples, Supportive connective tissue: Cartilage, Types of cartilage-Hyaline, Elastic, white
fibrocartilage & Calcified cartilage, Bone, its structure & composition, Differences between cartilage
& bone, Types of bones: Compact bone, Spongy bone, Dried bone & decalcified bone; Investing
bone, Sesamoid bone and Visceral bone. Muscular Tissue: Types of Muscles, Skeletal muscles
Instructions :
PHYSICS
1. 2. If z = 2(a + b) then maximum permissible error in
0.003020 is
z is (where a is absolute error in a and b is
(1) 2
absolute error in b).
(2) 3
(1) 2( a + b) (2) a+ b
(3) 4
(4) 5 (3) a b + b a (4) a b b a
(1)
Vivek Krishna
Fortnightly Test-2 (TYMW_Code-D) Two Year Medical-2024
3. The dimensions of the ratio of angular 10. Which of the following equations is dimensionally
momentum to linear momentum is incorrect? (Symbols have their usual meaning)
(1) [M0L1T0] (2) [M1L1T0]
(1) (2) F = mv
(3) [M0L1T 2] (4) [M0L0T 1]
4. Zero error belongs to the category of
(3) (4) v = u + at
(1) Instrumental errors
(2) Experimental errors 11. If three quantities A, B and C have same non-
(3) Personal errors zero dimensions, then which of the following
equation(s) is/are correct?
(4) Random errors
(1) A = B + C
5. Three objects having masses as 0.307 g, 0.52 g
(2) A = B C
and 0.4 g are added. Total mass corrected to
appropriate significant digits should be (3) A = BC
(1) 1.2 g (4) Both (1) and (2)

12. A force F is applied on a square area of side L. If
(2) 1.22 g
the percentage error in measurement of L is 2%
(3) 1.227 g
and that in F is 4%. The maximum percentage
(4) 1.2270 g error in pressure is
6. The number of significant figures in 3.10 × 103 is (1) 2% (2) 4%
(1) Two (2) Three (3) 6% (4) 8%
(3) Four (4) Five 13. If 1 g cm/s = x kg m/s, the value of x is
7. Which of the following does not have dimensions (1) 10 3 (2) 10 2
of force? (3) 10 5 (4) 10 7
(1) Weight 14. If the percentage error in the measurement of

(2) Change of linear momentum w.r.t. time mass and velocity of a body are 2% and 3%
(3) Product of mass and acceleration respectively, then the maximum percentage of
error in the measurement of kinetic energy will be
(4) Work done per unit time
(1) 8% (2) 5%
8. A physical quantity Z is represented by
(3) 7% (4) 10%
. If the maximum possible percentage
15. Dimensional formula of change of acceleration
errors in P, Q and R are x%, y% and z% w.r.t. time is
respectively, then maximum percentage error in Z (1) [M1L2T 2] (2) [M0L1T 2]
is (3) [M0L2T 1] (4) [M0L1T 3]
(1) ( x y z)% 16. If the magnitude of velocity of moving body in
(2) ( x y + z)% km/h is 90, then its value in m/s is equal to
(3) ( x y z)% (1) 25 (2) 30
(4) ( x + y + z)% (3) 27.5 (4) 32.5
9. The centripetal acceleration (ac) of a moving body 17. The position x of a particle at time t is given by
of mass (m) in a circular path of radius (r) with , where A and B are constant,
constant speed (v) is related as ac = mavbrc, then
values of a, b and c respectively are the dimensions of B is
(1) 1, 1, 1 (2) 0, 1, 2 (1) [M0L 1T1] (2) [M0L1T 1]
(3) 0, 2, 1 (4) 0, 2, 1 (3) [M0L 1T2] (4) [M0L1T1]
(2)
Vivek Krishna
Two Year Medical-2024 Fortnightly Test-2 (TYMW_Code-D)
18. Given that y = Asin( t kx) , where y and x are in 21.

metre and t is in second, then the dimensions of (1) [M2L2T 1] (2) [ML2T 1]
is
(3) [MLT 1] (4) [ML2T 2]
(1) [M0L1T1] (2) [M0L0T 1]
22. If units of force and energy are 10 N and 50 J
(3) [M0L 1T1] (4) [M0L 1T0]
respectively, then unit of length is
19. If the length and breadth of rectangular plate are
(1) 10 m (2) 1 m
2.33 cm and 2.1 cm respectively, then the area of
plate upto appropriate significant figure is (3) 5 m (4) 20 m
(1) 5 cm2 (2) 4.893 cm2 23. If the percentage error in the measurement of
(3) 4.90 cm2 (4) 4.9 cm2 volume of the cube is 6%, then the maximum
percentage error in the measurement side of
20. The number of significant figures in the measured
value 0.24600 m is cube is
(1) Three (2) Six (1) 12% (2) 2%
(3) Five (4) Four (3) 4% (4) 8%
CHEMISTRY
24. In which of the following, the number of atoms 28. If the mole ratio of H2 and He in a mixture is
present is maximum? 1 : 4, then their mass ratio will be
(1) 48 g of O (1) 1 : 4 (2) 1 : 8
(2) 48 g of O2 (3) 4 : 1 (4) 8 : 1
(3) 48 g of O3 29. Daltons atomic theory could not explain
(4) All have equal number of atoms (i) The laws of chemical combination.
25. In the reaction, (ii) The laws of gaseous volume.
4NH3(g) + 5O2(g) 4NO(g) + 6H2O(g) (iii) The reason for combining of atoms.
When 2 moles of NH3 is allowed to react with (1) (ii) only (2) (i) and (iii) only
3 moles of O2 to completion, then (3) (ii) and (iii) only (4) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(1) 1 mole of O2 is left excess 30. Volume of CO2 obtained at STP on complete
(2) O2 is the limiting reagent decomposition of 2.1 g of magnesium carbonate
(3) 3 moles of H2O is formed is
(4) 4 moles of NO is formed (1) 5.6 L (2) 2.8 L
26. When 134.4 L of H2 combines with 89.6 L of O2 at (3) 0.56 L (4) 0.28 L
STP then the number of moles of H2O formed is 31. If an element X exist in two isotopic forms 35X
(1) 3 mole (75%) and 37X (25%), then the average atomic
mass of the element X is
(2) 2 mole
(1) 35.1 u (2) 35.5 u
(3) 6 mole
(3) 36 u (4) 36.5 u
(4) 2.5 mole
32. The moles of lead nitrate required to produce
27. 56 g of N2 reacts 9 g of H 2 in a closed vessel to
112 L oxygen at STP on its decomposition is
form NH3. Which reactant is left in excess and
how much?
(1) N2, 10 g (2) H2, 4 g (1) 10 moles (2) 20 moles
(3) N2, 14 g (4) H2, 3 g (2) 30 moles (4) 40 moles
(3)
Vivek Krishna
33. The total number of electrons in 0.42 g of ions 40. The molar mass of a compound having vapour
density 28 is
is
(1) 18 g/mole
(1) 24 NA (2) 0.22 NA
(2) 28 g/mole
(3) 22 NA (4) 2.4 NA
(3) 56 g/mole
34. If the ratio of nitrogen to oxygen present in a
(4) 15 g/mole
compound by mass is 7 : 8, then the ratio of
numbers of atoms of nitrogen to oxygen is 41. The molecular mass of urea (NH2CONH2) is
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 5 (1) 72 u (2) 100 u
(3) 2 : 1 (4) 1 : 1 (3) 60 u (4) 90 u
35. Total number of atoms in 0.2 mole of K2Cr2O7 is 42. The total number of water molecules present in
1 ml of water is
(1) 0.22 NA (2) 2.2 NA
(3) 1.1 NA (4) 0.11 NA (1) 55.5 × NA (2) 18 × NA
36. The total number of atoms in 67.2 L of NH3(g) at
(3) (4)
STP is
(1) 9 NA (2) 12 NA 43. Mass of water produced by the combustion of
(3) 3 NA (4) 4 NA 32 g of methane in excess of oxygen gas is
37. Which of the following has the maximum mass? (1) 18 g (2) 32 g
(1) 1 g atom of N (3) 72 g (4) 16 g
(2) 0.5 mol of NH3 44. The molecular mass of a compound is 30 u. The
percent composition of carbon and hydrogen in
(3) 10 mL of H2O(g) at STP
compound is 80% and 20% respectively, then the
(4) 3.011 × 1020 atoms of oxygen ratio of molecular mass to empirical formula mass
38. The total number of atoms in 22 g of CO2 is of the compound is
(1) 0.5 NA (2) NA (1) 1 : 1 (2) 2 : 1
(3) 1.5 NA (4) 0.1 NA (3) 3 : 1 (4) 4 : 1
39. In which of the following compounds, the 45. If 4 moles of a gas weighs 176 g, then the gas
percentage of S is 50%? can be
(1) SO2 (2) SO3 (1) NH3 (2) CO
(3) H2SO4 (4) H2SO3 (3) O2 (4) CO2
BOTANY
46. At maturity, mammalian RBCs lack 48. Nucleoplasm contains all, except
(1) Cytoplasm (1) Chromatin
(2) Proteins (2) RNA
(3) Plasma membrane (3) Histone proteins
(4) Nucleus (4) Microtubules

