1. What is the primary disadvantage of germanium over silicon in the manufacture of A. Clippers * C.

Multipliers
semiconductor devices? B. Clampers D. Snubbers
A. availability C. temperature sensitivity *
B. difficult to manufacture D. high cost 19. It is the process whereby an applied waveform of zero average value is changed to one
that has a dc level.
2. Which semiconductor material is the preferred choice in the manufacture of high-speed A. Conversion C. Amplification
and VLSI integrated circuit designs? B. Rectification * D. Regulation
A. silicon C. gallium nitride
B. germanium D. gallium arsenide * 20. It is a special purpose diode that has no pn junction and characterized by a very low
junction capacitance making it ideal for high speed applications.
3. A phenomenon wherein a diode generates dc all by itself if sufficient radiant energy A. PIN diode C. Hot carrier diode *
strikes its junction B. Tunnel diode D. Step-recovery diode
A. Photovoltaic effect * C. Photoelectric effect
B. Photoemission D. Photoluminescence 21. A depletion region is formed by
A. Recombination of electrons and holes
4. The purpose of pentavalent impurity is to B. diffusion of charges across the pn junction *
A. Reduce the conductivity of silicon C. The boundary of p type and n type material
B. Increase the number of holes D. The collision of a proton and neutron
C. Increase the number of free electrons *
D. Create minority carriers 22. It is the most accurate equivalent circuit for a diode
A. Ideal model C. Practical model
5. Which semiconductor is best preferred in the manufacture of solar cells? B. Simplified model D. Piecewise-linear model *
A. germanium C. silicon
B. selenium * D. gallium arsenide 23. If the reverse bias exceeds the avalanche voltage in a p-n junction
A. The junction will be destroyed
6. What determines whether a substance is an insulator, semiconductor or conductor? B. The junction will insulate, no current will flow
A. The separation between the valence and forbidden band C. The junction will conduct current *
B. The separation between the conduction band and the valence band * D. The capacitance will become extremely high
C. The separation between the conduction and forbidden band
D. The separation between the forbidden band and the energy gap 24. Which rectifier is preferable for high current applications?
A. Half-wave C. Center-tap *
7. Generally, what happens to the resistance of semiconductor materials when subjected to B. Full-wave D. Bridge type
high temperature?
A. Increases 25. The emission of energy in an IRED is caused by
B. Decreases * A. High frequency radio waves C. Electron energy level changes *
C. The resistance does not change or is not affected B. Rectification D. none of the above
D. It decreases or increases depending on the type of semiconductor material used.
26. The small leakage current in a reverse biased diode is due to
8. When a pn junction is reverse biased, the capacitance depends on all of the following A. Thermal energy C. Minority carriers *
except: B. Electrons D. Collision of electrons
A. The frequency of operation *
B. The width of the depletion region 27. The reverse saturation current increases with an increase in
C. The cross sectional area of the junction A. temperature * C. A and B
D. The type of semiconductor material B. reverse bias voltage D. the leakage current is unaffected

9. Which of the following does not result from adding an acceptor impurity? 28. Determine the thermal voltage for a temperature of 30°C.
A. The material becomes p-type A. 25 mV C. 27 mV
B. Current flows mainly in as holes B. 26 mV * D. 28 mV
C. Most carriers have positive charge
D. The substance has a surplus of electrons * 29. The knee voltage for GaAs is
A. 0.9 V C. 1.4 V
10. The energy gap between the valence and conduction bands in silicon is B. 1.2 V * D. 1.7 V
A. 1.1 eV * C. 0.67 eV
B. 1.43 eV D. 0.7 eV 30. Calculate the threshold voltage of a silicon diode at a temperature of 0°C if at 25°C. it
has a threshold voltage of 0.7 V.
11. The nucleus of a copper atom contains how many protons? A. 0.72 V C. 0.76 *
A. 14 C. 18 B. 0.74 V D. 0.77
B. 27 D. 29 *
31. The reverse saturation current of a diode at 20°C is 10 nA. What will be the value of the
12. The purpose of doping is to: reverse saturation current at 100°C?
A. Make the charge carriers move faster. A. 2.56 µA * C. 2.43 µA
B. Cause holes to flow. B. 2.75 µA D. 2.63 µA
C. Give a semiconductor material certain properties. *
D. Protect devices from damage in case of transients. 32. Which resistance of a diode is defined by tangent line at the Q-point?
A. DC resistance C. dynamic resistance *
13. If you wanted to produce a p-type semiconductor, which of these would you use? B. average AC resistance D. static resistance
A. Acceptor atoms * C. Pentavalent impurity
B. Donor atoms D. Silicon 33. The capacitance of a diode in reverse bias is called
A. diffusion capacitance C. storage capacitance
14. An intrinsic semiconductor has some holes in it at room temperature. What causes these B. transition capacitance * D. reverse capacitance
holes?
A. Doping C. thermal energy * 34. A series diode circuit with a voltage source of 10 V is connected to a 500-Ω resistor.
B. free electrons D. valence electrons Determine the diode current.
A. 18.6 mA * C. 14.8 mA
15. Holes flow the opposite way from electrons because B. 16.8 mA D. 15.7 mA
A. Charge carriers flow continuously.
B. Charge carriers are passed from atom to atom. * 35. A series diode circuit with a voltage source of 10 V is connected to a 500-Ω resistor.
C. They have the same polarity. What is the power dissipation in the diode?
D. No! Holes flow in the same direction as electrons. A. 10 mW C. 12 mW
B. 11 mW D. 13 mW *
16. How does doping support current flow in a semiconductor material?
A. It increases the number of carriers in the material * 36. A series diode configuration has an 8 V supply and a 2.2 kΩ resistor. Find the power
B. The electrons gain additional energy from the impurities dissipation in the resistor.
C. No! Doping does not affect conduction. A. 25.32 mW C. 29.29 mW
D. Answers A and B B. 22.44 mW D. 24.22 mW *

