OAU Pume Science Pq and Answer

Examsguru.
Net – OAU IFE PAST QUESTIONS WITH SOLUTIONS FOR SCIENCES 2009 - 2014
OBAFEMI AWOLOWO UNIVERSITY

POST UTME
Past questions with solution
English language questions 2014
========================================================================================
Choose the most appropriate option from a - d to 7. Did you know we were very fortunate to run
complete the gaps in the following sentences. __________for the newly elected president of
1. The high-profile witness has been discredited the country when he was campaigning for the
having been accused of being with the truth in office?
his testimony. A. errant
A. biological B. errands
B. geographical C. an errand
C. circumventing D. around
D. economical 8. I am sure that if you probe further, the accused
2. The jailed businessman has left his family in person will reveal where the
__________due to the confiscation of his __________money is kept.
property by the government. A. pilfered
A. bliss B. missed
B. quandary C. lost
C. opulence D. robbed
D. Eldorado 9. I was waving frantically but you drove
3. While the host community was condemned _________me.
roundly for their hostility, the visiting contingent A. past
was applauded for their__________ B. pass
A. friendliness C. passed
B. hospitality D. passing
C. dexterity
D. methodology Choose the option nearest in meaning to the
4. It is hard to quantify that__________ the italicised words in the sentences below.
abducted Chibok girls would have gone 10. You need to go and study the etymology of the
through since they were taken away by the underlined words in the returned essay,’ the
dreaded Boko Haram insurgents, lecturer told the student.
A. rape A. meaning
B. trauma B. technicality
C. isolation C. originality
D. insecurity D. origin
5. The Federal Government has expressed the 11. The erratic power supply these days has
fear that the violent activities of the insurgents caused a lot of damage lo household items
may _________ if powerful foreign assistance that use electricity,
is not received soon. A. lackadaisical
A. extrapolate B. regular
B. proliferate C. uneven
C. metamorphose D. high-voltage
D. escalate
Choose the correct option from letters a d to fill
Fill in the blank spaces with the most appropriate the blank spaces in the sentences below.
option from options lettered a - d. 12. He won the elections but many people were by his
6. The driver was reckless, the road was slippery thugs, and thus many said his was a. ________
due to the early morning downpour, and A. Philistine victory
________ there was a crash that claimed two B. pyrrhic victory
lives, C. crocodile victory
A. frantically D. pseudo victory
B. subsequently 13. The aspirant for the highest office in the coming
C. consequently elections has stated distributing live cows to cad
D. unequivocally electorate in his ward: but some rejected it because
they considered it a ________
© 2014 www.examsguru.net | All Right Reserved Enquiries: call +234 (0) 802 652 9647 Page 1
Examsguru.Net – OAU IFE PAST QUESTIONS WITH SOLUTIONS FOR SCIENCES 2009 - 2014
A. an Eldorado gift 18. It was apparent that the international

B. Grievous gift businessman who imported such inglorious
C. Greece gift assortment had agents with prongs, long
D. Greek gift enough to dig deep into deepest and
14. The workers expressed their heartfelt thanks farthermost refuse bins and dumps of Europe
_________the management for the notable to be able to meet the demand back home.
improvement to their conditions of service From the quotation above, it is apparent that
A. toward the writer is being
B. with a. metaphorical c. sarcastic
C. towards d. specific b. categorical
D. to 19. Another word that means the same as the word
15. The man told him point blank that his ‘threadbare’ as it is used in the massage is
argument was bereft __________sound a. worn-out b. dirty
reasoning. c. expensive d. cheap
A. with B. of
C. in D. off Fill out the gaps in the passage below with the
correct option from the list provided in brackets in
Read the passage and use it to answer questions 16 front of the gaps.
- 19. 20 _________ (a. Jargon b. Vernacular c.
As we both fed our eyes wistfully at the used Dialects d. Wazobia) is specialized language
underwear section, Vivian noticed a heap of women’s that appears in a nonspecialized context, thus
underwear, a mixture of braziers of various sizes giving a 21 _____________ (a. Generalized
designs, panties, gstrings and tongs, underskirts b. Technical c. Restricted d. Straightforward)
lingerie of different colours, all heaped and scattered flavour to statements that would be better
on a big bedspread like a pile of rubbish. Some quite 22___________ (a. Addressed b. Written
ancient and threadbare, while a few appeared to have c. Expressed d. Spoken) in everyday words.
suffered much oppression in the hand private parts of When you are writing a 23________ (a. Paper
their previous owners. It was apparent that the b. Document c. Treatise d. Pamphlet) in, say,
international businessman who imported such economics, anthropology, or psychology, you
inglorious assortment had agents with prongs, enough can and should use terms that are meaningful
to dig deep into the deepest and farthermost refuse within the 24________ (a. Pool b. Conundrum c.
bins and dumps of Europe to be able to meet the Register d. Field) cash flow, kinship structure,
paranoid, and so forth. But those same terms
demand back home.
become jargon when used out of 25__________
16. We can infer from the passage above that
(a. Place b. Meaning c. Contest d. Context).
a. effort of international businessmen was
commended by the writer for their
contribution Nigeria’s economy
ENGLISH LANGUAGE SOLUTION 2014
b. the writer believes the’ Nigerian
1. (a) circumventing to find a way of avoiding
government has not been doing enough’
restrictions imposed by a rule or law without
to encourage importers of goods to remain
actually breaking it.
in business and recoup money they have
(b) Geographical — relating to geography or to
invested in their business
the geography of a specific region.
c. the writer makes comic comments un the
(c) Biological — related to living organisms
porous Nigerian borders through which
(d) Economical — resourcefully frugal
contraband goods are imported into the
The correct option is D — It is an idiomatic
country
expression which means a way of saying that
d. the writer subtly castigates and derides the
somebody has left out some important facts
patronage of substandard goods that dots
especially when you do not want to say they
the Nigerian markets in the name of
are lying.
imported goods
2. (a) bliss — complete happiness
17. _________all heaped and scattered on a big
(b) quandary a state of uncertainty or
bedspread like a pile of rubbish’ The figure of
indecision as to what to do in a difficult
speech used in that quotation is
situation.
A. metaphor
(c) opulence — characterized by an ob\ious or
B simile
lavish display of wealth or affluence.
C. hyperbole
d) Eldorado
D. pun
The correct option is B
3. Friendliness word “PYRRHIC” actually originated from

The correct option is B PYRRHUS, the King of Epirus who defeated
the Romans in 279BC but lost many of his
4. Trauma means emotional shock or bodily men. The correct option is B;
injury.
The correct option is B 13. The correct option is D; Greek gift
5. Extrapolate means to estimate a value that 14. Thanks takes the preposition “to”
falls outside a range of known values
- Proliferate - is an intransitive verb which 15. Bereft takes the preposition “of’
- means “to increase greatly in number’’ The correct option is B
- Metamorphose - to change physical form 16. The correct option is D
- Escalate- to become or cause something to 17. The correct option is B
become greater, more serious, or more 18. The correct option is C
intense. 19. The correct option is A
The synonyms of escalate 20. The correct option is A
Intensify/ worsen/ deteriorate 21. The correct option is B
6. - frantically means anxiously, agitatedly, 22. The correct option is D
Desperately 23. The correct option is C
- Subsequently means successively, next, 24. The correct option is D
afterword, after 25. The correct option is D
- Consequently means as a result,
therefore, thus 26. (a) circumventing — to find a way of avoiding
- Unequivocally means clearly, restrictions imposed by a rule or law
unambiguously, explicitly without actually breaking it.
The correct option is C (b) Geographical — relating to geography or to
The accident happened ‘as a result” of (lie the geography of a specific region.
recklessness of the driver, slippery road and (c) Biological related to living organisms
early morning downpour. (d) Economical — resourcefully frugal
7. “run errands” . The correct option is B The correct option is D
8. Pilfer means to steal small items of little value,
especially habitually. 27. (a) bliss — complete happiness
The correct option is A (b) quandary — a state of uncertainty or
Please note that when you use “rob”, it means indecision as to what to do in a difficult
to take something illegally from a person or situation.
place, especially by using FORCE, THREATS, (c) opulence characterized by an obvious or
or VIOLENCE. lavish display of wealth or affluence.
(d) Eldorado —
9. B — When something/an action, is performed The correct option is B
in quick tempro especially when it can’t be 28. Friendliness
done in slow motion, the verb will remain in its The correct option is B
base form e.g. take a salute, smash an egg,
leap over the fence 29. Trauma means emotional shock or bodily
The correct option is B injury.
10. Etymology — is the study of history or origins
of words. 30. Extrapolate means to estimate a value that
The correct option is D falls outside a range of known values
- Proliferate is an intransitive verb which
11. When something is erratic, it means it is not means “to increase greatly in number”
consistent, regular or predictable. Uneven - Metamorphose — to change physical form
means varying and inconsistent especially - Escalate to become or cause something to
inequality, thoroughness, or duration. become greater, more serious, or more
The correct option is C intense.
The synonyms of escalate are intensify /
12. Pyrrhic Victory means a victory that is not worsen/ deteriorate
worth winning because the winner has 31. - frantically means anxiously, agitatedl1
suffered or lost so much in winning it. This desperately
- Subsequently means successively, next. 47. The correct option is D

afterword, after 48. The Correct option is C
- Consequently means as a result, 49. The correct option is D
therefore. thus 50. The correct option is B
- Unequivocally means clearly,
unambiguously, explicitly
The correct option is C
The accident happened “as a result” of the
recklessness of the driver, slippery road and
early morning downpour.
32. “run errands” . The correct option is B
33. Pilfer means to steal small items of little value,

especially habitually.
The correct option is A
Please note that when you use “rob”, it means
to take something illegally from a person or
place, especially by using FORECE, TI-
TREATS, or VIOLENCE.
34. B - When something/an action, is performed in

quick tempro especially when it can’t be done
in slowmotion, the verb will remain in its base
form e.g. take a salute, smash an egg, leap
over the fence
35. Etymology — is the study of history or origins

of words.
The correct option is D
36. When something is erratic, it means it is not

consistent, regular or predictable. Uneven
means varying and inconsistent especially
inequality, thoroughness, or duration.
The correct option is C
37. Pyrrhic Victory means a victory that is not

worth winning because the winner has
suffered or lost so much in winning it. This
word “PYRRHIC” actually originated from
PYRRHUS, the King of Epirus who defeated the
Romans in 279BC but lost many of his men.
The correct option is B;
38. The correct option is D; Greek gift
39. Thanks takes the preposition “to”
40. Bereft takes the preposition “of’

41. The correct option is D
42. The correct option is B
43. The correct option is C
44. The correct option is A
45. The correct option is A
46. The correct option is B

POST UTME
========================================================================================
8. Don’t ………’, said the leader, I want a
decision now’
In each of the question 1-3, choose the option nearest A. prevaricate
in meaning to the word(s) or phrase in italic. B. predicate
1. Nobody could say precisely when the landlord C. precipitate
became a recluse D. be pejorative
A. loner
B. drunkard In each of the questions 9-11, choose the most
C. nincompoop appropriate option opposite in meaning to the word or
D. cantankerous phrases in italics
2. If I had known his delicate state of mind, I 9. He has been advised to beware of political
would not have broached the matter jobbers if he hopes to succeed.
A. told them A. neophytes
B. divulged B. masquerades
C. brought up C. stockbrokers
D. cancelled D. masterminds
3. Don’t talk like that; you know the Professor will 10. What a tangled web we weave, when we try to
not entertain such vituperative remarks. deceive!
A. irresponsible A. complicated
B. insulting B. crooked
C. angry C. simple
D. illiterate D. Loose
11. She devoted too much time to the peripheral
In each of the questions 4-8, fill each gap with the aspects
most appropriate option from the list provided. A. superficial
4. My daughter would become ………. If I paid B. minor
no attention to her behaviour C. main
A. rhascally D. Real
B. rhapsodically
C. rascally For question 12, choose the letter which contains the
D. rascality correct phonetic Symbol in the underlined sounds
5. When the soldiers saw that resistance was below.
………. They stopped fighting 12. Women
A. inadvertent A. /I/ B. /e/ C. /ou/ D. /u/
B. futile
C. inappropriate For question 13, choose the word which contains the
D. insurmountable correct sound as given in each of the sounds below.
6. The last time the man saw his ex-wife, 13. /v/
she……….. A. off B. fan C. of D. Four
A. was thinking of a proposal of starting a new
business In each of questions 14 and 15, choose the option that
B. was intending to start a new business best completes the gap(s)
C. intended to start a new business 14. The car owner does not think about the - of
D. was going to start a new business his vehicle and other payments involved in
7. Two days before the execution, the robber owning it.
was taken to the place where he would be A. transportation
………. With doleful eyes, he looked at the B. depreciation
spot where his execution ……….. C. calculation
A. hunged/was to be taken place D. Appreciation
B. hanging/ shall take place 15. We shall offer a good job to a - to register
C. hung/would take place guests in the Central Hotel.
D. hanged/was to take place
A. waiter A. strive not to be wasteful

B. watchman B. realistically find an equation
C. cashier C. purposely find a balance
D. receptionist D. deliberately try to tight nature
23. The main idea of this passage is that
In questions 16 and 17, fill in the right word or phrase A. nature is heartless.
16. There is not - sense in what that politician has B. man should control the birth-rate
just said. C. man should change nature’s course gradually
A. many D. pestilence causes more deaths than war
B. plenty 24. The author observes that
C. lot of A. war, pestilence and famine were caused by
D. much the extravagance of nature
17. I’m sorry I can’t give you any of the oranges, I B. it was wise at a time when mankind did not
have . . . left. interfere with normal production.
A. few B. little C. nature is heartless and senseless.
C. only a little D. a few D. there was a time when uncontrolled birth
made sense.
Fill in the gaps in the following sentences with 25. Which of these statements does not express
appropriate preposition. the opinion of the author?
18. Lawrence did not win the contract - the long run A. many people had died in the past through
A. at B. in want and disease.
C. on D. to B. mankind should not have the maximum
19. Memuna was careful not to tall - Ameen’s tricks number of children possible.
A. into B. for C. mankind has started to interfere with the
C. in D. with work of nature
20. The Commander had placed his troop - alert. D. Man’s present relationship with7\ = nature
A. in B. on in matters of birth and death is a happy
C. at D. over one.
PASSAGE ENGLISH LANGUAGE SOLUTION 2013

All over the world till lately, and in most of the world 1. B - A jobber as the Italised words is an expert
still today, mankind has been following the course of who specialises in buying and selling of shares
nature that is to say, it has been breeding up to the for people. Therefore, its opposite will be
maximum. To let nature take her extravagant course in masquerades which means people who
the reproduction of the human race may have made pretend to be what they are not.
sense in an age in which we were also letting her take
her course in decimating mankind by the casualties of 2. C - The word peripheral in this content means
war, pestilence, and famine. Being human, we have at not too important like the main part of
least revolted against that senseless waste. We have something and it opposite will be main.
started to impose on nature’s heartless place a
humane new order of our own. But when once man 3. The word tangled means twisted together in
has begun to interfere with nature, he cannot afford to an untidy way or complicated and not too easy
stop half way. We cannot, with impunity, cut down the to understand and its opposite will be simple.
death rate, and at the same time allow the birth-rate to
go on taking nature’s course. We must consciously try 4. The word women is transcribed in this form/wimin/,
to establish an equilibrium or sooner or later, famine the “O” is the long vowel sound /i/ -A
will stalk abroad again.
5. The world “of’ is transcribed thus /av/ or / V/
Now answer the following questions. or /DV/ and among all the options, it is only “of’
that has the sound /v/ - C is the answer.
21. ‘humane’ as used in the passage means
A. wise 6. B - Depreciation means to lose value over a
B. human period of time and car does not appreciate, but
C. benevolent depreciates.
D. sensible
22. ‘We must consciously try to establish an 7. D - A receptionist is a person who deals with
equilibrium’ in the passage implies that people arriving at a hotel or in an office in a
mankind must company.
22. A - Few as a word shows not enough to be

8. C - From the last three lines of the passage, it shared with another person and is also used
is evident that man has been advised to go in for countable nouns
a gradual way to achieve its aim in order to
strike a balance. 23. B - Fall collocates or goes with the preposition
for. Fall for something therefore, means to be
9. A - War, pestilence and famine are embedded tricked into believing something that is not
in nature which if left uncontrolled, will exalate true.
to maximum.
24. B - Long run goes with preposition in as an
10. D - The above three options express the. idiom and in the long run means after a very
author’s mind. long period of time.
11. C - The word humane is being kind to people 25. B - Alert also goes with the preposition on and
or animals by making sure they do not suffer to be on the alert means to be ever ready or
more than is necessary and benevolent means prepared for something.
to be kind, helpful and generous.
12. C - It means to strike a balance and not
overdo things.
13. C - Broach means to begin a discussion which

people disagree about especially because t is
embarrassing.
14. C - The word vituperative is an adjective which

means cruel and angry remarks or criticism.
15. A - Recluse is a noun and it means a person

who like being alone and it means also a
loner.
16. B –
17. C - A rascally child is one who does not

respect other people and enjoys playing tricks
on them.
18. B - the word futile is an adjective which means

pointless or having no point, because there is
no chance of success.
19. A - Prevaricate is a verb which means to beat

bout the bush and not giving a direct answer to
a question because you want to hide the both.
20. D - The word hang can be used for both

human beings or animate and nominate
objects, but when it is used for objects, its past
tense form is hung while when it is used for a
human being, its past tense form will be
hanged.
21. D - Sense is an uncountable noun and cannot

be used within any as means is used for
countable nouns such as human beings.

POST UTME
========================================================================================
Choose the correct options to fill the gaps in the Choose from the options a-d the word opposite iii
three questions below. meaning to the underlined word.
9. The criminal’s answers to the question during
1. I don’t understand what exactly you were interrogation were evasive
saying. What is the name of the subordinate (a) harsh
clause in this sentence? (b) outspoken
(a) adverbial clause (c) clever
(b) nominal clause (d) direct
(c) adjectival clause 10. I guess he is indifferent to our plans to rid
(d) interrogative clause Nigeria of societal ills.
2. Are you going to Lagos __________ your car? (a) interested in
(a) with (b) in (b) opposed to
(c) through (d) by (c) bothered
3. Another name for relative clause is_________ (d) not interested in
(a) adverbial clause 11. The girl is very somber in her style of dressing.
(b) infinitive clause (at solemn
(c) adjectival clause (b) pleasant
(d)relational clause (c) provocative
(d) exposing
Choose from the option a-d the word or phrase that is
nearest in meaning to the word underlined Select from the options a-d the correct meaning of
4. My efforts at making her to see my point were the idiom underlined
rebuffed 12. The manager behaved as if he had bats in the
(a) embraced belfry.
(b) antagonized (a) he was pleasant
(c) snubbed (b) he had strange ideas
(d) successful (c) he was speechless’
5. He is a lout and can’t be relied upon at all. (d) he was angry
(a) shifty 13. I learnt Agnes was off colour this morning. she
(b) thug was not in class.
(c) unserious (a) busy somewhere else
(d) liar (b) not able to wake up early enough
6. The speech was delivered with great trepidation (c) not in her right mind
(a) fear (d) not in good health
(b) dexterity
(c) power Fill in the spaces in the passage below with the
(d) creativity appropriate words
7. He cannot hide his aversion for Kemi’s
unrepentant behavour. One needs to observe the ____14____ of
(a) Abhorrence the____15____ to appreciate how interesting it can be.
(b) sadness I witnessed a land ____16____ many years back. The
(c) ignominy ___17____ had ____18____ those who sold him a
(d) moodiness piece of land to court for ____19_____ on his land.
8. My sister is known by everybody to he Appearing for the defendants the _____20_____
scurrilous . argued that the land had been lying untouched for over
(a) pleasant thirty years and had become a hideout for social
(b) vituperative miscreants.
(c) active A. B. C. D.
(d) inactive 14. Work proceedings hearing working
15. Law document war ruling
16. quarrel Law matter case
17. plaintiff defendant accused criminal 13. D: “Off colour” means to be ill, sick, funny,
18. arrested sued fought prosecuted smutty, dirty, crude, coarse etc.
19. trespassing claiming building working 14. C: Hearing in law registers is the proceeding of
20. legal luminary plaintiff defence counsel criminal
the court in a law case
15. D: Ruling means judgment. It can also be
Choose from the options a-d the appropriate verb
called verdict.
that best completes the following sentences.
16. D
21. Although she suffered a lot of hardship she still ___
17. A: A plaintiff is the complainant in a court case
(a) gloated
18. B
(b) glowed
19. A
(c) flowed
20. C: The defence council is the legal team
(d) splashed
standing for the accused in a law case.
22. Our plane ________down at Aminu Kano
21. B: It means to be happy and satisfied.
International Airport at exactly 12 midnight.
22. D: Aeroplane touches down and not lands.
(a) landed
23. C. 24. D 25. C
(b) descended
(c) got
(d) touched
23. The disease was________ very rapidly in the
community.
(a) widening
(b) catching people
(c) spreading
(d) raging
Choose from the options a-d the correct spelling
24. A. ebmbaras B. enibarras

C. embaras D. embarrass
25. A. conterfit B. conterfiet
C. counterfeit D. counterfeet
2012 ENGLISH LANGUAGE SOLUTION
1. B: If an expression that has an adjectival

marker (what, who e.t.c ) comes after a verb
such expression is a nominal clause / phrase.
2. D: You travel by car, train, aeroplane, road,
air, railway, etc.
3. C: Adjectival clause is the same as relative
clause
4. C: Rebuffed means to turn down a request or
suggestion.
5. A:
6. A: Trepidation means great fear.
7. A: Aversion means hatred. Abhorrence means
the same.
8. B
9. D: To be evasive means to be indirect.
10. A: To be indifferent means not to be interested
in something.
11. C: Somber means dull, sad and serious
likewise solemn.
12. B: For someone to have bats in the belfry
means for the person to behave strangely
especially in strange way.

POST UTME
========================================================================================
circumstances beyond his control.
C. it is entirely due to circumstances beyond
Passage 1 his control
The privilege of blackening one’s stool is not D. it depends entirely on people’s opinion of
granted to every dead chief or queen-mother without him during his lifetime
conditions. The honour is merited only on the fulfilment 2. A destooled chief can be correctly defined
of certain conditions on the part of the occupant of a A. a chief who has committed crimes
stool. The blackening of a king’s stool is regarded as B. a chief who was removed during his reign
the greatest honour that could be conferred on a ruler; C. a chief who has broken taboos
thus in many Akan states only the stools of kings who D. a chief who is more insignificant than a
proved to be true leaders arc blackened. commoner
No royal person’s stool is reserved unless he died 3. What is meant by die on the Stool’?
while still a ruler. A destooled chief is the last person A. dying a miserable and unworthy death
whose memory anybody wants to keep fresh. He must B. dying as a reigning ruler
have broken a taboo or committed a serious crime to C. dying while on stool ii’ the palace
merit his degradation. He may have committed D. dying after a disease of stooling
adultery with his servants’ wives; he may have bought 4. Which of the following is the most suitable title
and sold slaves, who are considered as heirlooms to for the passage?
the stool; he may have used the oath unreasonably; lie A. reasons for desroolment
may have cursed people. All these crimes can deprive B. how to live a worthy life by an Akan ruler
a chief of his regal powers. Once this happens, lie C. an aspect of traditional custom of the Akan
becomes, in the eyes of the people, more insignificant people
than a commoner who has no right whatever to be a D stool blackening by the royal personages.
chief. 5. The most basic condition that qualifies
However, a chief may die on the stool’, and yet not anybody for destoolment is
have his stool blackened. This is so because one must A. dying a worthy death
die a good death’. Sudden death through an accident B. having being crowned as a ruler
destroys the right to have one’s stool blackened. So C. being a ruler with tangible achieve
does death through an unusual disease like leprosy, D. having respect for traditional customs
lunacy, epilepsy and dropsy - which, if discovered in
time, are causes for destoolment. The only exception In the following sentences, choose the option that is
here is death in war which magnifies one’s fame and most nearly opposite to the underlined word.
dignity. But even here, if it is found out that one fell
when retreating or running away, from the enemy, one 6. In any group, there are people who display
is regarded as at treacherous and infamous leader apathy
who should be erased from all historical memory. A A. enthusiasm
chief who suffered from an unclean disease, but got B. patience
cured before dying, is said to have been engaged in a C. respect
personal difficult war with the disease and emerged D. tolerance.
triumphant. Such a chief is of ‘at’ respect. Suicide is, 7. Femi was very open shout his ambition
perhaps, one of the worst deaths a chief could A. silent
undergo. Under no condition whatever will the stool of B. withdrawn
a ruler who takes his own life, or is killed by a fetish’ be C. closed
consecrated. D. secretive.
8. Angela is very indolent.
Answer the following questions on the passage A. perfect
1. Which of the following is true according to the B. devoted
passage? C. diligent
A. it is entirely up, to the chief whether or not D. trustworthy
his stool will eventually be blackened 9. Rather than support the chairman, Olu slept off.
B. it is partly up to him, partly due to A. deny B. oppose
C. doubt D. back waited for her friend.