49. Which of the following may or may not be found
47. In plant cells, middle lamella is chiefly made up of
in chromosomes of a eukaryotic cell?
(1) Cellulose and starch
(1) Primary constriction
(2) Calcium pectate and magnesium pectate
(2) Telomere
(3) Chitin and suberin (3) Satellite
(4) Calcium carbonate and N-acetylglucosamine (4) Chromatid
(4)
Vivek Krishna
50. The enzymes required for the synthesis of 56. The pigments carotene and xanthophylls are
carbohydrates are located in which part of soluble in
chloroplasts? (1) Water (2) Fat
(1) Thylakoid (2) Grana (3) Protein (4) Carbohydrate
(3) Stroma (4) Stroma lamella 57. A disc shaped structure on sides of centromere is
51. Which of the following is not found in the called
organelle also called power house of the cell? (1) Centrosome (2) Chromatid
(1) Circular DNA (3) Kinetochore (4) Telomere
(2) 80S ribosome 58. Suicidal bags of cells are rich in
(3) Infoldings of its inner membrane (1) Hydrolase enzymes activate at acidic pH
(4) RNA molecules (2) Protein synthesizing enzymes
52. Tonoplast is present in (3) Hydrolytic enzymes that can digest lipids only
(1) Endoplasmic reticulum (4) Hydrolases that can digest all the
(2) Golgi apparatus biomolecules except nucleic acid
(3) Lysosomes 59. Single membrane bounded minute vesicles in the
cell which are considered as microbodies are
(4) Vacuoles
(1) Chloroplasts (2) Mitochondria
53. Algal cell wall is made up of
(3) Peroxisomes (4) Microtubules
(1) Cellulose, Pectin, Lignin
60. The biosynthesis of glycolipids and glycoproteins
(2) Calcium pectate only
occurs in
(3) Cellulose, galactans, mannans and calcium
(1) Ribosome (2) Nucleoplasm
carbonate
(3) Golgi complex (4) Centrosome
(4) Cellulose, hemicellulose, peptidoglycan
61.
54. Read the given statements
(1) Cilia (2) Flagella
A. It can occupy up to 90% of the volume of a
plant cell. (3) Pili (4) Centriole
B. It contains water, sap as well as excretory 62. In animal cells, lipid-like steroidal hormones are
product. synthesised in
Identify the structure on the basis of above (1) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
features. (2) Rough endoplasmic reticulum
(1) Lysosome (2) Peroxisome (3) Golgi complex
(3) Vacuole (4) Golgi complex (4) Peroxisomes
55. How many of the following is/are the function(s) 63. The chromosome in which centromere is situated
of cell wall? close to its one end forming one extremely short
a. Helps in cell to cell interaction. and one very long arm is
b. Gives shape to the cell. (1) Telocentric

(2) Sub-metacentric
c. Protects from mechanical damage and
infection. (3) Metacentric
d. Acts as barrier to undesirable (4) Acrocentric
macromolecules. 64. The type of leucoplast which stores fat is
(1) One (2) Three (1) Amyloplast (2) Elaioplast
(3) Four (4) Two (3) Aleuroplast (4) Chromoplast
(5)
Vivek Krishna
65. Fungal cell wall is generally composed of 67. In plants, secondary cell wall is formed
(1) Cellulose and pectin (1) Inside the cell membrane
(2) Polysaccharides like galactans and mannans (2) Towards the outer side of the primary cell
wall
(3) Chitin (3) Between the primary cell wall and plasma
(4) Only cellulose membrane
66. Few chromosomes have non-staining secondary (4) Between the primary cell walls of two
adjacent cells
constriction at a constant location. The small
68. Which of the following is not a function of the cell
fragment beyond secondary constriction is called organelle that constitutes an endomembrane
(1) Telomere system?
(2) Satellite (1) Synthesis of ribosomal RNA

(2) Synthesis of steroidal hormones
(3) NOR
(3) Osmoregulation and excretion
(4) Centromere (4) Formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids
ZOOLOGY
69. Complete the sentence given below. 72. Choose the correct statement.
Fibres and fibroblasts are compactly packed in (1) Skeletal muscles are closely attached to
_______. ligament
(1) Dense connective tissue (2) Skeletal muscles are branched and
cylindrical
(2) Dense irregular connective tissue only
(3) Skeletal muscles are uninucleated
(3) Dense regular connective tissue only
(4) Skeletal muscles are voluntary and striated
(4) Supportive connective tissue
73. Blood is the example of
70. Which of the following encloses several bundles
(1) Specialised connective tissue
of muscle fibres?
(2) Dense connective tissue
(1) Circulating fluid
(3) Dense regular connective tissue
(2) Sheath of tough connective tissue
(4) Dense irregular connective tissue
(3) Cartilagenous layer 74. Match the following columns and select the right
(4) Fibres of calcium salts option.
71. Read the statement w.r.t. muscles. Column-I Column-II
Statement A: Muscles play an active role in all
a. Myofibrils (i) Help in movement
the movement of the body. and locomotion
Statement B: A sheath of tough connective
b. Multinucleated (ii) Numerous fine fibrils
tissue enclose several bundles of muscle fibres.
found in the cytoplasm
Choose the correct option.
c. Muscles (iii) Skeletal muscle
(1) Statement A is correct but statement B is
incorrect d. Striation (iv) Present in muscles
(2) Both statements A and B are correct (1) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
(3) Statement A is incorrect but statement B is (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
correct (3) a(i), b(iv), c(iii), d(ii)
(4) Both statements A and B are incorrect (4) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
(6)
Vivek Krishna
75. Read the following statements carefully. 80. Select the mismatch.
(a) They have a hard and non-pliable ground (1) Dense regular Tendon and
substance. connective tissue ligament
(b) They support and protect softer tissue and (2) Dense irregular Present in skin
organs. connective tissue
(c) Osteocyte are present in spaces called
(3) Fluid connective Blood and lymph
lacunae.
tissue
Which of the following type of tissue is being
(4) Skeletal connective Always involuntary
described by the above statements?
tissue
(1) Blood
81. What happens if bone of frog is kept in diluted
(2) Cartilage
HCl?
(3) Lymph
(1) It will not contain bone marrow
(4) Bone
(2) Nothing happens to the bone
76. Select the name of the tissue that helps in
(3) Only inorganic matter is left behind
transport of various substances throughout the
(4) Loss of calcium salts occurs
body.
82. Solid, pliable and compression resistance like
(1) Blood
characteristics of intercellular matrix is found in
(2) Bone
(1) Cardiac muscle (2) Intervertebral disc
(3) Areolar
(3) Collagen (4) Heart
(4) Cartilage
83. Choose the correctly matched pair.
77. Choose the correct pair.
(1) Tendon Connect bone to bone
(1) Fibroblasts Carries haemoglobin (2) Ligament Connect muscle to bone
(2) Lacunae Provide protection against (3) Cartilage Ear pinna, tip of nose
infections
(4) Bone Does not protect organ
(3) Elastin fibres Help in blood clotting
84. Certain components of which tissue comes under
(4) Chondrocyte Present in lacunae control of our will power only?
78. Osteocyte present in _______ . (1) Neural tissue (2) Muscular tissue
(1) The lacunae of bone (3) Connective tissue (4) Epithelial tissue
(2) The lacunae of cartilage 85. Protein fibres are not present in
(3) The matrix of bone (1) Bone
(4) The matrix of cartilage (2) Fluid connective tissue
79. The kind of tissue that forms the supportive (3) Cartilage
structure at tip of our nose is also found in (4) Tendon
(1) Ear pinna 86. Cylindrical and unbranched muscle fibres which
(2) Vertebrae show striation and voluntary in nature are
(3) Tongue (1) Biceps (2) Heart
(4) Blood (3) Oesophagus (4) Blood vessel
(7)
Vivek Krishna
87. Each muscle is composed of numerous 90. The inter cellular material of the given figure is
(1) Platelets (2) Myofibrils solid and resists compression. Identify the figure
and label A and B.
(3) Mast cells (4) Sarcolemma
88. Biceps is a type of
(1) Skeletal muscle
(2) Cardiac muscle fibres
(3) Smooth muscle fibres
(4) All involuntary muscle fibres
Figure A B
89. Striated muscles in human can be
(1) Cartilage Collagen fibres Chondrocyte
(1) Attached to skeletal bones
(2) Uninucleated (2) Cartilage Matrix Osteocytes
(3) Elongated and spindle shaped (3) Bone Matrix Fibroblasts
(4) Cylindrical and uninucleated (4) Bone Collagen fibres Chondrocytes
(8)
Vivek Krishna
16-07-2022 TYMW
CODE-D
Phase-1
(for NEET 2024)
Test - 2
Answer Key
1. (1) 19. (4) 37. (1) 55. (3) 73. (1)
2. (1) 20. (3) 38. (3) 56. (2) 74. (2)
3. (1) 21. (2) 39. (1) 57. (3) 75. (4)
4. (1) 22. (3) 40. (3) 58. (1) 76. (1)
5. (1) 23. (2) 41. (3) 59. (3) 77. (4)
6. (2) 24. (4) 42. (3) 60. (3) 78. (1)
7. (4) 25. (3) 43. (3) 61. (4) 79. (1)
8. (4) 26. (3) 44. (2) 62. (1) 80. (4)
9. (3) 27. (3) 45. (4) 63. (4) 81. (4)
10. (2) 28. (2) 46. (4) 64. (2) 82. (2)
11. (4) 29. (3) 47. (2) 65. (3) 83. (3)
12. (4) 30. (3) 48. (4) 66. (2) 84. (2)
13. (3) 31. (2) 49. (3) 67. (3) 85. (2)
14. (1) 32. (1) 50. (3) 68. (1) 86. (1)
15. (4) 33. (2) 51. (2) 69. (1) 87. (2)
16. (1) 34. (4) 52. (4) 70. (2) 88. (1)
17. (2) 35. (2) 53. (3) 71. (2) 89. (1)
18. (2) 36. (2) 54. (3) 72. (4) 90. (1)
(1)
Vivek Krishna
Two Year Medical-2024 Fortnightly Test-2 (TYMW_Code-D)_(Hint and Solutions)
16-07-2022 TYMW
CODE-D
Phase-1
(for NEET 2024)

