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Mark Group Class : 12th (2023-24) Date : 12/12/2023
720 PCB Vijaypath Test Series-Test : 03(40) Time : 03 Hrs. 20 Mins.
Physics - 50 Chemistry - 50 Biology - 100

Question Booklet Version Roll Number Question Booklet Sr. No.
(Write this number
P-11 on your Answer
Sheet)
• Today’s Test Syllabus •

Physics : Kinetic Theory Of Gases + Thermodynamics + Heat Transfer
Chemistry : Chemical Bonding
Biology : Plant Kingdom + Breathing and Exchange of Gases
• Next Test Syllabus • Date : 15/12/2023
Physics : Circular Motion + Laws of Motion + Friction
Chemistry : G.O.C. (Complete)
Biology : Morphology of Flowering Plants
RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC
PHYSICS 3. A gas is found to obey the law p2V = constant.

Section : A The initial temperature and volume are T0 and
1. Statement-1 : In an adiabatic process, change in V0. If the gas expands to a volume 3V0, its final
internal energy of a gas is equal to work done temperature becomes. [ NCERT Page-326]
on/by the gas in the process. [ NCERT Page-312]
Statement-2 : The temperature of a gas remains T0 T0
constant in an adiabatic process. 1) 2)
3 3
1) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is true,
Statement 2 is a correct explanation of 3) 3T0 4) None of these
Statement 1.
2) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is false. pV
3) Statement 1 is false, Statement 2 is true. 4. The gas equation =constant is true for a
T
4) Statement 1 is false, Statement 2 is true,
constant mass of an ideal gas undergoing
Statement 2 is not a correct explanation of
Statement 1. [ NCERT Page-326]
2. In a mixture of gases, the average number of
degree of freedoms per molecule is 6. The rms 1) isothermal change
speed of the molecule of the gas is c. The velocity 2) adiabatic change
of sound in the gas is [ NCERT Page-330]
3) isobaric change
c c 2c c
1) 2) 3) 4) 4) any type of change
3 2 3 3
PCB TEST : 03(40) 1 Date : 12/12/2023

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : P-11
5. Two identical containers joined by a small 8. Three different processes
RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
pipe initially contain the same gas at pressure that can occur in an ideal
p0 and absolute temperature T0. One container monoatomic gas are
is now maintained at the same temperature shown in the P vs V
while the other is heated to 2T0. The common diagram. The paths are
pressure of the gases will be [ NCERT Page-326] labelled as A  B, and
3 4 5 A  D. The change in
1) p0 2) p0 3) p0 4) 2 p0 internal energies during these process are
2 3 3
taken as EAB, EAC and EAD and the workdone
6. A cyclic process ABCD
as WAB, W AC and WAD. The correct relation
is shown in the p-V
between these parameters are [ NCERT Page-312]
diagram. Which of the
1) EAB = EAC < EAD , WAB > 0 , WAC = 0, WAD < 0
following curves
2) EAB = EAC = EAD , WAB > 0 , WAC = 0, WAD < 0
represent the same
3) EAB < EAC < EAD , WAB > 0 , WAC > WAD
process? [ NCERT Page-312]
4) EAB > EAC > EAD , WAB < WAC < WAD
9. n moles of an ideal gas with constant volume
heat capacity C V undergo an isobaric
1) 2) expansion by certain volume. The ratio of
the work done in the process, to the heat
supplied is [ NCERT Page-312]
nR nR
1) 2)
CV  nR CV  nR
3) 4)
4nR 4nR
3) 4)
CV  nR CV  nR
7. Match the following two columns for 2 moles
of an ideal diatomic gas at room temperature T. 10. One mole of an ideal monoatomic gas is taken
[ NCERT Page-334] along the path ABCA as
shown in the PV
Column-I Column-II diagram. The maximum
a) Translational kinetic energy p) 2 RT temperature attained by
b) Rotational kinetic energy q) 4 RT the gas along the path
BC is given by
c) Potential energy r) 3 RT
25 P0 V0 25 P0 V0
None of 1) 2)
d) Total internal energy s) 8 R 4 R
these
1) ar, bp, cs, ds 2) as, bp, cr, ds 25 P0 V0 5 P0 V0
3) 4)
3) as, br, cp, ds 4) as, bs, cr, dp 16 R 8 R
Space For Rough Work
PCB TEST : 03(40) 2 Date : 12/12/2023

11. One mole of an ideal monoatomic gas 16. Assertion : When temperature of a body is
is compressed isothermally in a rigid vessel increased, in radiant energy, number of low
to double its pressure at room temperature, wavelength photons get increased.
27°C. The work done on the gas will be Reason : According to Wien’s displacement law
[ NCERT Page-311] 1
m  . [ NCERT Page-294]
1) 300 R ln 6 2) 300 R T
3) 300 R ln 7 4) 300 R ln 2 1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the
12. An ideal gas at atmospheric pressure is Reason is correct explanation of the Assertion
2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but
adiabatically compressed so that its density
Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
becomes 32 times of its initial value. If the final
3) If Assertion is true, but the Reason is false
pressure of gas is 128 atmospheres, the value 4) If Assertion is false but the Reason is true
of ‘’ of the gas is [ NCERT Page-312] 17. A n i deal gas of mass m in
1) 1.5 2) 1.4 a state A goes to another
3) 1.3 4) 1.6 state B via three different
13. The rms speed of the molecules of a gas in a processes as shown in the
vessel is 400 ms–1. If half of the gas leaks out given figure. If Q1, Q2 and
at constant temperature, the rms speed of the Q 3 denote the heat
remaining molecules will be [ NCERT Page-330] absorbed by the gas along the three paths,
then [ NCERT Page-312]
1) 800 ms–1 2) 400 2 ms –1 1) Q1 < Q2 < Q3 2) Q1 < Q2 = Q3
3) 400 ms –1 4) 200 ms–1 3) Q1 = Q2 > Q3 4) Q1 > Q2 > Q3
14. The root mean square speed of the molecules 18. P – V diagram of an
of a diatomic gas is v. When the temperature ideal gas is as shown
is doubled, the molecules dissociate into two in the given figure.
atoms. The new root mean square speed of the Work done by the
atom is [ NCERT Page-330] gas in the process
ABCD is
1) 2v 2) v [ NCERT Page-312]
3) 2 v 4) 4 v 1) 4P0V0 2) 2P0V0
15. If 2 mol of an ideal monatomic gas at temperature 3) 3P0V0 4) P0V0
T 0 are mixed with 4 mol of another ideal 19. The temperature of 5 mol of a gas which was
monatomic gas at temperature 2T0. then the held at constant volume was changed from
100°C to 120°C. The change in internal energy
temperature of the mixture is [ NCERT Page-334]
was found to be 80 J. The total heat capacity
5 3 of the gas at constant volume will be equal to
1) T 2) T
3 0 2 0 [ NCERT Page-308]
4 5 1) 8 JK–1 2) 0.8 JK–1
3) T 4) T 3) 4 JK–1 4) 0.4 JK–1
3 0 4 0
PCB TEST : 03(40) 3 Date : 12/12/2023

20. An ideal gas is taken through 25. If Q and W represent the heat supplied to
A  B  C  A, as shown the system and the work done on the system
in the given figure. If the net respectively, then the first law of thermodynamics
heat supplied to the gas in can be written as [ NCERT Page-307]
the cycle is 15 J, the work 1) Q = U + W 2) Q = U – W
done by the gas in the 3) Q = W – U 4) Q = – W – U
process C  A is 26. The p-V diagram of a system undergoing
[ NCERT Page-312] thermodynamic transformation is shown in
1) –5 J 2) –10 J figure. The work done by
3) –15 J 4) – 20 J the system in going from
2 A B C is 50 cal and
21. In an adiabatic process, R  CV . The pressure 80 cal heat is given to the
3
system. The change in
of gas will be proportional to [ NCERT Page-312]
internal energy between
1) T5/3 2) T5/2
A and C is [ NCERT Page-307]
3) T5/4 4) T5/6
22. In a thermodynamic process, pressure of a fixed 1) –130 cal 2) –30 cal
mass of a gas is changed in such a manner that 3) 130 cal 4) 30 cal
the gas molecules gives out 20 J of heat and 27. One mole of an ideal monoatomic gas at
10 J of work is done on the gas. If the initial temperature T0 expands slowly according to the
internal energy of the gas was 40 J, then the p
law  constant. If the final temperature is 2T0.
final internal energy will be [ NCERT Page-307] V
1) 30 J 2) 50 J heat supplied to the gas is [ NCERT Page-312]
3) 60 J 4) 40 J
23. p-V diagram of a diatomic gas is a straight line 3 1
1) 2RT0 2) RT
T0 3) RT0 4) RT
T
passing through origin. The molar heat capacity 2 2 0
of the gas in the process will be 28. A body cools in 7 minutes from 60°C to 40°C.
[ NCERT Page-309] Its temperature after the next 7 minutes is
1) 4 R 2) 2.5 R (temperature of the surroundings is 10°C)
4R [ NCERT Page-296]
3) 3 R 4) 1) 32°C 2) 28°C
3
24. Heat energy absorbed 3) 20°C 4) 25°C
by a system in going 29. Air is filled at 60° in a vessel of open mouth.
through a cyclic The vessel is heated to a temperature T so that
process as shown in 1
th part of air escapes. Assuming the volume
the figure [V in litres 4
and p in kPa] is of the vessel remaining constant, the value of
[ NCERT Page-307] T is [ NCERT Page-326]
1) 107 J 2) 104 J 1) 80°C 2) 444°C
3) 102 J 4) 103 J 3) 333°C 4) 171°C
PCB TEST : 03(40) 4 Date : 12/12/2023

30. Assertion : Heat is supplied at constant rate from 33. Three conducting rods
one end of a conducting rod. In steady state, of same material and
temperature of all points of the rod becomes cross-section are
uniform. shown in figure.
Reason : In steady state, temperature of rod does Temperature of A, D
not increase. [ NCERT Page-291] and C are maintained
at 20°C, 90°C and 0°C. The ratio of lengths BD
1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the and BC, if there is no heat flow in AB is
Reason is correct explanation of the Assertion [ NCERT Page-291]
2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but 2 7 9 2
Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion 1) 2) 3) 4)
7 2 2 9
3) If Assertion is true, but the Reason is false C 
34. The ratio of specific heats  P  in terms of
4) If Assertion is false but the Reason is true.  CV 
31. The intensity of radiation emitted by the sun degree of freedom (f) is given by
has its maximum value at a wavelength of [ NCERT Page-309, 334]
510 nm and that emitted by the North star has 
 f 2
the maximum value at 350 nm. If these stars 1)  1   2)  1  
behave like black bodies, then the ratio of the  3  f
surface temperatures of the sun and the north  f  1
star is [ NCERT Page-294] 3)  1   4)  1  
 2  f
1) 1.46 2) 0.69 5
7
35. A diatomic gas, having C p  R and Cv  R ,
3) 1.21 4) 0.83 2 2
32. The spectrum of a black body at two is heated at constant pressure. The ratio
temperatures 27°C and 327°C is shown in the dU : dQ : dW [ NCERT Page-308]
figure. Let A1 and A2 be the areas under the 1) 5 : 7 : 2 2) 3 : 5 : 2
A2 3) 3 : 7 : 2 4) 5 : 7 : 3
two curves respectively. The value of is Section : B
A1
36. Consider a gas of triatomic
molecules. The molecules
are assumed to be
triangular and made of
[ NCERT Page-295] massless rigid rods whose vertices are occupied
by atoms. the internal energy of a mole of the
gas at temperature T is [ NCERT Page-334]
5 3
1) RT 2) RT
1) 1 : 16 2) 4 : 1 2 2
9
3) 2 : 1 4) 16 : 1 3) RT 4) 3RT
2
PCB TEST : 03(40) 5 Date : 12/12/2023

37. Which of the substances 40. In the process shown in
A, B and C has the figure, the internal
lowest heat capacity if energy of an ideal gas
heat is supplied to all of 3 p0V0
them at equal rates. The decreases by
2
temperatures versus from point C to A. Heat
time graph is shown [ NCERT Page-308] transfer along the
1) A process CA is [ NCERT Page-307]
2) B 1) (–3 p0V0) 2) (–5 p0V0/2)
3) C 3) (–3 p0V0/2) 4) zero
4) All have equal heat capacity 5
38. Two elastic rods are joined between fixed 41. For a gas   and 640 cc of this gas is suddenly
3
supports as shown in the figure. Condition for
compressed to 80 cc. If the initial pressure is p,
no change in the lengths of individual rods
then final pressure will be [ NCERT Page-312]
with the increase of temperature (1, 2 = linear
1) 8 p 2) 32 p
expansion coefficient , A1, A2 = area of rods, Y1,
3) 16 p 4) 65 p
Y2 = Young’s modulus is [ NCERT Page-292]
42. In a process, the pressure of an ideal gas is
proportional to square of the volume of the
gas. If the temperature of the gas increases in
this process, then work done by this gas
1) is positive
2) is negative
3) is zero
4) may be positive or negative
A1  1Y1 A1 L1 1Y1 43. Three processes compose
1)  2) 
A2  2Y2 A2 L2  2Y2 a thermodynamic cycle
shown in the accom-
A1 L2  2Y2 A1  2Y2
3)  4)  panying P–V, diagram of
A2 L1 1Y1 A2  1Y1 an ideal gas.
39. When the temperature of a black body Process 12 takes placed
increases, it is observed that the wavelength at constant temperature, during this process
corresponding to maximum energy changes 60 J of heat enters the system.
from 0.26 m to 0.13 m. The ratio of the Process 2 3 takes placed at constant volume.
emissive powers of the body at the respective During this process 40 J of heat leaves the
temperature is [ NCERT Page-294] system.
16 4 Process 31 is adiabatic.
1) 2) What is the change in internal energy of the
1 1
system during process 31? [ NCERT Page-312]
1 1 1) –40 J 2) –20 J 3) +20 J 4) +40 J
3) 4)
4 16
PCB TEST : 03(40) 6 Date : 12/12/2023

44. The given diagram shows four processes i.e., 47. pV versus T graph of equal masses of H2. He
isochoric, isobaric, isothermal and adiabatic . and O2 is shown in figure. Choose the correct
The correct assignment of the processes, in the alternative. [ NCERT Page-326]
same order is given by [ NCERT Page-312]
1) a d b c 2) d a c b 1) A corresponds to O2, B to He and C to H2

3) a d c b 4) d a b c 2) A corresponds to He, B to H2 and C to O2
45. A balloon filled with helium (32°C and 1.7 atm) 3) A corresponds to He, B to O2 and C to H2
bursts. Immediately afterwards the expansion 4) A corresponds to O2, B to H2 and C to He
of helium can be considered as [NCERT Page-315] 48. A polyatomic gas with n degrees of freedom
has a mean energy per molecule given by
1) irreversible isothermal
[ NCERT Page-334]
2) irreversible adiabatic
3) reversible adiabatic n 1
1) RT 2) RT
4) reversible isothermal 2 2
46. Match the thermodynamic process taking
place in a system with the correct conditions. n 1
3) kT 4) kT
In the table : Q is the heat supplied, W is 2 2
the work done and U is change in internal 49. Two thin blankets keep more hotness than one
energy of the system. [ NCERT Page-312] blanket of thickness equal to these two. The
reason is [ NCERT Page-290]
Column-I Column-II 1) their surface area increases
I. Adiabatic A. W = 0 2) a layer of air is formed between these two
blankets which is bad conductor of heat
II. Isothermal B. Q = 0
3) these have more wool
III. Isochoric C. U  0, W  0, Q  0 4) they absorb more heat from outside
IV. Isobaric D. U = 0 50. The average kinetic energy of the molecules
of an ideal gas at 10°C has the value E. The
1) I A, IIB, IIID, IVD temperature at which the kinetic energy of the
2) IB, IIA, IIID, IVC same gas becomes 2E is [ NCERT Page-330]
3) IA, IIA, IIIB, IVC 1) 5°C 2) 10°C
4) IB, IID, IIIA, IVC 3) 40°C 4) None of these
PCB TEST : 03(40) 7 Date : 12/12/2023