10. Ngozi’s beauty is natural B. When Camilla was waiting; she spent the
A. unnatural B. artificial time in a profitable way.
C awkward D. fake C. Camilla waited for her friend rather more
than sixty minutes.
Passage 2 D. It was good for Camilla to wait an hour for
The passage below has gaps numbered I to 10. her friend
23. This your instruction and I have had no hand
Immediately following each gap, four options are in it. From this sentence we know that the
provided. Choose the most, appropriate option for writer
each gap. A. does not support the instruction
Coach Samson Siasa has asked that Heartland be B. is refusing to obey the instruction
paid their___11___ salaries and ____12___ so as to C. dislikes the person that issues the
___13____ them to victory against Al-Ably of Egypt in instruction
Sunday’s all- important CAF Championships League D. is somehow happy with the instruction
match. Heartland are third in Group B with four points
___14____ as many matches and need to ___15___ For questions 24 and 25, choose the letter which
defeat at second- placed Al-Ahly to stay in the contains the correct phonetic symbol in the
____16____ for a place in the semi-final of Africa’s underlined sounds below.
most prestigious club competition. Siasia told MTN 24. Plumb A. /m/ B. /b/ C. /ph/ D. /p/
Football.com that the ream would be better motivated 25. Women A. /I/ B. /c/ C. /ou/ D. /u/
if they at least receive their Augustsalaries before the
Al-Athly ____17____. We have to make sure that they SOLUTION
are paid their salaries ____18____ so that they could Passage I
play the game of their lives. The government has done 1. A 2.D 3.B 4.C
very well, but it will be a big morale _____19____ to 5. A. Antonyms refers to words that are opposite in
get paid for them to go out there and play.S asia meanings.
informed MTNFootbafl.com that Heartland plan to 6. Apathy means lack of enthusiasm, interest or
employ the counter _____20____to get a result in emotionally emptiness.
Cairo. The correct answer is A - Enthusiasm
11. A. left over B. outstanding C. owed D. late 7. Open means not sealed, apart, wide or allowing
12. A. match bonuses B. match payments access.
C. match wages D. match fees The correct answer is D - Secretive
13. A. push B. instigate C. spur D. move 8. Indolent means lazy, lethargic, slow to change etc.
14. A. from B. in C. at D. with The correct answer is C - Diligent
15. A. afford B. annul C. avoid D. afford 9. Support means give assistance, tolerance,
16. A. Focus B. centre C. running D. front encouragement etc.
17. A. show B. showdown C. show up D. blow The correct answer is B - Oppose
out 10. Natural derived from nature or existing in; not
18. A. to time B. for time C. as due D. as and made, caused by or processed by humans. The
when correct answer option is B - Artificial
19. A. boomer B. inspier C. booster D. pusher
20. A. attack B attacker C. getter D. goal Passage 2
The passage has to do with registered words i.e words
For questions 21 -23, choose the best options from peculiar to certain fields (Sport, Law etc.)
letters a - d that best summarises the information 11. B – Outstanding 12. A – Match bonuses 13. C –
contained in the underlined sentence. Spur 14. A - From
21. In an answer to the question as to how lie is 15. C - Avoid 16. C – Running 17. B – Showdown 18.
treating him, the politician said it never rains A -To time
but it pours 19. C - Booster 20. A - Attack
A. things are getting decidedly worse. Numbers 21- 23 are based on idiomatic expression; words
B. his financial status is deteriorating. that have fixed expressions with nonliteral meaning. It is the
C. the blessings of life shower on him like a natural way of using language or stylistic expression.
heavy rain. 21.A 22.C 23.A
D. he is contented with improved fortunes. Questions 24-25 are on English sound:
22. Camilia waited for her friend in the library for a 24. Plumb-/p/Am/
good hour.
A. Camilla enjoyed the sixty minutes she
Whenever /m/ consonant is followed by /b/, the /b/ sound is 25. Women - /w/m/n/
silent. In the transcription letter “b” will not appear. The The sound contained in letter “0’’ is /1/.
sound contained in letters ‘mb” is /m/ The correct answer is A.
The correct answer is A

POST UTME
========================================================================================
11. The event of last Friday show that there is no
Choose the words that are closer in meaning to the love lost between the principal and the Vice-
words in initial positions. Principal.
1. Futile: (a) worthless (b)vain (c) dangerous (a) They like each other
(d) useless (b) They work independently
2. Halt: (a) wait (b) fault (c) stop (d) stay (c) They cannot part company
3. Virtuous: (a)seeing (b)good (c) upright (d) They dislike each other
(d)religious 12. Adawo is an imp.
4. Renowned (a)famous (b)popular (c) well read (a) Adawo behaves badly
(d) familiar (b) Adawo behave decently
5. Solitary (a)private (b)sultry (c) alone (d)lonely (c)Adawo behaves differently
(d) Adawo behave queerly
In each of questions 6 and 7 choose the option
that best completes the gap In questions 13 and 14, select from the options to fill in
6. The car owner does not think about the tire gaps
_______ of his vehicle and other payments 13. There is no __________ sense in what that
involved in owing it. politicians has just said.
(a)Transportation (a) many
(b) depreciation (b) plenty
(c) calculation (c) lot of
(d) appreciation (d) much
7. We shall offer a good job to a _______ to 14. The candidate made ________ at the village
register guests in the Central Hotel. square a day before the elections
(a) Waiter (a) a sermon
(b) watchman (b) an address
(c) cashier (c) an eulogy
(d) receptionist (d) lecture
(e) a speech
In each of the questions 8 and 9, choose the option
opposite in meaning to the word in italics. In each of the question 15-17, choose the option that
8. Lola was agitated when the sad news of her best complete the gaps(s)
mother’s accident was broken to her. 15. The city______ as a federal capital _____only
(a) excited the last twenty years.
(b) calm (a) existed/over
(c) uncontrollable (b) has existed/for
(d) unreasonable (c) was existing/from
9. The president took exception to the ignoble (d) is existing/in
matter. 16. He is_______ Kaduna an official assignment.
(a) honourable (a) at/ in (b) at/for
(b) embarrassing (c) in / on (d) for/in
(c) dishonourable 17. The members of the other team agree all the
(d) extraordinary terms of contract.
(a) on (b)by
In each of questions 10-12, select the option that (c)to (d) with
best explains the information conveyed in the
sentence. In each of Questions 18 and 19, choose the
10. The crowd in the hall is intimidating word(s) or phrases which best f ill(s) the gap(s)
(a) The crowd is frightening 18. After Jerry had made the bed, he on it.
(b) The crowd is angry (a) layed (b) laid
(c) The crowd is overwhelming (c) lied (d) lay
(d) The crowd is riotous
19. The buildings damaged by the rainstorm 10. intimidating means overwhelming. The correct
schools, hospitals and private houses. answer is C
(a) included • “No love lost” means dislike, ill will, hate—u hen
(b) include takes the word between.
(c) were included The correct answer is 9
(d) was including 1 2. Imp means a little devil.
In each of the Questions 20 and 21, fill tile gap(s) 13. The correct answer is D
with the most appropriate option. 14 E 15. B 16. C
20. _______any problems, I shall travel to London 17. A 18. D 19. A
tomorrow on a business trip. 2.0. A 21. C 22. C
(a) In spite of 23. A 24. B 25. B
(b) Given
(c) Barring
(d) In case
21. ‘I can’t stand people prying into my private life’.
Ladi said ‘______‘ agreed Agbemu.
(a) Me either
(b) Me too
(c) I also
(d) Likewise myself
In each of Questions 22 to 25, choose the option

that has tire same consonant sound as the one
represented by the letter(s) underlined.
22. Cheap: (a) machine (b) sheep
(c) chip (d) chemist
23. School: (a) cool (b) chart (c) itch (d) leech
24. Pharmacy: (a) every (b) rough c plough
(d) wave
25. Happy: (a) our (b) eyes (c ) honour (d) behind
SOLUTION
Synonyms are words that are closer in meanings:
1. Futile means Fruitless, unproductive, etc.
The correct answer is B
2. Halt means top or pull up etc.
The correct answer is C.
3. Virtuous means good, moral, ethical, decent,
honest etc. The correct answer is B
4. Renowned means famous, prominent etc.
5. Solitary means secluded, shunning company,
companionless, antisocial, reclusive etc
The correct answer is C
Depreciation means the process of becoming less
valuable over a period of time.
— answer is Depreciation. The correct answer is B
Receptionist — a person who works in a place such as
hotel, office, or hospital which welcomes and helps
visitors.
The answer is receptionist. The correct answer is D
8. Agitated means upset, disturb, distressed, nervous,
etc. The correct answer is B
9. Ignoble means dishonourable, unworthy, shameful,
etc. The correct answer is A

POST UTME
========================================================================================
3. How can history be scientifically recorded?
USE OF ENGLISH (a) by examining available evidence and
analyzing unusual occurrences
COMPREHENSION (b) by falsifying and fabricating available
Read the following passages carefully and answer the facts
questions that follow (c) by speculating on what was and ought to
have been
Passage 1 (d) by concealing some of the evidence.
The best acceptable definition of history is that it is a 4. The scientist tends to be more reliable than a
record of the past actions of mankind, based on historian because
surviving evidence. It is this evidence that is historian (a) he works in a laboratory
employs to chronicles and correlate events, by which (b) he is better qualified
he arrives at conclusions which he believes to be valid. (c) he can cross check his results several
Hence, the historian is referred to as an interpreter of times
the development of mankind. (d) he has more time to work at his experiments
It should be understood that there is more than one 5. According to the passage, a historian should
way of treating the past. For example, in trying to deal try to examine a material
with the revolutions in Nigeria, past and present, the (a)scientifically
historian may describe the events in a narrative order (b) subjectively
or, he may choose to concentrate on analysis of the (c) accurately
general causes, comparing their stages of evolution in (d) objectively.
other countries.
The historian does not seek to attain the same kind of
results as the scientist, who can yen fv his conclusions Passage 2
by repeating his experiment under controlled From the apex of the Niger Delta southwards, dry land,
conditions. Whilst he also attempts to classify the overgrown with dense forests still virginal in various
phenomena, the historian is more likely to consider spots, gives way to seasonally inundated zones. Here,
events in terms of their uniqueness. sweet water swamps with strands of raffia palms
Added to this is the fact that history is concerned, gradually merge into tidal swamps of brackish ooze,
fundamentally, with the lives and actions of men, and where mud skippers thrive under the arching roots of
as such, the historian’s search for causes is bound to mangroves. The Niger, fingering through a thousand
be relatively subjective as compared to that by the creeks, meets the sea in a dozen estuaries. Strong
scientist. In essence, however, historians are agreed rivers current drifts and mud across the rivers mouths,
and insist that history should be written as scientifically sealing them again and again to navigation.
as possible and that evidence should be analyzed with 6. According to the passage, how would you
the same objective attitude employed by the scientist describe a seasonally inundated zone?
when he examines certain phenomena of nature. (a) a zone always covered with mud
1. History could be defined as (b) a zone always covered with shallow water
(a) a record of evolution of a country (c) a zone under water at certain times of the year
(b) a record of development of mankind (d) a zone subject to heavy rain every season.
(c) a record of present actions of mankind 7. What is brackish ooze?
based on surviving evidence (a) a strong river current
(d) a record of the past action of mankind (b) a mixture of fresh water and mud
based on surviving evidence. (c) a mixture of fresh water and salt water
2. According to the passage, one of the duties of (d) fresh ad clear water
a historian is 8. Where do mudskippers thrive’?
(a) to predict the future (a) in the creeks
(b) to analyze the past and future (b)in the swamps
(c) to explain the significance of the past (c) in the mangroves
events (d) in the roots
(d) to interpret the development of mankind 9. Where does the Niger meet the sea?
(a) in the creeks (a) weakness

(b) in the Delta (b) fatigue
(c) in the swamps (c) overwork
(d) in the forest (d) eagerness
10. Fingering through’ as used in the passage (e) sloth
means 17. The footballers went back to their camp
(a) cutting across sullenly
(b)passing through (a) cheekily
(c) cutting between (b) quickly
(d) passing between (c) stubbornly
Lexis and Structure (d) resentfully
In each of the following sentences, there is one word (e) silently
underlined and one gap. From the list of words lettered 18. After Warn, on our way to Beam, we passed
(a,) to (e), choose the word that is mostly nearly through a dense forest
opposite in caning to the word underlined and which (a) crowded
will appropriately fill the gap in the sentence. (11-15). (b) close
11. She was very proficient hairdresser but had (c) thick
little aptitude for sewing in which she was (d) heavy
(a) new (e) wooded
(b) unskilled 19. Last night, there was a very fierce rain storm
(c) unlearned (a) raging
(d) ignorant (b) storming
(e) awkward (c) angry
12. A metal will expand when it is heated and (d) violent
when it cools (e) ferocious
(a) shorten 20. The examiner said that the candidate’s
(b) lesser performance in the examination was not good
(c) contract enough
(d) congeal (a) failure
(e) curtail (b) achievement
13. Athletes wishing to get rid of their and get (c) E-marks
more energy should take more exercise (d) presentation
(a) fat (c) marks
(b) oxygen
(c) lethargy In each of the following question, fill each gap with
(d) trainer (lie appropriate option from (lie list. Following
(e) espots exercises express different times by using
14. If you do not accept the offer of a job in the
different tenses. From the options suggested,
secretariat within the next one week, we shall
choose any one that best suits each context
assume you have it.
(a) denied 21. The editor was not happy that the Nigeria
(b)refused press was hemmed
(c)deprived (a) up
(d) lost (b) across
15. The political aspirant asked the villagers to (c) in
support him and not to ______ (d) over
(a) deny (e) sideway
(b) undermine 22. More to your elbow as you campaign for press
(c) defy freedom
(d) despite (a) energy
(e) attack (b) power
(c)effort
From the words lettered a-c below each of the (d) grease
following sentences, choose the one which is (e) kinetic
nearest in meaning to the underlined word, as it is 23. A child that shows mature characteristics at an
shown the sentence (Nos. 16 - 20) early age may be described as
16. After finishing the 800 metres race, he fell (a)precocious
asleep from exhaustion (b) ingenious
(c) premature 21. Hemmed means to surround somebody or

(d) preconceived something so that it cannot grow easily. The
24. That is a very terrible woman; everyday she preposition that goes with the verb hem is in’
makes a lot of noise about one thing or the so. The correct option is C
other. I’m not surprised, that’s what her sisters too 22B 23. A 24.B 25.C
(a) are used to doing
(b) do
(c) always used to do
(d) are doing
25. Sir, I’m not lying about the matter, I know
nothing of it. If I knew, __________
(a) I must tell you
(b) I can tell you
(c) I would tell you
(d) I shall tell you
SOLUTION
Comprehension - Passage 1
1. C 2. D 3.A 4.C 5.D
Passage 2
6.B 7.B 8. C 9. A 10.B
Lexis and Structure

Antonyms are words that are opposite in meanings.
11. Proficient means having a high degree of skill in
something; very skilled. The answer is unskilled.
12. Expand means make or become larger and greater
in size, number or importance etc. The answer is
shorten. The correct answer is B.
13. Energy means vigour, effort and enthusiasm into an
activity, work, etc. Antonyms are: fatigue, lethargy,
weakness, tiredness, etc. the answer is lethargy
14. Accept means respond so action, to take willingly
something that is offered, .Antonym is refuse. The
correct answer is B.
15. Support means encouragement, boost, help, assist
somebody or something etc. antonym. are,
discredit, disapprove, refuse, under-rate, etc. The
closest option is undermine
The correct answer is B.
16. Exhaustion means the state of being very tired due
to fatigue Synonyms are fatigue, wearing etc. The
answer is Fatigue.
The correct answer is B.
17. Sullenly means hostilely silent and badly
tempered etc. The answer is resentful.
The correct option is D
18. Dense means tightly packed, very thick.
The answer is thick
The correct answer is C
19. Fierce means aggressive, violent or intense
etc. The answer is angry.
20. Performance means how well or badly you do
something. Antonyms are: inaction, failure,
challenges, etc. The answer is marks.
The correct answer is E

POST UTME
========================================================================================
(a)their use of the same marks or signs and
USE OF ENGLISH systems of logic
(b) the manner in which their logic agrees their
Read the following passage carefully and answer symbolism is similar
the questions based on it. (c) the endings of various symbols and their
Why should an artist attempt to concentrate his simplified logic
experience of life in a unique work of art? No. final (d) the own science of reasoning and their
answer can be given, but two possible reasons peculiar marks or signs
suggest themselves. Man seems always to have 5. The work “myriad” (line II) as used in the
preferred order to disorder. His whole progress on context oceans
earth has been a struggle to this end. Everything he (a)terrible (b) mysterious (c) frequent
has done, from the creation of vast empires to the (d) multitude
growing of small garden, has been a triumph, in
greater or lesser degree, of order over chaos. To help In each of question 6-10, there is a gap. Complete the
control his own thought, the sudden surprises of his gaps with appropriate items front die option A - D
limitless mind, he has had to invent language. As each under sentence.
new thing appears, whether it he art idea or an object. 6. If you try to write without having a clear idea,
he gives it a name and thus brings it into line with the you often end tip just ______without saying
things he already understands. And he has invented or anything very meaningful
himself more than one kind of language There is a (a) drooling (b) boasting (c) gambling
language of painting, a language of architecture, or (d) rambling
mathematics - to name but three each has its own 7. The four of you should share the rem ainder
special symbols, its own form of logic; and each ______you.
enables him to express some of the myriad thoughts (a) among (b) around (c)between (d)within
that crowd his mind. High among the languages of 8. I have no doubt that Enyimba will ____Oaks
man is the language of music next Saturday.
(a) flog (b) whip (c) win (d) beat
1. Through his struggles man has achieved 9. “You need not go down the road before you
(a) the return of a state of utter confusion notice a huge white building on the road”, the
(b) the complete destruction of vast empires man said:
(c) the growth of disorder from order (a) inside (b) farther (c) further (d) deep
(d) the transaction of order out of chaos. 10. If your writing lacks coherence, your reader
2. Man invent the language because will just find something else to read or_____
(a) it helped to organize his thoughts and the television.
unceasing ideas (a) tune in (b) turn on (c) switch up (d) Open.
(b) there was nothing he could do at the time
to diversify his talents Choose the appropriate option to complete the
(c) he already had control over his mind and following
his countless ideas 11. The president promised a higher allocation to
(d) it was a method or realizing his position as the education sector in this year’s budget,
a Supreme Being. (a) isn’t he? (b) did he? (c) didn’t he?
3. By naming objects or ideas, man was able to (d) doesn’t he?
(a) comprehend less and less the things 12. 12. The picture is ascribe to Leonardo da
around and about him Vinci. This means that_______
(b) clarify things and correlate them with facts (a) Leonardo da vinci painted it
already known (b) Leonardo da Vinci might have painted it
(c) allow an area of complete confusion to (c) Leonardo da Vinci definitely painted it
develop in language (d) Leonardo da Vinci did part of the painting.
(d) make visual impressions for more 13. The Principal’s reference to the cane _______
important titan ever before. the boy with much mental uneasiness.
4. The various language can be identified by (a) inflicted (b) assaulted
(c) afflicted (d) insulted

14. The government’s envoy had left the country
again in his latest round of trouble shooting.
The underlined expression means
(a) trip marring efforts
(b) troublesome efforts
(c) peace making efforts
(d) trouble making efforts
15. His three sons, Sanmi, Chukwu and Collins
are eleven, nine and seven
(a) respectively (b) respectedly
(c) succeedingly (d) successively
16. As the examination progressed, it was
observed that more candidate started into
space. This means many candidates
(a) looked into the sky
(b) looked straight for long but to nothing in
particular
(c) looked through the window for would-be
helpers
(d) tried to ensure that the spaces, between
then were well maintained.
17. Hundreds of car went us before we were given
a ride to the campus.
(a) pasted (b) past (c) passes (id) by
18. You told me that Johnson is your trusted
friend, wily did you not stand up for him during
his trial?
(a) defend (b) ridicule (c) pity (d) disown
19. When you pronounce the word university, how
many sounds could, how many sounds could
you perceive?
(a) 5 (b) 4 (c) 10 (d)
SOLUTION
1. D. 2.A 3.A 4.C 5.D 6.D 7.A
8.C 9.B 10.B 11.C. 12.A 13.A
14. Trouble shooter is a person that settles trouble is

an effort to settle trouble and bring peace. The
answer is peace making efforts. The correct answer
is C.
15. A
16. Stared into space’ means to look straight in front of
you without looking at a particular thing, usually
because you are thinking about something.
17. C
18. ‘Stand up for’ is a phrasal verb meaning to support
a course or defend somebody or something you
believe. The correct answer is A
19. University- u/ni/ver/si/ty — 5 syllable. The correct
answer is A

POST UTME
========================================================================================
10. We didn’t have a lot of money, so I had to live
qude _______
ENGLISH LANGUAGE (a) niggardly
Fill in the blanks in the following sentences making (b) frugally
use of one of the four options in the letters A - D. (c) wastefully
1. They _______ arrived Lagos by now, all things (d) grudgingly
being equal 11. I acted too impetuously, I do not know what me
(a) had (b) must (c)might have (d) would have (a) came along
2. The pupils so much noise that the teacher (b) came over
had to tell them to stand up and raise up their (c) came at
hands (d) came on
(a) had been making (b)should have made 12. The hurricane raged for several days, learning
(c) were making (d) had made a trial of across the land
3. I ________ that he was insincere all along (a) destruction
(a) could know (b) must know (d) depoilation
(c) should have known (d) may have known (c) desperation
4. If I had gone to Lokoja, I _____ the opportunity 13. If a player breaks the rule during a match, one
of seeing the president point will be __________ to his opponent
(a) should not have had (a) adjourned
(b) must not have had (b) credited
(c)would not have had (c) debited
(d) should not have. (d) allied
14. Mouse-traps are not always very effective, as
Choose the preposition that best fills the gaps in some mice prove to be remarkably _______
the following sentences (a) inaccessible
5. My sister does not have flair Mathematics (b) perpetual
(a) at (b) at (c) inconspicuous
(c) with (d) for (d) elusive
6. When I got to her house, she was still bed 15. At the frontier he hid the watches in his pocket
(a) in (b) on in order to customs duty
(c) on the (d) in the (a) evade
7. During the demonstration, the anti-riot (b) incur
policemen were instructed to break the (c) repel
students’ defense line (d) deceive
(a) off (b) open 16. The driver was short of petrol, so he down all
(c) through (d) down the hills with the engine switched off
8. I was hearing distance of the speaker (a) glided
(a) at (b) in (b) cut
(c) on (d) within (c) wheeled
(d) coasted
17. Everyone in my family has a job. My mother is
a teacher, my father is an engineer, and my
From the words labeled A — D in numbers 9 to 20, granny
choose the one that best completes each of the Jlo (a) used to sell roast chicken
wing sentences (b) is selling roast chicken
9. The electricity cable had to be enough to be (c) has roast chicken
laid along the bend in the road (d) sells roast chicken
(a) elastic 18. One curious thing about my uncle is that he
(b) taut wishes
(e) compliment (a) he is having eight wives
(d) flexible (b) he had eight wives
(c) he can have eight wives purposes.

(d) he can be allowed to have eight wives. 28. In measuring one s linguistics competence in a
19. I’m afraid, you know. My father has been particular language, itemize four sentence
sleeping since 400 pm yesterday. It’s about types that one need to master
time (a) simple, complex-multiple. difficult and
(a) to wake tip more difficult
(b) he wakes to (b) simple, complex. compound and
(c) he woke tip compound-complex
(d) he’s awake (c) simple, more-simple, difficult, more difficult
20. Are you deaf? I asked you ______ (d) rational, more rational, logical and more
(a) how old you were (b) how old are you logical.
(c) how old is your age (d) what is your age
21. What is a sentence? SOLUTION
(a) it is made up of words 1. D
(b) it is made up of phrases and clauses 2. A present continuous tense takes a verb with ‘-ing’.
(c) it is a group of words giving a complete The correct answer is ‘were making’. The correct
sense (d) it can be simple or complex answer is C 3. C 4.C 5.D 6.A 7.A 8.D 9.D.
22. What is a clause’? 10. The answer is ‘frugally’ which means using only as
(a) it is made up of words much money or food as is necessary.
(b) it is made tip sentences The correct answer is B
(c) it is made up of phrases 11. The correct answer is B
(d) it is a group of words containing a finite 12. The answer is ‘destruction’. Destruction is the act
verb of damaging something so badly that it no longer
23. What is a phrase? exists. The correct answer is A
(a) it is a group of words containing a finite 13 Credited means praised or approved because you
verb are responsible for something great that happened.
(b) it is a group of words giving a complete The correct answer is B
sense 14 .D 15.A 16.D 17.D 18.B
(c) it is a group of words not containing a finite 19. Anytime ‘it’s high time’ or ‘it’s about time’ is used, it
verb is followed with a past tense. The answer is ‘he
(d) it usual begins with a preposition of a woke up’. The correct answer is C
participle. 20 The correct answer is A
24. An example of a finite verb is 21 The correct option is B
(a) going to school every day 22. A clause is a group of words that includes a
(b) given his position as the principal subject and a finite verb. The correct option is D
(c) while going to school 23 A phrase is a group of words without a finite verb.
(d) while they were going to school Hence, not making a complete sense.
25. What is tense! The correct option is C
(a) it has to do with present, past and future 24. A finite verb is a verb that reflects tense, number,
times and person. Eg, eats, sleeps, slept, was, were, etc.
(b) it is a correspondence between the form of The answer is ‘while they were going to school’
the verb and the concept of time The correct answer is D
(c) it is derived from the latin word ‘transpire’ 25. A tense is a form of verb that shows the time of the
(d) it is a controversial topic in linguistics performance of an action. The correct answer is B
26. What is aspect? 26. An aspect shows if the action in a sentence is in
(a) it is a mannet in which the verbal action is progress or has been completed, hence, we have
experienced or regarded progressive and perfective aspect. The answer is it
(b) it reflects the attitude or mood of the is made up of progressive and perfective forms’.
speaker The correct answer is C
(c) it is made up of progressive and perfective 17 Minor sentence is a sentence fragment. E.g.,
forms suppose, last month, or so, I think, etc. the answer
(d) It is normally joined together with tense is ‘they are incomplete statements but normally
27. What are minor sentences? function as sentences. The correct answer is C
(a) they are complete sentences 28 The answer is simple, complex, compound and
(b) they are incomplete statements compound-complex. The correct answer is B
(c) they are incomplete statements but
normally function as sentences
(d) they are used by writers for economical

POST UTME
========================================================================================
(d) the owner will come to
(e) none of them
From the words lettered A - E, choose the word that 7. I wonder if you would allow me to put out the fire
alike in meaning to the word underlined. (a) I might
1. Andrew made some bellicose statement about (b) I can
his strength to other boys in the street. This (c) I should
means that Andrew (d) all of them
(a) is a brave man 8. When you great-grandmother was in Vietnam,
(b) wishes to fight did she hare the ability to speak Chinese?
(c) is a coward (a) has she been able
(d) loves to help others with his power (b) was she enabled
(e) has a lot of power (c) could she
2. The excuse that he forgot about the meaning (d) how possible was it for her
was a flimsy one. This means the excuse was (e) none of them
(a) very had 9. I know a carpenter that knows lion’ to make
(b) a complete lie that kind of wardrobe
(c) difficult to believe (a) could
(d)not important (b) has the know-how
(e) a very good one (c) can
3. Scrumptious politicians do not have a place in (d) can be able
the Nigerian polities. Scrupulous politician are: (e) may be able to
(a) honest 10. Frances, where is your male visitor? Don’t lie
(b) dishonest to me, it is not possible that he has gone
(c) corrupt through the high window
(d) good natured (a) he couldn’t have
(e) insincere (b) he can’t have
4. The woman was happy because her gorgeous (c) he shouldn’t
dressing made her quit obtrusive. The woman (d)he mustn’t have
was very (e) none of them
(a) appreciated 11. My father made no bones about telling his
(b) proud friend how he felt about his behavior. This
(c) good means that my father
(d) noticeable (a) spoke well to his friend about his behavior
(e) excellent (b) spoke honestly to his friend about his
5. The man is known to be a sly. I won’t trust him behavior
with anything. This means the man is known (c) spoke in the open to his friend about his
as a behavior
(a) deceiver (d) spoke with all his might to his friend shout
(b) thief his behavior
(c) kidnapper 12. After much talk, my brother taught it was time
(d) rogue to hit the hay. This mean my brother taught it
(e) burglar was time to
(a) make hay while the sun shine
(b) burn the collection of hay
From the alternative suggested, select the answer (c) go to bed
that best expresses the same meaning as the (d) keep quiet
expression italicized in each exercise. (e) tell the others off
6. Don’t take the plate away; it is possible for the 13. The housemaster was foaming in the mouth
owner to ask/or it when he discovered that some students had
(a) the owner might sneaked out of the hostel. This means the
(b) the owner can housemaster
(c) the owner is going to
(a) was very sad 20. His latest album has done much to boos this
(b) had epilepsy reputation as a writer
(c) became silent and calculative (a) increase
(d) was uncontrollably furious (b) establish
(e) was jittery (c) nourish
14. Who told Mabel she could sing? She really laid (d) destroy
an egg at the talent show. This means (e) decrease
(a) Mabel’s performance was very
embarrassing For questions 27 - 25, choose from the option A -E
(b) Mabel’s performance was very interesting the word or phrase opposite in meaning to the
(c) Mabel’s performance was very impressive underlined word.
(d) Mabel’s performance was not very bad 21. The doctor certified the tumour malignant
(e) Mabel’s performance was like that of a hen (a) benign
laying an egg (b) ripe
15. Mr. Johnson is on the warpath because his car (c) painless
broke down again. This means Mr. Johnson is (d) dangerous
(a) ready to fight his mechanic (e) slow
(b) started fighting the government because 22. Andrew is too garrulous for my liking
the road was bad (a) dull
(c) very infuriated (b) apathetic
(d) fighting a war with his family in the car (c) laconic
(e) drawing a battle in between him and his (d) easy going
Mechanic (e) dumb
23. The man hold parochial views on almost every
For questions 16 - 20, choose among the options issue
A-E the word that is nearest in caning to the (a) rational
italicized words in each of the sentences (b) realistic
16. The president announced that all political (c) popular
prisoners have been pardoned. (d) broad minded
(a) condemned (e) sensible
(b) severely rebuked 24. Your idea on this issue seem to me quite novel
(c) banished (a) bookish
(d) reprieved (b)dangerous
(e) released (c) archaic
17. He resented been criticized every time by his (d) genuine
boss (e) good
(a) preferred 25. The people appreciated the chairman for his
(b) abhorred invaluable contributions to the community’s
(c) ignored development
(d) carefully considered (a) worthless
(e) enjoyed (b) costly
18. The most striking thing about the just- (c) unrecognized
concluded world cup finals in Germany was (d) incalculable
the complete eclipse of the defending (e) meaningless
champion- Brazil 26. Which of the following statement is true with
(a) sudden disappearance regard to summary writing?
(b) defeat (a) details arc more important than main ideas
(c) failure (b) main ideas arc more important than
(d) brilliant performance examples
(e) arrogance (c) illustration are more important than main
19. As he watched the winning film, his face ideas
remain inscrutable (d) elaboration, exemplification and details are
(a) unreadable more important than main idea
(b) pale (e) none of the above
(c) unfriendly
(d) impossible to please
(e) bright
Choose the appropriate option to complete the 8. Ability - be able, competence or intelligence
following The correct answer is C
27. At the crusade, we prayed to God to this on us 9. Know-how — knowledge or experience of
(a) breath His breathe doing something. The correct answer is B
(b)breathe His breath 10. Not possible — can’t be done or exist. The
(c) breathe His breathe correct answer is A
(d) breath His breath 11. Made no bones The correct answer is B
28. The chairman, committee of Deans needs to 12. Hit the hay The correct answer is C
see your friend Dele urgently, do you know his 13 Foaming at the mouth The correct answer is D
___________? 14. Lay an egg The correct answer is C
(a) where and about 15. On the warpath- The correct answer is C
(b) whereabouts 16. Pardoned —The correct answer is D
(c ) whereabout 17. Resented — The correct answer is B
(d) where and abouts 18. Complete eclipse — The correct answer is C
29. “As from now, this university will have zero 19. Inscrutable — The correct answer is A
tolerance for any form of malpractice”, said the 20. Boost to increase or improve.
Vice-chancellor. The vice-chancellor said that The correct answer is A
(a) as from then, the university will have zero 21. Malignant impossible to be controlled easily
tolerance for any form of malpractice and likely to cause death. The correct answer
(b) as from now, this university would have is A
zero tolerance for any form of malpractice 22. Ganulous - talking too much, wordy.
(c)as from the, his university will have zero The correct answer is C
tolerance for any form of malpractice 23. Parochial - narrow- minded.
(d) as from then, that university will have zero The correct answer is D
tolerance for any form of malpractice 24. Novel new, interesting and often seeming
30. The teacher took me for one of those students slightly strange. The correct answer is C
who could not spell such word as 25. Invaluable extremely or very useful.
(a) ‘miscellaneous and maintenance’ The correct answer is A
(b) ‘miscellaneous and maintenance’
(c) ‘miscellaneous and maintenance’ 26. B 27.B 28.C 29.A 30.C 31.A
(d) ‘miscellaneous and maintenance’
31. God should take control of the heart of the
organizers of this Post-UTME screening
exercise, they should not make this test
_______ than UTME
(a) more tough
(b) more tougher
(c) much tougher
(d) more much tougher
SOLUTION
1. Bellicose mean warlike, ready or inclined to
quartet or fight. The correct answer is B
2. Flimsy means unconvincing, weak etc. The
correct answer is C
3 Scrupulous means having moral integrity,
carefully about paying attention to every
details. The correct answer is A
4. Obtrusive means annoying, highly noticeable
in an unpleasant way. The correct answer is D
5. Sly means crafty, evasive, mischievous etc.
6. Possible - able to happen, maybe real or true,
might happen. The correct answer is A
7. Wonder amazed admiration or awe. The
correct answer is B