Test - 2
Hints and Solutions
PHYSICS
Zeroes between two non-zero digits are ac = mavbrc
significant and trailing zeroes in a number having [LT 2] = [M]a[LT 1]b[L]c
a decimal point are significant. On solving
2. Answer (1) a=0
z=a+b+a+b b=2
z = 2( a + b) c= 1
Angular momentum = mvr and linear momentum mv has different dimension than F.
= mv 11. Answer (4)
and dimension of r is [M0L1T0] A = B + C and A = B C are meaningful only

when A, B, and C have same dimensions.
Zero error belongs to the instrumental errors.
5. Answer (1)
In addition, result is reported upto least number
of decimal places.
6. Answer (2)
Number of significant figures in 3.10 × 103 is 3.
7. Answer (4) = 4 + 2 × 2 = 8%
13. Answer (3)
1 g cm s 1 = (10 3 kg) × (10 2 m) × s 1
1 g cm s 1 = 10 5 kg ms 1
x = 10 5
(2)
Vivek Krishna
Fortnightly Test-2 (TYMW_Code-D)_(Hints and Solutions) Two Year Medical-2024
16. Answer (1)
[h] = [ML2T 1]
17. Answer (2)
22. Answer (3)
F = 10 N
[At] = [M0L0T0] [MLT 2] = 10 ...(i)
A = [T 1]
E = 50 J
B = [M0L1T 1]
[ML2T 2] = 50 ...(ii)
18. Answer (2)
y = Asin( t kx) Dividing (ii) by (i)
[ t] = [M0L0T0] L=5m
= [M0L0T 1] 23. Answer (2)
19. Answer (4)
Area = 4.893 cm2
Rounding off to two significant figures = 4.9 cm2.
20. Answer (3)
The trailing zeroes in a number having a decimal
point are significant.
Number of significant figures = 5
CHEMISTRY
48 g of 6 g of H2 reacts with 28 g of N2
9 g of H2 will reacts with of N2

48 g of
= 3 NA atoms = 42 g of N2
48 g of N2 is left in excess
Amount of N2 left = 56 42 = 14 g
25. Answer (3)
28. Answer (2)
Mass = n × M
26. Answer (3)
29. Answer (3)
chemical combinations.
(3)
Vivek Krishna
Two Year Medical-2024 Fortnightly Test-2 (TYMW_Code-D)_(Hints and Solutions)

MgCO3(s) MgO(s) + CO2(g)
Mole of
No. of molecules in 0.5 mole of CO2 = 0.5 NA
Mole of CO2 formed = 0.025 No. of atoms in 0.5 mole of CO2 = 1.5 NA
Volumes of CO2 at STP = 0.025 × 22.4 = 0.56 L
39. Answer (1)
31. Answer (2)
% of S in
Average atomic mass of
40. Answer (3)
= 35.5 u
32. Answer (1) Molecular mass = 2 × VD
22.4 L of O2 will form from the decomposition 41. Answer (3)

of 2 moles Pb(NO3)2 Molecular mass of urea is 14 + 2 × 1 + 12 + 16 +
14 + 2 × 1 = 60 u
Mole of
42. Answer (3)
So, moles of Pb(NO3)2 required = 10
1 ml water = 1 g water
33. Answer (2)
No. of molecules
Moles of
43. Answer (3)
Total electrons = 0.01 NA × 22 = 0.22 NA
34. Answer (4)
Mass of water produced = 4 × 18 = 72 g

Total number of atoms = n × Atomicity × NA Element % Atomic No. of Simple
= 0.2 × 11 × NA mass moles ratio
= 2.2 NA
C 80 12 20/3 1
36. Answer (2)
H 20 1 20 3
So, empirical formula = CH3

37. Answer (1)
Empirical formula mass = 12 + 3 = 15 u
(1) 1 g atom of N 1 mole of N 14 g
(2) 0.5 mol of

45. Answer (4)
(3) 10 ml of H2O(g) = mol 8.03 3
10 g Mass of 1 mole = Molar mass
3.011 1020 1 3 Mass of 1 mole

(4) 23
10 mol of oxygen atoms
6.022 10 2
= 0.5 × 10 3 × 16 Molar mass of CO2 = 44 g
= 8.0 × 10 3 g = 3 NA atoms
(4)
Vivek Krishna
BOTANY
Mature mammalian RBCs lack nucleus. Lysosomes are rich in hydrolytic enzymes which
47. Answer (2) function at acidic pH i.e., acid hydrolases. It is
considered as suicidal bag of cell.
Middle lamella is an amorphous layer of
cementing material which holds adjacent cells in 59. Answer (3)
a plant tissue. It is chiefly made up of calcium Peroxisomes are minute vesicles in the cells and
and magnesium pectate. are considered as microbodies.
Microtubules are found in cytoplasm. The synthesis of glycolipids and glycoproteins
49. Answer (3) occur in Golgi complex.
Satellite is the part of chromosome separated by 61. Answer (4)
secondary constriction. It is found only in some Centrioles have 9 peripheral fibrils of tubulin and
chromosomes. these are absent in the centre therefore the
50. Answer (3) arrangement is 9 + 0.
Stroma of chloroplast contains enzymes for 62. Answer (1)
carbohydrate synthesis. In animal cells, lipid-like steroidal hormones are
51. Answer (2) synthesised in SER.
Mitochondria are the power house of the cell. 63. Answer (4)
Mitochondria contain 70S ribosomes, circular The chromosome in which centromere is situated
DNA along with few RNA molecules. close to its one end forming one extremely short
52. Answer (4) and one very long arm is acrocentric
Tonoplast is a semipermeable membrane of chromosome.
vacuole. 64. Answer (2)
53. Answer (3) Elaioplasts stores fats and oils, e.g., Castor.
Algal cell wall is made up of cellulose, galactans, 65. Answer (3)
mannans and calcium carbonate. Fungal cell wall is generally composed of chitin.
54. Answer (3) Chitin is a polymer of N-acetylglucosamine.
90% volume in a plant cell is occupied by 66. Answer (2)
vacuole. The part of chromosome beyond secondary
55. Answer (3) constriction is called satellite. Telomere is end of
Cell wall helps in cell-to-cell interaction. It gives chromosome.
shape to cell. It protects from mechanical 67. Answer (3)
damage and infection. It acts as barrier to Secondary cell wall is formed on the inner
undesirable macromolecules. (towards the cell membrane) side of the primary
56. Answer (2) cell wall.
Carotenoids (Carotenes and Xanthophylls) 68. Answer (1)
pigments are fat soluble.
Organelles that constitute endomembrane
57. Answer (3) system are Golgi complex, ER, lysosome and
A disc-shaped structure is found on the sides of vacuoles. Ribosomal RNA synthesis occurs in
centromere through which spindle fibres are nucleolus which is not the part of endomembrane
attached called kinetochore. system.
(5)
Vivek Krishna
Two Year Medical-2024 Fortnightly Test-2 (TYMW_Code-D)_(Hints and Solutions)
ZOOLOGY
Fibres and fibroblasts are compactly packed in When a bone kept in dilute acid for a few days,
the connective. the salts gets dissolved, leaving only soft and
70. Answer (2) flexible organic matrix.
A sheath of tough connective tissue encloses 82. Answer (2)
several bundles of muscle fibres.
Cartilage is solid, pliable and it resists
71. Answer (2)
compression.
In general, muscles play an active role in all the
movements of the body. Cartilage is present in the tip of nose, outer ear
72. Answer (4) pinna and intervertebral disc.
Skeletal muscles are multinucleated. 83. Answer (3)
73. Answer (1) Cartilage is solid and pliable. It resists
Blood is a specialised type of connective tissue. compression e.g.: cartilage is present in the tip of
Blood have some modification in their matrix. It nose, outer ear pinna.
does not have any protein fibre in their matrix. 84. Answer (2)
74. Answer (2)
Skeletal muscles are voluntary in nature.
These fibres are composed of numerous fine
85. Answer (2)
fibrils, called myofibrils.
Skeletal muscle tissue is closely attached to Blood is a specialised connective tissue which
skeletal bones. In a typical muscle such as the does not have any protein fibre.
biceps, striated (striped) skeletal muscle fibres 86. Answer (1)
are bundled together in a parallel fashion.
Skeletal muscles are cylindrical and long up to 20
75. Answer (4)
cm. Typical example of skeletal muscle is biceps.
Bone have hard and non pliable ground
substance. 87. Answer (2)
76. Answer (1) Each muscle is composed of numerous
Blood is a specialised connective tissue which myofibrils.
helps in transportation of various substances. 88. Answer (1)
77. Answer (4) Striated muscles are stripped and voluntary.
Chondrocytes are present in cartilage not in
89. Answer (1)
blood.
78. Answer (1) Straited muscles are also known as skeletal
muscles. These cells are multinucleated.
Osteocyte is a bone cell. These cells are present
in the spaces called lacunae. 90. Answer (1)
79. Answer (1) Chondrocyte present in lacunae of cartilage.
Cartilage present in ear pinna and tip of nose.
80. Answer (4)
Skeletal connective tissue provides structural
frame to the body.
Bone marrow is a site of production of blood
cells.
(6)
Vivek Krishna
Vivek Krishna
Vivek Krishna
Vivek Krishna
Vivek Krishna
Vivek Krishna
Vivek Krishna
Vivek Krishna
Vivek Krishna
27-07-2022 TYMR
CODE-A
Phase-1
(for NEET 2024)
Test - 3
Answer Key
1. (3) 19. (1) 37. (4) 55. (1) 73. (3)
2. (2) 20. (4) 38. (3) 56. (2) 74. (2)
3. (1) 21. (3) 39. (1) 57. (4) 75. (3)
4. (3) 22. (3) 40. (1) 58. (2) 76. (1)
5. (4) 23. (2) 41. (4) 59. (1) 77. (3)
6. (2) 24. (2) 42. (2) 60. (3) 78. (1)
7. (1) 25. (1) 43. (3) 61. (1) 79. (2)
8. (1) 26. (2) 44. (4) 62. (4) 80. (2)
9. (1) 27. (2) 45. (4) 63. (2) 81. (3)
10. (1) 28. (2) 46. (1) 64. (3) 82. (4)
11. (3) 29. (4) 47. (2) 65. (2) 83. (2)
12. (2) 30. (3) 48. (2) 66. (2) 84. (4)
13. (1) 31. (4) 49. (3) 67. (3) 85. (1)
14. (2) 32. (1) 50. (4) 68. (4) 86. (2)
15. (3) 33. (3) 51. (1) 69. (3) 87. (1)
16. (2) 34. (4) 52. (1) 70. (2) 88. (4)
17. (2) 35. (2) 53. (1) 71. (2) 89. (2)
18. (1) 36. (4) 54. (1) 72. (2) 90. (4)
(1)
Vivek Krishna
27-07-2022 TYMR
CODE-A
Phase-1
(for NEET 2024)