CHEMISTRY
56. Assertion : Sulphur compounds like SF6 and
SECTION : A
H2 SO 4 have 12 valence electrons around S
51. The bond dissociation energy of B – F in BF3
atom.
is 646 kJ mol–1, whereas that of C – F in CF4 is
Reason : All sulphur compounds do not follow
515 kJ mol–1. The correct reason for higher B
– F bond dissociation energy as compared to octet rule. [ NCERT Page No. 102]
1) Assertion is correct, Reason is correct; Reason
that of C – F bond is [ NCERT Page No. 120]
is a correct explanation for Assertion
1) Stronger  bond between B and F in BF3 as
compared to that between C and F in CF4
is not a correct explanation for Assertion
2) Significant p–p interaction between B and
3) Assertion is correct, Reason is incorrect
F in BF3 whereas there is no possibility of such
4) Assertion is incorrect, Reason is correct
interaction between C and F in CF4
57. Which of the following is the correct
3) Lower degree of p–p interaction between
increasing order of lone pair of electrons on
B & F in BF3 than that between C and F in CF4
4) Smaller size of B– atom as compared to that the central atom? [ NCERT Page No. 114]
of C–atom 1) IF7 < IF5 < ClF3 < XeF2
52. The decreasing values of bond angles from 2) IF7 < XeF2 < ClF2 < IF5
NH3 (106o) to SbH3 (101o) down group-15 of 3) IF7 < ClF3 < XeF2 < IF5
the periodic table is due to 4) IF7 < XeF2 < IF5 < ClF3
1) Decreasing lp–bp repulsion 58. The enolic form of a acetone contains
2) Decreasing electronegativity [ NCERT Page No. 120]
3) Increasing bp–bp repulsion 1) 9 sigma bonds, 1 pi bond and 2 lone pairs
4) Increasing p-orbital character in sp3 2) 8 sigma bonds, 2 pi bonds and 2 lone pairs
53. Molecule AB has a bond length of 1.617 Å and 3) 10 sigma bonds, 1 pi bond and 1 lone pair
a dipole moment of 0.38 D. The fractional 4) 9 sigma bonds, 2 pi bonds and 1 lone pair
charge on each atom (absolute magnitude) is 59. Which of the following statements is/are not
1) 0.5 2) 0.05 3) 0 4)1.0 correct for combination of atomic orbitals ?
54. According to molecular orbital theory, which i) The combining atomic orbitals must have
of the following is true with respect to Li+2 and the same or nearly the same energy
Li–2 ? [ NCERT Page No. 129] ii) Greater the extent of overlap, the greater
+ –
1) Li2 is unstable and Li2 is stable will be the electron density between the
–
2) Li+2 is stable and Li2 is unstable nuclei of a molecular orbital
3) Both are stable iii) 2pz orbital of one atom can combine with
4) Both are unstable either of 2px, 2py or 2pz orbital of other atom
55. Of the species, NO, NO+, NO2+ and NO–, the as these orbitals have same energy
one with minimum bond strength is [ NCERT Page No. 119]
[ NCERT Page No. 129] 1) (i) and (ii) 2) (iii) only
1) NO +
2) NO 3) NO 2+ 4) NO – 3) (i) only 4) (ii) and (iii)
PCB TEST : 03(40) 8 Date : 12/12/2023

60. The given increasing order of energies of 65. Which of the following is/are not the
various molecular orbitals is not true for condition(s) for Lewis dot structure ?
which of the following molecule ? [ NCERT Page No. 102]
1s < *1s < 2s < *2s < (2px = 2py) < 2pz i) Each bond is formed as a result of sharing
< (*2px = *2py) < *2pz [ NCERT Page No. 128] of an electron pair between the atoms
1) B 2 2) C 2 3) N2 4)O 2 ii) From the two combining atoms only one
61. Which among the following can form atom contribute electron(s) to the shared pair
intermolecular H-bonding? iii) The combining atoms attain the outer shell
[ NCERT Page No. 131] noble gas configuration as a result of the
sharing of electrons
1) (i) and (iii) 2) (ii) and (iii)
3) (ii) only 4) (iii) only
66. What is X, Y and Z in the following expression
of formal charge.
1) A 2) B and D Formal charge (F. C.) on an atom in a Lewis
3) B, C and D 4) A and C 1
– structure = X – Y – (Z)
62. The relative stabilities of CN, CN + and CN 2
are in the order [ NCERT Page No. 130]
–
[ NCERT Page No. 104]
+
1) CN > CN > CN 2) CN– > CN > CN+
1) X = Total number of non bonding electrons
3) CN– > CN+ > CN 4) CN+ > CN > CN–
Y = Total number of bonding electrons
63. The manganate and permanganate ions are
Z = Total number of valence electrons in the
tetrahedral, due to
free atom
1) The -bonding involves overlap of p-orbitals
2) X = Total number of valence electrons in the
of oxygen and d-orbitals of manganese
free atom
2) There is no -bonding
3) The -bonding involves overlap of p-orbitals
Z = Total number of non bonding electrons
of oxygen with p-orbitals of manganese
3) X = Total number of valence electrons in the
4) The -bonding involves overlap of d-orbital
free atom
of oxygen with d-orbitals of manganese
Y = Total number of non bonding electrons
64. Which of the following do(es) not represent
Z = Total number of bonding electrons
correct Lewis symbols ? [ NCERT Page No. 103]
4) X = Total number of electrons in the free atom
1) I, IV & V 2) II, III & IV Z = Total number of valence electrons
3) II only 4) II & III
PCB TEST : 03(40) 9 Date : 12/12/2023

67. In which of the following compounds octet is 71. Following figure represent a chlorine
complete and incomplete for all atoms : molecule. Identify A, B and C in the given
[ NCERT Page No. 105] figure. [ NCERT Page No. 107]
Al2Cl6 Al2(CH3)6 AlF3 Dimer of Dimer of
BeCl2 BeH2
1) IC IC IC C C
2) C IC IC C IC
3) C IC C IC IC
4) IC C IC IC IC
[Note : C for complete octet and IC for
1) A = Bond length, B = van der Waal’s radius
incomplete octet]
C = Covalent radius
68. A pair of compound which have odd electrons
2) A = Covalent radius, B = Bond length
in the group NO, CO, ClO2 , N2 O5 , SO2 and
O3 are [ NCERT Page No. 105] C = Ionic radius
1) NO and ClO2 2) CO and SO2 3) A = Ionic radius, B = van der Waal’s radius
3) ClO2 and CO 4) SO2 and O3 C = Covalent radius
69. In ionic solids how crystal structure get 4) A = Covalent radius, B = van der Waal’s radius
stabilized [ NCERT Page No. 109] C = Bond length
1) By the energy released in the formation of 72. Formal charge on two O atoms in
crystal lattice
2) By achieving octet of electrons around the [ NCERT Page No. 105]
ionic species in gaseous state
3) By electron gain enthalpy and the ionization 1) –1, +1 2) –1, 0
enthalpy 3) 0, +1 4) –1, –1
4) None of these 73. The covalent bond length is the shortest in
70. Which of the following is/are misconception(s) which one of the following bonds ?
associated with resonance? [ NCERT Page No. 107]
i) The molecule exist for a certain fraction of 1) C – O 2) C – C
time in one cannonical form and for other 3) C  N 4) O – H
fractions of time in other cannonical forms 74. A -bonded molecule MX3 is T-shaped. The
ii) The cannonical forms have no real existence number of non-bonding pairs of electron is
iii) There is no such equilibrium between the [ NCERT Page No. 115]
cannonical forms. [ NCERT Page No. 109] 1) 0 2) 2
1) (i) only 2) (ii) and (iii) 3) 1
3) (i) and (iii) 4) (iii) only 4) Can be predicted only if atomic number of
M is known
PCB TEST : 03(40) 10 Date : 12/12/2023

78. Match the columns : [ NCERT Page No. 102]
75. Dipole moment of is 1.5 D. The dipole Column-I Column-II
p) Covalent compound w ith

moment of is (X = halogen) A) HCl
directional bond
[ NCERT Page No. 111] q) Ionic compound w ith

B) CO2
1) 1.5 D 2) 2.25 D non-directional bonds
3) 1 D 4) 3 D C) NaCl r) Polar molecule
76. Which of the following is/are not essential D) CCl4 s) Non-polar molecule
condition(s) for hybridisation ?
i) The orbitals present in the valence shell of 1) A–(p, q, r), B–(q, r), C–(p, q), D–(r)
the atom are hybridised 2) A–(q), B–(r), C–(p), D–(s)
ii) The orbitals undergoing hybridisation 3) A–(p, r), B–(p, s), C–(q), D–(p, s)
should have almost equal energy 4) A–(q), B–(r), C–(p, q), D–(s)
iii) Promotion of electron is essential prior to 79. Assertion : BF 3 molecule has zero dipole
hybridisation moment.
iv) Only half filled orbitals participate in Reason : F is electronegative and B–F bonds
hybridisation [ NCERT Page No. 120] are polar in nature. [ NCERT Page No. 111]
1) (i) only 2) (iii) only 1) Assertion is correct, Reason is correct; Reason
3) (iv) only 4) (iii) and (iv) is a correct explanation for Assertion
77. Choose the correct sequence of T and F for 2) Assertion is correct, Reason is correct; Reason
following statements. Here T stands for true is not a correct explanation for Assertion
statement and F stands for false statement. 3) Assertion is correct, Reason is incorrect
i) Formal charge in the Lewis structure helps 4) Assertion is incorrect, Reason is correct
in keeping track of the valence electrons in 80. Assertion : CH2 Cl2 is non-polar and CCl4 is
the molecule polar molecule.
ii) Formal charge indicates the actual charge Reason : Molecule with zero dipole moment
separation within the molecule is non-polar in nature.
iii) Formal charges help in the selection of [ NCERT Page No. 110]
the lowest energy structure from a number of 1) Assertion is correct, Reason is correct; Reason
possible Lewis structures is a correct explanation for Assertion
[ NCERT Page No. 104] 2) Assertion is correct, Reason is correct; Reason
1) T T F 2) T F T
3) T T T 4) F T T
PCB TEST : 03(40) 11 Date : 12/12/2023

81. Match the columns : 84. In an octahedral structure, the pair of d
Column-I Column-II orbitals involved in d2sp3 hybridisation is
A) p) negative overlap 1) dx2 –y2 , dz 2 2) dxz , dx 2–y2
3) dz2, dxz 4) dxy, dyz
85. In the molecular orbital diagram for O +2 ion,
B) q) zero overlap the highest occupied orbital is
1) s MO orbital 2)  MO orbital
C) r) positive overlap 3) * MO orbital 4) * MO orbital
SECTION : B
D) 86. Atomic orbital is monocentric while a
molecular orbital is polycentric. What is the
meaning of above statements ?
1) A–(p), B–(q), C–(p), D–(r)
2) A–(p), B–(r), C–(q), D–(p)
1) Electron density in atomic orbital is given by
3) A–(q), B–(q), C–(p), D–(r)
the electron distribution around a nucleus in
4) A–(r), B–(p), C–(q), D–(p)
an atom. While in molecular orbital it is given
82. Assertion : Bonding molecular orbital has
by the electron distribution around group of
greater stability than corresponding
nuclei in a molecule
antibonding molecular orbital.
2) While an electron in an atomic orbital is
Reason : The electron density in a bonding
influenced by one nucleus, in a molecular
molecular orbital is located away from the
orbital it is influenced by two or more nuclei
space between the nuclei while in
depending upon the number of atoms in the
antibonding molecular orbital it is located
molecule
between the nuclei of the bonded atoms.
3) The electron in an atomic orbital is present in
[ NCERT Page No. 126] one nucleus while in molecular orbital
1) Assertion is correct, Reason is correct; Reason electrons are present on more than one nuclei
is a correct explanation for Assertion depending upon the number of atoms in the
2) Assertion is correct, Reason is correct; Reason molecule
is not a correct explanation for Assertion 4) All of these
3) Assertion is correct, Reason is incorrect 87. The theory capable of explaining
4) Assertion is incorrect, Reason is correct paramagnetic behaviour of oxygen is
83. Which of the following molecule does not have
a linear arrangement of atoms ?
1) Resonance theory
[ NCERT Page No. 126] 2) V.S.E.P.R. theory
1) H 2 S 2) C 2 H2 3) Molecular orbital theory
3) BeH2 4) CO 2 4) Valence bond energy
PCB TEST : 03(40) 12 Date : 12/12/2023

88. Which of the following are correctly 92. Complete the following statement by choosing
classified? [ NCERT Page No. 132] the appropriate option.
Intermolecular Intramolecular Ionic bonds will be formed more easily
between elements with comparatively
H-bonding H-bonding
1) HF H2 O A and elements with comparatively
2) CH3 OH HF high negative value of B .
3) H2 O o-nitrophenol [ NCERT Page No. 101]
4) HF p-nitrophenol 1) A = low electronegativity
89. Which of the following substances has the B = ionization enthalpy
greatest ionic character? 2) A = low ionization enthalpy
[ NCERT Page No. 101] B = electron gain enthalpy
1) Cl 2 O 2) NCl3 3) A = high ionization enthalpy
3) PbCl 2 4) BaCl2 B = electron gain enthalpy
90. N 2 and O 2 are converted to monopositive 4) A = high electronegativity
cations N 2+ and O 2+ respectively. Which is
B = ionization enthalpy
incorrect ? [ NCERT Page No. 130]
93. Match the columns (internuclear axis is Z)
1) In N+2 the N – N bond is weakened
Column-I Column-II Column-III
2) In O+2 the bond order increases
3) In O+2 the paramagnetism decreases
A) 1s p) i)
4) N+2 becomes diamagnetic
91. The potential energy curve for the H2 molecule
as a function of internuclear distance is
B) 2pz q) ii)
C) 2px r) iii)
1) 2)
1) A–(q, iii), B–(r, i), C–(p, ii)
2) A–(q, iii), B–(p, ii), C–(r, i)
3) A–(p, iii), B–(q, ii), C–(r, i)
3) 4)
4) A–(p, ii), B–(q, iii), C–(r, i)
PCB TEST : 03(40) 13 Date : 12/12/2023

94. Assertion : The lesser the lattice enthalpy more 97. If an organic compound contain 92.3% C and
stable is the ionic compound. 7.7% H, than number of sp 3 , sp 2 and sp
RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
Reason : The lattice enthalpy is greater, for hybridised carbon atoms in all possible
ions of highest charge and smaller radii. structures of compound respectively are
[ NCERT Page No. 107] (molecular mass = 52 g/mol)
1) Assertion is correct, Reason is correct; Reason [ NCERT Page No. 122]
is a correct explanation for Assertion 1) 1, 2, 5 2) 0, 4, 4
2) Assertion is correct, Reason is correct; Reason 3) 0, 8, 4 4) None of these
is not a correct explanation for Assertion 98. Match Column-I with Column-II and
3) Assertion is correct, Reason is incorrect Column-II and choose the correct option from
4) Assertion is incorrect, Reason is correct the given codes. [ NCERT Page No. 115]
95. Read the following statements and choose the
correct option. Here T stands for True and F
stands for False statement.
Molecule (No. of lone (Shape of molecule)
i) The smaller the size of the cation and the
pairs and
larger the size of the anion, the greater the
covalent character of an ionic bond bond pairs)
ii) The smaller the charge on the cation, the A) NH 3 i) 1, 2 p) Bent
greater the covalent character of the ionic bond B) SO 2 ii) 1, 4 q) Trigonal pyramidal
iii) For cations of the same size and charge, C) SF 4 iii) 2, 3 r) T-shape
the one, with electronic configuration (n–1)dn D) ClF 3 iv) 1, 3 s) See-Saw
ns 0 , typical of transition metals, is more
polarising than the one with a noble gas
configuration, ns2 np6 , typical of alkali and 1) A – (iv, q); B – (ii, p); C – (i, r); D – (iii, s)
alkaline earth metal cations. 2) A – (iv, q); B – (i, p); C – (ii, s); D – (iii, r)
[ NCERT Page No. 102] 3) A – (i, p); B – (iii, s); C – (iv, r); D – (ii, q)
1) T T T 2) T T F 4) A – (iv, p); B – (i, r); C – (iii, q); D – (ii, s)
3) T F T 4) F T T 99. Among the following molecules, ions,
96. Choose the correct sequence of T and F for C2–
2
, N2–2
, O2–
2
, O2
following statements. Here T stands for True Which one is diamagnetic and has the shortest
and F for False statement. bond length ?
i) Sigma bond is formed by head on overlap 1) O 2 2) N22–
of bonding orbitals along the internuclear 3) O 22– 4) C 22–
axis 100. Read the following statements and choose the
ii) pi bond is formed when atomic orbitals correct option.
overlap in such a way that their axes remain i) P–O bond length order in :
parallel to each other and perpendicular to the –
PO3–4
> HPO2– 3
> H2PO2
internuclear axis
iii) Half-filled s-orbital of one atom and half
filled p-orbitals of another atom forms.  bond ii)
on overlapping
iv) Overlapping in case of pi-bond takes place iii) Between C2H2 and C2H4 , C–H is stronger
to a larger extent as compared to sigma bond in C2 H2 . [ NCERT Page No. 147]
1) (i) 2) (i), (ii) & (iii)
1) T T T T 2) T F T F
3) (i) & (ii) 4) (ii) & (iii)
3) T T F F 4) T T F T
PCB TEST : 03(40) 14 Date : 12/12/2023