POST UTME
MATHEMATICS 2014
========================================================================================
1. Find the angle in degree which the line x - 17. Find the equation of a line which passes
= 0 makes with the positive y – axis through a point (-2, 3) and makes an angle of
0
A. 30 B. 90 C. 60 D. 180 45 with positive x-axis A. y – x – 5 = 0
B. y + x + 5 = 0 C. x – y – 5 = 0 D. y – x + 5=0
2
2. If equation 6 – kx + 2x = 0 has equal roots,
2
find k + 4. A. 48 B. 8 C.44 D. 96 18. If cosA = and A is an acute angle, find (1 +
2
tan A) A. B. C. D.
-1
3. Simplify log100 A. - B. - C. D.
19. Integrate the function 1-2x.
-1/ -2/ 2 2 2 2
4. Evaluate ( ) 2 + ( ) 3 A. x-x + k B. x + x + k C. –x – x D. x – x + k
A. 8 B. 10 C. 9 D. 6
4
20. Find the sum of infinity of the sequence 1, -1,
5. Find the remainder when x – 11x + 2 is
1, -1, 1, -1… A. 2 B. - C.1 D.
divided by x A. 2 B. 6 C. -2 D. 5
2
6. If and are the of equation cx + ax + b - 21. Different 2 – sin(2-ax) with respect to x
0, find A. B. C. D. A. acos(2-ax) B. -asin (2-ax) C. –acos (2-ax)
D. asin (2-ax)
7. The binary operation is defined by a b =
-1 2
2a – 1. Find 3 (2 1) A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6 22. Simplify
3
A. 128n m
-1 3
B. 8n m
-1
-2
3 4
8. Two coins are tossed; find the probability of C. 8n m D. 8n m
having atleast two heads
A. B. C. D. 1
MATHEMATICS 2014 SOLUTION
1. A 2. B 3. B 4. C 5. A 6. 7. C 8. C 9. A 10. B
9. Solve the equation = 0
11.B 12.C 13.C 14.C 15.C 16.A 17.A 18.D 19.A 20.D
A. 0 B. -1 C. + 1 D. 21.A 22.B
10. If x is a real number and x + 11 < 0 evaluate

A. 0 B. -1 C. 1 D. 2
30
11. Simplify: + A. B. C. D.
12. If m is the gradient of the line pq - px - qy = 0

and q 0, find A. B. C. D. -
13. If P is directly proportional to p = 20 when

Q = 4. Find Q when P = 100.
A. 200 B. 300 C. 100 D. 400
2 2
14. Obtain the centre of the circle 7(y + 10y) + 7x
= 1. A. (0,5) B. (-5, 0) C. (0, -5) D. (5, 0)
2
15. Given 15x dx = 3430, find the value of
the constant a A. 8 B. 6 C. 7 D. 9
16. Evaluate (In Sin3x)

A. 3cot3x B. 3tan3x C. D. 3sin3x

POST UTME
MATHEMATICS 2013
========================================================================================
x+1 1-x
1. If the probability of success in an even is . 14. Solve the equation 3 = 2
What is the possibility of failure? A. B.- C. D.-
A. B. C. D.
15. Given = 3 + x and = 3-x, find
2 2 = 3-
2. What is the circumference of the circle x + y
2 A. 6 B. x C. –x D. 0
=( ) ?
A. 16 units B.14 units C.15 units D.15 units 3 2
16. What is the reminder when x + 5x – 6x + 1 is
divided by x – 1? A. -1 B. 2 C. -2 D. 1
3. Resolve into partial fractions.
2
17. If are the roots of equation 6 + 5x – x = 0
A. + B. - C. - D. -
A. 11 B. -11 C. 0 D. -1
x2
4. Solve the equation 5 = 25x+4 18. What is the value of y for which the function
A. -4, 2 B. -4, -2 C. 4, -2 D. 4, 2
n is undefined? A. -1 B. 1 C. 1 D. 2
5. Evaluate
A. 28 B.31 C.29 D.32 19. What is the distance between the points (-1, 5)
and (-7, -3)?
6. Find point of intersection of the line 3x-2y = A. 9 B. 10 C. 11 D. 12
5,2x+ 5y = -7
20. If X = {2, 3, 6, 7, 8} and Y = {6, 7, 10, 3, 17},
A. x = y=- B. x = - y= C.
find X Y
=- y=- D. x = y= A. { } B. 3, 6, 7 C. {2, 3, 6, 7, 8, 17} D. {6, 3, 7}
2 + 20x –
7. solve 4x 24 = 0 21. Differentiate sin(2x – 5) with respect to x.
A. 1, B. – 1, -6 C. 6, -1 D.- 6, 1 A. cos(2x – 5) B. –cos(2x-5) C. 2cos(2x – 5)
D. -2cos(2x – 5)
th
8. What is the 15 term of the sequence -3, 2,
2
7,…? A. 65 B. 66 C. 68 D. 67 22. If are the roots of equation x - 5x + 7 =0
Find the value of  +
2 2
9. Evaluate A. 25 B. -25 C. -11 D. 11
A. B. - C. D.-
MATHEMATICS SOLUTION 2013
10. Integrate 4x +
2 with respect to + x. 1.C 2.B 3.D 4.C 5.D 6.C 7.D 8.D 9.C 10.A
4 -1 4 2 -2 11.B 12.C 13.C 14.A 15.C 16.D 17.B 18.A 19.B
A. In x + x + k B. x + x + K C. 12x – x
5 -2 20.D 21.C 22.D
+K D. x + x + K
2 2
11. Find the diameter of the circle 2x + 2y – 50
=0 A. -10units B. 10 units C. 25 units D. -
25units
2
12. What is the coordinate of centre of the circle x
2
+ y + 2x – 4y = 10?
A. (-1, -2) B. (1, 2) C. (-1, 2) D. (1, -2)
13. Simplify logx x + logx4x

4
A. 4x B. C. 4 + x D. 4x

POST UTME
MATHEMATICS 2012
========================================================================================
0 0 0 0
A. 305 B. 325 C. 35 D. 145
1. Obtain the product of 11002 and 1012
A. 1111002 B. 1101002 C. 22202 D. 11447 The scores of students in a class test are shown in the
table below: Use the information to answer Question
13.
-1 2 -2
2. Simplify (4 m /2n )
Scores 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
3 -1 3 -1 4 3 No. of Students 0 1 3 5 3 4 2 0
A. 128n m B. 8n m C.8n m D.8n m
3. Evaluate log8 128 – long39 13. The modal score is A. 5 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8

A. 19 B. 48 C. 13/3 D. 6
14. A number is selected randomly from the set of
4. Find the value of y if ½ log3 y = 2 integers 1 to 30 inclusive. The probability that
A. 9 B. 18 C. 9/2 D. 81 the number is prime
A. B. C. D.
The universal set U consists of all integers. Subsets of
U are defined as:
15. Differentiate co sax with respect to x
A = {y : y 3}
A. a sinax B. sinax C. – a sin ax D. - sinax
B = {y : 5 < y < 12}
C = {y : -2  y < 5} 16. Obtain the values of x in /x – 9/ = 16
Use the information above to answer question A. 25 B. -7 C. 25, -7 D. -25, 7
5. A ( B U C) is
A. {y < -4} B. C.{ y < 0} D. {-4  y  3) 17. Integrate
A. + K B. + K
6. Make k the subject of the formula m = + C. + K D. +K
A. k = B. k = C. k =
2 2
18. Obtain the centre of the circle 3y + 3(x+5) = 17
D. k =
A. (0, 5) B. (-5, 0) C. (0, -5) D. (5, 0)
2
7. Which of the following is perfect square? 19. If f(x+1) = X + 1, find f(2)
2 2 2
A. x – 3x – 4 B. x + 9x +9 C. 2x + 2x + 2 X
3
2 5
D. x + 2x + 1 A. /8 B. 2 C. ¼ D. 1
8. The quadratic equation whose roots are (x-3) 20. Which of these numbers is an irrational
0 0 0 0
and x + is number A. sin0 B. sin 30 C.sin60 D. sin90
2 8 2
A. x + /3x – 1 = 0 B. x – 2x – 3 = 0
2
2 8 2
C. x - /3x – 1 = 0 D. x – 9 = 0 21. Give 5x dx = 3430, find the value a
2
come 15x dx = 3430 of the constant a
9. What is the highest possible value of 2 if 0  A. 8 B. 6 C. 7 D. 9
x  3? A. 8 B. 4 C. 2 D. 16
22. Which of these lines is at right angle with the
10. The fifth term in the progression 9, 27, 81, . . . line x = -7
7
is A. 243 B. 3 C. 729 D. 3
8
A. 2x + y = -1 B. 2x – y = 1 C. y = 0 D. x = 49
0
11. The interior angles of an hexagon are 120 , MATHEMATICS 2012 SOLUTION
0 0 0 0
100 , 80 , 150 , x and 130 . The value of x is
0 0 0 0
A. 170 B. 20 C. 120 D. 140 1.A 2.B 3.C 4.D 5.D 6.B 7.D 8.C 9.A 10.C
11.D 12.B 13.B 14.B 15.C 16.C 17.A 18.B 19.B
0
12. If the bearing of a town B from A is 145 , the 20.C 21.C 22.C
bearing of A from B is

POST UTME
MATHEMATICS 2011
========================================================================================
12. The speed of 30 kilometers per minute,
1. If the universal set U = {1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10}, expressed in centimetres per second is
M = (1, 3, 5, 7, 9) and N = (2, 4, 6, 8, 10) A. 5 B. 50 C. 500 D. 50,000
which of the following is equal to (M U N)?
A. (M N) B. M N 13. Evaluate x if, log4 (x+3)(x-3) = 2
C. M N D. M N A. 3 or -3 B. 5 or -5 C. 5 or -3 D. 3 or -5
2. Cos (180 - ) is equivalent to 14. Given that a= , b=

2 2
, a + b find
A. cos ( - 180)
the value of
B. cos 14
A. /37 B.7 C. 14 + 2 3 D. 14
C. -cos
15. If the binary operation * is defined as x * y = 2,
D. –cos (180 + )
find 2 * (4 * 5)
3. Find the equation of the circle with centre
A. 4 B. 5 C. -5 D. 2
(-1,3) and radius 4.
2 2
A. x + y – 6x + 2y = 6
2 2 16. Find the value of
B. x + y + 2x – 6y = 16
2 2
C. x + y -6x +2y = 16 6 + 6 + 6 + 6 + 6
D. x2 + y2 + 2x – 6y =6
A. -2 B. 2 C. 6 D. 3
4. Find if y =
-3/2 -3/2
A. B.3x 17. Find the value of
-3/2 -3/2
C. D.
5. Integrate A. Not defined B. 0 C. A.

2
+ 1 B.
2
C.
2
– 4 D.
2
+3
2
D. +C
2
18. The circle 2x2 + 2(y - ) = 2 has centre and
6. A die is tossed twice. What is the probability of
radius respectively as
obtaining a total of 6 if both numbers are odd?
A. 0, and 2 B. (0 , ) and 1
A. B. C. D.
C. ( , 0) and 2 D. (0 , ) and 1
7. If the mean of the numbers a, b, c, d, e is x,
find the mean of numbers a+k, b+2k, c-k, d-2k, 19. The line perpendicular to the straight line
e. y + x – 1 = 0 has the gradient
A. X B. x+k C. x-k D.2x 2 3
A. - /3 B. /2 C. 3 D. /3
2
8. Factorize: a2 – b2 + (a + b)2 x2
20. Find x if 2 = 4
(x+4)
2
A. 2a B. 2a(a - b) A. 2 or 4 B. 4-2 or 2 C. -4 or 4 D. -4 or 2
C. 2a(a + b) D. 2b(b - c)
21. Express in partial fraction
9. Let be roots of quadratic equation x2 + 3x = A + B_
2x – 3 = 0, then is 2
x -1 x-1 x+1 then A and B respectively
A. -3 B. -2 C. 2 D. 6 is A. -3, 3 B. 2/3, 2/3 C. -3,2, -3/2 D. 3/2, 3/2
10. Convert 6910 to a number in base two 22. A square has a perimeter of 40cm. what is its
A. 1001101 B. 10100001 area in cm square?
C. 10001012 D. 100101 A. 80 B. 1600 C. 100 D. 160

11. The reciprocal of is
+ 1.C 2.C 3.D 4.A 5.C 6.A 7.A 8.C 9.A 10.C
2
A. 1 /7
7
B. /9 C.-1 /7
2
D. /9
7 11.B 12.D 13.B 14.C 15.D 16.D 17.B 18.D 19.D
20.A 21.D 22.C

POST UTME
MATHEMATICS 2010
========================================================================================
A. y = x + B. y = - x +
2
1. Find x if x - 2x - 15 = 0
C. y = x + 5 D. 2y = x + 5
A. 3, -5 B. -3,5 C.1, 15 D. -2, -15
12. What is the distance between points (1,2) and
2. A father leaves a legacy of N45 million for his
(4,5) on a plane?
children – Peter, David and Paul to be shared
A. 3 2 B. 2 3 C. 3 D. 9
in the ratio 7:5:3. What amount in million Naira
would each receive respectively?
13. Integrate (2x + )dx
A. N14, N 7
B. N15, N5, N3 A.2cos (2x + ) + k
C. N21, N15, N9 B. log(cos(2x + ) + k
D. N20, N16, N10 C. –log(cos(2x + ) + k
D. 4cot(2x + ) + k
3. As  tends to zero, what does cos tend to?
2
A. sin B. 0 C. ½ D. 1 14. Find the value of x for which 5 + 2x – 3x = 0
A. -2 and 6/5
4. The expression 2cos + sin  has the
2 B.1 and 5/3
numerical value C. -2 and -1
A. 1 B. 2 C. 4 D. 0 D. 6/5 and 5/3
x y
0 15. If ( ) ( ) = , find the value of 3y-2x
5. If tanx = , find tan(90 + x) for acute value
A. -1 B. 7 C.1 D. -7
of x. A. –cot x B. –tan x C. cot x D. tan x
6. Evaluate the length of perpendicular from A to BC 16. The integral values of y which satisfy the
2 inequality 1< 5 - 2y  7 are
A. cm B. C. cm D. cm
A. -1, 1, 0, 1, 2
B. 0, 1, 2, 3
x
7. The indefinite integral of xe , for any real C. -1, 0, 1, 2, 3
constant c is D. -1, 0, 2, 3
x 2 x
A. c B. x + e + c C.x + ex + c D. e (x-1) + c
2
17. If x – 5x + 6 = (x-a)2 + b, the value of b is
8. Find the area under the curve y(x) = sin x 1 5
A.- /4 B. /2 C. 2 D. 3
between x = 0 and x = .
A. 2 B. 1 C. -2 D. 18. The scores of 16 students in a mathematics
test are 65, 65, 55, 60, 60, 65, 60, 70, 75, 70,
9. Let the letter P, Q, R and S denote 65, 70, 60, 65, 65, 70. What is the sum of the
parallelogram, quadrilateral, rectangle and median and modal scores?
square respectively. Using subset notation, A. 125 B. 130 C. 140 D. 150
which of these inclusions is correct?
A. Q R P S 19. A businessman invested a total of N200,000 in
B. R 9 P S two companies which paid divideds of 5% and
C. S P R Q 7% respectively. If he received a total of
D. S R P Q N11,600, how much did he invest at 7%
A. N140,000 B. N160,000
10. In a convex polygon with n sides, the sum of C. N80,000 D. N100,000
interior angles is
A. (n-2) B. 2(n-1) C. 4(n-1) D. (2n-4) 20. If a 5 + b 2 is the square root of 95-30 10,
the values of a and b are respectively
11. Find the equation of the line perpendicular to A. 5, 2 B. 2, -5 C. -5, 3 D. 3, -5
the line y = 2x + 1 and passing through a point
(3, 1). 21. If = = c, find the value of
2
3x – xz + w
2 2
3y – yw + w in terms of c
2 2
A. 3c – 3y – yw + 3 B. 17c2
2 2
C. 2c – c D. c
22. Express in partial fractions
A. -
B.
C. -
D. -
23. The second terms of an infinite geometric
1 1
series is - /2 and the third term is /4. Find the
sum of the series
3 2
A. 2 B. 1 C. /2 D. /3
24. In the figure AB and AD are tangents to the

0 0
circle. If BCS = 55 and BDC = 48 , find BAD.
550
480
C
A
0 0 0 0
A. 55 B. 70 C.77 D. 84
25. Find the area of the triangle

2
A. 24cm B. 24cm C. 12cm3 D. 12cm
1.B 2.C 3.D 4. 5.A 6. 7.D 8.C 9.C 10.A

11.B 12.A 13.C 14.B 15.B 16.A 17.A 18.B
19.C 20.D 21.D 23.D 24. 25.

POST UTME
MATHEMATICS 2009
========================================================================================
2
1. Factorize 6x – 14x – 12. 12. If 7 and 189 are the first fourth terms of a
A. 2(x+3)(3x-2) geometric progression A.182 B. 180 C. 91 D.
B. 6x(x-2)(x+1) 63 E. 28
C. 2(x-3)(3x+2)
D. 6(x+2)(x-1) 13. Find the positive number n such that thrice its
E. (3x+4)(2x+3) square is equal to twelve times the number
A.1 B. 4 C. 2 D. 5 E. 9
3 1
2. What is the product of 27/5 (3) and ( /5) A.
1
5 B. 3 C. 2 D. 1 E. /25 14. A sector of a circle of radius 7.2cm which
0
subtends an angle of 300 at the centre is
3. If the length of the side of a right angled used to form a cone. What the radius of the
triangle are (3x+1)cm, (3x-1)cm and xcm, what base the cone? A.6cm B.7cm C.8cm
is x? A. 2 B. 6 C. 18 D. 12 E.0 D.9cm E. 5cm
4. Evaluate (
3 4
) A. -3 B. - /5 C. /5 D. 3 E. 4 15. If pq + 1 =q2 and t=1/p –pq, express t in terms
of q A.1/pq B.1/q+1 C.1/q+2 D.1/p+2
E.1/p+2
5. Two fair dice are rolled. What is the probability
that both show up the same number of point?
1 16. Given a regular hexagon, calculate each
A.1/36 B. 7/36 C. /2 D. 1/3 E.1/8 0 0
interior angle of the hexagon A.60 B.30
0 0 0
C.120 D.15 E.135
6. In1984. Tolu was 24 years old and his father
45 years. In what year was Tolu exactly half
17. Find n if + = -1 A.10
his father’s ages?
B.14 C.12 D.27 E.26
A.1982 B.1981
C.1983 D.1979 E.1978 3 2
18. If x = 1 is root of the equation x – 2x – 5x + 6,
fin d the other roots. A. -3 and 2 B. 2 and 2 C.
7. Find the probability that a number selected at
3 5 3 and -2 D.1 and 3 E. -3 and 1
random 40 to 50 is a prime A. /11 B. . /11
5 4 7
C. /10 D. /10 E. /12 3 3
19. The value of (0.303) - (0.02) A.0.019
B.0.0019 C.0.00019 D.0.000019 E.000035
8. A man kept 6 black, 5 brown and 7 purple
shirts in a drawer. What is the probability of his
1 20. List all integers satisfying the inequality -2<2x
picking a purple shirt with his eyes closed A. /7
7 11 7 5 – 6<4 A.2,3,4,5 B.2,3,4 C.2,5 D.3,4,5
B. /18 C. /18 D. /11 E. /10
E.4,5
2
9. An (n-2) sided figure has n diagonals, find the 2y
21. If 3 - 6(3y), find y. A.3 B.1 C.2 D.-3 E.1
number n of diagonals for a 25 sided figure
A.8 B.7 C.6 D.9 E.10
22. A number of pencils were share out among
Peter, Paul and Audu in the ratio 2:3:5
10. Find the probability of selecting a figure which
respectively. If Peter got 5, how many were
is parallelogram from a square, a rectangle, a
3 2 share? A.15 B.25 C.30 D.50 E.55
rhombus, a kite and a trapezium A. /5 B. /5
4 1 5
C. /5 D. /5 E. /6
23. A sum of money was invested at 8% per
annum simple interest. If after 4 years, the
11. If P varies inversely as V and V varies directly
2 money became A. N180 B. N165 C. N159
as R , find the relationship between P and R
2 D. N200 E. N250
given that R=7 when P =2 A. P =98R B.
2 2 2009 POST UME SOLUTION
PR2=98 C. P R=89 D. P=1/98R E. P=R /98
1.C 2.E 3.D 4. 5. 6.B 7.A 8.B 9.B 10.C
11.B 12.C 13.B 14.A 15.B 16.C 17. 18.C
19. 20. 21.C 22.B 23.E

POST UTME
MATHEMATICS 2008
========================================================================================
3 2
11. Dividing 2x - x - 5x + 1 by x + 3 gives the
3 3
1. The expression a + b is equal to remainder
2 2 2 2
A. (a +b)(a-ab+b ) B. (a+b)(a -ab+b ) A. 3 B. 47 C. 61 D. -47
2 2 2 2
C.(a+b )(a -ab+b) D. (a-b)(a +ab+b )
3 2
12. Let f(x) = 2x - 3x - 5x + 6. If x – 1 divides f(x)
2 2
2. Factorize 16(3x+2y) -25(a+2b) find the poles of the function.
3 1 3
A. (12x+8y-5a-10b)(12x+8y-5a-10b) A. 1,2, /2 B.1,2 /2 C.-1,2,3 D. 1, -2, /2
B. 20(3x+2y-a-10b)(3x+2y+a+1-2b)
C. (12x +8y+5a+10b)(12x+8y-5a-10b) All the 120 pupils in a school learn Yoruba or Igbo.
D. 20(3x+2y+a+2b)(3x+2y+a+2b) Given that 75 learn Yoruba and 60 learn Igbo
13. How many learn both languages?
3. A cone has base radius 4cm and height 3cm. A. 60 B. 45 C. 15 D. 120
the area of its curved surface is
2 2 2 14. How many learn Igbo only?
A. 251 cm B. 20 cm2 C. 24 cm D.15 cm
A. 45 B. 30 C. 15 D. 60
4. A cylinder has height 4cm and base radius Suppose with have matrices
5cm, its volume to 3 significant figure is A = 1 -1 and B = 0 2
2 2 2
A. 314.2cm B. 31.42cm C. 251.4cm 2 3 4 3
2
D. 251cm
15. Find A2 + AB - 2A
5. Let logy + log3. Then, y is A. -5 -9 B. -7 -7 C. -4 -4 D. 0 -4
A. x
3
B. x
-3
C. 10
-1/3
D. 10
3 12 14 16 14 2 13 -8 -6
10 10 x x
6. If - = 1, then y is 16. Evaluate the integral dx
A. 8/3 +1n2 B. 7/3 + 1n2 C. 7/3 – 1n3 D.
A. B. 8/3
C. D.
b b 17. If the distance covered by a body in time t
2 2
7. A cyclist rode for 30 minutes at xkm/hr and second is s = t – 6t – 5t, when is its initial
due to a breakdown, he had to push the bike velocity?
-1 -1 2 -1
for 2hrs at (x-5)km/hr. if the total distance A. 0ms B. -4ms C. (3t -12t +5)ms
-1
covered is less than 60km, what is the range D. 5ms
of values for x? 2 2
A. x<14 B. x<29 C. x<28 D. x<20 18. The trigonometric expression cos A + Sin A
can be written as
2
8. The expression ax +bx takes the value 6 when A. cosA (CosA - sinA) B. cos2A + sin2A –
2
x=1 and 10 when x=2. Find the value when 2sin2A -2sinAcosA C. 2sinAcosA + cos A +
2 2 2
x=5 sin A D. cos A + sin A – 2sinAcosA
A. 10 B. 12 C. 6 D. -10
Suppose D, E and P are subset of a universal
9. The difference of two numbers is 10, while . Let be the set of natural numbers not
their product is 39. Find these numbers greater than 10, while D, E and P are
A. -3 and 10 or 13 and 10 B. 3 and -10 or 3 respectively the set of odd numbers, even
C.3 and -3 or 3 and 13 D. -3 and -13 or 13 and 3 number and prime numbers. For any set X, its
compliment is denoted by X1 and  denote
10. The average age of x pupils in a class is 14 the empty set.
years 2 months. A pupil of 15 years 2 months 19. Display the set D P
joins the class and the average age is A. {3,5,7} B. {2} C.{4,6,8,10} D. {2,3,5,7}
increased by one month. Find x
A. 12 B. 6 C. 11 D. 14 20. Find D E A.{2} B.{3,5} C. {1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10}
D.
21. In a throw of a fair die, the probability of

obtaining an even number is
-7
A. 1 B. 2/3 C. 1/6 D. /10
22. Two fair coins are tossed simultaneously.