Test - 3
Hints and Solutions
PHYSICS
Average velocity may be positive, negative or
zero.
x = e5t = e5 m
7. Answer (1)
|Average velocity| = Average speed
8. Answer (1)
= 15 m/s y = bsin
3. Answer (1)
9. Answer (1)
vavg = 2.5 m/s

10. Answer (1)
vavg 5 m/s The branch of physics which deal with study of
4. Answer (3) motion without considering the factor which cause
y = x2 4x motion is known as kinematics.
11. Answer (3)
y = x3
For local maxima or minima
dy
0
dx
2x 4 = 0
x=2
(2)
Vivek Krishna

Distance is scalar quantity.
18. Answer (1)
s t2
s = kt2
v = 5 m/s
v = 18 km/h
13. Answer (1)
19. Answer (1)
Distance travelled is always greater than or equal
to magnitude of displacement.
14. Answer (2)
y = 2x x2
2 2x = 0
x=1
= 0.56 m/s2
20. Answer (4)
ymax = 2(1) (1)2

ymax = 1
15. Answer (3)
= 4 m/s
21. Answer (3)
The acceleration of a moving body can be found
from slope of the velocity-time graph.
Distance = 7 m 22. Answer (3)
x = at bt2
Displacement =
16. Answer (2) v=a 2bt

v=0
2
23. Answer (2)
vavg = 30 km/h = 160 km
(3)
Vivek Krishna
CHEMISTRY

M1V1 = M2V2 Energy of 1 mol of photons = NAh
0.2 × 500 = M2 × (500 + 500) = 6 × 1023 × 6 × 10 34 × 1014
M2 = 0.1 M = 3.6 × 104 J.
Number of photons emitted per second
= 2 × 1020s 1
40. Answer (1)

Photoelectric effect supports the particle
27. Answer (2) nature of electromagnetic radiations.
Interference and diffraction support the wave
nature of electromagnetic radiation.
Volume depends on temperature. So the molarity. h =h 0 + KE

KE increases, on increasing the frequency of
29. Answer (4)
the incident light.
Subatomic particles are electrons, protons and
Number of electrons ejected is proportional to
neutrons.
the intensity of light.
of cathode ray particle is 1.76 × 1011C/kg Elements having same mass number and
different atomic number are known as isobar.
Anode rays travel in straight line.
32. Answer (1)
Electron has the least mass.
33. Answer (3)
According to Thomson model of atom the mass of
the atom is assumed to be uniformly distributed
over the atom.
34. Answer (4)
Rutherford used thin gold foil for the experiment. 44. Answer (4)
35. Answer (2)
Molality =
Number of neutrons = Mass number Atomic
number Unit of molality = mol/kg
= 207 82 = 125. 45. Answer (4)
36. Answer (4) Neutron was discovered by Chadwick, when he
The correct order of decreasing wavelength is bombarded a thin sheet of Beryllium by -
IR > Visible > UV particles.
(4)
Vivek Krishna
BOTANY
Interkinesis differs from interphase in absence of The correct sequence of phases of the cell-cycle
DNA replication. During this phase, is G1 S G2 M
chromosomes are elongated but do not form 58. Answer (2)
chromatin fibres. At the end of prophase, Golgi complex, ER,
47. Answer (2) nucleolus and nuclear membrane are not
Recombination nodule is formed during crossing observed under microscope.
over between homologous chromosomes and is 59. Answer (1)
seen in pachytene stage. Terminalisation of chiasmata occurs in diakinesis
48. Answer (2) (final substage of meiosis-I).
In oocytes of some vertebrates, diplotene lasts for 60. Answer (3)

months or years. It is called dictyotene stage. Synaptonemal complex is formed by a pair of
synapsed homologous chromosomes during
49. Answer (3)
zygotene.
DNA content in a meiocyte at G2 phase is 40 pg.
61. Answer (1)
This means the DNA content in diploid cell is 20
Interphase constitutes more than 95% duration of
pg. The haploid cells formed after meiosis II will
the cell cycle.
have DNA content of 10 pg.
62. Answer (4)
50. Answer (4)
Systematics is taxonomy along with phylogeny
Replacement of old dead and worn out cells is a (evolutionary relationship among organisms).
significance of mitosis Characterisation, identification, classification and
51. Answer (1) nomenclature are the process that are basic to
Chiasmata or X-shaped structures become visible taxonomy.
during diplotene stage. 63. Answer (2)
52. Answer (1) The rules of scientific naming of animals is
assigned in ICZN (International Code for
This figure represents late prophase stage as
Zoological Nomenclature).
condensation of chromatin material takes place
64. Answer (3)
and during condensation, DNA strands untangle
to form compact chromosomes. Growth and reproduction in higher animals and
plants are mutually exclusive events.
53. Answer (1)
65. Answer (2)
The phase of the cell cycle where cells remain
All the three words (generic name, specific
metabolically active but usually do not proliferate
epithet and authors citation) collectively form
is G0 phase. It is called quiescent phase.
binomial epithet. The correct binomial epithet of
54. Answer (1) mango is Mangifera indica Linn.
The phase of mitosis in which chromosomes are 66. Answer (2)
thickest and shortest is metaphase. Metabolic reactions are also possible outside the
55. Answer (1) cells. Growth can also be observed in non-living
Mitosis is equational cell division because the two objects.
daughter cells have the same number of 67. Answer (3)
chromosomes as that present in the parent cell. Consciousness is seen in living organisms only.
Biological names are generally taken from Latin The number of species that are known and
language irrespective of their origin. described range between 1.7 to 1.8 million.
(5)
Vivek Krishna
ZOOLOGY
A nucleotide has three chemically distinct
components namely a heterocyclic compound, type together constitute adult human
monosaccharide and a phosphoric acid or haemoglobin.
phosphate. Palmitic acid is a fatty acid.
79. Answer (2)
70. Answer (2)
Primary structure of protein contain peptide
Proteins are heteropolymers containing strings of bonds.
amino acids.
80. Answer (2)
71. Answer (2)
Skeletal muscles are voluntary in nature.
Thymine is present in DNA and uracil is present
in RNA. 81. Answer (3)
72. Answer (2) Cardiac muscle fibres are present in heart.
Non-essential amino acids are required by our 82. Answer (4)

body and adult haemoglobin contain 4 subunits. Bone cells (osteocytes) are present in the spaces
73. Answer (3) called lacunae.
Inulin is a fructan 83. Answer (2)
Protein Functions Fibroblasts are present in connective tissue.