Section-C : Biology 107. All isogamy, anisogamy and oogamy are
found in which of the following algae?
Section-A
[ Pg. 31-32]
101. Equal weightage to vegetative and sexual
characters was given in [ Pg. 29] 1) Chlamydomonas 2) Volvox
1) Artificial system of classification 3) Fucus 4) Porphyra
2) Natural system of classification 108. In which of the following, sexual
reproduction is of oogamous type where non-
3) Phylogenetic classificatio
motile female gamete is fertilized by a motile
4) Cladistics classification male gamete? [ Pg. 30 to 32]
102. Select the correct statement about natural 1) Volvox and Fucus
system of classification. [ Pg. 29]
2) Chara and Spirogyra
1) Consider one or two superficial characters of
classification of organism. 3) Porphyra and Polysiphonia
2) Organisms are classified on the basis of 4) Ulothrix and Eudorina

natural affinities. 109. Pyrenoids are storage centres of _A_ found
3) Linnaeus classified plants on the basis of in chloroplast of _B_. Fill in the blanks with
androecium characteristics. the correct option. [ Pg. 32]
4) Considered fossil records in classification of A B

organisms. 1) Protein Green algae
103. "The information about the mode of pairing 2) Starch Green algae
of chromosomes during meiosis is used to 3) Protein Red algae
understand the relation between species." The
given statement is true for [ Pg. 29-30] 4) Starch Brown algae
1) Biochemical taxonomy 110. Mosses are attached to the substratum with

the help of [ Pg. 35-36]
2) Numerical taxonomy
1) Adventitive roots
3) Cytotaxonomy
2) Tap roots
4) Chemotaxonomy
3) Multicellular rhizoids
104. Algae occur [ Pg. 30]
4) Unicellular rhizoids
1) In aquatic habitat
2) On moist stone, soil and wood 111. The sex organs of bryophytes are
3) In association with fungi and animals [ Pg. 35 & Consept of Reproduction]
4) All of these 1) Multicellular and jacketed

105. Select the odd one w.r.t. algae. [ Pg. 30] 2) Multicellular and non-jacketed
1) Thalloid body 3) Unicellular and jacketed
2) Lack vascular tissue 4) Unicellular and non-jacketed
3) Aquatic habitat 112. In bryophytes, [ Pg. 35]
4) Formation of embryo 1) Gametophytes are dependent upon
106. Kelps are [ Pg. 32] sporophytes
1) Profusely branched green algae 2) Sporophytes are dependent upon
gametophytes
2) Red algae which from massive plant bodies
3) Sporophyte and gametophyte generations are
3) Profusely branched brown which may reach
independent
a height of 100 m
4) Sporophyte itself completes the life cycle
4) Colonial marine red algae
PCB TEST : 03(40) 15 Date : 12/12/2023

113. Which of the following is nota filamentous 118. Sphagnum is used as packing material for
algae? [ Pg. 31 to 33] trans-shipments of living material because it
1) Porphyra 2) Spirogyra [ Pg. 35]
3) Volvox 4) Chara 1) Is used as fuel
114. Plant body of Funaria has 12 chromosomes in 2) Can hold water
its spore mother cell. Which structure does 3) Prevents soil erosion
not have the same number of chromosomes
4) Is non-hygroscopic in nature
in its cell? [ Pg. 36 & Consept of Ploidy]
119. Zygote in bryophyte [ Pg. 35]
1) Foot 2) Zygote
1) Is the first cell of gametophyte generation
3) Capsule 4) Protonema
2) Undergoes meiotic division immediately
115. Select the wrongly matched pair.[ Pg. 35]
3) Divides mitotically to form sporophyte
1) Marchantia - Asexual reproduction takes
4) Does not form embryo
place by gemmae.
120. Origin and evolution of stele took place in
2) Funaria - Vegetative reproduction occurs by
fragmentation of protonema. [ Pg. 36]
3) Sphagnum - Used as packaging material for 1) Algae 2) Bryophytes
transshipment of living material 3) Pteridophytes 4) Gymnosperms
4) Polytrichum - Requires water for spore 121. Complete the following chart by selecting the
dispersal during sexual reproduction correct option for a fern. [ Pg. 36]
116. Antherozoids of liverworts are generally Sporophyte  Sporophyll A
  Spore
[ Pg. 35] germination
  Prothallus 
B
 Gametes
1) Uniflagellated 2) Non-flagellated
A B
3) Biflagellated 4) Quadrilagellated
1) Mitosis Meiosis
117. The given figure is of a moss. The correct
2) Meiosis Mitosis
ploidy levels of the indicated structure are
3) Mitosis Mitosis
[ Pg. 34]
4) Equational division Reductional division
122. Identify the figure given below and select
incorrect option. [ Pg. 37]
1) A, B and C are diploid 1) Aquatic pteridophyte

2) B, D and E are haploid 2) Produces two kinds of spores
3) A and B are diploid 3) Occurrence of prothallus
4) B and C are haploid 4) Shows seed habit
PCB TEST : 03(40) 16 Date : 12/12/2023

123. Horsetail and ferns [ Pg. 36] 129. Conifers are adapted to withstand extreme
a. Are vascular cryptogams conditions due to adaptations like
b. Have dominant sporophytic phase [ Pg. 38]
c. Lack archegonia 1) Needle-like leaves
d. Produce seeds 2) Sunken stomata
Choose the correct options. 3) Thick cuticle
1) a and c 2) b and c 4) All of these
3) a and b 4) b and d 130. Which of the following feature is not correct
124. Which of the following is incorrect for for all the gymnosperms? [ Pg. 38]
Selaginella? [ Pg. 36, 38] 1) Ovules remain exposed before and after
1) Belong to class Pteropsida fertilization.
2) Has presence of strobilus and cone 2) Dominant phase is sporophyte.
3) Forms two kinds of spores 3) Presence of vessel in xylem.
4) Shows events precursor to the seed habit 4) Endosperms present female gametophyte.
125. Prothallus of pteridophyte is ______. 131. Coralloid roots of Cycas have symbiotic
association with _A_ and _B_.
Fill in the blanks with the correct option.
Choose the correct option. [ Pg. 38]
[ Pg. 38]
1) Unicellular 2) Multicellular A B
3) Large 4) Sporophyte 1) N2 fixing bacteria Soil fertility
126. Seed habit considered as an important step 2) BGA Phosphorus uptake

in evolution is present in [ Pg. 38] 3) Cyanobacteria N2 fixation
1) Selaginella 2) Salvinia 4) Fungi Phosphorus uptake
3) Dryopteris 4) Both (1) and (2) 132. Gymnosperms are more advanced than
127. In gymnosperms, the seed that develop after pteridophytes. Which of the following
ferilization are naked. It means features of gymnosperms justify this
statement? [ Pg. 38]
[ Pg. 38-39]
1) Sporophyte plant body
1) Seeds are very small and not visible with
naked eyes 2) Internal fertilization
2) Seeds are not covered by any ovule wall 3) Naked seeds
3) Seeds are not covered by any ovary wall 4) Independent gametophyte
4) Seeds are enclosed in pericarp 133. Mycorrhizal and coralloid roots are present
128. In gymnosperms, in, respectively [ Pg. 38]
a. Ovules remain exposed, both before and 1) Cycas and Pinus

after fertilization. 2) Pinus and Cycas
b. Plants are medium-sized or tall trees or 3) Cycas and Ephedra
shrubs. 4) Pinus and Ephedra
c. Roots are generally tap roots. 134. Identify the set of the plants that produce seeds
Choose the correct option. [ Pg. 38] and lack flowers. [ Pg. 38-39]
1) Only a is correct 1) Ginkgo and Cycas
2) Only a and b are correct 2) Cycas and Eucalyptus
3) Only b and c are correct 3) Ginkgo and Orchid
4) All a, b and c are correct 4) Pinus and Acacia
PCB TEST : 03(40) 17 Date : 12/12/2023

135. Identify the given plant and select the correct 139. Given below are reproductive structures of
option for the labels A, B and C.[ Pg. 39] Cycas. Select the correct sequence w.r.t. their
occurrence in the leaf cycle. [ Pg. 39]
a. Ovule
b. Megaspore mother cell
c. Megasporophyll
d. Endosperm
e. Megaspore
1) a  c  b  e  d
A B C
2) c  a  b  d  e
1) Leaf base Stem Fruit
3) c  a  b  e  d
2) Leaf base Stem Seed
4) a  d  c  b  e
3) Dwarf shoot Long shoot Seed
140. Endosperm of gymnosperm [ Pg. 39]
4) Long shoot Dwarf shoot Seed
a. Is haploid
Section-B
b. Is female gametophyte
136. Read the following statements :
c. Is formed before fertilization
a. In numerical taxonomy, numbers and
codes are assigned to all the characters. d. Shows monosporic development
b. Cytotaxonomy includes cytological Choose the correct option.
information like DNA sequence and 1) Only a and b 2) Only b and c
chemical nature of proteins. 3) Only a, b and c 4) All a, b, c and d
c. Chemotaxonomy is used by taxonomist 141. The spread of living pteridophytes is limited
these days. [ Pg. 29-30] and restricted to narrow geographical regions
Choose the correct statement(s) : because. [ Pg. 36]
1) Only a 2) Only b a. Gametophytes are dependent on
3) Only a and c 4) All a, b and c sporophytes.
137. Which of the following characters are b. Gametophytes require cool, damp and
common in both Selaginella and Pinus? shady places to grow.
a. Main plant body is sporophyte. c. They need water for fertilization.
b. Produce two kinds of spores. 1) Only b is correct
c. Gametophytes lack vascular tissue. 2) Only b and c are correct
d. Male and female gametophytes are retained 3) Only c is correct
on the sporophytes for variable period. 4) a, b and c are correct
Choose the correct option. [ Pg. 37 to 39] 142. How many statements are/is correct?
1) a and b only 2) a, b and c a. Selaginella and Salvinia are heterosporous.
3) a, b and d 4) b, c and d b. Majority of pteridophytes are homosporous.
138. Read the following and choose the features c. In Equisetum, sporophylls are aggerated to
related to Marchantia. [ Pg. 35-36] form strobilus or cone.
a. Dioecious d. Antherozoids require water for their
b. Non-motile male gametes transfer towards the mouth of archegonia.
c. Lack protonema stage e. Pteridophytes have no evolutionary
d. Independent sporophyte significance. [ Pg. 36 to 38]
1) a and b 2) b and d 1) Two 2) Four
3) a and c 4) c and d 3) Five 4) Three
PCB TEST : 03(40) 18 Date : 12/12/2023
143. Read the following statements w.r.t. algae : 147. Identify A, B and C in the given figure and
i. A few freshwater forms of algae form select the correct option : [ Pg. 31]
massive plant bodies.
ii. Vascular tissues are absent.
iii. Most common asexual spore is zoospore.
iv. Sexual reproduction can be isogamous,
anisogamous or oogamous.
v. Embryo formation is seen in marine brown
and red algae. [ Pg. 30-32]
How many above given statements are correct?
1) Two 2) Three
3) Four 4) Five
144. A feature(s) common between bryophytes and
pteridophytes is/are
a. Presence of independent and
photosynthetic gametophyte. 1) A-Frond, B-Air bladder, C-Stiple
b. Spor-develops in to gametophytic body. 2) A-Holdfast, B-Air bladder, C-Frond
c. Formation of motile male and non-motile 3) A-Air bladder, B-Frond, C-Holdfast
female gamete. 4) A-Frond, B-Stipe, C-Holdfast
d. Requirement of water for sexual 148. Some characters are given below. Which of
reproduction. them are true for red algae?
Choose the correct option. [ Pg. 35-36]
a. Greater concentration found in warmer
1) a and b only 2) c and d only areas.
3) b, c and d only 4) a, b, c and d b. Reserve food material is present in the form
145. In homosporous pteridophytes, the of agar.
gametophyte is c. Sexual reproduction may be isogamous,
a. Vascular anisogamous and oogamous.
b. Monoecious d. Complex post-fertilization development
c. Independent occurs.
d. Dependent on sporophyte Choose the correct answer from the options
Choose the correct option. given below : [ Pg. 33]
[ Pg. 38 & Consept of Hetrosporyl] 1) a and b 2) c and d
1) b and c 2) a and b 3) a and d 4) b and d
3) a and d 4) b and d 149. How many of the following algae show all
146. Bryophytes the given characteristics?
a. have plant body more differentiated than [ Pg. 31 to 33]
that of algae. Ulothrix, Sargassum, Laminaria, Porphyra,
b. Usually occur in damp, humid and shaded Chara, Volvox, Dictyota, Gelidium, Gracilaria,
localities. Spirogyra.
c. Have dominant gametophytic phase in i. Found in marine habitat
their life. ii. Food is stored as complex carbohydrate.
Choose the correct answer from the options iii. Produce a large amount of hydrocolloid.
given below : [ Pg. 35] 1) Six 2) Five
1) Only a and c 2) Only b and c 3) Four 4) Seven
3) Only a and b 4) All a, b and c
PCB TEST : 03(40) 19 Date : 12/12/2023
150. Which of the following correct? 156. What is the function of pleural fluid?
[ Pg. 31 to 33] [ NCERT Pg. 269]
1) Spirogyra Gametes have 2- Phaeophyceae 1) Reduces friction on the lung surface
8 apical flagella 2) Protection from external shocks
2) Fucus Pyriform Chlorophyceae
3) Provide moisture
zoospores with
two heterokont 4) All of the above
apical flagella 157. Volume of thoracic chamber increases in
3) Polysiphonia Absence of Rhodophyceae anteroposterior and dorso-ventral axis in
motile gametes rabbit by- [ NCERT Pg. 270]
4) Dictyota Presence of Phaeophyceae 1) Contraction of diaphragm and external
polysulphate intercostal muscles respectively
esters in cell wall
2) Relaxation of diaphragm and external
Section-D: Biology intercostal muscles respectively
Section-A 3) Relaxation of diaphragm adn abdominal
151. The structure which prevents the entry of food muscles respectively
into the windpipe is- [ NCERT Pg. 269] 4) Contraction of abdominal muscles and
1) Gullet 2) Glottis relaxation of external intercostal muscles
3) Tonsil 4) Epiglottis respectively
152. ___ is a difficulty in breathing causing 158. The pH of venous blood is only slightly more
wheezing due to inflammation of bronchi and acidic than the pH of arterial blood because-
bronchioles [ NCERT Pg. 275] 1) CO2 is weak base
1) Asthma 2) Emphysema 2) There is no carbonic anhydrase in the venous
3) Asbestosis 4) Fibrosis blood
153. If total O2 transported by blood from lungs to 3) The H+ generated from H2CO3 is buffered by
cell in a minute is 1000 ml. Then the volume HCO3 in venous blood
of O2 transported by blood found dissovled
4) The H+ generated from H2CO3 is buffered by
in plasma is- [ NCERT Pg. 274]
deoxyhaemoglobin in venous blood
1) 970 ml 2) 30 ml
159. The epithlial tissue present on the inner
3) 1000 ml 4) Nil surface of bronchioles and trachea-
154. What will be the pO2 and pCO2 in the alveolar
1) Squamous 2) Cuboidal
air compared to those in the tissue?
[ NCERT Pg. 272]
3) Glandular 4) Ciliated
1) pO2 lesser, pCO2 higher 160. In the alveoli, dissociation of CO 2 from
carbaminohaemoglobin occur, due to-
2) pO2 higher, pCO2 lesser
3) pO2 higher, pCO2 higher [ NCERT Pg. 274, 275]
4) pO2 lesser, pCO2 lesser 1) pCO2 is high and pO2 is low
155. If O2 concetration in tissue is almost as high 2) pCO2 is low and pO2 is high
as at the respiratory surface- [ NCERT Pg. 274] 3) pCO2 and pO2 are hight
1) Oxyhaemoglobin would dissociate to supply 4) pCO2 and pO2 are low
O2 to the tissue
161. Which substances when present in high level
2) Haemoglobin would combine with more O2
can activate the chemosensitive area present
at respiratory surface
adjacent to rhythm centre? [ NCERT Pg. 275]
3) Oxyhaemoglobn would not dissociate to
1) CO2 and O2 2) HCO–3 ions and O2
supply O2 to the tissue
4) CO2 will interfere the O2 transport 3) CO2 and H+ ion 4) H+ and HCO–3 ion
PCB TEST : 03(40) 20 Date : 12/12/2023
162. Which of the following is not a property of 169. What is the expiratory reserve volume of a
alveoli? [ NCERT Pg. 269] person? [ NCERT Pg. 272]
1) Irregular thin walled 1) TV + RV 2) FRC – RV
2) Highly vascularised 3) FRC – TV 4) FRC – IRV
3) Supported by incomplete rings 170. If in a person functional residual capacity is
4) Enormous in number 2300 ml, residual volume is 1200 ml and
163. At the level of which thoracic vertebrae does inspiratory capacity is 3500 ml then find out
trachea divide into right and left primary its vital capacity- [ NCERT Pg. 272]
bronch? [ NCERT Pg. 269] 1) 5800 ml 2) 7000 ml
1) 5 2) 6 3) 4600 ml 4) 2300 ml
3) 9 4) 4 171. How many of the following parts of
164. If the CO 2 concentration in the blood respiratory tract are supported by incomplete
increases, the breathing rate will- cartilaginous rings? [ NCERT Pg. 269]
1) Increase 2) Decrease Trachea, alveoli, primary bronchi, secondary,
3) Stop 4) No affect bronchi, alveolar ducts, intial bronchioles-
165. Find out partial pressure of O 2 and CO 2 in 1) Six 2) Five
oxygenated blood. [ NCERT Pg. 272, Table 17.1] 3) Four 4) Three
1) pO2 = 104 mmHg; pCO2 = 40 mmHg 172. Which is wrong with respect to expiration?
2) pO2 = 159 mmHg; pCO2 = 0.3 mmHg [ NCERT Pg. 271]
3) pO2 = 40 mmHg; pCO2 = 45 mmHg 1) Ribs and sternum to original position
4) pO2 = 95 mmHg; pCO2 = 40 mmHg 2) Air expelled from lungs
166. Which factors are favourable for the 3) Volume of thorax decrease
formation of oxyhaemoglobin? [ NCERT Pg. 274]
4) Diaphragm contracted
A. High acidity
173. Expiration occurs due to- [ NCERT Pg. 271]
B. Low pCO2
C. Lesser H+ concnetration intercostal muscle
D. Lower temperature 2) Contraction of internal intercostal muscles
1) A and B 2) A, B and C and diaphragm
3) B and C 4) B, C and D 3) Relaxation of abdo minal and internal
167. Which of the following failitates the following intercostal muscles
reactions? [ NCERT Pg. 275] 4) Contration of diaphram and relaxation of
CO + H O  H CO abdominal muscles
2 2 2 3
1) Chloride shift 174. A graph is plotted between pO 2 and