What is the probability of obtaining at least 1
tail turns up? A. ¼ B. ¾ C. ½ D. 1
23. A bag contains 10 balls of which 3 are red and

77 are white. Two balls are drawn at random.
Find the probability of none of the balls is red if
the draw is with replacement
A. 0.9 B. 1 C. 0.42 D. 0.21
24. Without replacement

A. 0.1 B. 0.47 C. 0.42 D. 0.21
25. A regular polygon has each of it angles as

0
160 . What is the number of sides of the
polygon? A. 18 B. 36 C.9 D. 20
0
26. One angle of an octagon is 100 while the
other sides are equal. Find each of these
exterior angles.
0 0 0 0
A. 80 B.60 C. 140 D.40
2
Let and be the roots of the equation x -5x + 4 = 0
27. Find the values of 1 - 1
0
A. B. C. D. 40

1.B 2.C 3.B 4.A 5. 6.B 7.C 8.A 9.D 10.B
11.A 12.C 13.C 14.B 15.B 16.B 17.D 18.A 19.D
20. 21.D 22.B 23. 24.B 25.B 26.A 27.D

POST UTME
MATHEMATICS 2007
========================================================================================
cost of the items in another currency “MONI”
0
1. The interior angles of a pentagon are: 180 , (M) in base 8?
0 0
118 , 78 and x. the value of x is A. M224 B. M114 C. M340 D. M440
0 0 0 0
A. 75 B.80 C.120 D.134
12. When the price of egg was raised by N2 an
2. All the vertices of an isosceles triangle lie on a egg, the number of eggs which can be bought
circle and each of the base angles of the for N120 is reduced by 5. The present price of
triangle is 6.50. The angle subtended at the an egg is
centre of the circle by the base of the triangle A. N6 B. N7 C. N8 D. N10
0 0 0 0
is? A. 130 B. 115 C.100 D.65
13. How long will it take a sum of money invested
3. A square tile measures 20cm by 20cm. how at 8% simple interest to double the original
many of such titles will cover a floor sum?
measuring 5m by 4m? A. 10.5years B. 8 year C. 12 years D. 12.5years
A. 500 B.400 C.320 D. 250
14. The journey fro Lagos to Ibadan usually takes
4. The volume of a certain sphere is numerically a motorist 1 hour 30 minutes. By increasing
equal to twice its surface area. The diameter his average sped by 20km/hr, the motorist
of the sphere is: saves 15 minutes. His usual speed in km/hr is
A.6 B.9 C.12 D. A. 100 B. 90 C. 85 D. 80
0
5. A bearing of 310 , expressed as a compass 15. The smallest section of a rod which can be
bearing is: cut into exactly equal sections, each of either
0 0 0
A. N50 W B. N40 W C. S40 W D.S50 W
0 30cm or 36cm in length is
A. 90cm B. 180cm C.360cm D.540cm
6. Which of the following specified sets of data is
not necessarily sufficient for the construction 16. If x = 0.0021 + 0.000074 + 0.00374, what is
of a triangle? the difference between x to 2 decimal places
A. three angle B. two sides and a right angle and x to 1 significant figure?
C. two sides and an included angle D. three sides A. 0.01 B. 0.0051 C. 0.1 D. 0.005
7. The average age of the three children in a 17. The angle of depression of two points A and B
family is 9 years, if the average age of their on a plane field from the top of a mast erected
0 0
parent is 39 years, the average age of the between A and B are 30 and 45 respectively.
whole family is: If A is westward of B, find /AB/ if the height of
A. 20years B.21years C.24years D.27years the mast is 15m from the field
A. B. 5(3 + 3)m C. 15(1+ 3)m D. 15( 3- 1)
8. Simplify 1 + -3 ÷ (1 + of )
18. The radius of a circle is given as 10cm subject
A. -8/33 B. 21/11 C. 33/21 D. -21/8 to an error of 0.2cm. the error in the area of
the circle is
1
9. If 1 + = 5, find x A. ¼% B. /50% C. 2% D. 4%
A. 3/7 B. 7/3 C. -3/7 D. -7/3

19. If  is acute, evaluate
 
10. Evaluate x in base 3 if 41x – 22x = 17x
 
A. 11 B.8 C.12 D. 22
A. tan B. -tan C. cot D. -cot
11. A woman buys 4 bags of rice for L56 per bag
20. In a survey of 100 students in an institution, 80
and 3 bags of beans for L26 per bag using the
currency “LONI” (L) in base 7. What is the total students speak Yoruba, 22 speak Igbo, while 6
speak neither Igbo nor Yoruba. How many
students speak Yoruba and Igbo?
A. 96 B. 8 C. 64 D. 12
21. A bag contains 5 yellow balls, 6 green balls

and 9 black balls. A ball is drawn from the bag.
What is the probability that it is a black or
yellow ball?
37 133 77 233
A. /160 B. /400 C. /800 D. /180
The table below shows the distribution of weight

measure or 100 students.
Weight 60-62 63-65 66-68 69-71 72-74
(kg)
F 5 18 42 27 8
22. Calculate the mean of the distribution to two

decimal places
A. 64.45 B.62.45 C. 67-45 D. 65.45
23. Calculate the mode of the distribution to two

decimal places
A. 67.33 B. 65.33 C. 65.53 D.67.53
24.
1
T Q is a tangent to the circle ABCDT, and
0 1 0
DTQ = 40 , angle ATT = 30 , then angle ATD
is
0 0 0 0
A. 70 B. 90 C. 250 D.110
1.B 2.C 3.A 4.C 5.A 6.A 7.B 8.A 9.C 10.B
11.C 12.C 13.D 14.A 15.B 16.D 17.C 18.D 19.B
20.B 21.D 22.C 23.A 24.D

POST UTME
MATHEMATICS 2006
========================================================================================
11. Suppose we have matrices

1. Solve for p in the following equation given in A = 1 -1 and B = 0 2
base two 11(P + 110) = 1001P 2 3 4 3
A. 10 B. 11 C. 110 D. 111 2
Find A + AB - 2A
2. Factorize 16(3x+2y) – 25(a+2b)
2 2 A. -5 -9 B. -7 -7 C. -4 -4 D. 0 -4
A. (12x+8y+5a+10b)(12x+8y-5a-10b) 12 14 16 14 12 13 -8 -6
B. (12x+8y-5a-10b)(12x+8y-5a-10b)
C. 20(3x+2y-a-2b)(3x+2y+a+2b) 12. The inverse of matrix B is
D. 20(3x+2y+a+2b)(3x+2y+a+2b) A. B. C.
3. Cone has base radius 4cm and height 3cm.

the area of its curved surface is D.
2 2 2
A. 12 cm B. 24 cm C. 20 cm D.15 cm
13. The indefinite integral of the function f(x) = x
4. let log y + log3 = 3. They is (a) ( )
3
(b) cos x for any constant K, is
– 1/3 A. –x cos x + sin x + k B. x sin x – cos x
( 3
) (c) (
-3
) (d) ( )
C. x sin x + cos x + k D. x + sin x + cos + k
2 2
5. if – = 1, than y is A. b/a x – a B. 14. Evaluate the integral
2– 2 2 2 2 2
a/b a x C. a/b x – a D. b/a - x A. 8/8 + 1n2 B. 7/3 – 1n3 C. 7/3 – 1n3 D. 8/3
6. A cyclist rode for 30 minutes at xkm/hr, if the 15. The trigonometric expression cos2A + sin2A
total distance covered is less than 60km, what can be written as
is the range of values for x? A. cos A(cosA – sinA)
2
A. x < 14 B. x< 20 C. x < 29 D. x < 28 B. cos A + sin2A – 2sinAcosA
2 2
C. 2sinAcosA + cos A + sin A
2 2
7. A business invested a total of N200,000 in two D. cos A + sin A – 2sinAcosA
companies which paid dividends of 5% and
7% respectively. If he receive a total of 16. Display the set D P
N11,600 as dividend, how much did he invest A. {3,5,7} B. {2} C. {4,6,8,10) D.{2,3,5,7}
at 5%? A. N160,000 B. N140,000
C. N120,000 D. N80,000 17. Find D E
A. {2} B. {3,5} C. {1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10} D.
8. In a class, 37 students take at least one of
chemistry, Economics and Government, 8 A bag contains 10 balls of which 3 are red and
students take Chemistry, 19 takes Economics 7 are white. Two balls are drawn at random.
and Government but nobody take Chemistry Find the probability of none of the balls is red,
and Economics. How many students take both if the draw is
Chemistry and Government?
A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6 18. With replacement:
A. 0.9 B.1 C. 0.47 D. 0.21
9. Z is partly constant partly varies inversely as
the square of d, when d = I, z = 11 and when 19. Without replacement
d=4 A. 0.1 B. 047 C. 0.47 D. 0.21
A. 2 B.3.5 C. 5 D. 5.5
20. A regular polygon has each of it angles as
2 2
10. Expand the expression (x -2x-3)(x +x+1) 0
160 . What is the number of sides of the
4 2 3
A. x - 4x - 5x B. –x - 4x + 5x - 3 polygon?
4 3 2 4 2
C.x - x - 4x - 5x - 3 D. x -4x -5x-3 A. 36 B. 9 C. 18 D. 20
21. A girl walks 30m from a point P on a bearing of

0
40 to a point Q, she then walks 30m on a
0
bearing of 140 to a point R. The bearing R
from O is
0 0 0 0
A. 90 B. 50 C. 45 D.40
22. How many different three digit numbers can be

formed using the integers 1 to 6 if no integer
occurs twice in a number?
A. 720 B.1260 C.2520 D. 5040
23. In how many different ways can be letters of

the word GEOLOGY be arranged in order?
A. 720 B. 1260 C. 2520 D. 5040
1.C 2.A 3.C 4. 5.A 6.D 7.C 8.A 9.B

10.C 11.B 12.A 13.C 14.B 15. 16.A 17.D 18.D
19.B 20.C 21.A 22.B 23.B

POST UTME
Chemistry Questions 2014
========================================================================================
A. 11.5 B.11.6 C.11.7 D. 11.8
1. When CuSO4 solution is treated with ammonia
solution drop by drop till it is added in excess, a 9. The complete oxidation of propan-l-ol yields
precipitate is first formed when then dissolve in A. CH3CH2CHO
excess to give a deep blue solution. The deep B. CH3COCH3
blue solution is C. CH3COOCH3
2
A. Cu(OH) D. CH3CH2COOH
B.[Cu(NH3)4 ](OH)2 10. Which of the followings will change the
C . CuSO4 equilibrium constant of the reaction
D. [Cu(NH3)2 ]SO4 CO(g) + H2O(l) CO2(g) + H2(g)?
3 A. Increase of temperature
2. If 7.0g of ethane at s.t.p occupy 5.6dm , what
B. Increase of concentration of CO
volume will 7.5g of ethane t the same condition
3 C. Removal of CO2 from the mixture
occupy? [C =12; H = I; GMV at s.t.p = 22.4dm
3 D. Decrease of pressure
A. 6.0dm
3 11. M(s) + xH2SO4(aq) M(SO4)x(aq) + xH2(g)
B. 5.6dm
3 which of the following elements will not
C. 5.2md
3 undergo the above reaction?
D. 9.4md
A. Zn B. Na C. Cu D. Ca
3. Which of the alcohols below is likely to be
oxidized to give the acid
12. A physical change is exemplified by the
CH3 – C – H – COOH?
A. burning of bush
I
B. rusting of a metal
CH3
C. dissolution of calcium in water
A. Butan- I-oI
D. heating of ammonium chloride
B. 2- methylpropan – 2-oI
C. methylpropan – l –ol
13. The number of neutrons in the deuterium atom
D. propan-2-oI
is/are
4. The name of CH3 - OCOC2H5 is
A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3
A. methoxyethane
14. Which of these is correct about methyl orange?
B. methylpropanoate
A. Yellow in excess aqueous hydrogen ions
C. ethylethanoate
B. pink in excess aqueous hydrogen ions
D. propylmethanoate
C. Orange in excess aqueous hydrogen ions
5. Which of these elements has the highest first
D. Colourless in excess aqueous hydrogen ions
ionization energy?
Which of these does not affect the rate of a
A. Rb B. Li C. Na D. K
particular chemical reaction?
6. Which of the followings is responsible for the
A. The order of the reaction
condition of electricity in a gas enclosed in a
B. The size of the particles of the reaction
glass tube containing two electrodes at a
C. The temperature of the reaction
reduced pressure and to which a high voltage is
D. The concentration of the reactants.
applied?
16. An ideal gas changing volume as temperature
A. cations and anions
raises can be represented by the diagram
B. cations
below:
C. Elections
D. cations and electrons
7. The type of reaction an alkanioc acid cannot
undergo is
A. oxidation
B. combustion
C. decomposition
D. esterification
-3 3
8. What is the pH of 2.5 x 10 moldm barium
hydroxide solution? The point marked X on the graph is
0
A. -273K B. 273K C.273 C D. -100k4
17. How many isometric dichlorobenzenes are

obtainable?
A. 1 B.2 C. 3 D. 4
18. By accurate description, ozone in the reaction,
O3(g) + H2O2(l) H2O(l) + 2O2(g) is
A. displaced to form oxygen
B. decomposed to form oxygen
C. oxidized to oxygen
D. reduced to oxygen
3
19. 150cm of nitrogen II oxide were sparked with
3
100cm of oxygen, what volume of nitrogen IV
oxide will be produced at s.t.p?
3 3
(a) 100cm (b) 75cm
3 3
(c) 50cm (d) 150cm
20. Which of the following ions will interact with
water to give a solution of pH < 7?
- +
(a) Na (b) NH4 (c)
21. In the electrolysis of acidified water using
3
platinum electrodes, 1dm of oxygen was
collected at s.t.p by passing 4.5 amperes into
the electrolytic cell. Calculate the time required
to set his amount of gas free. [Molar volume of
3
gas at s.t.p = 22.4dm ; 1 Faraday = 9650
coulombs]
A. 40.4mm B. 63.8mm
C. 55.5mm D. 5.68 min
22. Two plugs of glass wool soaked in
concentrated ammonia and concentrated
hydrochloric acid are placed at the opposite
ends of a long tube such that the distance
3
between them is 100cm .
23. The ratio of the distance covered by ammonia
to that covered by hydrochloric acid when is
A. 2.140 B. 1.465
C. 0.982 D. 0.476
CHEMISTRY 2014 SOLUTION

1.B 2.B 3.C 4.C 5.B 6.C 7.A 8.C 9.D
10.A 11.C 12.D 13.B 14.A 15.A 16. 17.C 18.B
19.D 20. 21.B 22.B

POST UTME
CHEMISTRY QUESTION 2013
========================================================================================
3 2
A. 100cm B. 24cm
3 3
1. A motor truck releases an average of 50g CO C. 138cm D. 192cm
into air for every km covered, How many
molecules of CO will be emitted into the air if 10. Uranium-235 explodes when bombarded with
the truck travels 8km?[C 12;O = 16; NA = 6.02 a slow moving neutron according to the
x 10] equation below:
22 23
A. 4.32 x 10 B. 2.48 x 10 + + Ba + 3
23 21
C. 8.6 x 10 D. 6.82 x 10 The atomic number and mass of Ba
2. A sample of an organic compound was respectively are
weighed to be 0.250g and subjected to A. 46 and 126
Kjeldahi treatment. The ammonia produced B. 36 and 116
3 -3
was neutralized by 27.0cm of 0.100 mol dm C. 56 and 139
HC1. What is the percentage of nitrogen in the D. 66 and t46
compound? [H = 1; N = 14] 11. The reduction potential of two electrodes are
2+
A. 18.4% B. 17.8% X + 2e- X, E° 0.042V
+ 0
C. 15.1% D. 13.3% Y + e- Y, E = 0.012V
+
3. Given the half - redox reaction O2 + 4H + 4e- Calculate the free energy change for the cell
2H2O, how many moles of electron will be that is made up of the electrodes (F = 96500
22 -1
required to produce 3.0 x 10 molecules of Coulomb mol ]
water? A. 4.20kJ B. 5.79kJ
A. 0.05 B. 0.10 C. 6.86 kJ D. 10.55 kJ
C. 0.15 D. 2.0 12. Which of SF4, SiH4, CO2, ICI, CH2Cl2, SO2 and
4. The quantum number L in an atom defines XeO3will not show the property of permanent
A. the shell K, L, M B. orbitals dipole?
C. multiplicity D. degeneracy of orbitals A. CO2 and SiH4 only
B. SF3 and SiH4 only
5. The hybridization of the central atom in a C. CO2, SiH4 and XeO3 only
molecule D. SF4, SiH4, CO2 and lCl
A. dictates the shape of the molecule 13. A sample of water weighs 200.00 g at 298 K.
B. shortens the sigma bond in the molecule What is the volume of this quantity of water in
C. distorts the shape of the molecule cubic meters given that the density of water at
3
D. serves to explain the shape of the molecule 298 K is 0.98gcm ?
3 3
6. Lithium with atomic number of 3 is a A.2.04x103m- m
-6 3
A. Strong reducing agent B.2.04 x 10 m
-9 3
B. Strong oxidizing agent C.2.04 x 10 m
-4 3
C. Weak reducing agent D. 2.04 x 10 m
3
D. Weak oxidizing agent 14. What is the pH of 500cm of 0.02 mol dm-3
7. The correct name for HCOOCH5 is tetraoxosulphur (VI) acid?
A. methylethanoate A. 1.456 B. 1.333C
B. ethylethanoate C. 1.455 D. 1.699
C. ethylmethanoate 15. The main product of electrophilic addition of
D. Propylethanoate HCI to 2-methylpropene is
8. When CaC2 reacts with water, the organic A. 2-chloro-2-methylbutane
product forms is B. 2-chloro-2-methylbutene
A. ethanol C. 2-methyl-2-chloropropene
B. ethanoic acid D. 2-chloro-2-methylpropane
C. Ethane 16. Which of the following compounds would you
D. ethyne expect to show positive iodoform test?
3 3
9. 100 cm of ethyne was mixed with 240cm of (i) Batanone (ii) Propanoic acid
oxygen in a combustion chamber. What (iii) Ethanol (iv) Benzaldehyde (v) But-2-one
volume of carbon (iv) oxide is produced? A. (i) and (ii)
B. (i) and (iii)

C. (iv) and (v)
D. (ii) and (iii)
17. The complete combustion of one mole of an

alkanol is shown below:
CH2n+1CHO + xO2 yCO2 + 2H2O
What is the value of x in terms of n?
A. B. C. D.
18. An ion has a charge of +3. The nucleus of the

ion has a mass of 120. The number of
neutrons in the nucleus is 1.50 times that of
the number of protons. How many electrons
are in the ion?
A. 55 B. 48 C. 45 D. 42
19. Consider the following reactions
(i) LiOH + CO2 Li2CO3 + H2O
(ii) 2H2 + O2 2H2O
(ii) 2Cu + O2 2CuO
(iv) HCl + AgNO3 AgCl + HNO3
Which of these reactions are redox reactions?
A. (i) and (iii) only
B. (i), (ii) and (iii) only
C. (ii) and (iv) only
D. (ii) and (iii) only
20. Which of the following metals cannot displace
hydrogen from steam?
A. Copper B. Iron
C. Strontium D. Lithium
21. Consider the exothermic reaction?
SO2(g) + O2(g) 2SO2(g)
If the temperature of the reaction is reduced
from 600°C to 300°C and no other changes
take place then,
A. the reaction rate increases
B. concentration of SO4 decreases
C. concentration of SO3 increases
D. SO2 gas becomes unreactive
22. The molarity of 5% by weight of aqueous

solution of tetraoxosulphate (VI) acid
[molecular weight 98] is
-3 -3
A. 0.537mol dm B. 0.208mol dm
-3 -3
C. 0.551 mol dm D. 0.333 mol dm

1.C 2.C 3.B 4.B 5.A 6.A 7.C 8.D 9.D
10.C 11.B 12.D 13.D 14. 15.D 16.C 17.D 18.C
19.B 20.C 21.C 22.

POST UTME
========================================================================================
the distance of the solvent front from the top of
1. During the electrolysis of dilute the plate upon elution?
tertraoxosulphate(VI) acid solution, 0.05 mole (a)0.98 ≈ 1.0 (b) 1.0cm (c) 1.2cm (d) 1.4cm
of electrons were passed. What volume of gas
was produced at the anode? 9. The main organic product formed when
3
A. 2.24 dm bromine water is added to but-i -ene is
3
B.0.560 4m A. I – bromobutane
C. 0.280 dm B. 2-bromobutan-1 -01
3
D.0.224 dm C. 1- brornobutan-2-ol
2. Platinum electrodes arc dipped into copper D. 2-bromobutan-2o1
sulphate solution in a voltameter. The solution 10. Valence shell electron pair theory through
at after electrolysis is hybridization predicts that boron dichloride is
A. clear A. Arrhenius acid
B. blue B. Lewis base
C. pale blue C. Lewis acid
D. sky blue D. Lowry-Bronsied base
3. What volume of water is produced when a -3
11. What volume of 0.750 mol dm Na2CO2
3 3 3
mixture of 150cm of hydrogen and 100m of solution could be diluted to 250 cm to reduce
oxygen is exploded in a eudiometer? 3
the concentration to 0.025 mol dm ?
3 3 3
A. 250cm B. 150cm A.16.0cm B.14.2 cm
3 3 3 3
C.100cm D.50cm C.10.4 cm D. 8.3 cm
4. Given the half-cell reacts. 2Br Br2, how 3 -3
12. When 70cm of 3.0 moldm Na2CO3 is added
many moles of electron will be required to 2 -3
to 30cm of 1.0 mol dm NaHCO3, the
3 + -3
produce 0.56dm of bromine at s.t.p? (molar concentration of Na ions in mold dm in the
3
volume of gas at s.t.p = 22.4 dm ). solution is
A. 0.05 B. 0.10 A. 1.5 B. 4.5m
C.0.20 D.1.00 C. 2.0 D. 3.5
5. The equilibrium constant Kc for the reaction, 13. The reaction, Y Product is of first order
1 -3
NO(g) + /2O NO2(g), is 35.2 What is the with the initial concentration of Y = 3.55 x 10
value of Kc for the reaction, NO2(g) NO(g) + 3 -3 -1
mol dm are the rate constant of 5.25 x 10 S
½ C2(g)? What is tile half-life of that action?
A. 35.2 B.17.6 A. 350s B. 215s
-2
C.2.84 x 10 C. 132s D. 615s
3
D. 1.24 x 10 14. What quantity of current is required to deposit
6. An atom has a core and outside the core an 2.4g of copper in a period of 750 seconds
electron occupies an orbital for which the during an electrolytic deposition process? (Cu
principal quantum number, n = 4, 1 = 0, and s -1
= 64, 1F = 96000 coul mol ).
1
= ½ or - /2. The atom is likely to be A. 9.65A B.10.81A
A. boron B. sodium C. 12.33A D. 15.54A
C. potassium D. fluorine 15. The standard reduction potentials for the
20
7. An element B, has two isotopes 10B and following half-cell reactions are, 2HO(l) = O2(g)
22 + 0
10B present in ratio 2:3. The relative atoms + + 4H (aq) + 4eE = - -1.23V
mass of B is +
2H2O2,(l) = 2O2(g) + 4H (aq) + 4e
A. 20.5 B. 21.2 E -- 0.68V
C. 23.4 D. 25.0 0
What is the E for the reaction, 2H2O2(l) =
8. A chloroform solution of pure organic Cl2O(l) + O2(g) at 298K?
compound was spotted at a distance 0.80 cm A. – 68V B. – 1.23V C. – 0.55V D. + 1.91V
from the base of a 20cm long chromatoptate. If 16. Bonding in ammonium chloride is
the compound has the r, - value of 0.505 and A. ionic. covalent and dative
moves half way up the 20 cm long late, what is B. ionic and covalent
C. covalent and dative D. ionic
17. A chemical equilibrium is established when

A. concentration of the reactants and
products are equal
B. Reactants in the system stop forming the ∆H
products
C. concentrations of the reactants and
products remain unchanged
Energ
D. reactants in the system are completely
transformed to product y
18. The basic tenet of valence bond electron pair

repulsion theory is that the pairs of electrons
making the sigma bonds dictate the shape of
molecules. The pi-bonds often encounter in CHEMISTRY 2012 SOLUTION
some molecules serve
A. distort the shape of molecules 1.B 2.C 3.B 4.A 5.C 6.C 7.B 8.A
B. alter the angle between the .toms in 9.B 10.C 11.D 12.B 13.C 14.A 15.C 16.A
molecules 17.C 18.B 19.C 20.A 21.C
C. shorten the sigma bonds in molecules
D. explain the shape of molecules
19. Excess ethanol was parked with 3g of pure

oxygen in a combustion chamber. How many
molecules of CO2 are produced? (N = 6.02 x
23 -1
10 molecules mol )
22 23
A. 6.02 x 10 B. 3.01 x 10
21 21
C. 3.70 x 10 D. 2.84 x 10
20. Oxygen is extracted from water by

A. displacement reaction
B. oxidation reaction
C. reduction reaction
D. decomposition reaction
21. Forty (40) grams of sodium nitrate were added

3
to 50cm of water to give a saturated solution
at 298K. If the solubility of the salt is 10.50
-3
moldm at the same temperature, what
percentage of the salt is left undissolved? [Na
= 23, N = 14 and O = 16]
A. 11.56% B. 2.55%
C. 5.88% D. 2.45%
22. The energy for the decomposition of molecule

AB in KJ in the diagram of energy against the
reaction coordinate shown below is
A. 146 B. -540 C. 682 D. 398

POST UTME
========================================================================================
9. The reaction? A +B - >can be represented by
the equation, r =K[A][B], K in this equation is,
1. What condition favours the formation of the A. proportionality of constant
production for the endothermic reaction, B. rate constant
N2O4(g) < - > 2NO2(g) C. equilibrium constant
A. a decrease in pressure D. boltzmam constant
B. a decrease in volume 10. The reaction that takes place in Denial
C. an increase in pressure 2+
A. Zn/Zn // Cu / Cu
2+
D. a constant volume 2+
B. Zn/Zn //Cu/cu
2+
2. What is the percentage yield of water if 0.90g 2+

C. Zn /Zn//Cu Cu
2+/
of water is obtained when 29.0g of butane is 2+/

D. Zn Zn//Cu/Cu
2+
burned in excess oxygen? 11. Which of the following is composed of the

A. 0.02% B.0.20% elements, H, O, Al, and Si?
C.2.0% D. 10.0% A. Urea B. Silica
3. The order of reactivity of five metals is C. Bauxtie D. clay
P>Q>R>S>T, which of the following reactions 12. Which of the following is not a chemical
can occur, spontaneously? reaction?
+ +
A. T + P - > T + P A. burning of bush
+
B. Q + T - > Q + T B. rusting of iron
+ +
C. R + Q - > R + Q C. decay of bitter leaves
+ +
T+R ->T + R D. dissolution of potassium hydroxide pellets
4. An element, Y has the electronic configuration 13. 100.0g of KClO3 was added to 40.0cm3 of
2 2 6 2 3
of 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p . water to give a saturated solution at 298K. If
A. Y is a period III element the solubility of the salt is 20.0 mol dm’ at
B. Y contains three electrons in the outer shell 298K. what percentage of the salt is left
C. Y is a transaction metal undisolved? [K = 39, Cl = 35.5, O=16).
D. Y can engage in bonding with the s and p A. 80% B. 60%
orbitals C. 50% D.2%
5. Which of the following is NOT implicated as a 14. A tertiary amine is
major cause of global warming? A. ethylamine
A. NO2 B.CO2 C. CFCL3 D.CF2Cl2 B. diethylanine
6. Which of the following shows little or no net C. triethylamine
reaction when the volume of the system is D. tetraethylamine
decreased? 15. Which of the following statements is true when
A. 2O3(g) < - > 3O2(g) sulphur atom forms its ion?
B. 2NO2(g) < - > N2O4(g) A. it achieves an inert configuration
C. H2(g) + 12(g) < - > 2H1(g) B. it transfers two electrons in the process
D. PCl5(g) + Cl2 C. it accepts one electron in the process
7. A solution of 0.20 mole of NaBr and 0.20 mole D. it gets oxidized in the process
3
of MgBr, in 2.0dm of water is to be analyzed. 16. An electron described by the quantum
How many moles of Pb(NO3)2 must added to number. n = 4. L= 3 can be located in what
precipitate all the bromide as soluble PbBr2,? orbital?
A. 0.3 mol B. 0.10 mol A. 4f B. 3s C. 3d D. 4p
C. 20 mol D. 0.40 mol 17. An aqueous solution of a crystalline salt reacts
8. A given volume of methane diffuses in 20s. with dilute HCI to give a yellow precipitate and
How long will it take the same volume of a gas that tuned dichromate paper green. The
sulphur (IV) oxide to diffuse under the same crystalline salt may be,
conditions? (C = 12, H = I. S = 32, 0 16). A. Na2SO3 5H2O
A. 5s B. 20s B. Na2CO3 10H2O
C. 40s D. 60s C. Na2S
D.NaHCO3
18. The oxidation states of nitrogen in ammonium

nitrate are,
A. -3, +3 B. -3, +5
C. +3, -5 D. -3, 4
19. Which of these reagents can confirm the
presence of a triple bond?
A. hypochlorous acid
B. bromine water
C. acidified KMnO4
D. Copper chloride
3
20. An excess 0.10 mol dm HCI was poured into
a big beaker containing 2g of limestone. The
3
unreacted acid required 25 cm of 0.10 mol
3
dm potassium carbonate to neutralize it. An
electron described by the quantum number, n
= 4, 1 = 3 can be located in what orbital?
A.4f B. 3s C. 3d D. 4p
3 -3
21. 25cm of 0.10mold m potassium carbonate to
neutralize it. What was the original volume of
the acid’? [Ca = 40. C = 12, O = 16]
3 3
A.250cm B. 260cm
3 3
C. 400cm D. 450cm
22. Ra particle. What is the value of
x in the nuclear reaction?
A.226 B.220 C. 222 D.174
23. In the electrolysis of copper (II) sulphate using
copper electrodes, the processes that occur at
the anode and cathode respectively are:
A. dissolution and evolution
B. dissolution and deposition
C. deposition and evolution
D. evolution and deposition