84. Answer (4)
Collagen Intercellular ground substance
Inulin is polymer of fructose.
Trypsin Enzyme
85. Answer (1)
Insulin Hormone Curcumin is a drug.
Antibody Fights infectious agents 86. Answer (2)
Receptor Sensory reception (smell, taste, Smooth muscle fibres are found in walls of blood
hormone, etc.) vessels.
GLUT-4 Enables glucose transport into cells 87. Answer (1)

Cellulose is a homopolysaccharide and present in
74. Answer (2)
plant cell wall.
The pitch of B-DNA would be 34 Å.
88. Answer (4)
75. Answer (3)
Starch and cellulose are homopolymers of
One of the secondary structures exhibited by
glucose.
DNA is the famous Watson-Crick model.
89. Answer (2)
76. Answer (1)
Paper made from plant pulp and cotton fibres are
Glycogen is a homopolysaccharide which is
cellulosic in nature.
made up of repeated units of glucose.
90. Answer (4)
77. Answer (3)
Starch is present as a storehouse of energy in
Lecithin is an example of a lipid found in cell
membrane. plants.
(6)
Vivek Krishna
30-07-2022 TYMW
CODE-D
Phase-1
(for NEET 2024)
Test - 3
Physics : Motion in a Straight Line: Introduction, Position, Path length and displacement, Average velocity
& average speed, Differential calculus, Applications of differential calculus, Instantaneous velocity &
speed, Acceleration
Chemistry : Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry: Reactions in solutions: Mass percentage or weight
percentage, Mole-fraction, Molarity, Molality, Structure of Atom: Sub-atomic particles: Discovery of
electron, Charge to mass ratio of electron, Charge on electron, Discovery of proton and neutron.
Thomson model of atom, Rutherford's nuclear model of atom, Atomic and Mass number, Isobars
and isotopes., Wave nature of electromagnetic radiation Particle nature of electromagnetic
radiation: Planck's quantum theory, Photoelectric effect, Dual behaviour of electromagnetic
radiation
Botany : Cell Cycle & Cell Division: Introduction, Cell cycle, phases of cell cycle, Mitosis-definition,
Karyokinesis, cytokinesis, significance, Meiosis definition, Meiosis-I, Meiosis-II, significance of
meiosis, The Living World: Introduction, What is living?, Characteristics of living beings, Diversity
in the living world, Nomenclature, Need for classification, Classification -taxonomy, Systematics
Zoology : Structural Organisation in Animals: Animal Tissues-III: Non-striated/Smooth muscles (Single
unit & Multiunit smooth muscles; Cardiac muscles), Nervous Tissue: Structure of neuron and its
parts, Different types of neuron; Myelinated & Non-myelinated neurons, Neuroglia cells-Types of
glial cells, Biomolecules-I: Primary and secondary metabolites, Carbohydrates:
Monosaccharides, Derivatives of monosaccharides, Oligosaccharides, Functions of small
carbohydrates, Polysaccharides- Amino acids: Structure, types, functions of amino acids, Peptide
bond formation, Structure of protein, Properties of proteins, Types of proteins and their functions,
Lipids: Structure and classification of lipids, simple lipids, conjugated lipids, derived lipids,
functions of lipids, Nitrogenous bases, nucleosides, nucleotides, higher nucleotides, types of
nucleotides, functions of nucleotides, Nucleic acids, Types and their functions
Instructions :
(1)
Fortnightly Test-3 (TYMW_Code-D)
Vivek Krishna Two Year Medical-2024
PHYSICS
1. If v is the velocity of a body moving along x-axis,
8. If then is
then acceleration of body is
(1) (2)
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
(3) (4)
2. The displacement x of an object is given of
function of time t, x = (4t + 3t2) m, the 9. If then will be equal to
instantaneous acceleration of object at t = 1 s will
be (1) 3 (2) 3
(1) 3 m/s2 (2) 6 m/s 2 (3) Zero (4) 1
(3) 14 m/s2 (4) 4 m/s 2 10. A boy moves along a straight line and covers
3. The displacement of a particle moving along the 20 m in 2 minutes. Then his average speed is
x-axis is given by the equation x = 2t3 21t2 + 60t
+ 6. The possible acceleration of the particle (1) (2) 10 m/s
when velocity is zero is
(1) 30 m/s2 (2) 9 m/s 2 (3) (4) 40 m/s
(3) 9 m/s 2 (4) 18 m/s2
11. A particle is moving around a circular path of
4. A particle starts from origin, goes along x-axis to
radius R in time T. The ratio of average velocity
the point (10 m, 0) and then returns along the
to the average speed in two complete revolutions
same line to point ( 10 m, 0). The distance and
is
displacement of particle during the trip are
(1) Zero (2) Infinite
(1) 30 m, 10 m (2) 60 m, 20 m
(3) 2 : 1 (4) 4 : R
(3) 30 m, 20 m (4) 60 m, 10 m
12. An object moves along a semi-circular path of
5. Acceleration of a particle changes when
(1) Direction of velocity changes radius . The ratio of distance and
(2) Magnitude of velocity changes
displacement when it reaches the diametrically
(3) Both speed and direction remain same other end is
(4) Both (1) and (2) (1) :2
6. A particle moves along a straight line such that its (2) 2:
displacement at any time t is given by S = (t3 + 6t2
(3) 2 : 1
+ 3t + 4) m. The initial velocity of the particle will
be (4) :1
(1) 6 m/s (2) 3 m/s 13. If the displacement of a particle is 10 m, then the
(3) 1 m/s (4) 4 m/s distance covered by the particle is
7. If a particle covers 20 m in 1 s then the speed of (1) Always greater than 10 m

the particle is (2) Always equal to 10 m
(1) 72 km/h (2) 36 km/h (3) Always less than 10 m
(3) 18 km/h (4) 54 km/h (4) May be greater than or equal to 10 m
(2)
Two Year Medical-2024
Vivek Krishna Fortnightly Test-3 (TYMW_Code-D)
14. A car travels a distance S on a straight road in 19. A metallic disc is being heated. Its area A (in m2)
2 hours and then returns to the same point in next at any time t (in s) is given by A = (2t2 + t). The
3 hours. Its average velocity is rate of change of area at t = 1 s is
(1) 5 m2/s (2) 4 m2/s
(1) (2)
(3) 2 m2/s (4) 1 m2/s
20. A particle is moving along y-axis. The position y
(3) (4) Zero
of particle varies with time t as y = (t3 t2 + 1) m.
The displacement of particle from t = 0 to t = 2 s
15. A particle moves 600 m towards East then takes
is
left turn and moves 800 m. The ratio of distance
to displacement is (1) 1 m (2) 4 m
(1) 5 : 7 (2) 7 : 5 (3) 1m (4) 4m
(3) 3 : 4 (4) 4 : 3
21. If y = ex, then value of will be
16. Position of a particle moving along x-axis is given
by x = (t3 2t + 2), where t is time in second and (1) Zero (2) 2ex
(3) (x 1)ex (4) ex
x is position in meter, then at t = 1 s is
1 1 22. If y = tan x, then is equal to

(1) 1 m s (2) 2 m s
(3) 3 m s 1 (4) 4 m s 1
(1) sec2x (2) tan x
17. If y = 2x2 2x, then minimum value of the (3) cot x (4) sec x
function will be
23. A particle is moving along x-axis such that its
(1) 1 (2) position coordinates are, (where t is time)
(2, 0) m at t = 0
(3) 1 (4) (6, 0) m at t = 2 s

(13, 0) m at t = 5 s
18. A car moving on a straight road covers one-fourth
The magnitude of average velocity of particle
of the total distance with a constant speed of
from t = 0 to t = 5 s is
90 km/h. With what speed it must cover the
remaining distance such that the average speed (1) (2)
becomes 120 km/h for entire journey?
(1) 80 km/h (2) 135 km/h
(3) (4)
(3) 120 km/h (4) 180 km/h
CHEMISTRY
24. The resultant molarity of solution made by mixing 26. Maximum wavelength among the following is of
600 mL of 2 M NaOH solution and 400 mL of 3 M which radiation?
NaOH solution is (1) X-ray (2) -ray
(1) 1 M (2) 1.2 M (3) Ultraviolet (4) Infrared
(3) 2.4 M (4) 3.6 M 27. If threshold energy is x J and energy of incident
photon is y J then the kinetic energy of ejected
25. Which among the following is the heaviest
electron is
particle?
(1) x + y (2) x y
(1) Electron (2) Proton
(3) Neutron (4) Alpha particles (3) (4) y x
(3)
28. If the density of 1m HCl solution is 1g/mL then 35. Statement I: Mole fraction is the ratio of number
the molarity of the solution will be (molar mass of of moles of a particular component is solution to
HCl = 36.5 g mol 1) the total number of moles of all the components
in the solution.
(1) (2)
Statement II: Molarity is independent of
temperature.
(3) (4) In the light of above statements, identify the
correct option.
29. An element has same number of neutrons which
(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct
are present in C-14 isotope of carbon. If the mass
number of element is 16, then its atomic number (2) Both statement I and statement II are
is incorrect
(1) 6 (2) 7 (3) Statement I is correct but statement II is