17. An intrinsic semiconductor has some holes in it at room temperature. What causes these For items __ and __, refer to the figure below:
holes?
A. Doping C. thermal energy *
B. free electrons D. valence electrons

18. These are networks or circuits that employ a diode to remove a portion of the input signal
without distorting the remaining part of the applied waveform.
 51. What happens to the gain when the bypass capacitor in a CE amplifier is removed?
A. The gain decreases * C. The gain is unaffected
B. The gain increases D. The gain will become zero

52. For a common base configuration, the input impedance is

A. low * C. high
B. moderate D. very high

53. Which transistor parameter has a value of approximately equal to one?

A. hfb * C. hib
37. Solve for the current I B. hfe D. none of the above
A. 2.17 mA C. 1.35 mA
B. 2.07 mA * D. 4.23 mA 54. A BJT amplifier can be considered as a
A. Voltage controlled current source
38. Determine Vo B. Voltage controlled voltage source
A. 4.55 V C. –0.45 V * C. Current controlled current source *
B. 0.45 V D. –4.55 V D. Current controlled voltage source

39. Within the linear region of operation, what happens to VCE as the current IC increases in a 55. According to the datasheet of a transistor, its hfe is equal to 100. If this transistor is used
BJT? as common base, determine the parameter alpha?
A. It would increase as well A. Cannot be determined C. 101
B. It would decrease * B. 0.01 D. 0.99 *
C. It remains unchanged
D. It increases and then decreases when saturation is reached 56. Which of the following has the highest current gain and is used mainly for buffering?
A. Common source C. Common collector *
40. If the generator voltage is 5 mV in an emitter follower, the output voltage across the load B. Common base D. Common emitter
is closest to
A. 5 mV * 57. The voltage across the load resistor of a CE amplifier that uses a capacitive coupling is
B. 150 mV A. DC and AC C. AC only *
C. 0.25 V B. DC only D. Neither dc nor ac
D. 0.5 V
58. What is the most distinguishing characteristic of an emitter-follower amplifier?
A. Its high current gain *
B. Its very low input impedance
C. Its relatively high output impedance
D. All of the above