2) Carbonic anhydrase precentage saturation of Hb with O2 is known
as- [ NCERT Pg. 274]
3) Hamburger phenomenon
4) Bohr effect 1) O2 association curve
168. Under a given oxygen concentration in blood, 2) CO2–O2 dissociation curve
dissociation of oxyhaemoglobin will increase 3) O2 dissociation curve
if- [ NCERT Pg. 274] 4) CO2–O association curve
1) pH of blood rises 175. Intercostal muscles are found attached with-
2) pH of blood falls [ NCERT Pg. 269]
3) CO2 concentration of blood falls 1) Diaphragm 2) Ribs
4) Free fatty acid concentration in blood falls 3) Pleura 4) Lungs
PCB TEST : 03(40) 21 Date : 12/12/2023

176. About 70% of CO2 is transported as- 183. Carbonic anhyrdrase is found in high
[ NCERT Pg. 274] concentration in- [ NCERT Pg. 275]
1) Carbonic acid 1) Leucocytes 2) Blood plasma
2) Carboxyhaemoglobin 3) Erythrocytes 4) Lymphocytes
3) Bicarbonates 184. Which of the following group are supported
by incomplete cartilaginous rings?
4) Carbamino compounds
[ NCERT Pg. 269]
177. Even when there is not air in it, human
1) Pharynx, primary & tertiary bronchi and intial
trachea does not collapse dur to presence of-
bronchioles
1) Bony rings 2) Turgid pressure
2) Trachea, primary & secondary bronchi, and
3) Chitinous rings 4) Cartilaginous rings initial bronchioles
178. The amount of air remaining in the air 3) Larynx, primary, seconddary and tertiary
passages and alveoli at the end of quiet bronchi, and initial bronchioles
respiration is called-
4) Trachea, primary, secondary and tertiary
1) Tidal volume bronchi, and initial bronchioles
2) Inspiratory reserve volume 185. Thoracic chamber is formed (A) by the
3) Inspiratory capacity vertebral colulmn, (B) by the sternum, (C) by
4) Functional residual capacity the ribs and on the (D) side by the dome
shaped diaphragm. Identify A, B, C and D.
179. ___(i)___ in CO2 in your blood, which causes
[ NCERT Pg. 270]
___(ii)___ in pH, would cause your breathing
to speed up. [ NCERT Pg. 274] 1) A-dorsally, B-ventrally, C-laterally, D-lower
1) (i) An increase, (ii) a rise 2) A-ventrally, B-laterally, C-dorsally, D-upper
2) (i) An increase, (ii) a drop 3) A-laterally, B-ventrally, C-dorsally, D-lower
3) (i) A decrease, (ii) a rise 4) A-dorsally, B-laterally, C-ventrally, D-upper
4) (i) A decrease, (ii) a drop Section-B
180. Every 100 ml of deoxygenated blood delivers 186. Which one of the followings statements is not
approximately ______. [ NCERT Pg. 275] correct? [ NCERT Pg. 272, 274, 275]
1) 5 ml of CO to the alveoli 1) Total volume of air a person can expire after a

normal inspiration is called expiratory capacity
2) 6 ml of CO2 to the plasma
2) Binding of oxygen with haemoglobin is
3) 4 ml of CO2 to the alveoli primarily related to partial pressure of CO2
4) 7 ml of CO to the plasma 3) Every 100 ml of deoxygenated blood delivers
181. Emphysema developes mainly because of- approximately 4 ml of CO2 to the alveoli
[ NCERT Pg. 275] 4) Every 100 ml of oxygenated blood can deliver
1) Allergy or hypersensitization around 5 ml of O2 to the tissues under normal
physiological conditions
2) Spasm of the smooth muscles of bronchioles
187. What is true about regulation of respiration?
3) Cigarette smoking
[ NCERT Pg. 275]
4) Inflammation of the alveoli
1) Respiratory rhythm centre lie on pons region
182. Respiratory mechanism is controlled by-
2) The role of oxygen in the regulation of
[ NCERT Pg. 275] respiratory rhythm is quite insignificant
1) Central nervous system 3) Chemosensitive area can recognise changes
2) Sympathetic nervous system in O2
3) Parasympathetic nervous system 4) Neural signals from cerebellum can increase
4) Autonomic nervous system the duration of inspiration
PCB TEST : 03(40) 22 Date : 12/12/2023
188. Tidal air in mammalian lungs is- 191. Which reference to human respiration, which
[ NCERT Pg. 271] is correct? [ NCERT Pg. 270]
1) The total maximum air that can be driven into 1) Pulmonary ventilation is equal to alveolar
the lungs ventilation
2) The air that normally goes in and comes out 2) Alveolar ventilation is more than pulmonary
of the lungs during breathing ventilation
3) Alveolar ventilation is less than pulmonary
3) The air that is left in the lungs after normal
ventilation
expiration
4) Pulmonary ventilation is less than alveolar
4) The air that can be expelled out forcibly after
ventilation
the normal expiration
192. Which of the following is the correct
189. Assertion : Among vertebrates, fishes use gills statement for respiration in humans?
whereas reptiles, birds and mammals respire
[ NCERT Pg. 276]
through lungs. [ NCERT Pg. 268]
1) Workers in grinding and stone-breaking
Reason : Amphibians like frogs only respire
industries may suffer from lung fibrosis
through their moist skin.
2) About 90% of carbon dioxide (CO2) is carried
1) Assertion and reason both are true and the by haemoglobin as carbamino haemoglobin
reason is correct explantion of assertion
3) Cigarette smoking may lead to inflammation
2) Assertion and reason both are true but reason of bronchi
is not correct exaplantion of assertion
4) Neural signal from penumotaxic centre in
3) Assertion is true but reason is wrong pons region of brain can increase the duration
4) Assertion and reason both are wrong of inspiration
190. The figure given below shows the mechanism 193. Match the column I with column II :
of breathing. Identify the stage (X) of [ NCERT Pg. 268]
breathing explained & A, B and C marked in
Column-I Coumn-II
the figure [ NCERT Pg. 271, Fig. 17.2(a)]
(Animals) (Mode of respiration)
a Earthworm i Pulmonary
b Human ii Branchial
c Prawn iii Tracheal
d Insects iv Cutaneous
1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv 2) a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-iii
3) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii 4) a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i
194. How many of the following statements are
correct? [ NCERT Pg. 275]
a. Human beings have a significant ability
to maintain and moderate the respiratory
rhythm to suit the demands of the body
tissues
b. Pneumotaxic centre can moderate the
1) X-Expiration, A-raised, B-decreased, C-relaxed functions of the respiratory rhythm centre
2) X-Inspirati on, A-raised, B-decreased, c. A chemosensitive are is situated adjacent
C-relaxed to the rhythm centre which is highly
sensitive to CO2 and hydrogen ions
3) X-Expiratio n, A-raised, B-increased,
C-contracted d. The role of oxygen in the regulation of
respiratory rhythm is quite insignificant.
4) X-Inspirati on, A-raised, B-increased,
1) Only a 2) Only b
C-contracted
3) Only a and b 4) All
PCB TEST : 03(40) 23 Date : 12/12/2023
195. Select the wrong statement abut the diagram 198. Assertion : Process of exchange of O2 from the
given below- [ NCERT Pg. 269, Fig. 17.1] atmosphere with CO2 produced by the cells is
called breathing [ NCERT Pg. 268]
Reason : Respiration includes breakdown of
RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
glucose
1) Assertion and reason both are true and the
2) Assertion and reason both are true but reason
3) Assertion is true but reason is wrong
1) ‘B’ is a cortilaginous box which helps in sound
production 4) Assertion and reason both are wrong
2) ‘A’ prevent the entry of food into the larynx 199. Statement I: From external nostrils up to
3) ‘C’ is a straight tube extending upto the left terminal bronchioles constitute the respiratory/
thoracic cavity, which divides at the level of exchange part of the respiratory system
5th thoracic vertebrae [ NCERT Pg. 269]
4) ‘D’ is double layered and a fluid is present in Statement II: The alveoli and their ducts form
between them the conducting part of the respiratory system
196. Arrange the following steps of respiration in
1) Both statements are correct
a proper sequence- [ NCERT Pg. 270]
A. Breathing 2) Statment I is correct & II is incorrect
B. Diffusion of gases across alveolar 3) Statement I is incorrect & II is correct
membrane 4) Both statments are incorrect
C. Transport of gases by the blood 200. Four statements (A-D) are given. How many
D. Diffusion of O2 and CO2 between blood and statements are correct? [ NCERT Pg. 274]
tissues
A. O2 can bind form oxyhaemoglobin in a
E. Utilisation of O2 by the cell for catabolic reversible manner to form oxyhaemoglobin
reactions and resultant release of CO2
B. Each haemoglobin molecule can carry a
1) A, B, C, D, E 2) A, E, B, C, D
maximum of four molecules of O2
3) A, C, B, D, E 4) A, B, D, E, C
C. Binding of oxygen with haemoglobin is
197. Match the column I with column II.
primarily related to partial pressure of O2
[ NCERT Pg. 268]
D. About 97 percent of O2 is transported by
Column I Column II RBC in the blood
a Tracheal tubes i Arachnida
1) Two
b Gills ii Frog
c Moist skin iii Cockroach 2) Four
d Book lungs iv Fishes 3) Three
1) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i 2) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii 4) One
3) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i 4) a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-iii
PCB TEST : 03(40) 24 Date : 12/12/2023

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Mark Group Class : 12th (2023-24) Date : 12/12/2023
720 PCB Vijaypath Test Series-Test : 03(40) Time : 03 Hrs. 20 Mins.
Physics - 50 Chemistry - 50 Biology - 100

Question Booklet Version
(Write this number
Question Paper Question Booklet Sr. No.
P-11 on your Answer

Sheet) With Solutions
• Today’s Test Syllabus •
Physics : Kinetic Theory Of Gases + Thermodynamics + Heat Transfer
Chemistry : Chemical Bonding
Biology : Plant Kingdom + Breathing and Exchange of Gases
• Next Test Syllabus • Date : 15/12/2023
Physics : Circular Motion + Laws of Motion + Friction
Chemistry : G.O.C. (Complete)
Biology : Morphology of Flowering Plants
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PHYSICS 2. In a mixture of gases, the average number of

degree of freedoms per molecule is 6. The rms
Section : A
speed of the molecule of the gas is c. The velocity
1. Statement-1 : In an adiabatic process, change in of sound in the gas is [ NCERT Page-330]
internal energy of a gas is equal to work done
on/by the gas in the process. [ NCERT Page-312] c c
1) 2)
3 2
Statement-2 : The temperature of a gas remains
constant in an adiabatic process. 2c c
3) 4)
1) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is true, 3 3
Statement 2 is a correct explanation of
Statement 1. Sol. (3) :
2) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is false.
3) Statement 1 is false, Statement 2 is true.
4) Statement 1 is false, Statement 2 is true,
Statement 2 is not a correct explanation of
Statement 1.
Sol. (2) :
PCB TEST : 03(40) 1 Date : 12/12/2023

3. A gas is found to obey the law p2V = constant. 6. A cyclic process ABCD
RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
The initial temperature and volume are T0 and is shown in the p-V
V0. If the gas expands to a volume 3V0, its final diagram. Which of the
temperature becomes. [ NCERT Page-326] following curves
represent the same
T0 T0
1) 2) process? [ NCERT Page-312]
3 3
3) 3T0 4) None of these
Sol. (4) :
1) 2)
3) 4)
Sol. (1) :
pV
4. The gas equation =constant is true for a
T
constant mass of an ideal gas undergoing
[ NCERT Page-326]
1) isothermal change 2) adiabatic change
3) isobaric change 4) any type of change.
Sol. (4) :
7. Match the following two columns for 2 moles
of an ideal diatomic gas at room temperature T.
[ NCERT Page-334]
5. Two identical containers joined by a small Column-I Column-II
pipe initially contain the same gas at pressure
a) Translational kinetic energy p) 2 RT
p0 and absolute temperature T0. One container
is now maintained at the same temperature b) Rotational kinetic energy q) 4 RT
while the other is heated to 2T0. The common c) Potential energy r) 3 RT
pressure of the gases will be [ NCERT Page-326]
None of
d) Total internal energy s)
3 4 these
1) p 2) p
2 0 3 0 1) ar, bp, cs, ds 2) as, bp, cr, ds
5 3) as, br, cp, ds 4) as, bs, cr, dp
3) p 4) 2 p0
3 0
Sol. (1) :
Sol. (2) :
PCB TEST : 03(40) 2 Date : 12/12/2023

8. Three different processes that can occur in an 10. One mole of an ideal monoatomic gas is taken
ideal monoatomic gas are shown in the P vs V along the path ABCA as
diagram. The paths are labelled as A  B, and shown in the PV
A  D. The change in internal energies during diagram. The maximum
these process are taken as EAB, EAC and EAD and temperature attained by
the workdone as W AB, W AC and W AD . The the gas along the path
correct relation between these parameters are BC is given by
25 P0 V0 25 P0 V0
1) 2)
8 R 4 R
[ NCERT Page-312] 25 P0 V0 5 P0 V0
3) 4)
16 R 8 R
Sol. (1) :
1) EAB = EAC < EAD , WAB > 0 , WAC = 0, WAD < 0

2) EAB = EAC = EAD , WAB > 0 , WAC = 0, WAD < 0
3) EAB < EAC < EAD , WAB > 0 , WAC > WAD
4) EAB > EAC > EAD , WAB < WAC < WAD
Sol. (2) :
11. One mole of an ideal monoatomic gas

is compressed isothermally in a rigid vessel
to double its pressure at room temperature,
9. n moles of an ideal gas with constant volume 27°C. The work done on the gas will be
heat capacity C V undergo an isobaric [ NCERT Page-311]
expansion by certain volume. The ratio of 1) 300 R ln 6 2) 300 R
the work done in the process, to the heat
3) 300 R ln 7 4) 300 R ln 2
supplied is [ NCERT Page-312]
Sol. (4) :
nR nR
1) C  nR 2) C  nR
V V
4nR 4nR
3) 4) 12. An ideal gas at atmospheric pressure is
CV  nR CV  nR adiabatically compressed so that its density
becomes 32 times of its initial value. If the final
Sol. (1) : pressure of gas is 128 atmospheres, the value
of ‘’ of the gas is [ NCERT Page-312]
1) 1.5 2) 1.4
3) 1.3 4) 1.6
PCB TEST : 03(40) 3 Date : 12/12/2023