incorrect
(3) 8 (4) 9
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
30. The frequency of the radiation whose wavelength
correct
is 400 nm is
36. The kinetic energy of photoelectrons ejected from
(1) 1.5 × 10 15 Hz (2) 7.5 × 1014 Hz
a metal surface depends on
(3) 7.5 × 10 12 Hz (4) 4 × 1014 Hz
(1) Frequency of incident light
31. All of the following are the conclusions of
(2) Number of photoelectron ejected
-particle scattering experiment,
(3) Intensity of light
except
(4) Time lag between striking of light & ejection
(1) Large empty space is present in an atom
of electrons
(2) Positive charge is concentrated in a very
37. Wave nature of light can be justified by
small region inside an atom
(1) Black body radiation
(3) Volume of nucleus is negligible as compared
(2) Photoelectric effect
to the total volume of the atom
(3) Diffraction
(4) Electrons are embedded in nucleus
(4) Line spectra of atoms
32. If 500 ml solution of H 3PO4 contain 3.011 × 1023
molecules of H3PO4 then the molarity of H3PO4 38. The number of electrons and neutron in
solution is respectively are
(1) 1 M (2) 2 M (1) 9 and 9
(3) 3 M (4) 2.5 M (2) 9 and 8
33. If the frequency of an electromagnetic radiation is (3) 8 and 8
1 Hz, then the energy of this radiation is
(4) 8 and 9
(1) 6.022 × 10 23 J
39. The characteristics of cathode rays do not
(2) 6.022 × 1023 J depend upon the nature of the gas because
(3) 6.626 × 10 34 J (1) Cathode rays are produced in vacuum
(4) 6.626 × 1034 J (2) Cathode rays consist of electrons
34. The mass of an electron is (3) The charge to mass ratio varies with the gas
(1) 9.1 × 10 31 g (2) 1.672 × 10 27 kg taken in tube
(3) 1.674 × 10 29 g (4) 9.1 × 10 31 kg (4) Cathode rays can produce X-rays
(4)
40. The molarity of H2SO4 in a solution obtained by

43. If the mass percentage of glucose in
mixing 250 mL of solution and 350 mL
aqueous solution is 18%, then the molality of
glucose in the solution is (formula of glucose is
of solution is approximately C6H12O6)
(1) 1.0 m (2) 3.61 m
(1) 0.05 M
(3) 4.52 m (4) 1.22 m
(2) 0.04 M
44.
(3) 0.09 M
established by bombarding -particle on
(4) 0.07 M
(1) Silver foil (2) Copper foil
41. The mass of sodium hydroxide required to
(3) Gold foil (4) Aluminium foil
prepare 100 mL of 0.05 M aqueous NaOH
45. Correct statement about canal rays is/are
solution is
(i) These are positively charged particles.
(1) 0.3 g (2) 0.4 g
(ii) The charge to mass ratio of the particles
(3) 0.1 g (4) 0.2 g
depends on the gas from which these
42. 32 g of methyl alcohol (CH 3OH), 46 g of ethyl originate.
alcohol (C 2H5OH) and 108 g of water is mixed to (iii) The behaviour of these particles in the
form a homogeneous solution. The mole fraction magnetic field is opposite to that observed for
of water in the solution is cathode rays.
(1) 0.25 (2) 0.50 (1) (i) only (2) (ii) and (iii) only
(3) 0.75 (4) 0.80 (3) (i), (ii) and (iii) (4) (i) and (iii) only
BOTANY
46. The period of cell cycle in yeast is 50. Mitosis helps in all, except
(1) 30 min (2) 60 min (1) Reproduction (2) Repair
(3) 90 min (4) 24 hours (3) Regeneration (4) Recombination
47. Cell plate mediated cytokinesis occurs in 51. During interphase, the centriole duplicates in the
(1) Animals (2) Plants (1) G1 phase
(3) Bacteria (4) Protozoa (2) S phase
48. In a plant cell, both of the semiautonomous cell (3) G2 phase
organelles get duplicated during which stage of
(4) G0 phase
cell cycle?
52. Double metaphasic plate is formed during
(1) G1 (2) S
(1) Metaphase-I
(3) G0 (4) G2
(2) Metaphase-II
49. Statement A: In animals, mitotic cell division is
(3) Metaphase of mitosis
seen in the diploid somatic cells.
(4) Anaphase-I
Statement B: The plants can show mitotic
divisions in both haploid and diploid cells. 53. The splitting of the centromere occurs in
(1) Only statement B is correct (1) Anaphase-I
(2) Only statement A is correct (2) Anaphase-II
(3) Both statements A and B are correct (3) Metaphase-I
(4) Both statements A and B are incorrect (4) Metaphase-II
(5)
54. At which of the given stage of mitosis, nuclear 62. Binomial nomenclature for scientific naming of
envelope develops around the chromosome organisms was developed by
clusters at each pole forming two daughter nuclei? (1) Theophrastus (2) Ernst Mayr
(1) Late anaphase (3) Aristotle (4) Carolus Linnaeus
(2) Telophase 63. Read the following statements and select the
correct option
(3) Early prophase
Statement A: No non-living object exhibits
(4) Late metaphase
metabolism.
55. Fragmentation occurs in
Statement B: Isolated metabolic reactions in
(1) Protonema of moss (2) Mule vitro are said to be living reactions.
(3) Bacteria (4) Hydra (1) Only statement A is correct
(2) Only statement B is correct
(3) Both statements are incorrect
(4) Both statements are correct
56.
64. Which of the following pair is wrongly matched?
(1) ICNB Solanum (2) ICZN Panthera
(3) ICBN Mangifera (4) ICVCN Virus
Above given figure represents 65. Which one is odd w.r.t. the processes that are
basic to taxonomy?
(1) Metaphase
(1) Characterisation
(2) Transition to metaphase stage
(2) Evolutionary relationships among organisms
(3) Prophase
(3) Classification
(4) Anaphase
(4) Nomenclature
57. Amoeba divides by which of the given process to
66. Which of the given is not defining property of
produce new individuals?
living organisms?
(1) Fission (2) Fragmentation (1) Growth
(3) Budding (4) True regeneration (2) Metabolism
58. Cells at which stage of meiosis is called dyad of (3) Cellular organisation
cells? (4) Consciousness
(1) Telophase-I (2) Anaphase-II 67. All of the given are correct features w.r.t. growth,
(3) Anaphase-I (4) Metaphase-II except
59. Adult animal cell that does not divide is (1) Increase in mass
(1) Skin cell (2) Hair cell (2) Increase in number of cells
(3) Irreversible
(3) Stem cell (4) Nerve cell
(4) Takes place on surface of body in living
60. Calculate the total number of meiotic divisions
organisms
required to produce 56 pollen grains.
68. Which of the following characteristics is unique to
(1) 55 (2) 14
human beings?
(3) 28 (4) 52
(1) Metabolism
61. A short lived phase between meiosis-I and II is (2) Reproduction
(1) Diakinesis (2) Interkinesis (3) Cellular organization
(3) Cytokinesis (4) Interphase (4) Self-consciousness
(6)
ZOOLOGY
69. An example of heteropolymer is 77. Select the correct statement.
(1) Haemoglobin (1) RuBisCO is the most abundant protein in
(2) Cellulose biosphere.
(3) Glycogen (2) The last amino acid in a protein chain is

called N-terminal amino acid.
(4) Starch
(3) Non-essential amino acids are not required
70. A biomolecule was found to have molecular
by our body, while essential amino acids are
weight less than 800 Dalton, still found in
involved in numerous metabolic reactions.
retentate fraction. The molecule is
(4) Valine is a basic amino acid.
(1) Nucleic acid
78. The structure below shows a protein. Identify the
(2) Polysaccharide
protein structure.
(3) Protein
(4) Lipid
71. Haemoglobin exhibit _________ structure of
protein. Choose the option that fills the blank
correctly.
(1) Tertiary (2) Primary
(3) Secondary (4) Quaternary Choose the correct option.
72. Which is not correctly matched? (1) Primary structure
(1) Niacin Polymer of amino acid (2) Secondary structure
(2) Chitin Exoskeleton of arthropods (3) Tertiary structure
(3) Cellulose Polymer of glucose (4) Quaternary structure
(4) Inulin Polymer of fructose 79. Choose the correct match.
73. Choose the incorrect statement for cellulose. Protein Functions
(1) Plant cell wall is made up of cellulose
(1) Insulin Intercellular ground
(2) Cellulose contain complex helices and hence substance
cannot hold l2
(2) Trypsin Hormone
(3) Cotton fibre is made up of cellulose
(3) GLUT-4 Enable glucose transport
(4) Cellulose is a type of homopolysaccharide
into cells
74. How many hydrogen bonds are present in
between guanine and cytosine? (4) Antibody Protect infectious agents
(1) Three (2) Two 80. Among the following, how many molecules are
(3) One (4) Four secondary metabolites?
75. All of the following are nucleotide, except Rubber, Codeine, Gums, Cellulose, Ricin,
(1) Cytidylic acid (2) Thymidylic acid Lecithin, Glycine, Alanine, Palmitic acid
(3) Guanylic acid (4) Uridine (1) 5