59. If R1 is open in a voltage divider circuit, which of these is true?

A. DC base voltage is VCC
B. DC collector voltage is zero
C. Output voltage is normal
D. DC base voltage is zero *

60. Which of the following is equal to the parameter re?

A. hre C. hie
B. hib * D. hfb

61. When proper conditions are met, which biasing technique is generally independent of β?
A. Emitter-stabilized circuit C. Voltage divider *
41. Determine the dc collector current. B. Collector feedback circuit D. Fixed biased circuit
A. 2.35 mA C. 3.22 mA
B. 2.22 mA * D. 3.52 mA 62. A load of 10 kΩ is initially connected across the output of an amplifier. If another load
would be placed in parallel with the initial load, the voltage gain would
42. Calculate the dc collector-emitter voltage. A. Decrease *
A. 1.35 V C. 2.15 V B. Increase
B. 2.53 V D. 1.15 V * C. Increase or decrease depending whether the second load is greater than or less than
the initial load
43. Solve for re. D. Basically not change
A. 11.8 Ω * C. 10.52 Ω
B. 12.78 Ω D. 9.62 Ω 63. For a given n-channel JFET, IDSS = 12mA and VP = 6V, calculate VGS at ID = 4mA.
A. 2.54 V C. 5.24 V
44. For an input voltage of 10 mV, determine the load voltage for a load of 25 kΩ. B. –2.54 V * D. –5.24 V
A. 76.3 mV C. 85.3 mV *
B. 50.4 mV D. 96.5 mV 64. The threshold voltage of a certain n-channel E-MOSFET is 2 V. The value of k is 0.278 ×
10–2 A/V2. Find the value of VGS when the drain current is 8 mA.
45. Where is the Q-point located in the dc loadline when a transistor is in cut-off? A. 3.70 V * C. 7.36 V
A. in quadrant 1 C. along or very near the x-axis * B. 5.36 V D. 2.36 V
B. at the y-axis D. below the x-axis in quadrant 4
65. The constant-current area of a FET lies between
46. For a common-emitter circuit, the voltage output is a maximum when it operates in A. cut-off and saturation
A. linear mode C. saturation B. cut-off and pinch-off
B. active mode D. cut-off * C. 0 and IDSS
D. pinch-off and breakdown *
47. The output is in phase with and has almost the same magnitude as the input in
A. emitter-follower * C. common-base 66. An E-MOSFET that operates at cutoff or in the ohmic region is an example of
B. common-source D. common-emitter A. A current source
B. An active load
48. Which of the following statements is not true for a common-base amplifier? C. A passive load
A. Its power gain is almost the same as its voltage gain D. A switching device *
B. The output voltage is 180 degrees out of phase with the input *
C. The output voltage is amplified and is in-phase with the output 67. The region to the left of the pinch-off locus in the FET characteristic curve is referred to
D. The current gain is always less than 1 as the _____ region.
A. saturation C. ohmic *
49. A transistor would operate as an amplifier in what mode of operation? B. cut-off D. all of the above
A. linear * C. cut-off
B. saturation D. breakdown 68. A certain p-channel E-MOSFET has a If VGS = 0 V, the drain current is
A. 0 A * C. maximum
50. A transistor biasing technique wherein the emitter resistance is divided into two to B. ID(on) D. IDSS
minimize the effect of the re?
A. Collector feedback C. Voltage divider bias 69. A D-MOSFET is considered to be
B. swamping * D. emitter-stabilized bias A. normally off device
B. normally on device *
 C. current controlled device 85. The gain of the amplifier at midband is 25 dB. What is its gain at the critical frequency?
D. high power switch A. 0 dB C. 22 dB *
B. 19 dB D. 15 dB

86. When the gain of an op amp is 10, its bandwidth is 100 kHz. What will be the gain at 1
MHz?
A. 0 dB * C. 100 dB
B. 10 dB D. 7.07 dB

87. Calculate the output offset voltage of an op-amp circuit with Ri = 2 kΩ and Rf = 150 kΩ an
input offset current, IIO = 100 nA
A. 15 mV * C. 20 mV
B. 25 mV D. 30 mV