Sol. (2) : 16. Assertion : When temperature of a body is
increased, in radiant energy, number of low
wavelength photons get increased.
Reason : According to Wien’s displacement law
1
m  . [ NCERT Page-294]
T
13. The rms speed of the molecules of a gas in a 1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the
vessel is 400 ms–1. If half of the gas leaks out Reason is correct explanation of the Assertion
at constant temperature, the rms speed of the 2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but
remaining molecules will be [ NCERT Page-330] Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
1) 800 ms–1 2) 400 2 ms –1
4) If Assertion is false but the Reason is true
3) 400 ms–1 4) 200 ms–1 Sol. (1) : Conceptual
Sol. (3) : Root mean square velocity does not depend 17. An ideal gas of mass m in
upon the quantity of gas. For a given gas an at a state A goes to another
constant temperature, it always remains the same. state B via three different
14. The root mean square speed of the molecules processes as shown in the
of a diatomic gas is v. When the temperature given figure. If Q1, Q2 and
is doubled, the molecules dissociate into two Q 3 denote the heat
atoms. The new root mean square speed of the absorbed by the gas along the three paths,
atom is [ NCERT Page-330] then [ NCERT Page-312]
1) Q1 < Q2 < Q3 2) Q1 < Q2 = Q3
1) 2v 2) v
3) Q1 = Q2 > Q3 4) Q1 > Q2 > Q3
3) 2 v 4) 4 v Sol. (1) :
Sol. (3) :
18. P – V diagram of an
ideal gas is as shown
in the given figure.
15. If 2 mol of an ideal monatomic gas at temperature Work done by the
T 0 are mixed with 4 mol of another ideal gas in the process
monatomic gas at temperature 2T0. then the ABCD is
temperature of the mixture is [ NCERT Page-334] [ NCERT Page-312]
5 3 1) 4P0V0 2) 2P0V0
1) T 2) T
3 0 2 0 3) 3P0V0 4) P0V0
Sol. (3) :
4 5
3) T 4) T
3 0 4 0
Sol. (1) : 19. The temperature of 5 mol of a gas which was
held at constant volume was changed from
100°C to 120°C. The change in internal energy
was found to be 80 J. The total heat capacity
of the gas at constant volume will be equal to
[ NCERT Page-308]
1) 8 JK–1 2) 0.8 JK–1
3) 4 JK–1 4) 0.4 JK–1
PCB TEST : 03(40) 4 Date : 12/12/2023

Sol. (3) : Sol. (1) :
23. p-V diagram of a diatomic gas is a straight line
20. An ideal gas is taken through passing through origin. The molar heat capacity
A  B  C  A, as shown of the gas in the process will be
in the given figure. If the net [ NCERT Page-309]
heat supplied to the gas in 1) 4 R 2) 2.5 R
the cycle is 15 J, the work
done by the gas in the 4R
process C  A is 3) 3 R 4)
3
[ NCERT Page-312]
Sol. (3) :
1) –5 J 2) –10 J
3) –15 J 4) – 20 J
Sol. (1) :
24. Heat energy absorbed

by a system in going
through a cyclic
process as shown in
2 the figure [V in litres
21. In an adiabatic process, R  CV . The pressure and p in kPa] is
3
of the gas will be proportional to [ NCERT Page-307]
[ NCERT Page-312] 1) 107 J 2) 104
J
2
3) 10 J 3
4) 10 J
1) T5/3 2) T5/2
3) T5/4 4) T5/6 Sol. (3) :
Sol. (2) :
25. If Q and W represent the heat supplied to

the system and the work done on the system
respectively, then the first law of thermodynamics
can be written as [ NCERT Page-307]
1) Q = U + W 2) Q = U – W
22. In a thermodynamic process, pressure of a fixed 3) Q = W – U 4) Q = – W – U
mass of a gas is changed in such a manner that Sol. (2) :
the gas molecules gives out 20 J of heat and
10 J of work is done on the gas. If the initial
internal energy of the gas was 40 J, then the
final internal energy will be [ NCERT Page-307]
1) 30 J 2) 50 J
3) 60 J 4) 40 J
PCB TEST : 03(40) 5 Date : 12/12/2023

26. The p-V diagram of a system undergoing 29. Air is filled at 60° in a vessel of open mouth.
thermodynamic transformation is shown in The vessel is heated to a temperature T so that
figure. The work done by
1
the system in going from th part of air escapes. Assuming the volume
4
A B C is 50 cal and
of the vessel remaining constant, the value of
80 cal heat is given to the
T is [ NCERT Page-326]
system. The change in
internal energy between 1) 80°C 2) 444°C
A and C is [ NCERT Page-307] 3) 333°C 4) 171°C
1) –130 cal 2) –30 cal Sol. (4) :
3) 130 cal 4) 30 cal
Sol. (4) :
27. One mole of an ideal monoatomic gas at 1 T m

T   1  2
temperature T0 expands slowly according to the m T2 m1
p
law  constant. If the final temperature is 2T0.
V
heat supplied to the gas is [ NCERT Page-312]
3
1) 2RT0 2) RT
T
2 0
1 30. Assertion : Heat is supplied at constant rate from

3) RT0 4) RT
T
2 0 one end of a conducting rod. In steady state,
Sol. (1) : temperature of all points of the rod becomes
uniform.
Reason : In steady state, temperature of rod does
not increase. [ NCERT Page-291]
1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the
Reason is correct explanation of the Assertion
2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but
Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
28. A body cools in 7 minutes from 60°C to 40°C.
Its temperature after the next 7 minutes is
(temperature of the surroundings is 10°C) 4) If Assertion is false but the Reason is true.
[ NCERT Page-296] Sol. (4) : In steady state, temperature of different
1) 32°C 2) 28°C sections (perpendicular to the direction of heat
flow) becomes constant but not same
3) 20°C 4) 25°C
31. The intensity of radiation emitted by the sun
d has its maximum value at a wavelength of
Sol. (2) : From Newton’s law of cooling  K   0 
dt 510 nm and that emitted by the North star has
60  40 the maximum value at 350 nm. If these stars
  K 50  10 behave like black bodies, then the ratio of the
7
surface temperatures of the sun and the north
 40     40    star is [ NCERT Page-294]
   K  10 
 7   2  1) 1.46 2) 0.69
On simplification  = 28°C. 3) 1.21 4) 0.83
PCB TEST : 03(40) 6 Date : 12/12/2023

C 
Sol. (2) : 34. The ratio of specific heats  P  in terms of
 CV 
degree of freedom (f) is given by
32. The spectrum of a [ NCERT Page-309, 334]

black body at two  2
 f
temperatures 27°C 1)  1   2)  1  f 
and 327°C is shown  3  
in the figure. Let A1
and A2 be the areas  f  1
3)  1   4)  1  f 
under the two  2  
curves respectively.
A2 Sol. (2) :
The value of
A1 is [ NCERT Page-295]
1) 1 : 16 2) 4 : 1
3) 2 : 1 4) 16 : 1
Sol. (4) : 5
7
35. A diatomic gas, having C p  R and Cv  R ,
2 2
is heated at constant pressure. The ratio
dU : dQ : dW [ NCERT Page-308]
33. Three conducting rods
of same material and 1) 5 : 7 : 2 2) 3 : 5 : 2
cross-section are 3) 3 : 7 : 2 4) 5 : 7 : 3
shown in figure.
Sol. (1) :
Temperature of A, D
and C are maintained
at 20°C, 90°C and 0°C. The ratio of lengths BD
and BC, if there is no heat flow in AB is
[ NCERT Page-291]
2 7
1) 2)
7 2
9 2
3) 4) Section : B
2 9
Sol. (2) : 36. Consider a gas of triatomic
molecules. The molecules
are assumed to be
triangular and made of
massless rigid rods whose vertices are occupied
by atoms. the internal energy of a mole of the
gas at temperature T is [ NCERT Page-334]
5 3
1) RT 2) RT
2 2
9
3) RT 4) 3RT
2
PCB TEST : 03(40) 7 Date : 12/12/2023

Sol. (4) : Sol. (4) :
39. When the temperature of a black body
increases, it is observed that the wavelength
37. Which of the substances corresponding to maximum energy changes
A, B and C has the from 0.26 m to 0.13 m. The ratio of the
lowest heat capacity if emissive powers of the body at the respective
heat is supplied to all of temperature is [ NCERT Page-294]
them at equal rates. The
temperatures versus 16 4
1) 2)
time graph is shown [ NCERT Page-308] 1 1
1) A 1 1
2) B 3) 4)
4 16
3) C Sol. (4) :
4) All have equal heat capacity
Sol. (1) :
40. In the process shown in

figure, the internal
energy of an ideal gas
3 p0V0
decreases by
2
from point C to A. Heat
transfer along the
process CA is [ NCERT Page-307]
38. Two elastic rods are joined between fixed 1) (–3 p0V0) 2) (–5 p0V0/2)
supports as shown in the figure. Condition for
no change in the lengths of individual rods 3) (–3 p0V0/2) 4) zero
with the increase of temperature (1, 2 = linear Sol. (2) :
expansion coefficient , A1, A2 = area of rods, Y1,
Y2 = Young’s modulus is [ NCERT Page-292]
5
41. For a gas   and 640 cc of this gas is
3
suddenly compressed to 80 cc. If the initial
pressure is p, then the final pressure will be
A1 1Y1 A1 L11Y1
1) A   Y 2) A  L  Y [ NCERT Page-312]
2 2 2 2 2 2 2
1) 8 p 2) 32 p
A1 L2  2Y2 A1  2Y2 3) 16 p 4) 65 p
3) A  L  Y 4) 
A2 1Y1
2 1 1 1
PCB TEST : 03(40) 8 Date : 12/12/2023

Sol. (2) : 44. The given diagram shows
four processes i.e.,
isochoric, isobaric,
isothermal and adiabatic .
The correct assignment of
the processes, in the same
order is given by [ NCERT Page-312]
42. In a process, the pressure of an ideal gas is
proportional to square of the volume of the 1) a d b c 2) d a c b
gas. If the temperature of the gas increases in 3) a d c b 4) d a b c
this process, then work done by this gas Sol. (4) :
1) is positive
45. A balloon filled with helium (32°C and 1.7 atm)
2) is negative
bursts. Immediately afterwards the expansion
3) is zero of helium can be considered as [NCERT Page-315]
4) may be positive or negative 1) irreversible isothermal
2) irreversible adiabatic
Sol. (1) :
3) reversible adiabatic
4) reversible isothermal
Sol. (3) :
43. Three processes compose 46. Match the thermodynamic process taking
place in a system with the correct conditions.
a thermodynamic cycle In the table : Q is the heat supplied, W is
shown in the accom- the work done and U is change in internal
panying P–V, diagram of energy of the system. [ NCERT Page-312]
an ideal gas.
Column-I Column-II
Process 12 takes placed
I. Adiabatic A. W = 0
at constant temperature, during this process
60 J of heat enters the system. II. Isothermal B. Q = 0
III. Isochoric C. U  0, W  0, Q  0
Process 2 3 takes placed at constant volume.
During this process 40 J of heat leaves the IV. Isobaric D. U = 0
system. 1) IA, IIB, IIID, IVD
Process 31 is adiabatic. 2) IB, IIA, IIID, IVC
What is the change in internal energy of the 3) IA, IIA, IIIB, IVC
system during process 31? [ NCERT Page-312] 4) IB, IID, IIIA, IVC
1) – 40 J 2) – 20 J Sol. (4) :
3) + 20 J 4) + 40 J
Sol. (4) :
PCB TEST : 03(40) 9 Date : 12/12/2023

47. pV versus T graph of equal masses of H2. He 49. Two thin blankets keep more hotness than one
and O2 is shown in figure. Choose the correct blanket of thickness equal to these two. The
alternative. [ NCERT Page-326] reason is [ NCERT Page-290]
1) their surface area increases
2) a layer of air is formed between these two
blankets which is bad conductor of heat
3) these have more wool
4) they absorb more heat from outside
1) A corresponds to O2, B to He and C to H2 Sol. (2) : Conceptual
2) A corresponds to He, B to H2 and C to O2
50. The average kinetic energy of the molecules
3) A corresponds to He, B to O2 and C to H2 of an ideal gas at 10°C has the value E. The
4) A corresponds to O2, B to H2 and C to He temperature at which the kinetic energy of the
same gas becomes 2E is [ NCERT Page-330]
Sol. (1) :
1) 5°C 2) 10°C
3) 40°C 4) None of these
Sol. (4) :
48. A polyatomic gas with n degrees of freedom
has a mean energy per molecule given by
[ NCERT Page-334]
n 1 n 1
1) RT 2) RT 3) kT 4) kT
2 2 2 2
Sol. (3) : Conceptual
PCB TEST : 03(40) 10 Date : 12/12/2023

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : 11
CHEMISTRY
Sol. (2)
SECTION : A
51. The bond dissociation energy of B – F in BF3
is 646 kJ mol–1, whereas that of C – F in CF4 is
515 kJ mol–1. The correct reason for higher B
– F bond dissociation energy as compared to
that of C – F bond is [ NCERT Page No. 120]
1) Stronger  bond between B and F in BF3 as
compared to that between C and F in CF4 54. According to molecular orbital theory, which
2) Significant p–p interaction between B and
of the following is true with respect to Li+2 and
F in BF3 whereas there is no possibility of such
Li–2 ? [ NCERT Page No. 129]
interaction between C and F in CF4
–
3) Lower degree of p–p interaction between 1) Li+2 is unstable and Li is stable
2
–
B and F in BF3 than that between C and F in 2) Li+2 is stable and Li2 is unstable
CF 4 3) Both are stable
4) Smaller size of B– atom as compared to that 4) Both are unstable
of C–atom
Sol. (3)
Sol. (2)
55. Of the species, NO, NO+, NO2+ and NO–, the

one with minimum bond strength is
52. The decreasing values of bond angles from
NH3 (106o) to SbH3 (101o) down group-15 of 1) NO + 2) NO
2+
the periodic table is due to 3) NO 4) NO –
1) Decreasing lp–bp repulsion
2) Decreasing electronegativity
3) Increasing bp–bp repulsion
4) Increasing p-orbital character in sp3
Sol. (2)
RCC** RCC** RCC**
53. Molecule AB has a bond length of 1.617 Å and

a dipole moment of 0.38 D. The fractional
charge on each atom (absolute magnitude) is
1) 0.5 2) 0.05
3) 0 4) 1.0
PCB TEST - 03 (40) 11 Date : 12/12/2023
Sol. (4) 58. The enolic form of a acetone contains
1) 9 sigma bonds, 1 pi bond and 2 lone pairs
2) 8 sigma bonds, 2 pi bonds and 2 lone pairs
3) 10 sigma bonds, 1 pi bond and 1 lone pair
4) 9 sigma bonds, 2 pi bonds and 1 lone pair
Sol. (1)
59. Which of the following statements is/are not
56. Assertion : Sulphur compounds like SF6 and
correct for combination of atomic orbitals ?
H2 SO 4 have 12 valence electrons around S
i) The combining atomic orbitals must have
atom.
the same or nearly the same energy
Reason : All sulphur compounds do not follow
ii) Greater the extent of overlap, the greater
octet rule. [ NCERT Page No. 102] will be the electron density between the
1) Assertion is correct, Reason is correct; Reason nuclei of a molecular orbital
is a correct explanation for Assertion iii) 2pz orbital of one atom can combine with
2) Assertion is correct, Reason is correct; Reason either of 2px, 2py or 2pz orbital of other atom
is not a correct explanation for Assertion as these orbitals have same energy
3) Assertion is correct, Reason is incorrect [ NCERT Page No. 119]
1) (i) and (ii) 2) (iii) only
3) (i) only 4) (ii) and (iii)
Sol. (3) Sulphur forms many compounds in which
Sol. (2) Atomic orbitals having same or nearly same
the octet rule is obeyed. For example, SCl2 has
energy will not combine if they do not have the
an octet of electrons around it.
same symmetry. 2pz orbital of one atom cannot
57. Which of the following is the correct combine with 2px or 2py orbital of other atom
increasing order of lone pair of electrons on because of their different symmetries.
the central atom? [ NCERT Page No. 114] 60. The given increasing order of energies of
1) IF7 < IF5 < ClF3 < XeF2 various molecular orbitals is not true for
2) IF7 < XeF2 < ClF2 < IF5 which of the following molecule ?
1s < *1s < 2s < *2s < (2px = 2py) < 2pz
3) IF7 < ClF3 < XeF2 < IF5
< (*2px = *2py) < *2pz
4) IF7 < XeF2 < IF5 < ClF3 [ NCERT Page No. 128]
Sol. (1) The number of lone pairs of electrons on 1) B 2 2) C 2
central atom in various given species are 3) N2 4) O 2
Species Number of lone pairs on Sol. (4) For oxygen, correct increasing order is
central atom 1s < *1s < 2s < *2s < 2pz < (2px = 2py) <
(*2px = *2py) < *2pz
IF7 nil
61. Which among the following can form
IF5 1
intermolecular H-bonding?
ClF3 2 [ NCERT Page No. 131]
XeF2 3
RCC** RCC** RCC**
Thus the correct increasing order is