1. A 2.C 3.B 4.A 5.A 6.C 7.A 8.C
9.B 10.A 11.D 12.A 13.D 14.C 15.A 16.A
17.C 18.B 19.D 20.D 21.C 22.B

POST UTME
========================================================================================
volume of the gas at s.t.p If the vapour
1. Whose experiment showed that the atom has pressure of water at the temperature of the
a tiny positively charged nucleus? experiment is 14mm of Hg.
3 3
A. Thompson B Rutherford A. 168.25cm B. 176.40cm
3 3
C. Millikan D. Dalton C. 185.4cm D. -172.14cm
2. Which of the quantum number divides shells 11. A given mass of gas occupies a certain
into orbitals? volume at 300K. At what temperature will its
A. principal B. subsidiary volume he double?
C. magnetic D. spin A. 100K B. 480K
3. Which of these statements is / are correct of a C. 550K D. 600K
proton? i. the mass of a proton is one-twelfth 12. The basic assumption in the kinetic theory of
the molar mass of carbon ii. The mass of a gas that: “force of attraction and repulsion
proton is 1840 times the mass of an electron between gaseous molecules are negligible”
iii. The mass of a proton is 1 .0008g implies that:
A. ii only B. i. ii and iii A. molecules will continue their motion indefinitely
C. I only D. I and ii only B. gases will occupy any available space
4. Candidate devised the following for the C. gases can be compressed
D. none of the above
separation of the components of some
13. Which of the following is true of a sample of
mixtures. i. components of ink; principles
hydrogen gas whose mass is 4.00g under a
involved is chromatography ii. Components of 0
pressure of 2atm and a temperature of 27 C?
water and kerosene principle involved is -1 -1
(H =1, R = 0.082 lit atm, Mol deg )
separating funnel iii. Components of iodine
A. Its volume is 24.6 litres
and sodium chloride, principles involved is
B. It contains 6.02 x 1023 molecules
sublimation. In which of the above is the
C. it exists as atoms because of temperature
principle used correct?
A. i only B. ii only C. iii only D. i, ii and iii
14. The following are chemical entities identifiable
5. Which of the following procedures will 2-
during qualitative analysis. i. SO4 ii. H3O iii.
separate a mixture of sand sodium chloride
NH4 iv. OH. Which of them can be detected by
and iodine into its components?
A. add water; filter; sublime; evaporate to dryness litmus paper?
B. add water sublime filter; evaporate to dryness A. ii & iv only B. ii only
C. sublime; filter, add water; evaporate to dryness C. i & iii only D. iv only
D. sublime; add water; filter; evaporate to dryness 15. I. NaHCO3 II. HaHSO4 111. NaCI. Which of
6. The type of bonds in amrnonium chloride are these will dissolve in water to give alkaline
A. covalent and electrovalent solution?
B. dative and covalent A. i, ii & iii B. ii only C. i only D. i & ii only
C. dative and electrovalent 16. Burning of 0.46g of ethanol produced heat that
D. covalent, dative and electrovalent raised the temperature of 100g of water by
7. Which of the following types of bonding does 30°C. Calculate the heat of combustion of
not produce a compound? ethanol, C2H5OH. (C = 12; H = 1; O = 16)
-1 -1
A. ionic bonding B. covalent bonding A. 50 KJmol B. 900KJmol
-1 -1
C. dative bonding D. metallic bonding C. 1200KJmol D. 1000KJmol
8. The combining powers of HCO3,O,Na,Cl, 17. When chlorine is bubbled into potassium
respectively are iodine solution:
A.-2,1,-l,+1 B. 12,1,1 A. a white precipitate is seen
C.+1,-2,+1,-1 D. none of these B. reddish brown colour develops
9. What is the chemical formula of the compound C solution remains colourless
containing: 6.02 x 1023 atoms of hydrogen, D. blue colour is seen
35g of chlorine, and 4 moles of oxygen atoms? 18. PCI5(g) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g). In the reaction
A. HCI4O B. HCIO C. HCIO4 D. HCl2O. above, an increase in pressure will
10. 200cm3 of hydrogen were collected over water A. decelerate the reaction
at 30°C and 740mm of Hg. Calculate the B. increase the yield of PCI3
C. increase the yield of PCI5

D. accelerate the reaction
19. A saturated solution of silver trioxocarbonate
(IV), was found to have concentration of 1.30 x
5 -3
10 mol dm . The solubility product of
trioxocarbonate (IV) is
-15 -10
A. 8.79 x 10 B.1.69 x 10
-10 -10
C. 1.82 x 10 D. 9.84 x 10
20. A Zinc half-cell is connected to an iron half-
cell through a salt bridge and both are also
connected through a copper wire. At which
electrode is reduction taking place and which
electrode is positively charged?
A. zinc, zinc B. iron, iron
C. Zinc, iron D. iron, zinc
21. Which of the following is the difference
between an electrolytic cell X and
electrochemical cell Y:
A. Anode in X is-ve while anode in Y is +ve
B. in X, oxidation takes place at the anode while in
Y reduction takes place at the anode
C. in X. anode is positive while in Y’ anode is
negative
D. in X, chemical energy is converted into electrical
energy while in Y electrical energy is converted
into chemical energy
22. What mass of bromine will saturate complete
6.8g of 3-mehtybut-I-yne (H = 1: C= 12; Br =
80). A. 16g B.32g C. 12g D. 24g
3 3
23. 100cm of oxygen and 10cm of butane
measured at room temperature and pressure
were mixed and exploded. Determine the
volume of the mixture when bought back to die
original conditions of measurements.
3 3
A 125cm B. 100cm
3
C. 75cm D. none of these
24. Sulphur
A. forms two alkaline oxides
B. is spontaneously inflammable
C. burns a bloc flame
D. conducts electricity in molten state
25. Which of the following combination of reagents
wilt reacts to give chloride gas?
A. sodium chloride, conc H2SO4 and
Manganese oxide
B. Potassium tetraoxomanganate
C. Potassium trioxochloride (IV) and conc.
H2SO4
D. Potassium tetraoxomangante (VI) and
H2SO4.
CHEMISTRY SOLUTION 2010

1. B 2.B 3.A 4.D 5.D 6.D 7.D 8.B 9.C
10.D 11.D 12.B 13. 14.A 15.C 16. 17.B 18.C
19.A 20.D 21. 22.B 23.A 24.C 25.A

POST UTME
========================================================================================
A. potassium hydroxide
1. The flame used by welders in cutting metals is B. heated gold
A. butane gas flame C. heated magnesium
B. acetylene-hydroflane D. heated phosphorus
C. kerosene flame E. calcium chloride
D. oxyacetylene D. oxygen flame 11. At STP. how many litres of hydrogen can be
3
2. Consecutive members of an alkane obtained from the reaction of 500cm of 0.5M
homogenous series differ by H2SO4 excess in metal
3 3
A. CH B. CH2 C. CH3 A. 22.4dm B. 11.2dm
3 3
D.C3H3 E. CnH2n+2 C. 65dm D. 5.6dm
3
3. Which of these will dissolve in HCl? Mg, Fe, E. 0.00dm
Pb and Cu. 12. Tetraoxosulphate (VI) ions are final test using
A. all the metals B. Mg, Fe and Cu A. acidified silver nitrate
C. Mg. Fe and Pb D. Mg and Fe only B. acidified barium chloride
E. Mg only C. lime water
4. Stainless steel is an alloy of B. dilute hydrochloric acid
A. carbon, iron and lead E. acidified had nitrate
B. carbon, iron and chromium 13. Which of the following is NOT the correct
C. carbon, non and copper product formed when the parent metal is
D. carbon, iron and silver heated in air?
E. carbon and iron only A. calcium oxide (CaO)
5. What volume of 0.50 MH2SO4 will exactly B. Sodium Oxide (Na2O)
neutralize 20cm3 of 0.1M NaOH solution? C. Copper (II) oxide (CuO)
3 3 3
A. 2 0cm B. 5.0cm C. 6.8cm D. Tri-iron tetroxide (Fe3O4)
3 3
D. 8.3cm E. 10.4cm E. Aluminum Oxide (Al3O3)
6. A gas that can behave as a reducing agent 14. Which of the following roles does sodium
towards chlorine and as an oxidizing agent chloride play in Soap preparation? It
towards A. reacts with glycerol
A. O2 B. NO C. SO2 B. purifies the soap
D. NH3 E. CO2 C. accelerates the decomposition of the fat
7. An element that can exist in two or more and oil
different structure forms which possess the D. separates the soap form the glycerol
same chemical properties is said to exhibit E. coverts the fat acid to its sodium salt
A. Polymerism 15. The function of sulphur during the
B. Isotropy vulcanization of rubber is to
C. isornorphism A. act as catalyst for the polymerization or
D. Isomerism rubber molecules
E. Allotropy B. covert rubber form thermosetting thermo
8. The hybridization of the carbon atom in ethyne plastic polymer
is C. from chains which bind rubber molecular
n 3 2
A. SP B. SP C. SP D. SP E.ES together
9. in the Haber process for the manufacturer of D. break down rubber polymer molecule
ammonia, finely divided iron is used as E. shorter the chain length of rubber polymer
A. an ionizing agent 16. An clement with atomic number twelve is like
B. a reducing agent to be
C. a catalyst A. electrovalent with a valency of 1
B. a dehydrating agent B. Electrovalent with a valency of 2
E. an oxidizing agent C. covalent with a valency of 2
10. Nitrogen can best be obtained from a mixture D. covalent with a valency of 4
of oxygen and nitrogen by passing the mixture 17. Which of the following is an a cid salt?
over A.NaHSO4 B.Na2SO4
C. CH3CO3Na B. Na3S2 E. C2H5 16.B 17.A 18.E 19.B 20.D 21.A 22.D
18. Which of the following compounds is NOT 23.C 24.B 25.A
formed by the action of chlorine on methane?
A. CH3Cl B. C2H5CI C. CH2Cl2
D. CHCI3 E. CH4CL
19. Starch can be converted to ethyl alcohol by
A. distillation
B. fermutation
C. isomerization
B. cracking
E. osomosis
20. How many isomers can be formed from
organic compounds with formula C3H8O
A. 2 B. 3
C. 4 D. 5 E. 1
21. When platinum electrodes are used during the
electrolysis of cooper (II) tetraoxoxulphate
(V) solution, the solution gets progressively
A. acidic
B. basic
C. Natural
D. Atmospheric
22. Which of the following physical properties
decreases across the period table
A. ionization potential
B. electron affinity
C. electron negativity
D. atomic radius
E. electro-positive reaction
23. Which of these has the lowest pH value? To
be continued
A. calcium trioxocarbonates
B. sodium trioxocarbonate (IV)
C. hydrochloric acid
D. ethanoic acid
E. hydrocarbon acid
24. Which of the following is used in fire
extinguishers?
A. carbon (III) oxide
B. carbon (IV) oxide
C. Sulphur (IV) oxide
D. Amonia
E. Sulphur (III) oxide
25. Metals is NOT used for tinder water
construction because
A. it hardens
B. its hardening does not depend upon
evaporation
C. it requires concrete to harden
D. it will be washed away by the flow of water
E. it softens when exposed

1.D 2.B 3.C 4. 5.A 6.C 7.E 8.D
9.C 10.D 11.D 12.D 13. 14.D 15.C

POST UTME
========================================================================================
D. carbon (II) oxide
1. Silver trioxonitrate (V) on heating, gives 11. Apart form eater, the other product(s) of the
A. Ag, N2O and O2 neutralization reaction between NaOH solution
B. Ag2O, N2 and O2 and nitrogen (IV) oxide is/are
C. Ag, O and N, O A. NANO2
D. Ag, NO2 and O2 B. NANO3
2. The most reactive halogen is C. NANO3 and HNO3
A. Cl2 B. Br2 D. NANO2 and NANO3
C. F2 D. 12 12. An acid and its conjugate base
3. 0.79g of a gas at s.t.p occupied a volume of A. are oppositely charged
50cm3. What is the relative molecular mass of B. differ only by a hydroxide ion
-3
the gas? (G.M.V. at s.t.p. = 22.4dm ) C. differ only by an electron
A. 17 B.32 D. differ only a proton
C.64 D. 71 13. A complex salt is
4. The relationship between the density (d) of a A. Al(SO4).12H2O
gas and the rate (r) at which the gas diffuses is B. Cu(NH3)3Cl2
1
A. r = Kd B.r = Kd /2 C. K2S2O3.5H2O
1 -1
C. r = Kd /2 D. r = Kd D. Mg(OH)Cl
5. The pressure exerted by a sample of a gas 14. What happens to the conductivity of an
3
confined in 5.86dm container at 20°C is 4.1 electrolyte as its concentration reduces?
atm. what is the number of moles of the gas in A. increases
3 -1 -1
the sample? (R = 0.082dm atm mol K ) B. decreases
A.1.00 B. 2.00 C. us unaffected
C. 3.00 D. 4.00 D. becomes resistivity
3 3
6. 50cm of hydrogen are sparked with 100cm of 15. If the cost of electricity required to deposit 1g
oxygen at 110°C and 1 atm. If the whole of aluminum is N4.00, how much would it cost top
reaction mixture passes through an alkaline deposit 24g of copper? (A1 = 27, Cu = 64)
solution pyrogallol, the volume of the residual A. N27.02
gas is B. N37.02
3 3
A. 125cm B. 100cm C. N47.02
3 3
C. 75cm D. 50cm D. N57.02
7. Inter-atomic combinations involves the 16. The overall reaction in an electrochernical cell
2+ 2+
A. neutrons in the nucleus only is Mg(s) + Cu (aq) -> Mg (aq) + Cu(s) What is
B. protons in the nucleus only the symbolic representation of the cell?
2+ 2+
C. electrons in the outer shell only A. Mg(s) + / Mg (aq) / CU (aq) + / Cu(s)
2+ 2+
D. electrons in all the shells. B. Mg(aq)/Mg (s,) / Cu (aq)
2+ 2+
8. Which of the following is not a characteristic C. Cu (aq) / Cu(s) / Mg (aq)
2+ 2+
property of ionic compounds? D. Cu(s) / CU (aq) /Mg (aq) / Mg(S)
A. solubility in polar solvents 17. Which of the following metals can be used as
B. low melting points sacrificial cathode for preventing corrosion of
C. conduction of electricity in aqueous solution a length of iron pipe?
D. fast reactions in solution A. AG B. Cu
9. The compound with the heights ionic character C. Mg E. Mn
among the following is 18. A particle that contains 8 protons, 9 neutrons
A. PCI3 B. CCI4 and 7 electrons could be written as
16 - 17 -
C. BCl3 D. C5Cl A. 8 O B. 9O
17 - 17 -
10. Why is the hydrogen gas not found in the C. 9O D. 8O
atmosphere? It readily reacts with 19. The decreasing order of the magnitude of
A. carbon (IV) oxide energy changes is
B. oxygen A. phase, chemical, nuclear
C. nitrogen B. chemical, nuclear, phase
C. nuclear, phase, chemical
D. nuclear, chemical, phase

20. The decreasing order of the magnitude of
energy changes is
A. phase, chemical, nuclear CHEMISTRY 2008 SOLUTION
B. chemical, nuclear, phase 1.D 2.C 3.D 4.B 5.A 6.D 7.C 8.B
C. nuclear, phase, chemical 9.D 10.B 11.B 12.D 13.B 14.B 15.A 16.A
D. nuclear, chemical, phase 17.C 18.B 19.D 20.C 21.C 22.D 23.B 24.B
21. 0.92g of ethanol raised the temperature of 25.B 26.B
100g of water from 298K to 312.3K when
burned completely. What is the heat of
combustion of ethanol?
-1
A. +300KJmol
-1
B. +3000KJmol
-1
C. -300KJmol
-1
D. -3000KJmol
[C = 12; H = 1; O = 16; specific heat capacity
-1 -1
of water = 4.2Jg K J]
22. The highest level of molecular disorderliness
is found in
A. ice at -10°C
B. water at 100°C
C. steam at 100°C
0
D. ice at 0 C
23. A reaction is spontaneous at all temperature if
A. ∆G = 0
B. ∆G>0
C. ∆S<O and ∆H>o
D. ∆S>O and ∆H<0
24. Which of the following reactions of marble with
3 3
100cm of 0.100moldm . HCI is fastest?
A. 5g of marble limp at 50°C
B. 5g of marble powder at 50°C
C. 5g of marble powder at 25°C
D. 5g of marble lump 25°C
25. A(g) + 2B(g) — C(g) In the reaction
represented by the equation above, the rate of
appearance of C is found experimentally to be
independent of the concentration of A and to
increase four folds when the concentration of
B is doubled. The rate law for the reaction is
4
A. Rate = K(A)°(B)
2
B. Rate = K(A)°(B)
2
C. Rate = K(B)
2
D. Rate = K(A) (B)°
26. How is the equilibrium constant for the forward
reaction of an equilibrium (Kr) related to that of
the reverse reaction (Kr)?
A. (Kr) is the additive inverse Of(Kr)
B. (K,) is the multiplicative inverse of Kr)
C. (Kr) is the same as (Kr)
D. the product of (Kr) and (K,) is zero.
-
27. What is the concentration of OH ions of an
aqueous solution of pH 4.4?
-10 -3
A. 9.600 x 10 moldm
-10 3
B. 2.512 x 10 moldm
-11 3
C. 9.600x 10 moldm
-11 -3
D. 2.5l2x 10 moldm

POST UTME
========================================================================================
C. titration of sodium hydroxide with oxalic acid
1. Consider the reaction 2A(g) = B(g) + C(g)∆H = (ethanedioic acid)
+25.6KJ. Which of the following changes will D. titration of ammonium hydroxide and
trioxonitrate(V) acid
favour the formation of the products of the 3 3
8. 70cm of hydrogen are sparked with 25cm of
reaction represented above, at equilibrium?
oxygen at S.T.P. The total volume of the
A. decrease in temperature
residual gas is
B. increase in pressure 3 3
A.20cm B. 35cm
C. increase in temperature 3
C.45cm D. 25crn
D. decrease in volume
226 9. A solution X, on mixing with AgNO3 solution,
2. An element 88X undergoes radioactive
gives a white precipitate soluble in NH3.
decay by emitting two alpha particle sand a
A solution Y when added to X, also gives a
beta radiation. Which of the following nuclei
white precipitate which is soluble on boiling.
correctly describe the product formed by the
Solution Y contains
reaction? + 2+
222 218 A. Ag B. Pb
A. 89T B. 84S 4+ 2+
218 222 C. Pb D.Zn
C. 85 D. 87Q
10. Which of the following is an exception in the
3. Which of the following alkanols will not
assumptions of the kinetic theory of gases?
undergo oxidation reaction by acidified
A. the particles of negligible size
K2Cr2O7?
B. the particles are in constant random motion
A. CH3CH2CH(OH)CH3
C. the particles are of negligible mass
B. CH3CH2CH2CH2OH
D. the particles collide with each other
C. CH3CH2CH2C(CH3)(OH)CH3
11. A saturated solution AgCl was found to have a
concentration of 1.30x10-5rnoldm-3. The solubility
4. The electronic configuration of the species
product of AgCl therefore is
underlined as in the molecule H2S is. -5 2 -6
2 2 6 2 6 10 2 4 A. 1.30 x 10 mol drn
A. 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 3d 4s 4p -12 2 -6
2 2 6 2 4 B. 2.60 x 10 mol dm
B. 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p -7 2 6
2 2 6 2 2 C. 1.30 x 10 rnol dm
C. 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p -10 2 -6
2 2 6 2 6 D. 1.69 x 10 mol dm
D. 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 3
12. 0.06g of a hydrocarbon occupies 32cm at
5. The functional group(s) of an amino acid is/are
S.T.P. Its formula is
A. NH2, -COOH
A.C3H6 B.C2H2
B. CnH2n+1, COOH
C. C2H4 D.C2H6
C. -COCH, COOH
13. Consider the following compounds
D. COOH, CONH2
(i) CH3CH2(CH3)2CH2CH3
6. A student while trying to identify two gases
(ii) CH2CH2CH2CH3
labeled A and B, found that gas A. is acidic to
(iii) CH3CH(CH3)C(CH3)2CH3.
litmus paper and turn acidified potassium
(iv) CH3CH(CH3)CH3.
dichroniate solution green, while gas B. turns
The correct arrangement of the compounds in
red litmus paper blue and forms dense white
their increasing order of volatility is
fume with hydrogen chloride. The correct
A. iv. ii, i, iii
identify of A and B respectively are
B. iii, i, ii, iv
A. CO2 and N2
C. ii. i, iii, iv
B. SO2 and NH2
D. iii. i, iv, ii
C. HCl and NH3
14. Which of the following is NOT a redox
D. NO2 and PCI5
reaction?
7. Which of the following titrations will have a
A. 2HNO2 + 2H1 2H2O + 2NO + I2
solution with a pH greater than 7 at the end
B. Zn + H2SO4 ZnSO4 + H2
point (Equivalent point) of the titration?
A. titration of sodium hydroxide with
C. BaCl2 + 2AgNO3 AgCl2 + Ba(NO3)2
tetraoxosulphate(VI) acid D. 4FeO + O2 2Fe2O3
B. titration of sodium trioxocarbonate(IV) with 15. Which of the following processes leads to
hydrochloric acid increase in entropy?
A. mixing of a sample of NaCl and sand

B. condensation of water vapour 24. The functional group represented in the
C. Boiling of a sample of water compound CH3CH2CH2CH2CH = O is
D. cooling a saturated solution A. Alkanone
16. Which one of the following statements is true? B. Alkanal
A. most solids have low densities C. Aijanol
B. most gases are ionic compound D. Alkanoate
C. solids, like liquids and gases, do not have
fixed shapes and fixed volumes
D. gases do not have their own shape but CHEMISTRY 2007 SOLUTION
rather expand to fill the shapes of their
containers uniformly 1.C 2.C 3.C 4.D 5.A 6.B 7.C 8.A 9.B
17. A liquid begins to boil when 10.C 11.D 12.A 13.D 14.C 15.C 16.D 17.C
A its volume if slightly decreased 18.C 19.C 20.B 21.C 22.B 23.C 24.A
B. its vapour pressure is lower than the
external pressure
C. its vapour pressure equals the external
pressure
D. its molecules start escaping from the
surface
18. An element which exists in more than one
crystalline form is said to exhibit.
A. polymorphism
B. isotopy
C. allotropy
D. isomerism
19. Which of the following is an example of a
chemical changes?
A. freezing of water
B. dissolution of NaCl in water
C. rusting of iron
D. separating a liquid mixture by distillation
20. The electronic configuration in the ground
-
state of the chloride ion (Cl ) is
2 2 6 2 5
A. 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p
2 2 6 2 6
B. 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p
2 2 6 2 7
C. 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p
2 2 6 2 8
D. 1s 2s 2p 3s 3d
21. The oxidation number of oxygen in
BaO2 is
A. -2 B. -4 C.-1 D. 0
22. Which ONE of the following statements is true
for the p – block elements?
A. electro negativity increases as we go down
a group
B. electro negativity increases regularly form
left to right across a period
C. electro negativity decreases regularly form
left to right across a period
D. electro negativity remains almost constant
across a period
23. The general formula for carboxylic acids is

POST UTME
========================================================================================
A. 2-methylbutane
3
1. A 512cm sample of a gas weighed 1.236g at B. 2,2,- dimethylopropane
20°C and a pressure of one atmosphere. The C. 2-methylbut- l - ene
reactive molecular mass of the gas is [R = D. methylcyclobutane
-1 -1 -3
8.314K moI ; 1 atm = 101,325m ]. 9. A mixture of nitrogen, oxygen and helium
A. 58.07 B. 588,367 contains 0.25, 0.15 and 0.4rnole of these
C. 5.88 D. 197.9 gases respectively. If the pressure contribution
2. The amount of methane molecules, CH4, in 8.0 due to oxygen was 2.5 atm. The partial
grams of methane is pressure of helium is
A. 8mol A. 4.0atrn
B. 128mol B. 0.8 atm
C. 0.5mol C. 3.33 atm
25
D.3.01 x 10 mol D. 6.67 atm
3. The concentration of a solution obtained by 10. Elements P has an atomic number of 12 while
dissolving 0.53g of pure anhydrous Na2CO3 in element Q has an atomic number 15.
3
water to make 250cm of solution is Combination of P and Q gave a compound
-5 -3
A. 2.0 x 10 mol dm PmQn, the respective values of m and n are
-3
B. 2.1gdm A. 2 and 2 B 2 and3
-2 -3
C. 2.0 x 10 mol dm C. 3 and2 D.2and 1
-3 -3
D. 5.0 x 10 moldm 11. CxHy + 9O2 6CO2 + 6H2O. The
4. What is the maximum volume of CO2 at s.t.p hydrocarbon, in the reaction above is most
that can be obtained when dilute hydrochloric likely
acid so added to 10grams of CaCO3? [Ca = A. an alkane
40, C = 12, O = 16] B. a benzene
3
A. 224dm C. an alkene
3
B. 22.4dm D. an alkyne
3
C. 0.22dm 12. During electrolysis, two cells each containing
3
D. 22.4dm molten A12O3 and fuse CaCl3 were connected
5. Sulphur (IV) oxide travels a given distance in in series A current of 15 Amp was passed
10sec. How long will it take equal volume of through the cells for a given period of time. At
helium to travel the same distance under the the end of the electrolysis 9g of calcium was
same conditions? [S = 32, O = 16, He = 4] found to have been deposited at the cathode.
A. 1.6sec What mass of aluminum would be deposited in
B.40sec the second cell. [A = 27, Ca = 40].
C. 5.0sec A. 8.82g
D. 2.5 sec B. 4.44g
6. The volume of hydrogen gas produced at C. 17.60g
S.T,P. when 100ml of 2M hydrochloric acid D. 4.05g
reacts with excess zinc is: 13. The balanced equation for the reaction of
3
A. 2.24dm tin(II) salt with potassium
3
B. 4.48dm heptaoxodichloromate (VI) in an acidic
3 2+
C. 1.12dm medium can be represented as esn +
3 2- + 4- 3+
D. 44.8dm fCR2O 7 + gH hSn + iCr + jH2O. e, f,
7. All the following will liberate a gas when g, i and j respectively.
reacted with dilute hydrochloric acid except A. 3, 5, 6, 1 and 4
A. sodium trioxosulphate (IV) salt B. 3, 1, 14,3,2 and 7
B. sodium trioxicarbonate (IV) salt C. 3,2,6, 1,5 and 6
C. sodium suiphide D. 5,2,1,5,3 and 2.
-6
D. sodium trioxonitrate (V) 14. The pH of a solution containing 0.5 x 10 M
8. The isomer of a compound C5H10 which does H2SO4 is
NOT decolorize bromine water is A. 6.3 B. 6.5 C. 6.0 D. 5.0
15. Which of the following oxides will NOT 21. The compound is the product of oxidation of
dissolve in both dilute hydrochloric acid and A. butan-3-ol
2M sodium hydroxide solution? B. butan- 1 -ol
A. Lead(II) oxide C. 3-methylpropan-2-2ol
B. Aluminum oxide D. butan -2-2o1
C. Zinc(II) oxide 22. Which of the following structural forrrnulae is
D. calcium oxide NOT isomeric with the other?
A. CH3CH2CH2CH2 - OH
3
B. CH3 – O - CH2CH2CH
C
23. Cellulose and starch can be classified as one

of the following
A. hydrocarbons
B. sugars
C. carbohydrates
16. Curve of KClO3. The number of moles of C. alkaloids
3 3
KCIO crystals produced by cooling 200cm of
0
a saturated solution of the salt from 65 C to
25°C is
A.6.3 mole
B. 1.26 mole
1. A 2.D 3.C 4.A 5.D 6.A 7.A 8.D 9.D
C. 0.63 mole
10.C 11.C 12.D 13.B 14.C 15.D 16.B 17.A
D. 7.30mole
18.C 19.C 20.D 21.C 22.C
17. During a compression process involving an
ideal gas at pressure P1. When the volume, V1
of the gas was halved, the temperature in
Kelvin increases by half its initial value. The
final pressure P2 15 given by
A 3P1 B 12P1
C. 6P1 D. 1.5P1
18. The I.U.P.A.C name for the compound is
A. pent-3-enoic acid B. pent-4- enoic acid

C. pent-2-enoic acid D. pent-3-ene-1-oic acid
19. Metal salt of long chain fatty acids are :mown as
A. detergent
B. double salts
C. soaps
D. grease
20. The compound, when refluxed with dilute HCl

is hydrolyzed to give
A. CH2COOH and CH3CH2CH2OH
B. CH3COOH and CH3CH2CH3
C. CH3COOH and CH3CH2OH
D. CH3COOH and CH3CH2CH2CI