76. All of the following are homopolymer, except (2) 4
(1) Inulin (2) Glycogen (3) 6
(3) Cellulose (4) Insulin (4) 3
(7)
81. How many statements are correct regarding 85. Glial cells in humans are
glycogen? (1) Excitable cells of muscles
(a) It is unbranched (2) Structural and functional units of nervous
(b) Polymer of glucose system
(c) It is storehouse of energy in animal tissues (3) Neurons that make up less than one-third the
(d) In its chain, right end is called non-reducing volume of neural tissue in our body
end (4) Non-excitable cells of neural tissue
(1) One (2) Two 86. All among the following are polymers of glucose,
(3) Three (4) Four except
82. Which of the following is mismatched? (1) Glycogen (2) Starch
(1) Inulin Homopolymer of fructose (3) Inulin (4) Cellulose
(2) Chitin Polymer of N-acetylglucosamine 87. Nerve fibres can be distinguished from muscle
(3) Starch Homopolysaccharide fibres on the basis of
(4) Cellulose Heteropolysaccharide (1) Ability to conduct impulse by former
83. Match the component of the living cells listed in (2) Inability to contract by former
column A with their percent contribution to total
(3) Fusiform shaped fibres of former
cellular mass listed in column B.
(4) Involuntary nature of former
Column A Column B
88. Select the name of an aromatic amino acid
a. Proteins (i) 70 90%
(1) Lysine (2) Glutamic acid
b. Water (ii) 10 15%
(3) Valine (4) Phenylalanine
c. Lipids (iii) 2%
89. Presence of intercalated disc is the feature of
d. Carbohydrates (iv) 3%
(1) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv) (1) Cardiac muscles
(2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (2) Skeletal muscles
(3) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) (3) Triceps
(4) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii) (4) All types of striated muscles
84. A living tissue such as liver is homogenised with 90. Voluntary and striated muscles fibres in humans
trichloroacetic acid and filtered. The retentate can be
fraction obtained will contain all, except (1) Multinucleated
(1) Collagen (2) Uninucleated
(2) Proteins (3) Elongated and spindle-shaped
(3) DNA (4) Branched and possess communication
(4) Glucose junctions
(8)
Vivek Krishna
30-07-2022 TYMW
CODE-D
Phase-1
(for NEET 2024)
Test - 3
Answer Key
1. (2) 19. (1) 37. (3) 55. (1) 73. (2)
2. (2) 20. (2) 38. (4) 56. (1) 74. (1)
3. (4) 21. (4) 39. (2) 57. (1) 75. (4)
4. (1) 22. (1) 40. (4) 58. (1) 76. (4)
5. (4) 23. (2) 41. (4) 59. (4) 77. (1)
6. (2) 24. (3) 42. (3) 60. (2) 78. (2)
7. (1) 25. (4) 43. (4) 61. (2) 79. (3)
8. (4) 26. (4) 44. (3) 62. (4) 80. (1)
9. (3) 27. (4) 45. (3) 63. (4) 81. (2)
10. (1) 28. (4) 46. (3) 64. (1) 82. (4)
11. (1) 29. (3) 47. (2) 65. (2) 83. (1)
12. (1) 30. (2) 48. (4) 66. (1) 84. (4)
13. (4) 31. (4) 49. (3) 67. (4) 85. (4)
14. (4) 32. (1) 50. (4) 68. (4) 86. (3)
15. (2) 33. (3) 51. (2) 69. (1) 87. (2)
16. (1) 34. (4) 52. (1) 70. (4) 88. (4)
17. (2) 35. (3) 53. (2) 71. (4) 89. (1)
18. (2) 36. (1) 54. (2) 72. (1) 90. (1)
(1)
Vivek Krishna Fortnightly Test-3 (TYMW_Code-D)_(Hints and Solutions)
30-07-2022 TYMW
CODE-D
Phase-1
(for NEET 2024)

Test - 3
Hints and Solutions
PHYSICS
1. Answer (2) t2 7t + 10 = 0
t2 2t 5t + 10 = 0
t(t 2) 5(t 2) = 0
2. Answer (2) t = 2, 5 s
x = 4t + 3t2 a = 12t 42
at = 2 = 12 × 2 42 = 18 m/s2
at = 5 = 12 × 5 42 = 18 m/s2
4. Answer (1)
v = 4 + 6t
= 6 m/s2
3. Answer (4)
Distance = 10 + 10 + 10 = 30 m
x = 2t3 21t2 + 60t + 6
Displacement = 10 m
5. Answer (4)
Acceleration of a particle change either direction
d
(2t 3 21t 2 60t 6) = 6t2 42t + 60 of velocity changes or magnitude of velocity
dt
changes, or both will be changed.
dv
a 6. Answer (2)
dt
S = t3 6t2 + 3t + 4
a = 12t 42
v=0 v = 3t2 12t + 3
6t2 42t + 60 = 0 vt = 0 = 3 m/s
(2)
Vivek Krishna

s
v
t
= 72 km/h
8. Answer (4)
Distance = R
Displacement = 2R
13. Answer (4)

Magnitude of displacement is always less or
equal to distance.
14. Answer (4)
9. Answer (3)
15. Answer (2)
10. Answer (1)
Distance = 800 m + 600 m

11. Answer (1)
Displacement = 0 Distance = 1400 m
Displacement
16. Answer (1)

x = t3 2t + 2
= 3 × (1)2 2 = 1 m/s
(3)

y = 2x2 2x A = 2t2 + t
20. Answer (2)

y = t3 t2 + 1
yt = 0 = +1
y t = 2 = 23 22 + 1
=8 4+1=5
=5 1=4m
21. Answer (4)
y = ex

y = tanx
23. Answer (2)
v2 = 135 km/h
CHEMISTRY
29. Answer (3)

= 2.4 M
25. Answer (4) In , number of neutrons = 14 6=8
Alpha particles is He 2+. In , given 16 x=8

26. Answer (4) x=8
Order of wavelength: 30. Answer (2)
IR Radiation > UV Radiation > X-Rays > -Rays.
27. Answer (4)
KE = Energy of photons Work function
=y x
(4)
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31. Answer (4)

The nucleus is surrounded by electrons that
move around the nucleus with a very high speed M3 = 0.07 M
in circular paths called orbits.
41. Answer (4)
32. Answer (1)
x = 0.2 g
33. Answer (3)
42. Answer (3)
E = h = 6.626 × 10 34 J
Mole of CH3OH =
34. Answer (4)
Mass of electron = 9.1 × 10 31 kg
Mole of C2H5OH =
35. Answer (3)
Molarity has volume term.
Mole of H2O =
It depends upon temperature
36. Answer (1)
Mole fraction of H2O =
h =h 0 + KE
43. Answer (4)
37. Answer (3)
Mass of glucose = 18 g
Wave nature of light can be justified by diffraction
and interference. Mass of solution = 100 g
Mass of water = 100 18 = 82 g
38. Answer (4)
Molality =
Number of electrons = 8
Number of neutrons = 17 8=9
44. Answer (3)
39. Answer (2)
Rutherford bombarded -particles on gold foil.
Cathode rays contains negatively charged
45. Answer (3)
electrons. So, the characteristics of the rays do
Canal rays are positively charged particles.
not depend upon the gas.
The charge to mass ratio of the particles
40. Answer (4) depends on the gas from which these
M1V1 + M2V2 = M3V3 originate.
BOTANY
Yeast completes cell cycle in 90 min. Most of the cell organelles get duplicated in G1.
But Golgi body, chloroplast and mitochondria are
47. Answer (2) doubled at G2 phase along with tubulin protein
synthesis.
Cell plate help in cytokinesis of plant cells which
49. Answer (3)
represent the future middle lamella of adjacent
Mitotic cell division is seen in both haploid and
cells. diploid cells in plants.
(5)

Mitosis helps in reproduction in unicellular Some cells in adult animal does not divide e.g.
organisms. It helps in repair and regeneration nerve cell.
but cannot produce recombinants as mitosis does 60. Answer (2)
not involve crossing over.
1 meiotic division in microspore mother cell
51. Answer (2) produces 4 pollens. For producing 56 pollens,
In animal cells, both DNA replication and 56/4 = 14 meiotic divisions are required.
duplication of centriole occur in S-phase. 61. Answer (2)
52. Answer (1)
A short lived phase between meiosis-I and II is
The phase during which double metaphasic plate called interkinesis.
formed is metaphase-I for alignment of
62. Answer (4)
homologous chromosome.
Binomial nomenclature for scientific naming of
53. Answer (2)
organisms was developed by Carolus Linnaeus.
During anaphase-II, the centromere holding the
63. Answer (4)
two chromatids splits and allow the separation
and movement of the two chromatids towards Metabolism is the defining feature of the living
opposite poles. organism and metabolic reactions in vitro are
said to be living reactions.
54. Answer (2)
64. Answer (1)
During telophase, the nuclear envelope develops
around the chromosome clusters at each pole ICBN is for plants and ICNB is for bacteria.
forming two daughter nuclei. 65. Answer (2)
55. Answer (1) Characterisation, identification, classification and
Protonema of moss show fragmentation. nomenclature are the processes which are
basic to taxonomy.
56. Answer (1)
Given figure represents metaphase stage 66. Answer (1)
because chromosomes are aligned at Growth can also be observed in non-living
metaphasic plate. objects and cannot be taken as a defining
57. Answer (1) property of living organism. Remaining other
options are defining property of living organisms.
Amoeba divides by fission to produce new
individuals. 67. Answer (4)
58. Answer (1) In living organisms, growth takes place inside the
body i.e. intrinsic growth.
In telophase-I, cytokinesis follows after nuclear
membrane formation and it appears as two cells 68. Answer (4)
are joined together and thus it is called as dyad Human being has self-consciousness along with
of cells. awareness towards their surroundings.
ZOOLOGY
Haemoglobin is a protein, a heteropolymer of Niacin is a vitamin.
amino acids. 73. Answer (2)
70. Answer (4) Cellulose lack complex helices hence cannot hold
Lipids are non-polymeric yet present in retentate. I2.
Haemoglobin has 4 subunits (2 , 2 ) and exhibits Three hydrogen bonds are present in between G
quaternary structure. and C.
(6)
Vivek Krishna