IF7 < IF5 < ClF3 < XeF2
0 1 2 3
1) A 2) B and D
3) B, C and D 4) A and C
PCB TEST - 03 (40) 12 Date : 12/12/2023
Sol. (3) B, C and D form intermolecular hydrogen Sol. (3) Each combining atom contributes at least
bonding while A form intramolecular hydrogen one electron to the shared pair.
bonding due to proximity of oxygen and 66. What is X, Y and Z in the following expression
hydrogen.
– of formal charge.
62. The relative stabilities of CN, CN + and CN
Formal charge (F. C.) on an atom in a Lewis
are in the order [ NCERT Page No. 130]
–
+
1) CN > CN > CN 2) CN– > CN > CN+ 1
structure = X – Y – (Z) [ NCERT Page No. 104]
3) CN– > CN+ > CN 4) CN+ > CN > CN– 2
–
Sol. (2) B. O. of CN , CN and CN+ are 3, 2.5 and 2 1) X = Total number of non bonding electrons
respectively.
63. The manganate and permanganate ions are
Z = Total number of valence electrons in the
tetrahedral, due to free atom
1) The -bonding involves overlap of p-orbitals 2) X = Total number of valence electrons in the
of oxygen and d-orbitals of manganese free atom
2) There is no -bonding Y = Total number of bonding electrons
3) The -bonding involves overlap of p-orbitals Z = Total number of non bonding electrons
of oxygen with p-orbitals of manganese 3) X = Total number of valence electrons in the
4) The -bonding involves overlap of d-orbital free atom
of oxygen with d-orbitals of manganese Y = Total number of non bonding electrons
Z = Total number of bonding electrons
4) X = Total number of electrons in the free atom
Sol. (1)
Z = Total number of valence electrons
Sol. (3) Formal charge (F.C.) on an atom in a Lewis
64. Which of the following do(es) not represent structure
correct Lewis symbols ? = [total number of valence electrons in the free
atom]
– [total number of non bonding (lone pair)
[ NCERT Page No. 103] electrons]
1) I, IV & V 2) II, III & IV – (1/2) [total number of bonding (shared)
3) II only 4) II & III electrons]
Sol. (4) 67. In which of the following compounds octet is
complete and incomplete for all atoms :
Al2Cl6 Al2(CH3)6 AlF3 Dimer of Dimer of
BeCl2 BeH2
65. Which of the following is/are not the 1) IC IC IC C C
condition(s) for Lewis dot structure ? 2) C IC IC C IC
[ NCERT Page No. 102] 3) C IC C IC IC
i) Each bond is formed as a result of sharing 4) IC C IC IC IC
of an electron pair between the atoms [Note : C for complete octet and IC for
ii) From the two combining atoms only one incomplete octet]
RCC** RCC** RCC**
atom contribute electron(s) to the shared pair

iii) The combining atoms attain the outer shell Sol. (3)
noble gas configuration as a result of the
sharing of electrons
1) (i) and (iii) 2) (ii) and (iii)
3) (ii) only 4) (iii) only
PCB TEST - 03 (40) 13 Date : 12/12/2023

71. Following figure represent a chlorine
molecule. Identify A, B and C in the given
figure. [ NCERT Page No. 107]
68. A pair of compound which have odd electrons

in the group NO, CO, ClO2 , N2 O5 , SO2 and 1) A = Bond length, B = van der Waal’s radius
O3 are [ NCERT Page No. 105] C = Covalent radius
1) NO and ClO2 2) CO and SO2 2) A = Covalent radius, B = Bond length
3) ClO2 and CO 4) SO2 and O3 C = Ionic radius
Sol. (1)
3) A = Ionic radius, B = van der Waal’s radius
69. In ionic solids how crystal structure get
C = Covalent radius
stabilized [ NCERT Page No. 109]
4) A = Covalent radius, B = van der Waal’s radius
1) By the energy released in the formation of
C = Bond length
crystal lattice
Sol. (4) A = Covalent radius
2) By achieving octet of electrons around the B = van der Waal’s radius
ionic species in gaseous state C = Bond length
3) By electron gain enthalpy and the ionization 72. Formal charge on two O atoms in
enthalpy
4) None of these [ NCERT Page No. 105]
Sol. (1) In ionic solids, the sum of the electron gain
enthalpy and the ionization enthalpy may be 1) –1, +1 2) –1, 0
positive but still the crystal structure gets
stabilized due to the energy released in the 3) 0, +1 4) –1, –1
formation of the crystal lattice. Sol. (2) B
70. Which of the following is/are misconception(s) 73. The covalent bond length is the shortest in
associated with resonance? which one of the following bonds ?
i) The molecule exist for a certain fraction of [ NCERT Page No. 107]
time in one cannonical form and for other 1) C – O 2) C – C
fractions of time in other cannonical forms 3) C  N 4) O – H
Sol. (4) The electronegativity differnece is maximum
ii) The cannonical forms have no real existence in O – H bond hence O – H bond length is the
iii) There is no such equilibrium between the smallest among the given set.
cannonical forms. [ NCERT Page No. 109] 74. A -bonded molecule MX3 is T-shaped. The
RCC** RCC** RCC**
1) (i) only 2) (ii) and (iii) number of non-bonding pairs of electron is

3) (i) and (iii) 4) (iii) only [ NCERT Page No. 115]
Sol. (1) The molecule does not exist for a certain 1) 0 2) 2
fraction of time in one cannonical form and for 3) 1
other fractions of time in other cannonical forms. 4) Can be predicted only if atomic number of
M is known
PCB TEST - 03 (40) 14 Date : 12/12/2023
Sol. (2) 77. Choose the correct sequence of T and F for
following statements. Here T stands for true
statement and F stands for false statement.
i) Formal charge in the Lewis structure helps
in keeping track of the valence electrons in
the molecule
ii) Formal charge indicates the actual charge
75. Dipole moment of is 1.5 D. The dipole separation within the molecule
iii) Formal charges help in the selection of
the lowest energy structure from a number of
moment of is (X = halogen) possible Lewis structures
1) T T F 2) T F T
3) T T T 4) F T T
1) 1.5 D 2) 2.25 D Sol. (2) Formal charges do not indicate real charge
3) 1 D 4) 3 D separation within the molecule. Indicating the
Sol. (1) The bond moments para to each other cancel charges on the atoms in the Lewis structure only
due to their opposite directions. The other two helps in keeping track of the valence electrons
groups are meta to each other at an angle of 120o. in the molecule.
 Dipole moment,  = 12   22  21 2 cos  78. Match the columns : [ NCERT Page No. 102]
where 1 = 2 = 1.5 D Column-I Column-II
  = (1.5)2  (1.5)2  2(1.5)(1.5) cos 120 o = 1.5 D p) Covalent compound w ith
A) HCl
76. Which of the following is/are not essential directional bond
condition(s) for hybridisation ?
q) Ionic compound w ith
i) The orbitals present in the valence shell of B) CO2
the atom are hybridised non-directional bonds
ii) The orbitals undergoing hybridisation

C) NaCl r) Polar molecule
should have almost equal energy D) CCl4 s) Non-polar molecule
iii) Promotion of electron is essential prior to 1) A–(p, q, r), B–(q, r), C–(p, q), D–(r)
hybridisation 2) A–(q), B–(r), C–(p), D–(s)
3) A–(p, r), B–(p, s), C–(q), D–(p, s)
iv) Only half filled orbitals participate in
4) A–(q), B–(r), C–(p, q), D–(s)
hybridisation [ NCERT Page No. 120]
Sol. (3)
1) (i) only 2) (iii) only
79. Assertion : BF 3 molecule has zero dipole
3) (iv) only 4) (iii) and (iv) moment.
Sol. (4) Promotion of electron is not an essential Reason : F is electronegative and B–F bonds
condition prior to hybridisation. It is not
necessary that only half filled orbitals participate are polar in nature. [ NCERT Page No. 111]
in hybridisation. In some cases, even filled 1) Assertion is correct, Reason is correct; Reason
orbitals of valence shell take part in hybridisation.
RCC** RCC** RCC**
is a correct explanation for Assertion

PCB TEST - 03 (40) 15 Date : 12/12/2023

Sol. (2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason 82. Assertion : Bonding molecular orbital has
is not the correct explanation of assertion.
greater stability than corresponding
BF3 is sp2 hybridized. Dipole moment is a vector
quantity. The three bond moments give a net antibonding molecular orbital.
sum of zero, as the resultant of any two is equal Reason : The electron density in a bonding
and opposite to the third.
molecular orbital is located away from the
space between the nuclei while in
antibonding molecular orbital it is located
between the nuclei of the bonded atoms.
80. Assertion : CH2 Cl2 is non-polar and CCl4 is 1) Assertion is correct, Reason is correct; Reason
polar molecule. is a correct explanation for Assertion
Reason : Molecule with zero dipole moment 2) Assertion is correct, Reason is correct; Reason
is non-polar in nature. is not a correct explanation for Assertion
[ NCERT Page No. 110] 3) Assertion is correct, Reason is incorrect
1) Assertion is correct, Reason is correct; Reason 4) Assertion is incorrect, Reason is correct
is a correct explanation for Assertion Sol. (3)
2) Assertion is correct, Reason is correct; Reason 83. Which of the following molecule does not have
is not a correct explanation for Assertion a linear arrangement of atoms ?
3) Assertion is correct, Reason is incorrect [ NCERT Page No. 126]
4) Assertion is incorrect, Reason is correct 1) H 2 S 2) C 2 H2
Sol. (4) Assertion is false but reason is true. 3) BeH2 4) CO 2
CH2Cl2 is polar while CCl4 is non-polar because Sol. (1) For linear arrangement of atoms the
in CCl4 net dipole moment cancels. hybridisation should be sp(linear shape, 180 o
81. Match the columns : angle). Only H2S has sp3-hybridisation and hence
has angular shape while C2H2, BeH2 and CO2 all
Column-I Column-II involve sp-hybridisation and hence have linear
arrangement of atoms.
A) p) negative overlap 84. In an octahedral structure, the pair of d
orbitals involved in d2sp3 hybridisation is
B) q) zero overlap 1) dx2 –y2 , dz 2 2) dxz , dx 2–y2
3) dz2, dxz 4) dxy, dyz
Sol. (1) Only those d orbitals whose lobes are directed
C) r) positive overlap
along X, Y and Z directions hybridise with s and
p orbitals. In other three d orbitals namely dxy,
D) dyz and dxz, the lobes are at angle of 45o from
both axis, hence the extent of their overlap with
[ NCERT Page No. 119] s and p orbitals is much lesser than dx2–y2 and dz2
orbitals.
1) A–(p), B–(q), C–(p), D–(r)
85. In the molecular orbital diagram for O+2 ion,
RCC** RCC** RCC**
2) A–(p), B–(r), C–(q), D–(p)

the highest occupied orbital is
3) A–(q), B–(q), C–(p), D–(r)
4) A–(r), B–(p), C–(q), D–(p)
1) s MO orbital 2)  MO orbital
Sol. (3)
3) * MO orbital 4) * MO orbital
Sol. (3)
PCB TEST - 03 (40) 16 Date : 12/12/2023
SECTION : B 89. Which of the following substances has the
86. Atomic orbital is monocentric while a greatest ionic character?
molecular orbital is polycentric. What is the [ NCERT Page No. 101]
meaning of above statements ? 1) Cl 2 O 2) NCl3
[ NCERT Page No. 126] 3) PbCl 2 4) BaCl2
1) Electron density in atomic orbital is given by Sol. (4)
the electron distribution around a nucleus in
an atom. While in molecular orbital it is given
by the electron distribution around group of
nuclei in a molecule
2) While an electron in an atomic orbital is
influenced by one nucleus, in a molecular
orbital it is influenced by two or more nuclei
molecule
3) The electron in an atomic orbital is present in 90. N 2 and O 2 are converted to monopositive
one nucleus while in molecular orbital
cations N 2+ and O 2+ respectively. Which is
electrons are present on more than one nuclei
incorrect ? [ NCERT Page No. 130]
+
molecule 1) In N the N – N bond is weakened
2
+
4) All of these 2) In O the bond order increases
2
Sol. (2) Atomic orbital is monocentric because an +
3) In O the paramagnetism decreases
2
electron in it is influenced by one nucleus. While
molecular orbital is polycentric as it is influenced 4) N+2 becomes diamagnetic
by two or more nuclei depending upon the Sol. (4)
number of atoms in the molecule.
87. The theory capable of explaining
91. The potential energy curve for the H2 molecule
paramagnetic behaviour of oxygen is
as a function of internuclear distance is
1) Resonance theory
2) V.S.E.P.R. theory
3) Molecular orbital theory
1) 2)
4) Valence bond energy
Sol. (3) Paramagnetism of O2 is best explained by
molecular orbital theory.
88. Which of the following are correctly
classified? [ NCERT Page No. 132] 3) 4)
Intermolecular Intramolecular
H-bonding H-bonding
Sol. (2) When two H-atoms come closer then initially
1) HF H2 O due to attraction P.E. is –ve, which decreases
more as atoms come closer and after reacting to
RCC** RCC** RCC**
2) CH3 OH HF
a minimum value as repulsion starts dominating
3) H2 O o-nitrophenol so, P.E. increases then.
4) HF p-nitrophenol
Sol. (3) H 2 O shows intermolecular hydrogen
bonding while o-nitrophenol shows
intramolecular H-bonding.
PCB TEST - 03 (40) 17 Date : 12/12/2023

Sol. (4) Assertion is false but reason is true.
92. Complete the following statement by choosing
the appropriate option. The greater the lattice enthalpy, more stable is
the ionic compound.
Ionic bonds will be formed more easily 95. Read the following statements and choose the
between elements with comparatively correct option. Here T stands for True and F
A and elements with comparatively stands for False statement.
i) The smaller the size of the cation and the
high negative value of B . larger the size of the anion, the greater the
[ NCERT Page No. 101] covalent character of an ionic bond
1) A = low electronegativity
ii) The smaller the charge on the cation, the
greater the covalent character of the ionic bond
2) A = low ionization enthalpy
B = electron gain enthalpy iii) For cations of the same size and charge,
3) A = high ionization enthalpy the one, with electronic configuration (n–1)dn
B = electron gain enthalpy ns 0 , typical of transition metals, is more
4) A = high electronegativity polarising than the one with a noble gas
configuration, ns2 np6 , typical of alkali and
Sol. (2) Ionic bonds will be formed more easily
between elements with comparatively low alkaline earth metal cations.
ionization enthalpies and elements with
comparatively high negative value of electron
gain enthalpy. 1) T T T 2) T T F
93. Match the columns (internuclear axis is Z) 3) T F T 4) F T T
Column-I Column-II Column-III Sol. (3) The greater the charge on the cation, the
greater the covalent character of the ionic bond.
A) 1s p) i) 96. Choose the correct sequence of T and F for
following statements. Here T stands for True
and F for False statement.
B) 2pz q) ii) i) Sigma bond is formed by head on overlap
of bonding orbitals along the internuclear
C) 2px r) iii) axis
ii) pi bond is formed when atomic orbitals
[ NCERT Page No. 119] overlap in such a way that their axes remain
1)A–(q, iii), B–(r, i), C–(p, ii)
parallel to each other and perpendicular to the
2)A–(q, iii), B–(p, ii), C–(r, i)
3)A–(p, iii), B–(q, ii), C–(r, i) internuclear axis
4)A–(p, ii), B–(q, iii), C–(r, i) iii) Half-filled s-orbital of one atom and half
Sol. (2) filled p-orbitals of another atom forms.  bond
94. Assertion : The lesser the lattice enthalpy more on overlapping
stable is the ionic compound.
Reason : The lattice enthalpy is greater, for iv) Overlapping in case of pi-bond takes place
ions of highest charge and smaller radii. to a larger extent as compared to sigma bond
RCC** RCC** RCC**
1) Assertion is correct, Reason is correct; Reason [ NCERT Page No. 115]

is a correct explanation for Assertion 1) T T T T 2) T F T F
3) T T F F 4) T T F T
Sol. (3)
PCB TEST - 03 (40) 18 Date : 12/12/2023
97. If an organic compound contain 92.3% C and 99. Among the following molecules, ions,
7.7% H, than number of sp 3 , sp 2 and sp C2–
2
, N2–
2
, O2–
2
, O2
hybridised carbon atoms in all possible Which one is diamagnetic and has the shortest
structures of compound respectively are bond length ?
(molecular mass = 52 g/mol) 1) O 2 2) N22–
[ NCERT Page No. 122] 3) O 22– 4) C 22–
1) 1, 2, 5 2) 0, 4, 4 Sol. (4)
3) 0, 8, 4 4) None of these
Sol. (3)
100. Read the following statements and choose the

correct option.
i) P–O bond length order in :
–
PO3–
4
> HPO2–
3
> H2PO2
ii)
iii) Between C2H2 and C2H4 , C–H is stronger

in C2 H2 . [ NCERT Page No. 147]
1) (i) 2) (i), (ii) & (iii)
3) (i) & (ii) 4) (ii) & (iii)
98. Match Column-I with Column-II and
Column-II and choose the correct option from Sol. (2)
the given codes. [ NCERT Page No. 115]

Molecule (No. of lone (Shape of molecule)
pairs and
bond pairs)
A) NH 3 i) 1, 2 p) Bent
B) SO 2 ii) 1, 4 q) Trigonal pyramidal
C) SF 4 iii) 2, 3 r) T-shape
D) ClF 3 iv) 1, 3 s) See-Saw
1) A – (iv, q); B – (ii, p); C – (i, r); D – (iii, s)

RCC** RCC** RCC**
2) A – (iv, q); B – (i, p); C – (ii, s); D – (iii, r)