POST UTME
PHYSICS QUESTION 2014
========================================================================================
C. 45=C D. 60 =C
7. 7. Calculate the heat required to convert 10g
1. Which of the following statements is not true of ice at -10°C to water at 50°C. The specific
about the properties of pressure in a liquid? heat capacity of ice and water are 2100J/kgK
Pressure and 4200J/kgK respectively. The latent heat of
5 -1
A. at any point ‘n a liquid is at right angle in Fusion of ice is 3.4x10 JK
all directions A. 2.10KJ B. 4.20KJ
B. is the same at all points on the same C. 3.21KJ D. 5.71KJ
horizontal plane in a liquid
C. decreases with height and independent of 8.
shape and volume of the container
D. is dependent on the shape and volume of
the container
2. Which of the following is not a Newton’s law of
motion?
A. The time rate of change of linear Calculate the acceleration of the system (in
momentum is directly proportional to the terms of the acceleration due to gravity, g),
external force applied and it takes place in when it is released
the direction of the force. A. 0 38g B.0.13g
B. In the absence of external forces, an C. 0.15g D. 0.39g
object at rest remains at rest and an object 9. A train starting from rest accelerates at the
2
in motion continue in motion with a rate of 6m/s for 20 seconds to attain a
constant velocity constant speed and it further travelled for
C. If two objects interact the force, F12 another 20 seconds and decelerates at rate of
2
exerted by object I on object 2 is equal in 3m/s for 20 seconds. Calculates tile total
magnitude and opposite in direction to the distance (in Kilometre) traveled by tile train
force. F5, A. 4.0km B. 4.4km
D. The force required to stretched or C. 4.8km D. 3.6km
compress a spring is directly proportional 10. Anomalous behaviour of water refers to
to the extension or compression, provided A. Boiling of water at 100°C
that the elastic limit is not exceed. B. Freezing of water 0°C
3. A force of ION is applied to a spring of elastic C. Contraction of water when it is heated
spring constant of 200N/m. Calculate the between 0°C and 4°C
energy stored in the spring D. Evaporation of water at ambient
A. 2.50 B. 0.25J temperature
C. 400J D. 40.0J 11. Which of tile following statements is true about
4. Which of the following is not a self-luminous collision event?
object? A. In elastic collision, both linear momentum
A. glow-worm B. star and kinetic energy are conserved
C. moon D. sun B. In elastic collision, linear momentum is
5. Which of the following is not an application of conserved but the kinetic energy is not
Total internal Reflection? conserved.
A. Mirage C. In elastic collision, both linear momentum
B. Binoculars and kinetic energy are conserved.
C. Optical Fibers D. In inelastic collision, kinetic energy is
D. Driving mirror conserved but the linear momentum is not
6. The reading on ADE temperature scale at the conserved
ice melting point is 40 = A and 80 = A at the 12. Which of the following is the function of a.c n
steam point. Calculate the reading on the junction semiconductor device
Celsius scale equivalent to 50 = A A. It transforms a direct voltage to AC voltage
A. 25 =C B. 40=C B. It steps up an AC voltage
C. It steps down an AC voltage source. Calculate the distance between the

D. It transforms AC voltage to direct voltage source and the obstacle
13. Five 20 resistors were connected in two ways, A. 340m B. 680m
in series and parallel. What is the ratio of the C. 1020m D. 850m
series equivalent resistance to parallel 22. Which of the following is not true of a force
equivalent resistance? experienced by a current carrying conductor
A.1:50 B. 2:5 placed in a magnetic field? The force is
C.1:25 D.5:6 proportional to
14. The surface tension of water can be reduced A. the length of the conductor
by adding tile following except B. the magnetic field strength
A. detergent B. oil C. the density of the conductor
C. grease D. sand D. the current in the conductor
15. Which of the following is not all eye defect?
A. Astigmatism PHYSICS SOLUTION 2014
B. Hypemetropia
C Preshyopia 1. D 2.D 3.B 4.C 5.D 6.A 7.D 8.B 9.C
D. Malaopta 10.C 11.A 12.D 13. 14.C 15.D 16. 17.C
16. Calculate the energy stored in a capacitor of 18.D 19.A 20.C 21.D 22.C
capacitance 60trF when voltage of 220V is
applied to its terminals
A. 2.0 Joule B. 1.0 Joule
C. 3.0 Joule D. 4.0 Joule
17.
Calculate the equivalent capacitance between

the terminals
A. 6C/11 B. C/6
C.17C/6 D.6C
15
18. A material of threshold frequency 4.5 x 10 Hz,
was bombarded with Photons of frequency
15
8.0 x 10 Hz. What is the kinetic energy of the
emitted photoelectrons (in eV)?
-34 -19
[h = 6.60 x 10 JS, 1eV = 1.6 x 10 J]
A. 2.81eV B. 2.19eV
C. 5.00eV D. None of the above
19. Which of the following combinations of factors
do not affect evaporation? (0 Temperature (ii)
Nature of liquid exposed (iii) Impurities (iv)
Pressure (v) Humidity (vi) Draught (vii) Linear
expansivity (viii) electronegativity
A. (vii) and (viii)
B. (i), (ii), (iii)
C. (iii), (iv), (v), (vi)
D. (i), (ii), (iii). (iv), (v)
20. A solid is said to sublime if it changes from
A. solid to liquid state
B. solid to molten state
C. slid to gaseous state
D. solid to solid state
21. Sound wave of velocity 340m1s is reflected
from an obstacle S seconds after leaving the

POST UTME
========================================================================================
imaginary line drawn on the liquid surface at
rest.
1. Adeoye moves a distance of 4.0km from a D. area per unit length on either side of the
point A on a bearing of N 300 E to a point B imaginary line drawn on the liquid surface at
and then a distance of 3.0 km on a bearing of 7. A machine has an efficiency of 60%. If the
S 600 F to a point. C. Calculate Adeoye’s machine applied a force of 2000N to overcome
resultant displacement from point, A. a load of 5000 N, calculate the velocity ratio of
A. 10km, N60° E the machine.
0
B.5km, N61 E A 2.4 B. 3.3
C. 3km, 530° E C. 4.2 D. 5.5
0
D.4km, 560 E 8. Which of the following statements is true about
2. Which of the following statements is true? the hydrostatic pressure?
A. The unit of mass is Newton (N) (i) Pressure increased with height (ii) Pressure
B. Weight of an object is a scalar quantity is independent of the shape and volume of the
C. The weight of an object varies from one vessel (iii) Pressure is the same at all points
place to another on the same horizontal plane in a fluid (iv)
-2 -2
D. The dimensions of weight are M LT Pressure is independent of the surface area in
3. Which of the following is not an example of contact.
rotational motion? A. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
A. rotation of electric fan blades B. (i), (ii) and (iii) only
B. movement of car wheels C. (ii). (iii) and (iv) only
C. rotation of the earth about its axis D. (i), (ii) and (iv) only
D. movement of a loaded spring about its 9. The resistance of a platinum resistance
equilibrium position thermomester is 160.5Ω at steam point and
4. An object of mass, 5 kg placed on an inclined 60.52Ω at the melting point of ice. Calculate
plane (which is at an angle of 30° to the
the resistance of the thermometer at 70°C
horizontal) is attached to a 10kg mass through
A. 160.50 Ω
a pulley, with the 10kg hanging vertically.
B. 165.50 Ω
Calculate the acceleration of the mass-system
in terms of tile acceleration due to gravity. g, if C. 130.512Ω
there is no friction between the 5kg mass and D.170.50 Ω
the plane. 10. The wall separating a Bakery Oven and its
A. g B. g C. g D g environment is of h, 10m: breadth, 10m; and
thickness, 25m. If the rate of heat exchange
5. Which of the following is not true about the
between the Oven and its environment is 1000
mechanical energy of a system in a
watt and the temperature of the environment is
Conservative field
27°C, calculate the temperature of the Oven,
A. total energy is zero
given that the Coefficient of thermal
B. total energy is the sum of the kinetic energy -1 -1
conductivity of the wall is 0.054Wm K
and the potential energy
A. 27.3°C B. -40.2°C
C. total energy is equal to the maximum value
C. 40.2°C D. 73.3°C
of kinetic energy
11. Which of the following is not an application of
D total energy is equal to the maximum value
expansion of solids?
of potential energy
A. Rivets
6. Surface tension is the
B. Bimetal strips
A. pressure per unit length on either side of
C. fitting of wheels on rims in Railway Coaches
the imaginary line drawn on the liquid
D. Regulation
surface at rest.
12. Which of the following is true about melting
B. Force per unit length on either side of the
point of a liquid?
imaginary line drawn on the liquid surface at
A. The presence of dissolved impurities
rest.
increases the melting of a pure solid.
C current per unit length on either side of
B. An increase in pressure decreases the
melting point of a sub stance that ratio of the primary winding to secondary
contracts in volume on freezing, more than winding is 10:3.
the one that expands in volume. A. 10A B.3A
C. The melting point is not the same as the C.4A D.5A
solidification of a substance. 21. All the following properties are characteristics
D. The presence of the dissolved impurities of X-rays except
does not change the melting point of a A. they have short wavelength
pure solid B. they have no charge
13. A boy preparing to have his bath mixed 50kg C. they are electromagnetic in nature
of water at a temperature of 80°C with 70kg of D they do not affect photographic plates
water at a temperature of 20°C. What is the 22. + X
temperature of the water mixture? What particle is emitted in radioactive decay
A. 45°C B. 75°C process shown above?
C. 65°C D. 35°C A. β particle B. X-ray
14. Which of the following is not a property of C. particle D. ray
sound wave?
A. Reflection PHYSICS SOLUTION 2012
B. Diffraction 1.B 2.D 3.D 4.C 5.A 6.B 7. 8.A 9.C
C. Polarization 10. 11.D 12.C 13.A 14.C 15.B 16.B
D. Refraction 17.B 18.B 19.A 20.B 21.D 22.C
15. A pin at the bottom of a beaker filled with
water appeared to be elevated when viewed
from the top of the beaker. Calculate the
displacement of the pin from the bottom of the
beaker, if the beaker is filled to 8.0 cm height
and the refractive index of water is 4/3.
A. 6.0 cm B. 2.0cm
C. 3.0 cm D. 4,0 cm
16. A boy stands at a distance, x from a wall.
When he shouted, the echo was heard 2
seconds later. Calculate the distance from the
wall, given that the speed of light is 330 m/s.
A. 500m B. 340m
C. 250m D. 495m
17. In a 60° prism of refractive index, 1.5,
calculate the angle of minimum deviation when
light is refracted through the prism
A. 40.2° B. 37.5°
C. 37.2° D. 40.5°
18. Calculate the resultant capacitance of the
capacitor network, if each capacitor has a
capacitance of 2 F.
A. 2.0 F B. 1.0 F C. 2.5 F D. 2.3 F
19. A cell of e.m.f 4.0V is connected in series to

two resistors 2Ω and 4Ω, which are connected
in parallel. Calculate the current which flows
through the 412 resistor.
A. 1.0A B. 2.0 A
C. 3.0 A D. 4.0 A
20. A step-down transformer is energized by a 220
V a.c supply and supplied a current of 10 A to
tile secondary winding. Calculate the current
which flows through the primary winding ii the

POST UTME
========================================================================================
than the steel knife.
1. Two plane mirrors are inclined at angle 450 (c) both wooden and plastic knives have lower
one to another. A ray of light has incident densities than tile steel knife
angle 200 at the surface of the first mirror. The (d) the steel knife conducts beat faster form
reflected ray is then incident on the second the knifes than tile wooden and plastic knives
mirror. Calculate tile angle of reflection at the 7. The coefficient of linear expansion of
6 -1
second mirror. aluminium is 23 X 10 K . If the volume of a
A. 65° B. 45° pot made with aluminium at temperature FO is
C. 25° D. 20° VO, what will be the change in temperature
2. When the length of the string of a simple resulting in a decrease of 0.20% in volume of
pendulum is L its period is 0.5 seconds. The the pot?
period when the length is increased to 4L, will A. -87°C B. 187°C
be C. 125°C D. 29°C
A. 0.5 seconds 8. Which of the following features is sued to
B. seconds minimize heat loss due to conduction in a
C. 2 seconds thermo-flask?
A. the space between the two walls of the
D. 4 seconds
vacuum flask is evacuated
3. A uniform meter rule AB has a mass 15g. A
B. the vacuum flask is separated from the out
30g mass is suspected at the 10.0cm mark,
wall with corks
and another 5g mass is suspended at the
C. the surfaces of the vacuum flask are
65.0cm mark. Calculate tile position of the
silvered
fulcrum that will keep the meter rule balanced
D. the inner and outer walls of the flask are
horizontally.
made of steel
A. 50.0cm B. 32.0cm
9. Which of the following quantities is a scalar
C. 27.5cm D. 17.9cm
quantity?
4. A rectangular block measures 40cm X 25cm X
A. electric field
5cm and is made of a material of density 7800
3 B. coulomb force
kg/m . Calculate the pressure the block exerts
C. electric potential
on the floor when it stands on the smallest of
D. acceleration due to gravity
its surfaces 2
3 2 10. A car accelerates at 5.0m/s for 6s, the travels
A. 3.12 X 10 N/m
3 2 at the speed attained for 20s, and comes to
B. 6.50 X 10 N/m
4 2 rest after another 4.0s. Calculate the average
C. 1.95 X 10 N/m
4 2 velocity f the car during the motion.
D. 3.12 X 10 N/m
A.25.0m/s B.20.0m/s
5. A ship sinks to the bottom of a 250m deep
C.1.25rn/s D. 0.16m/s
lake. The atmospheric pressure over the lake
11. Which of the following quantities is equal to
is 103 X 105 Pa. Taking tile density of water in
3 the area under a velocity-time graph?
tile lake to be 1000 kg/m , calculate the
A. acceleration
pressure exerted on tile boat. (Acceleration de
2 B. distance travelled
to gravity = 10m/s )
6 C. average velocity of motion
A. 2.60 X 10 Pa
6 D. total time taken
B. 2.50 X 10 Pa
5 12. A 25 N lama pulls a 20 body up a 30° inclined
C. 2.60 X 10 Pa
5 plane. If the force is parallel to the plane and
D. 1.03 X 10 Pa
the body moves up the plane at constant
6. Three knives made of steel, plastic and flat
velocity, calculate the magnitude of the
wood respectively are placed on a table for an
frictional force between the body and the plane
equal amount of time. Tile steel knife feels 2
1g = 10m/s .
coldest to touch because
A.35 N B.25 N
(a) the steel knife has tile lowest temperature
C. 20 N D.15N
(b) the plastic and wooden knives have
13. The process by which a solid changes directly
absorbed more heat from the environment
to vapour is called
A. evaporation 22. A student afraid that the substance near him is

B. fusion radioactive places his lecture note between
C. condensation him and the substance. If truly the substance
D. sublimation is radioactive, which of the following radiations
14. A resonance tube is 40 cm long. The second can be notebook shield him from?
resonance is heard when the tube is three- A. gamma rays
quarter full. What is the frequency of the tuning B. neutrons
fork placed near the mouth of the tube? C. alpha particles
(velocity of sound in air is 334 m/s) D. energetic beta rays
A.2511Hz B. 1670 Hz
C. 835 Hz D. 345 Hz
15. A coin is at the bottom of a bucket filled with a PHYSICS SOLUTION 2012
liquid whose refractive index is 1.35. The coin 1.C 2.B 3.D 4.D 5.A 6.D 7.D 8.A
appears to be 120 cm below the surface of the 9.C 10. 11.B 12.D 13.D 14.B 15.D 16.B
liquid. Calculate the depth of the liquid. 17.B 18.D 20.C 21.D 22.C
A. 16.2 cm B.13.4 cm
C. 8.9 cm D. 5.4cm
16. A 3.0 cm object is placed 12.0 cm in front of a
bi-convex lens of local length 8.0 cm. calculate
the height of the image of the object.
A.3.0 cm B. 6.0 cm
C. 12.0 cm D.24.0cm
17. To use a milli-ammeter to measure current up
to 10 A, what connection needs to be made?
A. a small resistance must be connected to
series with the milli-ammeter
B. a small resistance must be connected in
parallel with the milli-ammeter
C. A high resistance must be connected in
parallel with the milli-ammeter
D. the milli-ammeter muss be disconnected
from the circuit.
18. To resistors A and B are made of the same
material. The radius of A is three times that of
B, and the length of A is half of B. The ratio of
the resistance of A to that of B is
A. 3/2 B. 2/3
C. 2/9 D. 9/2
19. Two 2F capacitors are connected in parallel.
The combination is connected in series with a
6 F capacitor. What is the equivalent
capacitor for the combination?
A.1 0.0F B. 8.0F
C. 1.5 F D. 2.4 F
20. Five 100-Watt bulbs are put on for 45 days
during which the home-owner is on vacation. If
1 KW-hour of electricity costs N7.50, how
much does it cost the home-owner?
A. N 168.75 B. N90.00
C. N4050.00 D. N810.00
21. To convert an ac. generator to a d.c generator,
one needs to
A. remove the brush touching the slip rings
B. laminate the armature
C. replace the permanent magnets with soft
iron-core armature
D. replace the slip rings with split rings.

POST UTME
========================================================================================
energy at this height? (Acceleration due to
2
1. A body of mass m slides down an inclined gravity= 10m/s )
plane with a constant velocity. If the angle of A.80J B. 100J
the incline is , the coefficient of kinetic friction C. 116J D.180 J
between the body and the plane is 9. An airplane increases it speed frorn36 km/Is to
A. cot  B. cos 360 km/h in 20.0 s. How far does it travel while
C. tan  D. sin accelerating?
3 A. 4.4 km B. 1.1 km
2. The density of sea water is 1030 kg/m . What
is the pressure at a depth of 80 m below sea C. 2.3km D. 1.0km
surface? Atmospheric pressure is 1.013 x 10
5 10. In the simple circuit shown in fig. 1, E is a 24 V
Pa and acceleration due to gravity is 10m/s .
2 battery. Calculate the current I.
5
A. 9.25 x 10 Pa
5
B.8.24 x 10 Pa
5
C. 7.23 x 10 Pa
9
D. 8.34 x 10 Pa
3. 6000J of heat is delivered to 10g of dry ice at
0
0 C. what is the final temperature if the A.0.1A B. 0.2A C.5/6A D.2.0A
container has a heat capacity of 20J/K? 11. An object is said to be in simple harmonic
(specific heat of water = 4200 J/Kg.K, latent motion (SHM) if
5
heat of fusion of ice 3.33 x 10 J/Kg) A. the acceleration is directly proportional to
A 142.9°C B. 63.6°C the displacement and is directed toward
C. 43.06°C D.0°C the equilibrium position of the object.
4. A sample of radioactive substance, whose B. the acceleration is inversely proportional to
half-life is 16 days, registers 32 decays per the displacement and directed toward the
second. How long will it take for the rat e of equilibrium position of the object
decay to reduce to 2 decays per second? C. The displacement is directly proportional
A. 80 days B. 64 days to the momentum and directed toward the
C. 48 days D. 32 days equilibrium position of the object
5. When white light passes through a triangular D. the momentum is directly proportional to
prism, the emerging rays of light arranged in the displacement and directed toward the
order of decreasing angle of deviation are equilibrium position of the object
A. Red. orange, yellow, green 12. A wheel and axle is used to raise a weight of
B blue, green, orange, yellow 600 N with an effort of 300 N. if the radii of the
C. red, green, yellow, blue wheel and axle are 50cm and 10cm
D. blue, green, yellow, orange respectively, what is the efficiency of the
6. The electric field between two parallel plates is system?
E. A particles of mass in and carrying charge q A. 40% B. 50%
is released at a point half the distance C. 20% D 10%
between the plates. The velocity of the particle 13. The term “Viscosity’ is sued to describe
t seconds after its release is A. surface tension in fluids
2
A. qEt/m B. qEt /2m B. friction to fluids
2
C. mqt /2E D. mqt/2E C. surface tension in solids
7. The velocity of a 500 kg car moving along a D. moment in Solids
straight road, changes from 12m/s to 20 m/s in 14. A particle is in equilibrium tinder the action of
5 sec. Calculate the average force moving the three forces. One force is 40 N towards the
car. west and another is 30 N towards the south.
A. 2000 N B. 1600 N What is the third force acting on the body?
C.1200 N D. 800 N A.40 N, N53° E
8. When a 2 kg body is at a height 5 m above the B. 50 N, N37° E
floor, its velocity is 4 im1s. What is its total C. 50 N. N53° E
D. 40 N, N37°E
15. A hydraulic press works on the principle of PHYSICS SOLUTION 2011

transmission of
A. force B. energy C. volume B. pressure 1.C 2.A 3.C 4.B 5.D 6.A 7.D 8.C 9.B
16. A cigarette lighter in a car is a resistor that, 10.A 11.A 12.A 13.B 14.C 15.D 16.C 17.B
when activated, is connected across the 12-V 18.C 19.A 20.D 21.D 22.B
battery. If the lighter dissipates 33 W of power,
find the resistance it delivers to the lighter.
A. 9.90Ω B. 6.60Ω
C.4.36Ω D. 17.50Ω
17. A p-n junction can act as
A. an amplifier B. a rectifier
C. an inductor D. a capacitor
18. Which of the following is not a thermometer?
A. thermocouple
B. pytometer
C. hydrometer
D. platinum resistance thermometer
19. Dry air of column of length 10cm is trapped by
a pellete of mercury of length 15cm, with the
open end uppermost. When the capillary tube
is inverted the length of the air column
increased to 25 cm while that of mercury
remained constant. Calculate the atmospheric
pressure (in cm of Hg).
A. 35 cm Hg B. 15 cm Hg
C. 20 cm Hg D. 10cm Hg
20. Sound waves were sent out form a source and
after being reflected from an obstacle were
received by a sensor placed beside the
source. If the waves were received 10
seconds after they were sent out, calculate the
distance between the source and the obstacle.
(speed of sound = 330 m/s).
A. 990m B.660m
C. 1320m D. 1750m
21. Which of the following is not true about a
chemical cell?
A. in primary cells the process through which
current is generated is irreversible
B. secondary cells can be recharged after
they
run down by passing a current into the cell
in the reverse direction
C. positive ions are attracted to the positive
electrode where they become neutralized
by acquiring electrons.
D. primary cells can be recharged
22. Calcium has a work function of 1.9 eV with a
wavelength of 50nm. Calculate the maximum
energy 0? a photo electron emitted. (1 eV =
-19 -34
1.6 x 10 J, h = 6.6 x 10 Js).
A. 6.35Ev B. -10.75eV
C. 14.60eV D. 2.30eV

POST UTME
========================================================================================
9. An automobile is travelling at 60km/hr.
1. Which of the following phenomena cannot be Calculate the angular velocity of the 0.35m
explained by the molecular theory of matter? radius wheels.
A. evaporation A.16.67rad/s B. 47.6rad/s
B. expansion C. 21 rad/s D.171.4 rad/s
C. conduction 10. An air bubble at the bottom of a lake has a
3
D. radiation volume of 20cm , pressure of 4.9Pa, and
2. The most likely measurement of length of an temperature 4°C. The bubble rises to the
object using a vernier caliper is surface where the temperature is 20°C and the
A. 3.0 cm B.3.3 cm pressure 1.0Pa. Find the volume as the bubble
C. 3.33 cm D. 3.333 cm reaches the surface. (take 1atm = 1.0 x
3 5 2
3. If 21g of alcohol of density 0.7gcm is mixed 10 N/m )
3 3
with 10 g of water, what would be the density A. 124cm B. 319cm
3 3
of the resulting mixture? C. 60cm D. 104cm
5
A. 780 gcm3 B. 0.78gcm3 11. A gas at constant pressure of 4.0 x 10 Pa is
C. 30 gcm3 D. 1.0gcm cooled so that its volume decreases from
3 3
4. For a particle having an x coordinate that 1.6m to 1.2m , What work is performed by the
varies in time according to the express ion x = as?
2 5 5
4t - 2t . The instantaneous velocity for of the A. 6.4 x 10 J B. 3.2 x 10 J
5 5
particle at t = 2.5s is C. 1.6 x 10 J D.0.4x10 J
A. 12 m/s B. 6 m/s 12. Highly polished silvery surfaces are:
C. 0m/s D. 10m/s A. poor absorbers but good emittet of radiation
5. A long-jumper leaves the ground at an angle B. good absorbers and good emitters of
of 20° above the horizontal and at a speed of radiation
11m/s. How far does it jumps in the horizontal C. poor emitters but good reflectors of
direction? radiation
A. 0.384m B. 7.78m D. poor emitters and poor reflectors of
C. 8.45m D. 0m radiation
6. A mass of 0.5 kg is attached to one end of a 13. An 0.040kg string 0.80133 long is stretched
helical spring and produces an extension of and vibrated in a fundamental mode with a
2.5cm. The mass now set into vertical frequency of 40 Hz. What s the speed (of
oscillation of amplitude 10mm. The period of propagation) of the wave and the tension in
2
oscillation is (g = 10m/s ) the string?
A.0.314s B. 100s A. 64 m/s B. 340 m/s
-1
C. 200s D. 280s C. 32 m/s D. 2.8ms
7. A boat is passing under a bridge. The deck of 14. What is the total power output of a source with
2
die boat is I 5iii below the bridge. A small intensity 0.050 W/m at a distance of 3.0m
package is to be dropped from the bridge onto from the source?
the deck of the boat when the boat is 25m A.112W B.5.65W
form just below the drop point. What (boat) C. 15W D. 30W
speed is necessary to have the package land 15. The superposition of two or more waves to
2
in he boat? (g = 9.8 m/s ) produce a maximum or zero effect at a point is
A. 17mis B. 14m/s known as
C. 1.7 m/s D. 4.9 m/s A. reflection
8. An 060kg rubber stopper is whirled in a B. refraction
horizontal circle of 0.80m radius at a rate of C. diffraction
3.0 revolutions per second. What is the D. Interference
tension in the string? 16. The acceleration due to gravity
A. 14 N B. 80 N A. increases with increasing altitude
C.170.64N D.24N B. decreases with increasing altitude
C. increases with increase with increase in the
square of the altitude the other two forces. iv. any one force is the
D. is not affected by the altitude equivalent of the other two.
17. Which of the following statements are correct A. i and iii only
of nuclear fission? During the process B. i and ii only
I. energy is released C. i, ii, in, and iv
II. More neutrons are released than those that D. none of Them
cause fission 24. Which of the following statements is not TRUE
III. Small nuclei merge into large nuclei about a body performing simple harmonic
IV There is a loss on mass motion?
18. Which of the following statements is not true? A. the linear speed is the product of the
A. electric field intensity is force per unit angular speed and the radius or amplitude
charge B. the linear acceleration is the product of the
B. electric potential is a vector square of the angular speed and the
C. the SI. unit of electric field stre,i5t is N/C displacement.
D. electric field intensify is equal to potential C. frequency is the number of complete
gradient revolution per second made by a vibrating
19. Which of the following about electrolysis is body
false? D. the SI unit of amplitude is Hertz (Hz).
A. liquid that conduct electricity and are split 25. In the force of gravity on an object of mass m,
chemically be the current are electrolyzed the gravitational field strength, g. is given by
B. the current is brought into the electrolyte the following equation.
by the anode A g = Mf B. g = MF
F
C. the current is taken away form the C. g = M F D. g = /M
electrolyte by the cathode
D. the container which holds the electrolyte
and the electrode is the voltmeter PHYSICS SOLUTION 2010
20. Which of the following is not true about
properties of x-rays? 1.D 2.B 3.B 4.B 5.B 6.A 7.B 8.C 9.B
A. they are not deflected by magnetic or 10.D 11.C 12.C 13.D 14.B 15.D 16.B 17.
electric Odd 18.B 19.D 20.C 21.A 22.A 23.B 24.D 25.D
B. they ionized a gas, making it a conductor
C. they are massive
D. they have high penetrating power
21. A transformer is connected to a 240 V supply.
The primary coil has 40 turns, and the
secondary is found to be 960 V. What is the
ratio of the number of turns of the primary coil
to the number of turns of the secondary coil?
A. 1:4 B. 1:
C.1:6 D.6:12
22. Which of the following is not true about an
object that is projected upwards at angle .
A. the velocity is maximum at the maximum
height
B. the acceleration along the horizontal
direction is zero
C. the maximum range (Rmax) for an object
2
moving with speed u is given by u /
D. the time it takes to get the maximum height
is equal to the tune it takes to comes back
to the point of projection
23. When three coplanar non-parallel forces are in
equilibrium. i. they can be represented in
magnitude and direction by the three sides of
a triangle taken in order. ii. The liens of action
meet at a point iii. The magnitude of any one
force equals the magnitude of the resultant of