Uridine is a nucleoside. Glycogen is branched and its right end is called
reducing end.
76. Answer (4)
82. Answer (4)
Insulin is a protein (heteropolymer).
Cellulose is a homopolysaccharide of glucose.
77. Answer (1)
83. Answer (1)
The first amino acid in protein chain is called
Water > Proteins > Nucleic acid > Carbohydrate
N-terminal amino acid. Valine is a neutral amino
> Lipids > Ions.
acid.
84. Answer (4)
78. Answer (2)
Glucose and sulphate are biomicromolecules and
In proteins, only right handed helices are will filter into acid soluble fraction.
observed. 85. Answer (4)
79. Answer (3) Glial cells are non-excitable cells. Neurons are
Insulin is a hormone, trypsin is a proteolytic structural and functional units of neural system.
enzyme 86. Answer (3)
Protein Functions Inulin is a polymer of fructose.

87. Answer (2)
Collagen Intercellular ground substance
Nerve fibres do not have the property of
Trypsin Enzyme contraction.
Insulin Hormone 88. Answer (4)

Tyrosine, phenylalanine and tryptophan are the
Antibody Fights infectious agents aromatic amino acids.
Receptor Sensory reception (smell, taste, 89. Answer (1)
hormone, etc.) Intercalated disc is the characteristic features of
cardiac muscle fibres.
GLUT-4 Enables glucose transport into cells
90. Answer (1)
80. Answer (1)
Skeletal and cardiac muscle fibres in human are
Rubber, Codeine, Gums, Cellulose, Ricin are striated muscle fibres which are multinucleated
secondary metabolites. and uninucleated respectively.
(7)
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28-12-2022 TYMR
CODE-A
Phase-1
(for NEET 2024)
Test - 11
Answers
1. (2) 19. (4) 37. (2) 55. (3) 73. (4)
2. (4) 20. (2) 38. (3) 56. (3) 74. (2)
3. (1) 21. (3) 39. (1) 57. (2) 75. (3)
4. (3) 22. (3) 40. (3) 58. (3) 76. (2)
5. (2) 23. (4) 41. (4) 59. (Del) 77. (3)
6. (2) 24. (2) 42. (1) 60. (2) 78. (3)
7. (2) 25. (1) 43. (3) 61. (4) 79. (1)
8. (1) 26. (2) 44. (4) 62. (4) 80. (4)
9. (2) 27. (2) 45. (4) 63. (2) 81. (1)
10. (2) 28. (2) 46. (4) 64. (3) 82. (3)
11. (1) 29. (3) 47. (3) 65. (2) 83. (3)
12. (2) 30. (2) 48. (3) 66. (1) 84. (4)
13. (3) 31. (1) 49. (3) 67. (1) 85. (2)
14. (4) 32. (3) 50. (2) 68. (4) 86. (2)
15. (4) 33. (1) 51. (3) 69. (1) 87. (1)
16. (1) 34. (1) 52. (2) 70. (3) 88. (1)
17. (1) 35. (4) 53. (2) 71. (4) 89. (4)
18. (2) 36. (1) 54. (3) 72. (2) 90. (1)
(1)
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11-01-2023 TYMR
CODE-A
Phase-1
(for NEET 2024)
Test - 12
Answers
1. (3) 19. (4) 37. (3) 55. (3) 73. (1)
2. (3) 20. (1) 38. (3) 56. (2) 74. (1)
3. (2) 21. (1) 39. (3) 57. (3) 75. (3)
4. (1) 22. (3) 40. (1) 58. (1) 76. (3)
5. (2) 23. (2) 41. (4) 59. (4) 77. (4)
6. (3) 24. (1) 42. (2) 60. (4) 78. (1)
7. (2) 25. (1) 43. (3) 61. (1) 79. (3)
8. (3) 26. (2) 44. (3) 62. (2) 80. (2)
9. (1) 27. (2) 45. (1) 63. (4) 81. (4)
10. (4) 28. (2) 46. (3) 64. (3) 82. (3)
11. (3) 29. (1) 47. (2) 65. (3) 83. (4)
12. (3) 30. (4) 48. (4) 66. (3) 84. (4)
13. (1) 31. (1) 49. (3) 67. (1) 85. (2)
14. (1) 32. (3) 50. (3) 68. (3) 86. (3)
15. (4) 33. (4) 51. (4) 69. (2) 87. (3)
16. (3) 34. (1) 52. (2) 70. (2) 88. (2)
17. (4) 35. (1) 53. (3) 71. (1) 89. (1)
18. (1) 36. (2) 54. (2) 72. (2) 90. (1)
(1)
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FT [TYM] Medical 2223 Test (1)

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FT [TYM] Medical 2223 Test (1)

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Vivek krishna

MM : 360 FORTNIGHTLY TEST SERIES Time :90 min.

(3) [M0L 3T] (1) 1% (2) 6%

(4) [ML2T 2] (3) 2% (4) 9%

(1) Work (2) Energy (1) Dimensions of A, B and C are same

(1) 4% (2) 9% 17. Which of the following equations is dimensionally

(3) Cardiac muscles (3) Lymph (4) Tendon

70. Read the following statements w.r.t. skeletal (1) Tendon

(1) Smooth muscle fibres (2) Statement A is correct

(3) Involuntary muscle fibres (4) Statement B is correct

(1) Bone marrow in some bones for the D. Tendon

(1) Is harder than bone (a) Ligament

MM : 360 FORTNIGHTLY TEST SERIES Time : 90 min.

(for NEET 2024)

1. (2) 19. (1) 37. (3) 55. (3) 73. (4)

2. (4) 20. (1) 38. (4) 56. (4) 74. (1)

3. (1) 21. (2) 39. (1) 57. (2) 75. (1)

4. (1) 22. (1) 40. (4) 58. (1) 76. (3)

5. (4) 23. (1) 41. (2) 59. (4) 77. (4)

6. (4) 24. (4) 42. (2) 60. (3) 78. (2)

7. (1) 25. (2) 43. (1) 61. (3) 79. (1)

8. (2) 26. (2) 44. (2) 62. (4) 80. (2)

9. (3) 27. (2) 45. (4) 63. (4) 81. (1)

MM : 360 FORTNIGHTLY TEST SERIES Time : 90 min.

(for NEET 2024)

Hints and Solutions

l1 l2 = (1.0 ± 0.3) cm [LT 1] = LHS and RHS = [L]

19. Answer (1) 22. Answer (1)

Mass percentage of sulphur

25. Answer (2)

Number of moles of oxygen = 3 × 10 3

Number of atoms of O = 3 × 10 3 × 6.02 × 1023

The empirical formula of the compound is

33. Answer (3) 40. Answer (4)

So, H2 is the limiting reagent

So, amount of ammonia formed

41. Answer (2)

100 g Haemoglobin 0.25 g Fe

Atoms of different elements differ in mass. Number of Fe-atom

37. Answer (3) WA + 3WB = 80

Number of protons in 1 mole of H2O = 10 NA

Number of protons in 5 mole of H2O = 5 × 10 NA 43. Answer (1)

38. Answer (4)

1 mole K4[Fe(CN)6] 6 mol of C

0.5 mole of K4[Fe(CN)6] 3 mol of C

45. Answer (4)

[Molar mass of NH2CONH2 is 60 g]

So, the gas is NO. w = 0.2 × 60 = 12 g

48. Answer (1) 59. Answer (4)

Amyloplast Potato 65. Answer (1)

Aleuroplast Maize Chromatids of chromosomes are held together at

MM : 360 FORTNIGHTLY TEST SERIES Time :90 min.

(1) 1.2 g (4) Both (1) and (2)

of force? (3) 10 5 (4) 10 7

(1) Weight 14. If the percentage error in the measurement of

(3) ( x y z)% (1) 25 (2) 30

(4) ( x + y + z)% (3) 27.5 (4) 32.5

(1) 1, 1, 1 (2) 0, 1, 2 (1) [M0L 1T1] (2) [M0L1T 1]

(3) 0, 2, 1 (4) 0, 2, 1 (3) [M0L 1T2] (4) [M0L1T1]

18. Given that y = Asin( t kx) , where y and x are in 21.

(1) Three (2) Six (1) 12% (2) 2%

(3) Five (4) Four (3) 4% (4) 8%

(4) 4 moles of NO is formed (1) 5.6 L (2) 2.8 L

(3) 2 : 1 (4) 1 : 1 (3) 60 u (4) 90 u