3) A – (i, p); B – (iii, s); C – (iv, r); D – (ii, q)
4) A – (iv, p); B – (i, r); C – (iii, q); D – (ii, s)
Sol. (2) NH3  1lp, 3bp  Trigonal pyramidal
SO2  1lp, 2bp  Bent
SF4  1lp, 4bp  See-Saw
ClF3  2lp, 3bp  T-shape
PCB TEST - 03 (40) 19 Date : 12/12/2023
Section-C : Biology 106. Kelps are [ Pg. 32]
Section-A 1) Profusely branched green algae
101. Equal weightage to vegetative and sexual 2) Red algae which from massive plant bodies
characters was given in [ Pg. 29] 3) Profusely branched brown which may reach a
1) Artificial system of classification height of 100 m
2) Natural system of classification 4) Colonial marine red algae
3) Phylogenetic classificatio Ans. (3)
4) Cladistics classification
107. All isogamy, anisogamy and oogamy are found
Ans. (4) in which of the following algae?
102. Select the correct statement about natural system [ Pg. 31-32]
of classification. [ Pg. 29]
1) Chlamydomonas 2) Volvox
1) Consider one or two superficial characters of
classification of organism. 3) Fucus 4) Porphyra
2) Organisms are classified on the basis of natural Ans. (1)
affinities. 108. In which of the following, sexual reproduction
3) Linnaeus classified plants on the basis of is of oogamous type where non-motile female
androecium characteristics. gamete is fertilized by a motile male gamete?
4) Considered fossil records in classification of [ Pg. 30 to 32]
organisms.
1) Volvox and Fucus
Ans. (2)
2) Chara and Spirogyra
103. "The information about the mode of pairing of
chromosomes during meiosis is used to 3) Porphyra and Polysiphonia
understand the relation between species." The 4) Ulothrix and Eudorina
given statement is true for [ Pg. 29-30]
Ans. (1)
1) Biochemical taxonomy
109. Pyrenoids are storage centres of _A_ found in
2) Numerical taxonomy
chloroplast of _B_. Fill in the blanks with the
3) Cytotaxonomy correct option. [ Pg. 32]
4) Chemotaxonomy A B
Ans. (3)
1) Protein Green algae
104. Algae occur [ Pg. 30]
2) Starch Green algae
1) In aquatic habitat
3) Protein Red algae
2) On moist stone, soil and wood
4) Starch Brown algae
3) In association with fungi and animals
4) All of these Ans. (2)
Ans. (4) 110. Mosses are attached to the substratum with the
help of [ Pg. 35-36]
105. Select the odd one w.r.t. algae. [ Pg. 30]
1) Adventitive roots
1) Thalloid body
2) Lack vascular tissue 2) Tap roots
3) Aquatic habitat 3) Multicellular rhizoids
4) Formation of embryo 4) Unicellular rhizoids
Ans. (4) Ans. (3)
PCB TEST : 03(40) 20 Date : 12/12/2023

111. The sex organs of bryophytes are 117. The given figure is of a moss. The correct ploidy
[ Pg. 35 & Consept of Reproduction] levels of the indicated structure are
1) Multicellular and jacketed [ Pg. 34]
2) Multicellular and non-jacketed

3) Unicellular and jacketed
4) Unicellular and non-jacketed
Ans. (1)
112. In bryophytes, [ Pg. 35]
1) Gametophytes are dependent upon
sporophytes
2) Sporophytes are dependent upon
gametophytes
3) Sporophyte and gametophyte generations are
independent
4) Sporophyte itself completes the life cycle
Ans. (2)
113. Which of the following is nota filamentous
algae? [ Pg. 31 to 33]
1) A, B and C are diploid
1) Porphyra 2) Spirogyra 2) B, D and E are haploid
3) Volvox 4) Chara 3) A and B are diploid
Ans. (3) 4) B and C are haploid
114. Plant body of Funaria has 12 chromosomes in Ans. (3)
its spore mother cell. Which structure does not 118. Sphagnum is used as packing material for trans-
have the same number of chromosomes in its shipments of living material because it
cell? [ Pg. 36 & Consept of Ploidy]
[ Pg. 35]
1) Foot 2) Zygote
1) Is used as fuel
3) Capsule 4) Protonema
2) Can hold water
Ans. (4)
3) Prevents soil erosion
115. Select the wrongly matched pair.[ Pg. 35]
1) Marchantia - Asexual reproduction takes place 4) Is non-hygroscopic in nature
by gemmae. Ans. (2)
2) Funaria - Vegetative reproduction occurs by 119. Zygote in bryophyte [ Pg. 35]
fragmentation of protonema. 1) Is the first cell of gametophyte generation
3) Sphagnum - Used as packaging material for
2) Undergoes meiotic division immediately
transshipment of living material
3) Divides mitotically to form sporophyte
4) Polytrichum - Requires water for spore dispersal
during sexual reproduction 4) Does not form embryo
Ans. (4) Ans. (3)
116. Antherozoids of liverworts are generally 120. Origin and evolution of stele took place in
[ Pg. 35] [ Pg. 36]
1) Uniflagellated 2) Non-flagellated 1) Algae 2) Bryophytes
3) Biflagellated 4) Quadrilagellated 3) Pteridophytes 4) Gymnosperms
Ans. (3) Ans. (3)
PCB TEST : 03(40) 21 Date : 12/12/2023

121. Complete the following chart by selecting the 125. Prothallus of pteridophyte is ______.
correct option for a fern. [ Pg. 36] Fill in the blanks with the correct option.
Sporophyte  Sporophyll  Spore
A
[ Pg. 38]
  Prothallus 
germination B
 Gametes 1) Unicellular 2) Multicellular
A B 3) Large 4) Sporophyte
1) Mitosis Meiosis
Ans. (2)
2) Meiosis Mitosis
126. Seed habit considered as an important step in
3) Mitosis Mitosis
evolution is present in [ Pg. 38]
4) Equational division Reductional division
1) Selaginella 2) Salvinia
Ans. (2)
122. Identify the figure given below and select 3) Dryopteris 4) Both (1) and (2)
incorrect option. [ Pg. 37] Ans. (4)
127. In gymnosperms, the seed that develop after
ferilization are naked. It means
[ Pg. 38-39]
1) Seeds are very small and not visible with
naked eyes
2) Seeds are not covered by any ovule wall
3) Seeds are not covered by any ovary wall
4) Seeds are enclosed in pericarp
Ans. (3)
128. In gymnosperms,
1) Aquatic pteridophyte a. Ovules remain exposed, both before and after

fertilization.
2) Produces two kinds of spores
3) Occurrence of prothallus b. Plants are medium-sized or tall trees or
4) Shows seed habit shrubs.
Ans. (3) c. Roots are generally tap roots.
123. Horsetail and ferns [ Pg. 36] Choose the correct option. [ Pg. 38]
a. Are vascular cryptogams 1) Only a is correct
b. Have dominant sporophytic phase
2) Only a and b are correct
c. Lack archegonia
3) Only b and c are correct
d. Produce seeds
Choose the correct options. 4) All a, b and c are correct
1) a and c 2) b and c Ans. (4)
3) a and b 4) b and d 129. Conifers are adapted to withstand extreme
Ans. (3) conditions due to adaptations like
124. Which of the following is incorrect for [ Pg. 38]
Selaginella? [ Pg. 36, 38]
1) Needle-like leaves
1) Belong to class Pteropsida
2) Sunken stomata
2) Has presence of strobilus and cone
3) Forms two kinds of spores 3) Thick cuticle
4) Shows events precursor to the seed habit 4) All of these
Ans. (1) Ans. (4)
PCB TEST : 03(40) 22 Date : 12/12/2023

130. Which of the following feature is not correct for 135. Identify the given plant and select the correct
all the gymnosperms? [ Pg. 38] option for the labels A, B and C.[ Pg. 39]
1) Ovules remain exposed before and after
fertilization.
2) Dominant phase is sporophyte.
3) Presence of vessel in xylem.
4) Endosperms present female gametophyte.
Ans. (3)
131. Coralloid roots of Cycas have symbiotic
A B C
association with _A_ and _B_.
1) Leaf base Stem Fruit
Choose the correct option. [ Pg. 38]
2) Leaf base Stem Seed
A B
1) N2 fixing bacteria Soil fertility 3) Dwarf shoot Long shoot Seed
2) BGA Phosphorus uptake 4) Long shoot Dwarf shoot Seed

3) Cyanobacteria N2 fixation Ans. (3)
4) Fungi Phosphorus uptake Section-B
Ans. (3) 136. Read the following statements :
132. Gymnosperms are more advanced than a. In numerical taxonomy, numbers and codes
pteridophytes. Which of the following features are assigned to all the characters.
of gymnosperms justify this statement?
b. Cytotaxonomy includes cytological
[ Pg. 38] information like DNA sequence and
1) Sporophyte plant body chemical nature of proteins.
2) Internal fertilization c. Chemotaxonomy is used by taxonomist these
3) Naked seeds days. [ Pg. 29-30]
4) Independent gametophyte Choose the correct statement(s) :

Ans. (3) 1) Only a 2) Only b
133. Mycorrhizal and coralloid roots are present in, 3) Only a and c 4) All a, b and c
respectively [ Pg. 38] Ans. (3)
1) Cycas and Pinus
137. Which of the following characters are common
2) Pinus and Cycas in both Selaginella and Pinus?
3) Cycas and Ephedra a. Main plant body is sporophyte.
4) Pinus and Ephedra b. Produce two kinds of spores.
Ans. (2) c. Gametophytes lack vascular tissue.
134. Identify the set of the plants that produce seeds
d. Male and female gametophytes are retained
and lack flowers. [ Pg. 38-39]
on the sporophytes for variable period.
1) Ginkgo and Cycas
Choose the correct option. [ Pg. 37 to 39]
2) Cycas and Eucalyptus
1) a and b only 2) a, b and c
3) Ginkgo and Orchid
3) a, b and d 4) b, c and d
4) Pinus and Acacia
Ans. (2)
Ans. (1)
PCB TEST : 03(40) 23 Date : 12/12/2023

138. Read the following and choose the features 142. How many statements are/is correct?
related to Marchantia. [ Pg. 35-36] a. Selaginella and Salvinia are heterosporous.
a. Dioecious b. Majority of pteridophytes are homosporous.
b. Non-motile male gametes c. In Equisetum, sporophylls are aggerated to
c. Lack protonema stage form strobilus or cone.
d. Independent sporophyte d. Antherozoids require water for their transfer
towards the mouth of archegonia.
1) a and b 2) b and d
e. Pteridophytes have no evolutionary
3) a and c 4) c and d
significance. [ Pg. 36 to 38]
Ans. (3) 1) Two 2) Four
139. Given below are reproductive structures of 3) Five 4) Three
Cycas. Select the correct sequence w.r.t. their Ans. (2)
occurrence in the leaf cycle. [ Pg. 39] 143. Read the following statements w.r.t. algae :
a. Ovule i. A few freshwater forms of algae form
b. Megaspore mother cell massive plant bodies.
c. Megasporophyll ii. Vascular tissues are absent.
d. Endosperm iii. Most common asexual spore is zoospore.
e. Megaspore iv. Sexual reproduction can be isogamous,
1) a  c  b  e  d anisogamous or oogamous.
2) c  a  b  d  e v. Embryo formation is seen in marine brown
and red algae. [ Pg. 30-32]
3) c  a  b  e  d
How many above given statements are correct?
4) a  d  c  b  e
1) Two 2) Three
Ans. (3) 3) Four 4) Five
140. Endosperm of gymnosperm [ Pg. 39] Ans. (2)
a. Is haploid 144. A feature(s) common between bryophytes and
b. Is female gametophyte pteridophytes is/are
c. Is formed before fertilization a. Presence of independent and photosynthetic
d. Shows monosporic development gametophyte.
Choose the correct option. b. Spor-develops in to gametophytic body.
c. Formation of motile male and non-motile
1) Only a and b 2) Only b and c
female gamete.
3) Only a, b and c 4) All a, b, c and d
d. Requirement of water for sexual reproduction.
Ans. (4)
Choose the correct option. [ Pg. 35-36]
141. The spread of living pteridophytes is limited 1) a and b only 2) c and d only
and restricted to narrow geographical regions
3) b, c and d only 4) a, b, c and d
because. [ Pg. 36]
Ans. (4)
a. Gametophytes are dependent on
145. In homosporous pteridophytes, the gametophyte is
sporophytes.
a. Vascular
b. Gametophytes require cool, damp and shady b. Monoecious
places to grow.
c. Independent
c. They need water for fertilization. d. Dependent on sporophyte
1) Only b is correct Choose the correct option.
2) Only b and c are correct [ Pg. 38 & Consept of Hetrosporyl]
3) Only c is correct 1) b and c 2) a and b
4) a, b and c are correct 3) a and d 4) b and d
Ans. (2) Ans. (1)
PCB TEST : 03(40) 24 Date : 12/12/2023

146. Bryophytes 149. How many of the following algae show all the
a. have plant body more differentiated than that given characteristics? [ Pg. 31 to 33]
of algae. Ulothrix, Sargassum, Laminaria, Porphyra,
b. Usually occur in damp, humid and shaded Chara, Volvox, Dictyota, Gelidium, Gracilaria,
localities. Spirogyra.
c. Have dominant gametophytic phase in their i. Found in marine habitat
life. ii. Food is stored as complex carbohydrate.
Choose the correct answer from the options iii. Produce a large amount of hydrocolloid.
given below : [ Pg. 35] 1) Six
1) Only a and c 2) Only b and c 2) Five
3) Only a and b 4) All a, b and c 3) Four
Ans. (4) 4) Seven
147. Identify A, B and C in the given figure and select Ans. (2)
the correct option : [ Pg. 31] 150. Which of the following correct?
[ Pg. 31 to 33]
1) Spirogyra Gametes have 2- Phaeophyceae
8 apical flagella
2) Fucus Pyriform Chlorophyceae
zoospores with
two heterokont
apical flagella
3) Polysiphonia Absence of Rhodophyceae
motile gametes
4) Dictyota Presence of Phaeophyceae
polysulphate
esters in cell wall
Ans. (3)
1) A-Frond, B-Air bladder, C-Stiple

Section-D: Biology
2) A-Holdfast, B-Air bladder, C-Frond
Section-A
151. The structure which prevents the entry of food
3) A-Air bladder, B-Frond, C-Holdfast
into the windpipe is- [ NCERT Pg. 269]
4) A-Frond, B-Stipe, C-Holdfast
1) Gullet 2) Glottis
Ans. (3)
3) Tonsil 4) Epiglottis
148. Some characters are given below. Which of them
Ans. (4)
are true for red algae?
152. ___ is a difficulty in breathing causing wheezing
a. Greater concentration found in warmer areas.
due to inflammation of bronchi and bronchioles
b. Reserve food material is present in the form [ NCERT Pg. 275]
of agar. 1) Asthma 2) Emphysema
c. Sexual reproduction may be isogamous, 3) Asbestosis 4) Fibrosis
anisogamous and oogamous.
Ans. (1)
d. Complex post-fertilization development 153. If total O2 transported by blood from lungs to
occurs. cell in a minute is 1000 ml. Then the volume of
Choose the correct answer from the options O2 transported by blood found dissovled in
given below : [ Pg. 33] plasma is- [ NCERT Pg. 274]
1) a and b 2) c and d 1) 970 ml 2) 30 ml
3) a and d 4) b and d 3) 1000 ml 4) Nil
Ans. (3) Ans. (2)
PCB TEST : 03(40) 25 Date : 12/12/2023
154. What will be the pO2 and pCO2 in the alveolar 159. The epithlial tissue present on the inner surface
air compared to those in the tissue? of bronchioles and trachea-
[ NCERT Pg. 272] 1) Squamous 2) Cuboidal
1) pO2 lesser, pCO2 higher 3) Glandular 4) Ciliated
2) pO2 higher, pCO2 lesser Ans. (4)
3) pO2 higher, pCO2 higher 160. In the alveoli, dissociation of CO 2 from
4) pO2 lesser, pCO2 lesser carbaminohaemoglobin occur, due to-
Ans. (2) [ NCERT Pg. 274, 275]
155. If O2 concetration in tissue is almost as high as
1) pCO2 is high and pO2 is low
at the respiratory surface- [ NCERT Pg. 274]
2) pCO2 is low and pO2 is high
1) Oxyhaemoglobin would dissociate to supply
O2 to the tissue 3) pCO2 and pO2 are hight
2) Haemoglobin would combine with more O2 4) pCO2 and pO2 are low
at respiratory surface Ans. (2)
3) Oxyhaemoglobn would not dissociate to 161. Which substances when present in high level
supply O2 to the tissue can activate the chemosensitive area present
4) CO2 will interfere the O2 transport adjacent to rhythm centre? [ NCERT Pg. 275]
Ans. (3) 1) CO2 and O2 2) HCO–3 ions and O2
156. What is the function of pleural fluid? 3) CO2 and H+ ion 4) H+ and HCO–3 ion
[ NCERT Pg. 269] Ans. (3)
1) Reduces friction on the lung surface 162. Which of the following is not a property of
2) Protection from external shocks alveoli? [ NCERT Pg. 269]
3) Provide moisture 1) Irregular thin walled
4) All of the above 2) Highly vascularised
Ans. (4)
3) Supported by incomplete rings
157. Volume of thoracic chamber increases in
4) Enormous in number
anteroposterior and dorso-ventral axis in rabbit
by- [ NCERT Pg. 270] Ans. (3)
1) Contraction of diaphragm and external 163. At the level of which thoracic vertebrae does
intercostal muscles respectively trachea divide into right and left primary
2) Relaxation of diaphragm and external bronch? [ NCERT Pg. 269]
intercostal muscles respectively 1) 5 2) 6
3) Relaxation of diaphragm adn abdominal 3) 9 4) 4
muscles respectively Ans. (1)
4) Contraction of abdominal muscles and 164. If the CO2 concentration in the blood increases,
relaxation of external intercostal muscles the breathing rate will-
respectively
1) Increase 2) Decrease
Ans. (1)
3) Stop 4) No affect
158. The pH of venous blood is only slightly more
acidic than the pH of arterial blood because- Ans. (1)
1) CO2 is weak base 165. Find out partial pressure of O 2 and CO 2 in
2) There is no carbonic anhydrase in the venous blood oxygenated blood. [ NCERT Pg. 272, Table 17.1]
3) The H+ generated from H2CO3 is buffered by 1) pO2 = 104 mmHg; pCO2 = 40 mmHg
HCO3 in venous blood 2) pO2 = 159 mmHg; pCO2 = 0.3 mmHg
4) The H+ generated from H2CO3 is buffered by 3) pO2 = 40 mmHg; pCO2 = 45 mmHg
deoxyhaemoglobin in venous blood 4) pO2 = 95 mmHg; pCO2 = 40 mmHg
Ans. (4) Ans. (4)
PCB TEST : 03(40) 26 Date : 12/12/2023