POST UTME
========================================================================================
1 2
A. 1.4 /3s B. 1.5 /3s C. 2.25s
1. The force with which an object is attracted to D. 1.00s E. 2.00s
the earth is called 10. A device that converts sound energy into
A. acceleration electrical energy is
B. mass A. the horn of a motor car
C. gravity B. an AC generator
D. impulse C. A microphone
D. weight E. telephone earpiece
2. The refractive index of a liquid is 1.5, if the E. a loud speaker
8 2 8 -1
velocity of light in a vacuum is 3.0 x 10 ms , 11. Radio waves have velocity of 3 x 10 ms , if a
the velocity of light in the liquid is radio station sends out a broadcast on a
8 -2
A. 1.5 x 10 ms frequency 800KHz, what is the wavelength of
8 -1
B. 2.0 x 10 ms the broadcast?
C. 3.1 x 108ms-1 A. 375.0m
8 -1
D. 4.5 x 10 rns B. 26.70m
8 -1
E. 9.0 x 10 ms C. 240.0m
3. A train has an initial velocity of 44m/s and an D. 37.5
acceleration of -4m/s what is its velocity after E. 26.7m
10seconds? 12. Which of these is nor a fundamental SI unit
A.2m/s B. 4m/s C. 12m/s A. Ampere
D. 12.m/s E. 16m/s B. Kelvin
4. A man of mass 50kg ascends a flight of stair C. seconds
5m high in 5 seconds. If acceleration due to D. radians
-2
gravity is 10ms , the power expanded is 13. If two masses 40g and 60g respectively, is
A. 100w B. 300w C. 250w attached firmly to end of a light metre rule,
D. 400w E. 500w what is the centre of gravity of the system?
5. A machine ahs a velocity ratio of 5. If it A. at the mid point of the metre rule
requires a 50kg weight to overcome 200kg B. 40cm from the lighter mass
weight, the efficiency us C. 40cm form the heavier masses
A. 4% B. 5% C. 40% D. 60cm from the heavier mass
B. 50% E. 90% E. indeterminate because the metre rules is
6. If the force on a change of 0.2 coulomb in an light
electric field is 4N, then electric intensity of the 14. To find the dept of the sea, a ship sends out a
field is second waves and receives an echo after one
A. 0.8 B. 0.8N/C C. 20.0N/C second. If the velocity of sound in water is
D. 4.2N/C E. 20.0C/N 1500m/s, what is the depth of the sea
7. The resistance of a wire depends on A. 0.75km B. 1.50km C. 2.20km
A. the length of the wire D. 3.00km E. 3.75km
B. the diameter of the wire 15. What is the neutron in the Uranium isotope
238
C. the temperature of the wire X?
D. the resistivity of the wire A.92 B.146 C. 238
E. all of the above B. 330 E. 119
8. Which of these is not contained in a dry cell? 16. The mode of heat transfer which does not
A. carbon rod require material medium is
B. paste of magnesium dioxide A. conduction
C. paste of ammonium chloride B. radiation
D. zinc case C. convection
E. copper rod D. propagation
9. A simple pendulum 0.6 long ahs a period of 17. The height at which the atmosphere ceases to
1.55, what is the period of a similar pendulum exist is about 80km, if the atmospheric
0.4 long in the same direction pressure on the ground level is 760mmHg, the
pressure at height of 20km above the ground is PHYSICS 2009 SOLUTION

A. 380mrnHg 1.C 2.C 3.B 4.E 5.C 6.C 7.E 8.E 9.B
B. 570mmHg 10.C 11.A 12.E 13.C 14.A 15.B 16.B 17.B
C. 190mrnHg 18.E 19.C 20.B 21.C 22.E 23.A 24. 25. A
D. 480mmHg
18. Which of the following is common to
evaporation and boiling, they
A. take place at any temperature
B. are surface phenomena
C. involve change of state
D. take place at a definite pressure
E. none of the above
19. Which of the following instrument has pure
tone?
A. Guitar
B. vibrating string
C. tuning forks
D. screen
E. horns
20. Four lenses are being considered for use as a
microscope object. Which of the following focal
length is mot suitable
A. -5mm B. +5mm C. 5cm
D. +5cm E. -5.5mm
21. The product PV where P is pressure and V is
a volume has the same unit as
A. force
B. power
C. energy
D. acceleration
E. all of the above
22. Two strings of the same length and under the
same tension give notes of frequency in the
ratio 4:1. The messes of the strings are in the
ratio of
A. 2:1 B. 1:2 C. 1:4
D. 1:7 E. 1: 16
23. A house hold refrigerator is rated 200 watts. If
electricity costs 5k per kwh, what is the cost of
operating it for 20 days.
A. N4.80 B. N48.00 C. N480.00
D. N4800.00 E. N240.00
24. The resistance of a 5m uniform wire of cross
6 2
Sectional area of 0.2 x 10 m is 0.45. What is
the receptivity of the material of the wire?
5
A. 1.10 x 10 ohms
B. 4.25 x 106 ohms
C.2.40 x 10 ohms
D. 1.70 x 10 ohms
E. 1.40 x 108ohms
25. When a yellow card is observed through a
blue glass, the card would appear as
A. black B. green C. red
B. white E. purple

POST UTME
========================================================================================
8. A coil of copper wire of N turns is kept rotating
You may find the following useful between the poles of a permanent magnet
Acceleration due to gravity g 9.8m/s such that the magnetic flux linking the coil
Gas constant R 8.31 J/rnol. K changes continuously. Which of the following
8
Speed of light in vacuum 3.0 x 10 m/s Plank statements is TRUE?
-34
constant h 6.63 x 10 J.s A. an e.m.f. is induced in the coil such that
1. A convex lens of focal length 10.0cm is used when the change of flux is positive the
to form a real image which is half the size of e.m.f is positive, and when the change of
the object. How far from the object is the flux is negative, the e.m.f is negative
image? B. an em.f is induced in the coil whose
A. 45cm B. 30cm magnitude is inversely proportional to both
C. 15cm D. 20cm the number of turns in the coil and the rate
2. A diverging lens of focal length 20cm forms an of change of magnetic flux
image halve of the size of the object. What is C. an e.m.f is set up in the permanent
the object distance? magnet which reduces the flux in the coil
A. -11.11cm B. 100cm to zero
C. 60cm D. 8.71cm D. current flows in the coil and an e.m.f. is set
3. An object or height 3.00cm is placed 10cm in up proportional to both the rate of change
front of a biconvex lens of focal length 15cm, of the flux and the number of turns.
the image of the object is 9. What is the equivalent capacitance between
A. real and 3.00cm tall points A and b in the diagram below?
B. virtual and 9.00 cm tall
C. virtual and 3.00cm tall
D. real and 9.00cm tall
4. The most suitable type of mirror used for the
construction of a searchlight is the:
A. concave mirror
B. spherical mirror
C. convex mirror A. 12.0F B.1.1F C. 1.6F D. 7.7F
D. parabolic mirror 10. The principle of operation of an induction coil
5. Light waves and ripples of water are similar is based on
because both A. Ohm’s law
A. are longitudinal waves B. Ampere’s law
B. have the same velocity C. Faraday’s law
C. can be diffracted and refracted D. Coulomb’s law
D. have the same frequency 11. The half-life of a radioactive element 9 days.
6. There 4-Ω resistors were connected in series What fraction of atoms has decayed in
36days?
by ‘Tola while Ade connected the same set of 1
A. /10 B. ¼
resistors in parallel. The ratio of the value 15
C. ½ D. /16
obtained by Ade to that obtained by ‘Tola is
12. Which of the following radiations cannot be
A. 1:2 B. 1:9
C. 3:10 D. 1:5 deflected by an electric field on magnetic field?
(i) a-rays ii, 3-rays iii. Y-rays iv. X-ray
7. Three resistors are connected as shown in the
A. (i) and (ii) only
diagram below. The equivalent resistance
B. (i) and (ii) only
between points X and Y is
C. (iii) and (iv) only
D. (i) and (iii) only
150 150
13. The equation X-> Yk + energy, represents
623
A. -decay
A. 8.0Ω B. 22.0 Ω C. 4.25 Ω D. 3.27 Ω B. β-decay
C. y -decay length to the height of the plane

D. photon emission
14. Calculate the length of a displaced pendulum R
bob that passes. its lowest point twice every
P
second. (glOms2)
A. 1.000rn B. 0.253m
C. 0.450m D. 0.58rn
15. A vehicle of mass m is driven by an engine of
power P from rest. Find the minimum time it Q
will take to acquire a speed v. 22. In the diagram above, P. Q and R are vectors.
2 2
A. Mv /p B. v /2p Which of the options gives the correct
C. mv/p D. mv/2p relationship between the vectors?
16. When a ball rolls on a smooth level ground, A. P = R - Q
the motion of its centre is B. P = R + Q
A. translational C. P = Q – R
B. random D. P + R + Q = 0
C. oscillatory 23. If M and R the mass and radius of the earth
D. rotational respectively and G is the universal
17. A body accelerates uniformly form rest at gravitational constant, the earth’s gravitation
-2
6ms for 8 seconds and then decelerates potential at an altitude H above the ground
uniformly to rest in the next 5 seconds. The level is
magnitude of the declaration is A. – GM/H B. – GM/R(+H)
-2
A -9.6ms C. – GM/2H D. - GM/(R-H)
2
B. 48ms 24. The ice and steam points of a thermometer
2
C. 24.0ms are 20mm and 100mm respectively: A.
2
D. 39.2ms temperature of 75°C corresponds to Ymm on
18. A nail is pulled from a wall with a string tied to the thermometer. What is Y?
the nail. If the string is included at an angle of A. 100mm B. 70mm
0
30 to the wall and the tension in the string is C. 80mm D. 60mm
50N, the effective force used in pulling the nail is 25. An electric kettle with negligible heat capacity
A. 25N B. 25 3N is rated at 2000W. If 2.0Kg of water is put in it,
C. 50N D. 50 3N how long will take temperature of water to rise
19. A box of mass 40Kg is being dragged along by form 200 to 100°? (Specific heat capacity of
-1 -1
the rope inclined at 60° to the horizontal. The water = 4200JKG K )
frictional force between the box and the floor is A. 336s B. 240s
100N and the tension on the rope is 300N. C. 1482.65 D. 84s
How much work is done in dragging the box 26. A quantity of ice 10°C is heated until the
through a distance of 4m? temperature of the heating vessel is 90°C.
A. 680J Which of the following constants NOT required
B. 200J to determine the quantity of heat supplied to
C. 100J the vessel?
D. 400J A. specific latent heat of vaporization
20. A 70kg man ascends a flight of stairs of height B. specific heat capacity of ice
4m in 7s. The power expended by the man is C. specific latent heat of fusion
A. 40W D. specific heat capacity of water
B. 100W 27. The scent from a jar of perfume opened
C. 280W moves through the air molecules by
D.400W A. evaporation
21. Which of the following statements is not true? B. osmosis
A. as the slope of an inclined plant increases, C. diffusion
the velocity ratio decreases D. convection
B the efficiency of an inclined plan decreases
as the slope increases PHYSICS SOLUTION 2008
C the effort required to push a given load up 1.A 2.C 3.C 4.C 5.B 6.B 7.A 8.D 9.B
an inclined plane increases as the slope 10.C 11.D 12.C 13.B 14.B 15.A 16.A 17.A
increases 18.A 19.B 20.D 21.D 22.B 23.B 24.C 25.C
D. the mechanical advantage of smooth 26.A 27.C
inclined plane depends on the ratio of the

POST UTME
========================================================================================
9. What is time acceleration due to gravity ‘g’ on
-2
You may find the following useful: the moon, if g is 10ms on the earth?
-2 -2
Acceleration due to gravity g 9.8m/s A 0.74ms B. 0.1ms
-2 -2
Gas constant R 8.31 J/mol.K C. 100ms D. 1.67ms
8
Speed of light in vacuum 3.0 x 10 m/s 10. A 5Kg block is released from rest on a smooth
-34 0
Plank constant h 6.63 x 10 J.s plane inclined at an angle of 30 to the
1. What is the dimension of pressure? horizontal. What is the acceleration down the
-1 -2 2
A. MLT T B. MLT plane?
2 5 -3 -2 -2
C.ML T D.ML A.5.0ms B. 8.7ms
-2 -2 -2
2. Calculate the length of a displaced pendulum C. 25.0m D.5.8ms (g= 10ms )
-6 3
bob that passes its lowest point twice every 11. A rectangular metal block of volume 10 m at
-2
second. (g = 100rns ) 273K is heated to 573K, if the coefficient of
-5 -1
A. 100m B. 0253m linear expansion is 1.2 x 10 K , the
C. 0.450m D. 0.58m percentage change so its volume is
3. When a ball rolls on a smooth level ground, A. 1.5% B. 1.1%
the motion of its centre is C. 0.1% D. 0.4%
A. translational 12. A temperature scale alts a lower fixed point of
B. random 40mm and an upper fixed point of 200mm.
C. oscillatory Wham is the reading on this scale when
D. rotational thermometer reads 60°C?
4. A vehicle of mass m is driven by an engine of A.1.36.0mm B.33.3mm
power P from rest. Fin the minimum time it will C. 96.0mm D. 36.0mm
take t acquire a speed v. 13. A 500Kg car was initially at rest travelled with
2 2 -2
A. Mv /p B.mv /2p an acceleration of 5ms , what is its kinetic
C. mv/p D. mv/2p energy after 4s
3 5
5. A box of mass 40Kg is being dragged along by A. 2.5 x 10 J B. 10 J
3 5
the rope inclined at 60° to the horizontal. The C.5 x 10 J D. 5 x 10 J
frictional force between the box and the floor is 14. The temperature at which the water vapour in
100N and the tension on the rope is 300N. the air saturates the air and begins to
How much work is done in dragging the box condense is
through a distance of 4m? A. melting point
A. 680J B. 200J B. triple point
C. 100J D. 400J C. dew point
6. A body is projected from the earth’s surface D. melting point
with the hope of letting it escape from the 15. The period of a simple pendulum will increase
earth’s gravitational field. What is the minimum by what factor of its inextensible length
escape velocity? increased by a factor of four
-1 -1
A. 11.3kms B.13.3kms A. 2 B.4
-1 -1
C. 12.3kms D. 14.3kms C.2 D. ¼
3 -2
(Earth’s radius 6.4 X 10 km, g = 10ms ) 16. An air column 10cm in length is trapped into
7. A uniform rod PQ of mass 2Kg and length of the scaled end of a capillary tube by a 15cm
1m is pivoted at the end P. If a load of 14N is column of mercury with the tube held
placed on it at the centre, find the force that vertically. On inverting the tube, the air column
should be applied vertically upwards at Q to becomes 15cm long. What is the atmospheric
maintain the rod in equilibrium pressure during the experiment?
A. 7N B. 28N A. 76cm B. 75cm
C. 68N D. 17N C. 60cm D. 70cm
8. The energy contained in wire when it is 17. An electric cell has an internal resistance of
extended by O.O2mn by a force of 500N is 2Ω. A current of 0.5 A was measured when a
4 3
A. 10 J B. 10 J resistor of resistance 5Ω was connected
C. 10J D.5J
across it. Determine the electromotive force of

the cell.
A. 3.5V B. 2.5V
C. 4.5V D. 2.35V
8 -1
18. The speed of light in air is 3 x 10 ms . If the
refractive index of light from air to water is 4/3,
calculate the speed of light in water.
8 -2
A. 2.25 x 10 ms
8 -1
B. 2.25 x 10 ms
8 -1
C. 4.00 x 10 ms
-1
D. 4.33 x 10ms
19. It is known that an atomic nucleus comprises
of positive charged protons. Which of the
following also exist in the nucleus?
A. A beta particle
B. An alpha particle
C. A neutron
D. an electron
20. The silver wall of a vacuum flask prevents heat
loss due to
A. conduction
B. convection
C. radiation
D. diffraction
21. The electromagnetic waves that are sensitive
to temperature changes are
A. ultra-violet rays
B. gamma rays
C. infrared rays
D. x-rays
22. Under constant tension and constant mass per
unit length, the note produce by a plucked
string is 500Hz when the length of the string is
0.90m. At what length is the frequency 150Hz?
A. 6mn B. 3m
C. 5m D. 4m
23. Two bodies P and Q are projected on the
same horizontal plane, with the same initial
speed hut at different angles of 30° and 60°
respectively to the horizontal. Neglecting air
resistance, what is the ratio of range of P to
that of Q?
A. 1:1 B. 1: 3
C. 3:1 D. 1:2
-11
24. A capacitor of 2.0 x 10 F and an inductor are
joined in series, The value of the inductance
that will give the circuit a resonant frequency
of 200KHz is
A. 1/16H B.1/8H
C.1/64H D.1/32H
PHYSICS SOLUTION 2007

1.A 2.B 3.A 4.A 5.B 6.A 7.D 8.D 9.D
10.A 11.B 12.A 13.B 14.C 15.C 16.B 17.A
18.B 19.C 20.C 21.C 22.B 23.A 24.D

POST UTME
========================================================================================
You may find the following useful: 8. The most suitable type of mirror used for the
2
g = 9.8m/s construction of a searchlight ma the:
R = 8.31Jmol.K A. concave mirror
8
V = 3.0x 10 m/s B. spherical mirror
-3
h = 6.63 x 10 Js C. convex mirror
1. The ice and steam points of a thermometer D. parabolic mirror
are 20mm and 100mm respectively: 9. Light waves and ripples of water are similar
A. temperature of 75°C corresponds to 5mm because both
on the thermometer. What is Y? A. are longitudinal waves
A. 100mm B. 70mm B. have the same velocity
C. 80mm D. 60mm C. can be diffracted and refracted
2. An electric kettle with negligible heat capacity D. have the same frequency
-2
is rated at 2000W, if 2.kg of water is put in it, 10. A body accelerates uniformly form rest at 6ms
how long will take temperature of water to rise for 8 seconds and then decelerates uniformly
form 20° to 100°? (Specific heat capacity of to rest in the next 5 seconds. The magnitude
-1 -1
water = 4200JKG K ) of the declaration is
-2 -2
A. 336s B. 240s A. 9.6ms B. 48ms
-2 -2
C. 1482.65 D. 84s C. 24.0ms D. 39.2ms
3. A quantity of ice - 10°C is heated until the 11. A nail is pulled from a wail with a string tied to
temperature of the heating vessel is 90°C. the nail. If the string is included at an angle of
Which of the following constants NOT required 300 to the wall and the tension in the string is
to determine the quantity of heat supplied to 50N, the effective force used in pulling the nail is
the vessel? A. 25N B. 25 3N
A. specific latent heat of vaporization C. 50N D. 50 3N
B. specific heat capacity of ice 12. A 70kg man ascends a flight of stairs of height
C. specific latent heat of fusion 4m in 7s. The power expended by the man is
D. specific heat capacity of water A. 40W B. 100W
4. The scent from a jar of perfume opened C. 280W D. 400W
moves through the air molecules by 13. Which of Inc following statements is not true?
A. evaporation A. as the slope of an inclined plant increases,
B. osmosis the velocity ratio decreases
C. diffusion B. the efficiency of an inclined plan
D. convection decreases as the slope increases
5. A convex lens of focal length 10.0cm is used C. the effort required to push a given load up
to form a real image which is half the size of an inclined plane increases as the, slope
the object. 1-low far from the object is the increases
image? D. the mechanical advantage of smooth
A. 45cm B. 30cm inclined plane depends on the ratio of the
C. 15cm D. 20cm length to the height of the plane
6. A diverging lens of focal length 20cm an image
halve of the size of the object. What is the 14.
object distance’?
A. -11.11cm B. 100cm
C. 60cm D. 8.71cm
7. An object of height 3.00cm is placed 10cm in
front of a biconvex lens of focal length 15cm,
the image of the object is In the diagram above, P, Q and R are vectors.
A. real and 3.00cm tall Which of the options gives the correct
B. virtual and 9.00cm tall relationship between the vectors?
C. virtual and 3.00cm tall A. P = R - Q
D. real and 9.00cm tall B. P = R + Q
C. P = Q - R D. current flows in the coil and an e.m.f. is set

D. P + R + Q = 0 up proportional to both the rate of change
15. If M and R the mass and radius of the earth of the flux and the number of turns.
respectively and 6 is the universal gravitational 22. What is the equivalent capacitance between
constant, the earth’s gravitation potential at an points A and b in the diagram below?
altitude H above the ground level is
A. - GM/H
B. - GM/R(+H)
C. – GM/2H
D. – GM/(R - H)
150 150
16. The equation X-> Y+K+energy, represents
6263
A. -decay B. β-decay
C. y-decay
D. photon emission
17. Which of the following radiations cannot be
deflected by an electric field on magnetic
field’? i. -rays ii. β –rays iii. y-rays iv. X-ray A.120F B. 1.1F C. 1.6F D. 7.7F
A. (i) and (ii) only 23. The principle of operation of an induction coil
B. (i) and (ii) only is based on
C. (iii) and (iv) only A. Ohm’s law B. Ampere’s law
D. (i) and (iii) only C. Faraday’s law D. Coulomb’s law
18. The half-life of a radioactive element is 9 days.
What fraction of atoms has decayed in 36
days? PHYSICS SOLUTION 2006
1
A. 1/16 B. /4
1
C. /2 D. 15/1.6 1.C 2.C 3.A 4.C 5.A 6.C 7.C 8.D
19. There 4-6 resistors were connected in series 9.B 10.A 11.A 12.D 13.D 14.B 15.B 16.B
by ‘Tola while Ade connected the same set of 17.C 18.D 19.B 20.A 21.D 22.B 23.C
resistors in parallel. The ratio of the value
obtained by Ade to that obtained by ‘Tola is
A. 1:2 B. 1:9
C. 1:10 D. 1:5
20. Three resistors are connected as shown in the
diagram below. The equivalent resistance
between points X and Y is
A. 8.0Ω B. 22.0Ω C. 4.25Ω D. 3.27Ω

21. A coil of copper wire of N turns is kept rotating
between the poles of a permanent magnet
such that the magnetic flux linking the coil
changes continuously. Which of the following
statements is TRUE?
A. an e.m.f. is induced in the coil such that
when the change of flux is positive the
e.m.f is positive, and when the change of
flux is negative, the e.m.f is negative
B. an e.m.f is induced in the Coil whose
magnitude is inversely proportional to both
the number of turns in the coil and the rate
of change of magnetic flux
C. an e.m.f s set up in the permanent magnet
which reduces the flux in the coil to zero

POST UTME
BIOLOGY QUESTION 2014
========================================================================================
1. What type of lens is used in the spectacles of A. are internally located
the people with this eye defect? B. ate tubular
C. have rigid thick wall
D. constantly absorb water
8. Biosphere is best described as
A. all parts of the earth where life exists
B. the non — living parts of an ecosystem
A. concave lens C. all component of an ecosystem
B. convex lens D. all the members of a single species in a
C. all of the option habitat
D. none of the options 9. Muscle fatigue is caused by _______
2. Which of these components of the phloem has A. Accumulation of ethanol in the muscle cells
the cytoplasm pushed to the sides while also B. accumulation of methanol in the muscle
lacking nucleus? cells
A. Companion cell C. accumulation of lactic acid in the muscle
B. Sieve tube elements cells
C. Sieve plate D. accumulation of pyruvic acid in the muscle
D. Parenchyma 10. At what stage of the meiotic prophase do the
3. Which of the following statements about homologus chromosomes attract each other
phylum cnidaria is correct? and then pair up?
A. They are diploblastic animals A. Leptotene
B. Body is sac-shaped with the openings B. Paachytene
C. they are bilaterally symmetrical C. Zygotene
D. They are triplobastic animals with two D. Diplotene
openings 11. Which of the organdies us not directly
4. Which of these biological statements is connected to cell division process?
correct? A. centromere
A. Reflex action are also know n as voluntary B. Microtubles
actions D. golgi bodies
B. The fore brain consists of the cerebrum D. spindle apparatus
and the olfactory lobes 12. During the light dependent reaction
C. The right hemisphere of the brain controls A. glucose is formed
the right half of the body B. carbon IV oxide is fixed
D. the outer part of the human cerebrum is C. NADPH and ATP arc synthesized using
made up of grey matter electron released from water
5. The he best known plant species that occur in D. water is split and the electrons produced
fresh water swamp vegetation is are used for glucose synthesis
A. Rhizophora racemosa 13. Meiosis II is similar to mitosis in that
B. Acrostichum aureum A. Homologous chromosome synapse
C. Mitraggyna ciliate B. Sister chromatids during anaphase
D. Triplochiton scleroxylon C. The chromosome number is reduced
6. Bacteria that live in the human intestine assist D. The daughter cells are diploid
in the digestion and feed on nutrients the 14. The mechanism of opening and closing the
human consumed. This relationship might best stomata is associated with the
be describes A. guard cells
A. Commensalism B. Stoma
B. Ectoparasitism C. lenticels
C. Endoparasitism D. air spaces
D. Mutualism 15. Holozoic is seen in
7. he Xylem elements perform the function of A. Animals carnivorous plants and protozoans
transport hut they also help to support plants B. Animals, prostist and carnivorous plants
because they C. Animals, carnivorous plants and fungi
D. Animals, fungi and prostist B. poikilothermic

16. The part of the tooth that contains blood C. amphibians
vessels and verve fibres is D. reptiles
A. root
B. enamel
C. entine
D. pulp eavits BIOLOGY SOLUTION 2014
17. The food substances that are stored in
readiness for times of food shortages are 1.A 2.B 3.A 4.C 5.C 6.D 7.C 8.A
A. carbohydrates 9.C 10.C 11.C 12.C 13.B 14.A 15.B 16.D
B. fats and oils 17.B 18.C 19.A 20.D 21.D 22.C 23.A 24.A
C. proteins 25.A
D. vitamins
18. Which of these is the role of the liver in
digestion?
A. synthesis of phase
B. secretion of trypsin
C. secretion of bile and bicathonate for
emulsification of fats
D. Otorego of bite for hydrolyses of starch
19. Respirator’s surfaces generally have the
following characteristics with exception of
A. it must be thick hut permeable
B. it must he moist
C. it must passes ‘a large surface area
D. It must be richly supplied with blood vessels
20. Which of these is tint a water soluble vitamin?
A. thiamine
B. riboflavin
C. folic acid
D. calciferol
21. Which of these following biomes is currently
being ravaged by desertification?
A. Derived savanna
B. Southern Guinea savanna
C. Northern Guinea
D. Sudan savanna
22. Which of the largest of the middle ear
ossicles?
A. anvil B. stipe
C. hammer D. incus
23. The process by which plants and animals are
modified its structure, physiology and
behaviour in order to survive is known as
A. evolution
B. adaptation
C. succession
D. aggregation
24. Which of these plants can withstand extreme
dryness?
A. Cactus
B. Raphia palm
C. Triplochiton scleroxylon
D. Parkia biglobosa
25. Animals that do not allow their body
temperature to vary with, the ambient are
called?
A. homoeothermic

POST UTME
========================================================================================
A. nitrogen B iron
1. The number of cranial nerves that Connect the C. magnesium D. sulphur
brain to various parts of the body is 11. During the light dependent reaction
A. 10 pairs B. 11 pairs A. glucose is formed
C. 12 pairs D. 13 pairs B. carbon IV oxide is fixed
2. The following pair of ions is involved in C. NADPH and ATP are synthesized using
transmissions of impulses by neurons: electron released from water
A.K and Na ions D. water is split and the electrons produced
B. Na and Mg ions are used for glucose synthesis.
C. K and Cl ions 12. Eutrophication refers to growth of………..
D. K and Ca ions A. Bacteria B. Fungi
3. The probability of producing an heterozygote C. Protophytes D. Algae
progeny in a cross between two heterozygote 13. All the following statements are consistent with
individuals of pea plant is the concept of trophic structure except
1
A. 1/3 B. ¼ C. /2 D.2/3 A. At every feeding stage some energy is
4. One of these does not protect the body from wasted from the chain
harmful effect of disease-causing micro B. The neater the organism to the beginning
organisms of a food chain, the greater the available
A. Anti toxin energy of the organism
B. Phagocytes C The first trophic level is occupied by the
C. Antigens autotrophs
D. Antibodies. D. There are few number of organisms at the
5. Which of these statements with respect to start of a food chain.
individual organism is most correct? 14. All these statements about plants succession
A. It refers to animals only are correct except
B. It refers to either the plants or animals. A. Plant succession is the process of
C. Its ecology can be carried out in zoo only community change at one place over time.
D. It is used in reference to plant only. B. Plant succession is usually measured over
6. One of these is not a major Biome in West the course of several years to hundred
Africa years
A. Rain forest C. Succession proceeds from pioneer to
B. Savanna climax phases
C. Comferous forest D. Succession is often not directional and so
D. Mangrove difficult to predict
7. The media of transportation in living things 15. Which of the followings is not true about finger
include all but punt?
A. Cytoplasm A. It is useful in detecting crime.
B. Water B. No two individuals have the same linger
C. Eosin print.
D. Blood and lymph C. It is a heritable character.
8. Gaseous exchange through the lungs is called D. It is environmentally induced.
A. cutaneous breathing 16. Characteristics of continuous variation include
B. buccal breathing all except
C. pulmonary breathing A. Produced by many genes
D. larynxial breathing B. Influenced by the environment
9. In saprophytic mode of nutrition C. Occurs its a normal distribution curve
A. organisms feed on insoluble D. most of the organisms in the population fall
B. decomposition is not possible at all at the tail ends of the range.
C. nutrient recyling is possible 17. Homeostasis is defined as
D. no animal is involved A. Regulation of both external and internal
10. A macro element which is not directly conditions of organisms
connected with formation of chlorophyll is B. Maintenance of internal environment of an
organism C Calcium
C. Maintenance of internal and external D. Magnesium
environment of an organism
D. Regulation of the chemical environment of
an organism BIOLOGY SOLUTION 2013
18. Effectors are 1.C 2.A 3.C 4.C 5.B 6.C 7.C 8.C
A. muscles which work in response to the 9.A 10.D 11.C 12.D 13.D 14.C 15.C 16.D
stimulus received from the motor nerves 17.B 18.C 19.A 20.B 21.B 22.D 23.A 24.D
B. glands which work in response to the 25.A
stimulus received from the motor nerves.
C. muscles or glands which work in response
to the stimulus received from the motor
nerves.
D. efferent neurons
19. The mechanism of opening and closing the
stomata is associated with the
A. guard cells
B. stoma
C. lenticels
D. air spaces
20. The part of the kidney where each tubule
begins is called
A. Capsule
B. Cortex
C. Glomerulus
D. Urether
21. The factors for mo pairs of contrasting
characters are inherited independent of each
other. This is
A. Menders drat law of inheritance
B Mendel’s second taw of inheritance
C. Mendel’s law of segregation of germinal
units
D. Mendel’s law of independent pairing of
germinal units
22. All of the following green algae are colonial
forms except?
A. Gonium
B. Volvox,
C Pandorina
D. Anabaena
23. Allele is
A. an alternate form of a gene
B. a unit of inheritance
C. the position or location of the gene on a
chromosome
D. number of chromosomes in the gamete
24. One of these statements about sympathetic
Nervous system is untrue
A. It stimulates many parts of the hotly in times
of danger
B. It stimulates the heart beat
C. It functions like the adrenal glands
D. It lowers the blood pressure
25. One of the following elements is not
associated with leaf chlorosis
A Nitrogen
B. Iron