88. In the inverting configuration of an operational-amplifier circuit where are the (a) input
signal and (b) feedback signal applied?
A. (a) Inverting input (b) Inverting input *
B. (a) Inverting input (b) Noninverting input
C. (a) Noninverting input (b) Inverting input
D. (a) Noninverting input (b) Noninverting input
70. Solve for VGS
A. –1.1 V * C. –1.3 V 89. An ICVS amplifier has no output voltage. A possible trouble is
B. –1.2 V D. –1.4 V A. No negative supply voltage C. No feedback voltage
B. Shorted feedback resistor * D. Open load resistor
71. Determine ID
A. 3.1 mA C. 3.4 mA 90. The closed-loop input impedance with an ICVS amplifier is
B. 3.2 mA D. 3.5 mA * A. Usually larger than the open-loop input impedance
B. Equal to the open-loop input impedance
72. The open-loop gain of the operational amplifier is 100,000 and the open-loop bandwidth C. Sometimes less than the open-loop impedance
is 10 hertz. If we make it a closed-loop with a gain of 10, what is the bandwidth of the D. Ideally zero *
circuit?
A. 100 kHz * C. 350 kHz 91. Negative feedback does not improve
B. 500 kHz D. 583 kHz A. Stability of voltage gain
B. Nonlinear distortion in later stages
73. In an inverting op amp circuit, Ri = 100 Ω and Rf = 1 kΩ. What is the gain? C. Output offset voltage
A. -1 C. 11 D. Power bandwidth *
B. -10 * D. 9
92. A VCVS amplifier has no output voltage. A possible trouble is
74. Calculate the over-all gain of a non inverting op amp circuit whose Ri = 100 Ω and Rf = 1 A. Shorted load resistor * C. Excessive input voltage
kΩ. B. Open feedback resistor D. Open load resistor
A. -1 C. 11 *
B. -10 D. 9 93. The virtual ground at the input of an op amp is due to
A. the very high input impedance
75. Calculate the input voltage in a non inverting op amp circuit whose Ri = 100 Ω and Rf = 1 B. the very high bandwidth of the op amp
kΩ if the output voltage is 550 mV. C. the very high open loop gain *
A. -50 mV C. 550 mV D. all of the above
B. -5 mV D. 50 mV *
94. The closed-loop gain of an op amp is determined by
76. In an op amp adder circuit, R1 = R2 = R3 = 100 Ω, Rf = 1 kΩ and V1 = V2 = V3 = 50 mV. A. the internal design of the op amp
Calculate the output voltage. B. the gain bandwidth product
A. -1.5 V * C. 0.5 V C. the unity gain frequency
B. 1.5 V D. -0.5 V D. the external resistors connected to it *

77. What is the cutoff frequency of an op-amp if the unity-gain frequency is 1.5 MHz and the 95. The bandwidth of an op amp is equal to
open-loop gain is 100,000? A. its critical frequency *
A. 5 Hz C. 15 Hz B. the difference between the two critical frequencies
B. 10 Hz D. 20 Hz C. unity gain frequency
D. gain bandwidth product
78. What is the slew rate of an op-amp if the output voltages change from 2 V to 3 V in 0.2
ms? 96. What is responsible for the roll-off above the critical frequency of an op amp?
A. 5 V/ms * C. 2 V/ms A. the external coupling and bypass capacitors
B. 3 V/ms D. 1 V/ms B. the internal coupling capacitors in an op amp
C. the stray and parasitic capacitance
79. For an op-amp having a slew rate SR = 5 V/ms, what is the maximum closed-loop D. the RC lag circuits internal to an op amp *
voltage gain that can be used when the input signal varies by 0.2 V in 10 ms?
A. 150 C. 250 * 97. What happens when the initial slope of the signal is less than the slew rate?
B. 200 D. 300 A. slew rate distortion occurs
B. the signal is linearly amplified *
80. Calculate the output impedance of an inverting op-amp using the 741 op-amp (ro = 75 Ω, C. harmonic distortion occurs
AOL = 200 V/mV) if R1 = 100 Ω and Rf = 1 kΩ. D. amplitude distortion occurs
A. 0.011 Ω C. 0.0375 Ω
B. 0.00375 Ω * D. 0.375 Ω 98. In the common mode, if the input signals to an op amp have the same frequency and
polarity but different magnitude, the output
81. Determine the voltage gain with feedback for a voltage-series feedback having A = -100, A. is always zero
R1 = 15 kΩ, Ro = 20 kΩ and a feedback of β = –0.25 B. is the sum of the two inputs
A. 3.85 C. -9.09 C. can be zero or greater than zero
B. -3.85 * D. 9.09 D. is never zero *

82. Determine the input impedance with feedback for a voltage-series feedback having A = – 99. If the gain of an op amp decreases,
100, R1 = 15 kΩ, Ro = 20 kΩ, and a feedback of β = –0.25. A. the bandwidth decreases as well
A. 110 kΩ C. 390 kΩ * B. the bandwidth remains unaffected
B. 290 kΩ D. 510 kΩ C. the bandwidth will increase *
D. the amplifier becomes nonlinear
83. Determine the output impedance with feedback for a voltage-series feedback having A =
–100, R1 = 15 kΩ, Ro = 20 kΩ, and a feedback of β = –0.25. 100. A comparator uses
A. 0.2 kΩ C. 1.82 kΩ A. positive feedback
B. 392.16 kΩ D. 769.23 Ω * B. negative feedback
C. positive or negative feedback
84. What is the unity-gain frequency of an amplifier whose upper critical frequency is 10 MHz D. positive or no feedback at all *
if the closed-loop gain is 20?
A. 200 MHz * C. 500 kHz
B. 20 MHz D. 1 MHz