166. Which factors are favourable for the formation 172. Which is wrong with respect to expiration?
of oxyhaemoglobin? [ NCERT Pg. 274] [ NCERT Pg. 271]
A. High acidity 1) Ribs and sternum to original position
B. Low pCO2
2) Air expelled from lungs
C. Lesser H+ concnetration
3) Volume of thorax decrease
D. Lower temperature
4) Diaphragm contracted
1) A and B 2) A, B and C
Ans. (4)
3) B and C 4) B, C and D
173. Expiration occurs due to- [ NCERT Pg. 271]
Ans. (4)
167. Which of the following failitates the following
intercostal muscle
reactions? [ NCERT Pg. 275]
 H CO 2) Contraction of internal intercostal muscles and
CO + H O 
2 2 2 3
diaphragm
1) Chloride shift
3) Relaxation of abdo minal and internal
2) Carbonic anhydrase
intercostal muscles
3) Hamburger phenomenon
4) Contration of diaphram and relaxation of
4) Bohr effect
abdominal muscles
Ans. (2)
Ans. (1)
168. Under a given oxygen concentration in blood,
174. A graph is plotted between pO2 and precentage
dissociation of oxyhaemoglobin will increase if-
saturation of Hb with O2 is known as-
[ NCERT Pg. 274]
[ NCERT Pg. 274]
1) pH of blood rises
1) O2 association curve
2) pH of blood falls
2) CO2–O2 dissociation curve
3) CO2 concentration of blood falls
4) Free fatty acid concentration in blood falls 3) O2 dissociation curve
Ans. (2) 4) CO2–O association curve
169. What is the expiratory reserve volume of a Ans. (3)
person? [ NCERT Pg. 272] 175. Intercostal muscles are found attached with-
1) TV + RV 2) FRC – RV [ NCERT Pg. 269]
3) FRC – TV 4) FRC – IRV 1) Diaphragm 2) Ribs
Ans. (2) 3) Pleura 4) Lungs
170. If in a person functional residual capacity is 2300 Ans. (2)
ml, residual volume is 1200 ml and inspiratory
176. About 70% of CO2 is transported as-
capacity is 3500 ml then find out its vital
capacity- [ NCERT Pg. 272] [ NCERT Pg. 274]
1) 5800 ml 2) 7000 ml 1) Carbonic acid
3) 4600 ml 4) 2300 ml 2) Carboxyhaemoglobin
Ans. (3) 3) Bicarbonates
171. How many of the following parts of respiratory 4) Carbamino compounds
tract are supported by incomplete cartilaginous Ans. (3)
rings? [ NCERT Pg. 269]
177. Even when there is not air in it, human trachea
Trachea, alveoli, primary bronchi, secondary,
does not collapse dur to presence of-
bronchi, alveolar ducts, intial bronchioles-
1) Bony rings 2) Turgid pressure
1) Six 2) Five
3) Chitinous rings 4) Cartilaginous rings
3) Four 4) Three
Ans. (4)
Ans. (3)
PCB TEST : 03(40) 27 Date : 12/12/2023
178. The amount of air remaining in the air passages 184. Which of the following group are supported by
and alveoli at the end of quiet respiration is incomplete cartilaginous rings?
called- [ NCERT Pg. 269]
1) Tidal volume 1) Pharynx, primary & tertiary bronchi and intial
2) Inspiratory reserve volume bronchioles
3) Inspiratory capacity 2) Trachea, primary & secondary bronchi, and
4) Functional residual capacity initial bronchioles
Ans. (4) 3) Larynx, primary, seconddary and tertiary
bronchi, and initial bronchioles
179. ___(i)___ in CO2 in your blood, which causes
4) Trachea, primary, secondary and tertiary
___(ii)___ in pH, would cause your breathing to
bronchi, and initial bronchioles
speed up. [ NCERT Pg. 274]
Ans. (4)
1) (i) An increase, (ii) a rise
185. Thoracic chamber is formed (A) by the vertebral
2) (i) An increase, (ii) a drop
colulmn, (B) by the sternum, (C) by the ribs and
3) (i) A decrease, (ii) a rise on the (D) side by the dome shaped diaphragm.
4) (i) A decrease, (ii) a drop Identify A, B, C and D.
Ans. (2) [ NCERT Pg. 270]
180. Every 100 ml of deoxygenated blood delivers 1) A-dorsally, B-ventrally, C-laterally, D-lower
approximately ______. [ NCERT Pg. 275] 2) A-ventrally, B-laterally, C-dorsally, D-upper
1) 5 ml of CO to the alveoli 3) A-laterally, B-ventrally, C-dorsally, D-lower
2) 6 ml of CO2 to the plasma 4) A-dorsally, B-laterally, C-ventrally, D-upper
3) 4 ml of CO2 to the alveoli Ans. (1)
4) 7 ml of CO to the plasma Section-B
Ans. (3) 186. Which one of the followings statements is not
181. Emphysema developes mainly because of- correct? [ NCERT Pg. 272, 274, 275]
[ NCERT Pg. 275] 1) Total volume of air a person can expire after a
normal inspiration is called expiratory capacity
1) Allergy or hypersensitization
2) Binding of oxygen with haemoglobin is
2) Spasm of the smooth muscles of bronchioles
primarily related to partial pressure of CO2
3) Cigarette smoking
3) Every 100 ml of deoxygenated blood delivers
4) Inflammation of the alveoli approximately 4 ml of CO2 to the alveoli
Ans. (3) 4) Every 100 ml of oxygenated blood can deliver
182. Respiratory mechanism is controlled by- around 5 ml of O2 to the tissues under normal
[ NCERT Pg. 275] physiological conditions
1) Central nervous system Ans. (2)
2) Sympathetic nervous system 187. What is true about regulation of respiration?
[ NCERT Pg. 275]
3) Parasympathetic nervous system
1) Respiratory rhythm centre lie on pons region
4) Autonomic nervous system
2) The role of oxygen in the regulation of
Ans. (1)
respiratory rhythm is quite insignificant
183. Carbonic anhyrdrase is found in high
3) Chemosensitive area can recognise changes in
concentration in- [ NCERT Pg. 275]
O2
1) Leucocytes 2) Blood plasma
4) Neural signals from cerebellum can increase
3) Erythrocytes 4) Lymphocytes the duration of inspiration
Ans. (3) Ans. (2)
PCB TEST : 03(40) 28 Date : 12/12/2023

188. Tidal air in mammalian lungs is- 191. Which reference to human respiration, which is
[ NCERT Pg. 271] correct? [ NCERT Pg. 270]
1) The total maximum air that can be driven into 1) Pulmonary ventilation is equal to alveolar
the lungs ventilation
2) The air that normally goes in and comes out 2) Alveolar ventilation is more than pulmonary
of the lungs during breathing ventilation
3) The air that is left in the lungs after normal 3) Alveolar ventilation is less than pulmonary
expiration ventilation
4) The air that can be expelled out forcibly after
4) Pulmonary ventilation is less than alveolar
the normal expiration
ventilation
Ans. (2)
Ans. (3)
189. Assertion : Among vertebrates, fishes use gills
192. Which of the following is the correct statement
whereas reptiles, birds and mammals respire
through lungs. [ NCERT Pg. 268] for respiration in humans?
Reason : Amphibians like frogs only respire [ NCERT Pg. 276]
through their moist skin. 1) Workers in grinding and stone-breaking
1) Assertion and reason both are true and the industries may suffer from lung fibrosis
reason is correct explantion of assertion 2) About 90% of carbon dioxide (CO2) is carried
2) Assertion and reason both are true but reason by haemoglobin as carbamino haemoglobin
is not correct exaplantion of assertion 3) Cigarette smoking may lead to inflammation
3) Assertion is true but reason is wrong of bronchi
4) Assertion and reason both are wrong 4) Neural signal from penumotaxic centre in pons
Ans. (3) region of brain can increase the duration of
190. The figure given below shows the mechanism inspiration
of breathing. Identify the stage (X) of breathing Column-I
Ans. (1) Coumn-II
explained & A, B and C marked in the figure (Animals)
193. Match (Mode
the column of respiration)
I with column II :
[ NCERT Pg. 271, Fig. 17.2(a)] a Earthworm i Pulmonary [ NCERT Pg. 268]
b Human ii Branchial
1)c Prawn iii d-iv
a-i, b-ii, c-iii, Tracheal2) a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-iii
d Insects iv Cutaneous
3) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii 4) a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i
Ans. (3)
194. How many of the following statements are
correct? [ NCERT Pg. 275]
a. Human beings have a significant ability to
maintain and moderate the respiratory
rhythm to suit the demands of the body
tissues
b. Pneumotaxic centre can moderate the
functions of the respiratory rhythm centre
c. A chemosensitive are is situated adjacent to
1) X-Expiration, A-raised, B-decreased, C-relaxed the rhythm centre which is highly sensitive
2) X-Inspirati on, A-raised, B-decreased, to CO2 and hydrogen ions
C-relaxed d. The role of oxygen in the regulation of
3) X-Expiratio n, A-raised, B-increased, respiratory rhythm is quite insignificant.
C-contracted
1) Only a 2) Only b
4) X-Inspirati on, A-raised, B-increased,
3) Only a and b 4) All
C-contracted
Ans. (4)
Ans. (4)
PCB TEST : 03(40) 29 Date : 12/12/2023
195. Select the wrong statement abut the diagram 198. Assertion : Process of exchange of O2 from the
given below- [ NCERT Pg. 269, Fig. 17.1] atmosphere with CO2 produced by the cells is
called breathing [ NCERT Pg. 268]
Reason : Respiration includes breakdown of
glucose
1) Assertion and reason both are true and the
2) Assertion and reason both are true but reason
3) Assertion is true but reason is wrong
1) ‘B’ is a cortilaginous box which helps in sound
production 4) Assertion and reason both are wrong
2) ‘A’ prevent the entry of food into the larynx Ans. (2)
3) ‘C’ is a straight tube extending upto the left 199. Statement I: From external nostrils up to terminal
thoracic cavity, which divides at the level of bronchioles constitute the respiratory/ exchange
5th thoracic vertebrae part of the respiratory system
4) ‘D’ is double layered and a fluid is present in [ NCERT Pg. 269]
between them
Statement II: The alveoli and their ducts form the
Ans. (3) conducting part of the respiratory system
196. Arrange the following steps of respiration in a
1) Both statements are correct
proper sequence- [ NCERT Pg. 270]
A. Breathing 2) Statment I is correct & II is incorrect
B. Diffusion of gases across alveolar membrane 3) Statement I is incorrect & II is correct
C. Transport of gases by the blood 4) Both statments are incorrect
D. Diffusion of O2 and CO2 between blood and Ans. (4)
tissues 200. Four statements (A-D) are given. How many
E. Utilisation of O2 by the cell for catabolic statements are correct? [ NCERT Pg. 274]
reactions and resultant release of CO2
A. O2 can bind form oxyhaemoglobin in a
1) A, B, C, D, E 2) A, E, B, C, D reversible manner to form oxyhaemoglobin
3) A, C, B, D, E 4) A, B, D, E, C
B. Each haemoglobin molecule can carry a
Ans. (1) maximum of four molecules of O2
197. Match the column I with column II.
C. Binding of oxygen with haemoglobin is
[ NCERT Pg. 268] primarily related to partial pressure of O2
Column I Column II D. About 97 percent of O2 is transported by RBC
a Tracheal tubes i Arachnida in the blood
b Gills ii Frog
1) Two
c Moist skin iii Cockroach
d Book lungs iv Fishes 2) Four
1) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i 2) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii 3) Three

3) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i 4) a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-iii 4) One
Ans. (1) Ans. (2)
PCB TEST : 03(40) 30 Date : 12/12/2023

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Physics - 50 Chemistry - 50 Biology - 100

• Today’s Test Syllabus •

PHYSICS 3. A gas is found to obey the law p2V = constant.

PCB TEST : 03(40) 1 Date : 12/12/2023

Space For Rough Work

PCB TEST : 03(40) 2 Date : 12/12/2023

Space For Rough Work

PCB TEST : 03(40) 3 Date : 12/12/2023

Space For Rough Work

PCB TEST : 03(40) 4 Date : 12/12/2023

Space For Rough Work

PCB TEST : 03(40) 5 Date : 12/12/2023

Space For Rough Work

PCB TEST : 03(40) 6 Date : 12/12/2023

1) a d b c 2) d a c b 1) A corresponds to O2, B to He and C to H2

Space For Rough Work

PCB TEST : 03(40) 7 Date : 12/12/2023

PCB TEST : 03(40) 8 Date : 12/12/2023

Space For Rough Work

PCB TEST : 03(40) 9 Date : 12/12/2023

PCB TEST : 03(40) 10 Date : 12/12/2023

p) Covalent compound w ith

[ NCERT Page No. 111] q) Ionic compound w ith

Space For Rough Work

PCB TEST : 03(40) 11 Date : 12/12/2023

PCB TEST : 03(40) 12 Date : 12/12/2023

Space For Rough Work

PCB TEST : 03(40) 13 Date : 12/12/2023

PCB TEST : 03(40) 14 Date : 12/12/2023

2) Organisms are classified on the basis of 4) Ulothrix and Eudorina

4) Considered fossil records in classification of A B

1) Biochemical taxonomy 110. Mosses are attached to the substratum with

3) In association with fungi and animals [ Pg. 35 & Consept of Reproduction]

4) All of these 1) Multicellular and jacketed

PCB TEST : 03(40) 15 Date : 12/12/2023

1) A, B and C are diploid 1) Aquatic pteridophyte

PCB TEST : 03(40) 16 Date : 12/12/2023

3) Large 4) Sporophyte 1) N2 fixing bacteria Soil fertility

126. Seed habit considered as an important step 2) BGA Phosphorus uptake

a. Ovules remain exposed, both before and 1) Cycas and Pinus

PCB TEST : 03(40) 17 Date : 12/12/2023

1) Chloride shift 174. A graph is plotted between pO 2 and

PCB TEST : 03(40) 21 Date : 12/12/2023

1) 5 ml of CO to the alveoli 1) Total volume of air a person can expire after a

PCB TEST : 03(40) 24 Date : 12/12/2023

Physics - 50 Chemistry - 50 Biology - 100

P-11 on your Answer

PHYSICS 2. In a mixture of gases, the average number of

PCB TEST : 03(40) 1 Date : 12/12/2023

PCB TEST : 03(40) 2 Date : 12/12/2023

1) EAB = EAC < EAD , WAB > 0 , WAC = 0, WAD < 0

11. One mole of an ideal monoatomic gas

PCB TEST : 03(40) 3 Date : 12/12/2023

PCB TEST : 03(40) 4 Date : 12/12/2023

24. Heat energy absorbed

25. If Q and W represent the heat supplied to

PCB TEST : 03(40) 5 Date : 12/12/2023

27. One mole of an ideal monoatomic gas at 1 T m

1 30. Assertion : Heat is supplied at constant rate from

PCB TEST : 03(40) 6 Date : 12/12/2023

32. The spectrum of a [ NCERT Page-309, 334]

PCB TEST : 03(40) 7 Date : 12/12/2023

40. In the process shown in