POST UTME
========================================================================================
9. Which of the following is part of the axial
1. Hierarchical organization of living organism is skeleton in a mammal?
in one of the following orders A. phalange B. tarsal
A. atoms, molecules, compound. cells, C. sacrum
tissues, organs, systems, organism D. patella
B. atoms, molecules. organelIes, cells, 10. A major difference between Arachnids and
tissues, organs, systems, organism Annelids is that_______
C. atoms, elements, molecules, cells, tissues, A. in Annelids, body consists of dissimilar
organs, of stems, organism segments unlike in Arachnids
D. atoms, molecules, elements, cells, tissues, B. In Annelids, body consists of similar
organs, organ systems. organism segments unlike in Arachnids
2. In a monohybrid cross between round seed C. In Arachnids, the cephalothoraxes is not
and wrinkled seed, given that round is distinct unlike in Arachnids
dominant over wrinkled, what is the number of D. In Annelids, the cephalothoraxes is distinct
wrinkled seed that would be formed at F2 if the unlike in arachnids
total number is 7324? 11. The process in which the internal environment
A. 456 B. 786 of an organism is maintained is called
C. 686 D. 860 A. co-ordination
3. Steepness of slope generally affect________ B. homeostasis
A. rainfall C. excretion
B drainage D. metabolism
C. sunlight 12. One of the following organism exhibits a
D. all of the options closed and single circulatory system
4. Bacteria differ from eukaryotic forms of life in A. insect
that they: B. earth worm
A. are causes of all infectious diseases C. fishes
B. have no nuclear membrane D. mammals
C. reproduce by binary fission 13. Coelomates are. animals with
D. nave a thick cell-wall A. no body cavity
5. Which of the following statements is NOT B. true body cavity
correct? Hormones C. false body cavity
A. are circulated by blood and lymph D. two germ layers
B. have their effect on target organs 14. This tissue is made up of tracheids, vessels,
C. complement nervous co-ordination fibres and parenchyma What is it?
D. are not produced in specific glands A. phloem
6. Sister chromalids are B. sclerenchyma
A. two identical copies of a single C. xylem
chromosome produced during phase D. ground tissue
B. pairs of chromosomes 15. The important processes which bring about
C. points of attachments of centromeres to recycling of carbon dioxide between the biotic
the chromosomes and abiotic components of an ecosystem arc
D. Chromosomes found in cells of sisters all of the following except
7. One of the groups of organism below is critical A. photosynthesis
in the entire process of nutrient cycling. B. respiration
A. aves B. nematode C. decay
C. mammalian D. fungi D. burning of fossil fuels
8. If 80 grasshoppers are found in a filed with a 16. When a cut is made on the trunks of certain
2
total area of 100cm what is the population trees, the milky fluid excluded is called
density 01 grasshopper in the field? A. rubber B. resin
2
A. 0.08mper B. 0.8m C. alkaloid D. latex
2 2
C. 80m D. 100m 17. The system of membrane-lined sacs that
forms channels throughout the cytoplasm and
whose membrane is continuous with the

nuclear membrane is the
A. mitochondrion
B. rihosomes
C. endoplasmic reticulum
D. Golgi bodies
18. The type of farming which involves raising
livestock only is called
A. mixed farming
B. subsistence farming
C. pastoral farming
D. monoculture
19. Fruits that develop without fertilization and are
seedless are known as
A. parthenocarpic fruits
B. aggregate fruits
C. simple fruits
D. epicarpic fruits
20. Nerve endings are located in which part of the
tooth
A. crown B. cement
C. pulp cavity D. guilt
21. Which of the following is the hardest material
in the body of animals?
A. cartilages B. hone
C. enamel D. dentine
22. Grasping fingers and toes as well as eves
positioned in front of the head to features of
A. cartaceans B. carnivores
C. rodent D. primates
23. One of the major differences between DNA
and RNA is that ______
A. DNA is made of those sugars and double
stranded unlike RNA
B. DNA is made of ribose sugar and single
stranded unlike RNA
C. RNA is made of those sugar and double
stranded like DNA
D. RNA is made of ribose sugar and single
stranded unlike DNA
24. One of these statements is true of caryopsis
A. Pericarp and seed coat are fused
B. Peericap is flee from seed coat
C. Pericarp splits open
D. Pericarp with a superior ovary
25. A biological species must possess die
following characteristics except
A. live only in one place
B. must interbreed
C. must produce fertile offspring
D. the mating between members must be free
BIOLOGY SOLUTION 2012

1.B 2. 3.B 4.B 5.D 6.A 7.D 8.B
9.C 10.B 11.B 12.C 13.A 14.C 15.C 16.D
17.D 18.C 19.A 20.C 21.C 22.D 23.D 24.A
25.A

POST UTME
========================================================================================
B. all environments
1. Which of these groups of animals rivals C. cold mountain areas and hot springs
mammals in the display of parental care C. cold mountain areas and hot springs
features? D. tropical and subtropical regions only
A. Birds B. reptiles 10. Which of the following phyla has been found to
C. pisces be the most successful in the animal kingdom?
D. none of the above A. phylum Annelida
2. An assemblage of populations of different B. phylum Am thropoda
species which interact through tropics and C. phylum Chordata
spatial relationship is best described as a(n) D. phylum Mollusca
A. city 11. In the tropical rainforest, there is little or no
B. community litter on the forest floor because of high
C. ecosystem D. niche A. rainfall
3. In which biome would you expect to have the B. temperature
shortest growing season? C. light intensity
A. tropical rain forest D. rate of decomposition
B guinea savanna 12. Adaptive features of plants to desert
C. Sudan savanna conditions include
D. deserts A. thick barks, succulent stems and sunken
4. Which of the following is an incorrect stomata
statement about savanna? B. thin barks, succulent stems and sunken
A. it occupies about 80% of the lard surface stomata
of Nigeria C. thin harks, air floats on stems and sunken
B. it has no woody species stomata
C. it is usually burnt annually D. air spaces on tissues, adventitious roots
D. it is a closed or nearly closed cover of and thin barks
grasses 13. The distribution of plants in rainforest is
5. Which of the following habitants cannot be governed mainly by
used for the study of succession? A. vegetation
A. abandoned farmland B. soil types
B. a pond C. amount of rainfall
C. savanna grassland D. rainfall pattern
D. well cultivated farmland 14. The greatest influence on a stable ecosystem
6. In which it these associations is much harm in nature is
done to one of the partners? A. man B. pollution
A. symbiosis C. animal D. rainfall
B. commensalisms 15. Which of the following is the basic unit of
C. parasitism classification?
D. mutualism A. genus B. specific.
7. Effect of air pollutant does not include: C. phylum D. kingdom
A. formation of carboxyl haemoglobin 16. Which two structures are present in a palisade
B. displacement of digested food cell but not in a liver?
C. lowering plant yield A. cell wall and cytoplasm
D damage breathing organs B. cell wall and chloroplast
8. A typical feature of a plant cell is the presence C. cell membrane and cytoplasm
A. Chromosomes in nucleus D. cell membrane and chloroplast
B. cellulose cell wall 17. Workers in deep mines usually suffer from
C. mitochondria dehydration because
D. membrane around the nucleus A. water lost due to due evaporation
9. Non seed plants are found in B. water is lost due to defecation
A. desert and arctic regions only C. water is lost in the form N swear
D. water is lost along with salts in the form of
sweat
18. Glucose is reabsorbed in the kidney mainly by
A. Bowman’s capsule
B. Loop of Henle
C. Proximal convoluted tubule
D. distal convoluted tubule
19. The most common substrate of respiration is
A. fats B. amino acids
C. glucose B. sucrose
20. The rate of heart beat in an adult human being
is
A. 71 beats per minute
B 72 bears per minute
C. 73 heats per minute
D. 74 beats per minute
21. One of the following is not true
A. saprophytic nutrition involves feeding on
soluble organic material from inorganic
substances
B. symbiosis is a nutritional relationship in
which both organism involved dove benefit
C. a parasite causes injuries to its host in the
course of getting its food
D. holozoic mode of nutrition can be seen in
animals, carnivorous plants and sonic
protists.
22. ______ is responsible for the direction of
growth and development of the organism
A. the nucleus B. the DNA
C. the neuron D. the RNA
23. The chromosome number in man is
A. 46 B.23 C.92 D.58
24. Effectors are
A. muscles which work in response to the
stimulus received from the motor nerves
B. glands which work in response to the
stimulus received from the motor nerves
C. muscles or glands which work in response
to the stimulus to received from the motor
nerves
D. efferent neurons
25. The following are formed in the bone marrow
except
A. platelets B. basophils
C. granulocytes D. lymphocytes
BIOLOGICAL SOLUTION 2011

1.A 2.B 3.D 4.B 5.C 6.C 7.B 8.B
9.C 10. 11.B 12.A 13.C 14.A 15.B 16.A
17.D 18.B 19.C 20.B 21.A 22.B 23.A
24.C 25.A

POST UTME
=============================================================================================
C. mineral salts D. HCl
1. Which of the following is the basic unit of E. light
classification of plants and animals? 12. Epigeal germination can be found in:
A. genus B. species A. sorghum
C. phylum D. kingdom B. maize
2. Mendel’s first law is known as the law of C. millet
A. use and disuse D. groundnut
B. segregation of genes 13. _________is not sex-linked
C. evolution A. stunted growth
B independent assortment of genes B. river blindness
3. An interlocking form / pattern of feeding C. haemophilia
relationship is called D. colour blindness
A. food chain B. nutrition 14. The pryrenoid in Spirogyra:
C. consumer D. food web A. usually contains starch
4. The group of animals described as glorified B. is suspended by cytoplasmic strands
reptiles is C. is mainly used for respiration
A. pisces B. amphibian D. excrete waste product
C. ayes D. mammals 15. Flower is to the angiosperm as __________ is
5. The anal and dorsal fins of fish are used for: to gymnosperm
A. steering A. pines B. cords
B. buoyancy C. cone D. anther
C. upward movement 16. Alternation of sexual and asexual method of
D. controlling rolling movement reproduction is found in _________
E. downward movement A. euglena B. form C. blue
6. The significance of mitosis includes all of the C. blue green algae
following except D. grasses
A. genetic stability 17. ______ is not a non-seed plant.
B. growth A. fern B. conifer C. cycad
C. cell replacement D. none of the above
D. degeneration 18. Which type of association is shown by a fern
7. Which at the following is absent in the growing on the stem of oil palm
prophase stage of meiosis? A. epiphytism
A. leptonem B. saprophytism
B. zygonem C. commensalism
C. pachvnem D symbiosis
D. triplonema 19. Which of the following is likely to encourage
8. The photosynthetic pigments include: inbreeding in plants?
A. chlorophyll and caroteniods A. diecious
B. Chloroplasts and cytochromes B. protandious
C. melanin and haemoglobin C. monoecious
D. carotenoids and haemoglobin D. hermaphrodite
9. Which of the following produces both 20. The biological association that contributes
hormones and enzymes directly to succession in a community is:
A. pancreas B. ileum A. competition
C. gall bladder D. kidney B. predation
10. Of the following, which one lacks chaetae, C. parasitism
tentacles and antennae? D. commensalisms
A. snail B. earthworm 21. Grasses recover quickly from bush fires in the
C. millipede D. crab savanna because of their
E. snake A. fibrous B. roots
11. Etilolation is caused by the influence of C. succulent stems
A. CO2 B. water D. perenating organs
E. rapid growth rate

22. The ability of an organism to live successfully
in an environment is known as
A. resistance
B. competition
C. succession
D. adaptation
23. The community of plants in which the same
species occur front year to year is the_______
A. perennial species
B. climax species
C. pioneer vegetation
D. annual species
24. __________ is an autotrophic mode of
nutrition
A chemosynthesis
B. saprophytism
C. parasitism
D. symbiosis
25. Which of the following is an organ?
A. leaf B. heart C. kidney D. bone
BIOLOGICAL SOLUTION 2010
1.B 2.B 3.D 4.C 5.D 6.D 7.D 8.A

9.A 10.E 11.E 12.D 13.B 14.A 15.C 16.C
17.B 18.A 19.C 20.A 21.C 22.D 23.B 24.A
25.D

POST UTME
========================================================================================
A. has a cuticle
B. is outermost laser at the conies
1. One of these is not found in urine C may bear root hairs
A. water B. breaks down with age
B. sodium chloride E. is replaced cock in old roots.
C. nitrogenous compounds 10. Anaerobic respiration n yeast produce
D. calcium chloride A.CO2 & ethanol
E. nitrogenous salts B. CO2 & H2O
2. An organism with a apir of indistinguishable C. CO2 & O2
genes is a D CO2 & glucose
A. heterozygote B. hybrid E. ethanol & H2O
C. allelomorph D. homozygote 11. Which one of these Set of factors is
E. diploid completely abiotic’?
3. The fruit formed from a single flower having A. turbidity, tide, salinity, plankton
several carpels is called B. pressure, pH, soil, insect
A. multiple fruit C water, soil, bacteria, salinity
B. simple fruit D. pH. bamboos, wind, rainfall
C. aggregate fruit E. light, latitude. wind, humidity
D. dehiscent fruit 12. In which of nose ate flagella anti cilia found
E. indehiscent fruit A flatworms
4. The functions of ossieles (malcus, incur and B. protozoa
stapes) in the mammalian ear is to C. exenterates
A. vibration D. annelids
B. regulate pressures E. nematodes
C. support of the inner ear 13. The three important organs that are situated
D. maintain balance during motion close to the stomach tire
E. secrete oil A. liver, kidney and gall bladder
5. Joint skeleton is absent in the B. pancreas liver and kidney
A. cockroach B. spider C. gall bladder, pancreas and spleen
C. millipede D. snail E. housefly D. liver, kidney and spleen
6. Mucors and spirogyra can he put in the same E. kidney, gall bladder, liver
group because they 14. The plantain reproduces sexually by
A. unicellular A. spores
B. have spores ate dispersed by wind B. buds
C. reproduce sexually C. fragments
D. have bodies made up of thallus and filame D. sucker E. flowers
alternatively 15. The major functions of swim-bladder in fish
7. 7 The organ through which nourishment and A. breathing
oxygen diffuse into an embryo is called B. swimming
A. Amnion B. chorion C. diving
C. umbilical cord D. repelling enemy
D. oviducts E. buoyancy
E. placenta 16. The part of the central nervous system
8. A tapeworm fasten itself to the intestine of its concerned with answering and examination
host question is the
A. neck and bicker A. sinalcord
B. hooks & suckers B. cerebellum
C . rostsllum & stickers C. orxy
D. progloitts D. cerebrum
E. Roctehloum, honks, suckers E. medullar oblongata
9. Which of these is false about the piliferous 17. Wind pollinated flowers usually have
layer of a root? A. long style
B. sticky stigma D. constrict to act ease the amount of blood

C. small and short stigma flowing to the skin
D. rough pollen grains
E. short styles and pollen. BIOLOGY SOLUTION 2009
18. The ridicule of a bean seedling grows mostly 1.D 2.D 3.C 4.A 5.D 6.C 7.E 8.B
rapidly in the region 9.A 10.A 11.E 12.B 13.C 14.D 15.E 16.D
A. of the root tip 17.C 18.D 19.B 20.D 21.D 22.B 23.C 24.A
B. below the topsoil 25.B
C. just round the root tip
D. just below the toot tip
E. just above the root tip
19. A key to similarity between nervous and
hormonal system is that both
A. involve chemical transmission
B. have widespread effects
C. shed chemicals into the blood stream
D. evoke rak response
E. eliminate response
20. The bones of the neck on which the skull rest
is
A. odontoid
B. axis
C. occipital
D. atlas
E. patella
21. A child with blood group genotype different
from those of both parents and with a mother
of genotype OO, can only have a father of
genotype
A. A B. B C. OO D. AB E. AA
22. A true climax community
A. changes from year to year
B. persists until the environment chance
C. is the first stage in plant succession
D. consists of tallest trees and small animals
E is in a state of perturbation
23. In a predator food chain involving secondary
and tertiary consumers, the organisms
become progressively
A. smaller
B. equal in number
C. larger and fewer along the food chain
D. parasitized along the food chain as
consumers get bigger
E. sparse in distribution
24. Which of these is false about the piliferous
layer of a root?
A. has a thin cuticle
B. me outermost layer of the cortex
C. may bear root hairs
D. breaks down with age
E. is replaced cock in old roots.
25. When it is cold the blood vessels of the skin
A dilate to increase blood flow to the skin
C. constrict to reduce the amount of flow of
blood
C. Dilate to reduce the amount of blood floss
to the skin

POST UTME
========================================================================================
1. Which of these types of skeleton appropriate D. the development of the suckers
to the cockroach 10. Which of the following is characteristics of the
A. hydrostatic skeleton animal cell
B. exoskeleton A. presence of chloroplasts
C. endoskeleton B. possession of a cellulose cell wall
D. cartilaginous skeleton C. absence of large vacuoles
2. When proteins are broken down they provide D. presence of large vacuoles
A. oxygen 11. In the life history of Schistosoma (Bilharza),
B carbohydrate one of the following is the intermediate host
C. energy A. man
D. amino acids B. snail
3. The function of lenticels is C. mosquito top larva
A. to receive excess water in the plant D. fish
B. to absorb water from the atmosphere 12. The hormone which tones von the muscles of
C. for gaseous exchange a person in the time of danger is from the
D. to absorb light A. thyroid gland
4. One of the functions of xylem B. pancreas
A. strengthening the stem C. adrenal gland
B. manufacturing food D. Spleen
C. conducting manufactured food 13. The movement of molecules from a region of
D. none of the above higher concentration to me of lower
5. 5. People suffering from myopia concentration is
A. can see near objects clearly A. diffusion
B. can see far away objects clearly B. transpiration
C. cannot see any object clearly C. osmosis
D. tire colour-blind D. plasmolysis
6. The cilia in paramecium are used for 14. The region of cell division in a root is
A. respiration A. root cap
B. locomotion B. endodermis
C protection C. xylem
D. excretion D. meristem
7. The study of the organisms and the 15. Which of the following is not an excretory
environment of abandoned farmland is the organ?
ecosystem A. lungs
A. A community B. kidney
B. population C leaf
C. species D. large intestine
D. air ecosystem 16. The par of the mammalian brain responsible
8. At fertilization for maintaining balance is
A. one chromosomes from the male loins A medulla oblongata
another from the female B. cerebellum
B. one gene from the male combine with one C. optic lobe
other from the female D. cerebrum
C the male nucleus fuses with the female 17. A sugar solution was boiled with Fehling’s
nucleus solutions A and B and the colour remain blue.
D. one set of chromosome combine with The sugar tested was
another set from the female A. glucose
9. The neck region of the tapeworm (Taenia B. maltose
spp.) is responsible for the C. fructose
A. the production of eggs D. Sucrose
B. the storage of eggs 18. The blood vessel which carries digested food
C. the formation of new segments from the small intestine to tile liver is the
A. renal vein A-polypeptides, b-protein, c-amino acids, d-

B. renal artery peptones
C. hepatic artery A. a--b-->c-->d
D. hepatic portal vein B. c-->d-->a->b
19. The maize grain is regarded as a fruit and not C. b-->c-->a-->d
a seed because D. b-->d-->a>c
A. it is covered by a sheath of leaves
B. the testa and fruit wall fuse after fertilization
C. it has both endosperm and cotyledon BIOLOGY SOLUTION 2008
D. tile pericarp and seed coat are separate 1.B 2.D 3.A 4.A 5.A 6.B 7.D 8.C 9.C
20. Identical twins are produced under one of the 10.C 11.A 12.C 13.A 14.D 15.D 16.B
following conditions 17.D 18.D 19.B 20.B 21.A 22.A 23.A
A. two ova fertilized at tile same time by tile 24.B 25.B 26.A 27.D
sperm
B. One ovum fertilized divides to give two
embryos
C. Two ova fertilized by one sperm
D. one ovum fertilized by two sperms
21. Partially digested food ready to lease the
stomach is called
A. chime
B. curd
C. glycogen
D. paste
22. The particles found ill the blood which play an
important role in blood clotting are called
A. platelets
B. red blood cells
C. monocytes
D. granulocytes
23. Ina cross between a normal male and a
female carrier for haemophiliac is
A. 25% B.50% C. 70% D. 45%
24. Which of the following hormones is produce
during fright or when agitated?
A. Insulin
B. adrenalin
C. thuroxine
D. pituitary
25. Grasses-Grasshopper-Lizards-Snakes-Hawks.
In the food chain, the organisms which are the
least in number are
A. Grases
B Hawks
C. lizard
D. Snake
26. One significant difference between roots and
stem is that
A. branch toot originate in the pericycle while
branch stems do not
B. stems are always below the ground while
roots are always under the ground
C. stems are positively geotropic while roots
are negative geotropic
D stems are sometimes used for storage while
roots are never so used
27. The arrangements below are steps in protein
digestion. Which is the correct sequence? A.

POST UTME
========================================================================================
1. Where in energy produced in a cell? A. are samples mall plants
A. nucleus B. carry out alternation of generation
B. lvsosomes C. possess small
C. mitochondria D. possess no vascular tissue
D nucleolus 10. In lower plants like mosses. the structure
2. Which of the following organism does not exist which perform the functions of roots of higher
as a single free-living cell plants is called
A. Amoeba A. roots hairs
B. Euglena B rhizoids
C. Chlamydomonas C. hydphae
D. Volvox D. roots
3. Euglena is an autotrophic organism because 11. Which of the following components of an
it: ecosystem has the greatest biomass?
A. has flagella A. primary producers
B. has plant and animal features B. primary consumers
C. can manufacture its food C. secondary consumers
D. moves fast D. tertiary consumers
4. In which of the following organism does a 12. The young shoot of a plant is referred to as
single cell perform all function of active A. radicle
movement nutrition, growth, excretion and B. plumule
photosynthesis? C. bud
A. paramecium D. branch
B. amoeba 13. The name of a bacterium whirls derives its
C. Euglena energy from oxidizing nitrites into nitrates is
D. hydra A ntirosomonas
5. What is the function of contractile vacuole in B. azotobacter
paramecium? C ntirobacter B. Escherichia coli
A. produces enzymes 14. Potometer is used to measure
B. gets rid of excreta A. rate of osmosis
C. stores and digests food B. rate of diffusion
D. gets rid of excess water C. rate of transpiration
6. The ability of organism to maintain a constant D. rate of photosynthesis
internal environment is known as: 15. Meiotic cell division ensures that
A. diuresis A. many similar cells are produced
B. endosmosis B. chromosome number of cells is halved
C. palsmolysis C. cells produced are doubled
D. homestasis D. cells produced posses the same
7. Which of the following is the medium of chromosome number
transportation of nutrients within unicellular 16. The stem of young herbaceous plants are kept
organism? upright mainly by
A. Lymph A. osmotic pressure
B. plasma B. turgidity
C. protoplasm C. transpiration pull
D. serum D. root pressure
8. In a erobic respiration, oxidative 17. Which of the following tissues is not found in
phosophorylation takes place in the stem and root of monocotyledons
A. cytoplasm A. Nylens
B. Iysosome B. Cambium
C. mitochondrion C Pith
D. ribosomes D. Pericycle
9. Bryophytes ate different from following plants 18. Fruit enlargement can be induced by spraying
because they young ovary is us
A. gibberellins. ethylene and a basic acid

B. auxin, abscisic acid and ethylene
C. auxin. cytokinin and gibbetellin
D. a auxin, kinin and giberelin
19. A dry, indehiscent, winged fruit formed from
one carpel is known as
A. schizocarp
B. caryopsis
C. samara
D. nut
20. A fruit which develops without fertilization is
described as
A. simple
B. aggregate
C. multiple
D. parthenocarpic
21. A dwarf plant can be stimulated to grow to
normal height by the application of
A. thyroxin
B. giberelin
C. insulin
D. kinin
22. The conditions known as cretinism is caused
by the deficiency of
A. vitamin
B. insulin
C. Thyroxin
D. vitamin C
23. The different between viviparous and
oviparous animal is
A. possession of yoked eggs
B. laying and brooding of eggs
C. possession of yolkless eggs
D. laying of unfertilized egg.
24. The following are features of the tropical
rainforest except
A. loose and most soil
B. short trees growing beneath tall trees
C. scanty trees with small elves
D. presence of many animals
BIOLOGY SOLUTION 2007

1.C 2.D 3.C 4.C 5.D 6.D 7.C 8.C
9.D 10.B 11.A 12.B 13.C 14.C 15.B
16.B 17.B 18.C 19.C 20.D 21.B 22.C
23.B 24.C

POST UTME
========================================================================================
D. to stop chemical reactions
1. Structures found in cells are listed below: k cell 9. The petals of a flower arc collectively called
wall ii. Cell membrane iii. Chloroplast iv. A. Calyx
Cytoplasm v. nucleus vi. Sap vacuole. Which B. Capsule
of these structures are found in both animal C. Carpel
cells and plants cells? B. Corolla
A. i, ii and v 10. Osmosis can be defined as diffusion of:
B. I, iii and v A. water molecules from an area of high
C. ii, iii, and v concentration to an area of low
D. ii, iv, and v concentration
2. Which of the following is not present in the B. water molecules from a dilute solution to a
nucleus of a cell? concentrated solution across a permeable
A. chromosomes membrane
B. Nucleolus C. water molecules from a concentrated
C. Mitochondrion solution to a dilute solution through a
D. Genes semi-permeable membrane
3. An amoeba moving towards a crumb of cake D. water molecules from a dilute solution to a
in a pond most likely exhibits concentrated solution through a en1i-
A. phototropism permeable membrane
B. chemotaxis 11. The ventricles of the mammal an heart are
C. thermotaxis more muscular than the auricles because the
D. mastic movement A. auricles have smaller capacity
4. Which of following cells would most probably B. ventricles are larger in size
contain the greatest number of Golgi bodies C. ventricles pump blood to distance organs
A. muscle cell D. ventricles receive more blood
B. secretory cell 12. Which of the following statement is not correct
C. nerve cell about the function of each group of
D. white blood cell mammalian vertebrae?
5. A group o similar cells performing the same A. caudal vertebrae support the tail and
function is provide attachment for tail muscles
A. an enzymes B. Thoracic vertebrae articulate with the ribs
B. an organ C. Lumber vertebrae provide attachment for
C. a tissue abdominal muscles
D. an organelle D. sacral vertebrae support the skills and allow
6. A plant which grows on another plant without nodding and rotting movement
apparent harm to the host plant is called 13. In the adult toad, gaseous exchange takes
A. a parasite place through
B. an epiphyte A. Buccal cavity, skin and spiracle
C. a saprophyte B. Buccal cavity, balder and lungs
D. a predor C. Buccal cavity, skin and lungs
7. The oxygen given off during the process in the D. gills, skin and buceal cavity
above equation is derived from 14. The brain and the spinal cord constitute the
A. sunlight A. autonomic nervous system
B. water B. sympathetic nervous system
C. carbon dioxide C. somatic nervous system
D. atmosphere D. central nervous system
8. When testing a leaf for starch, why is it first 15. Which of the following parts of the mammalian
placed in boiling water? brain is involved in taking the decision to run
A. to extract the chlorophyll rather than walk
B. to remove colour from the leaf A. cerebellum
C. to dissolve the starch B. medulla oblongata
C. midbrain
D. cerebrum C. Ill & IV are hooks are proglittids

16. Which part of the car is responsible for the D. II & IV are hooks and rostellum
maintenance of balance? 23. The two species of human tapeworm can be
A. cochlea distinguished by the presence or absence of
B tympanic membrane A. scolex
C. Eustachian tube B hook
D. semi-circular canals C. head
17. The foot of the bird shown strong and has B. sticker
strong claws on its digits. This implies that is
bird
A. is a scavenger BIOLOGY SOLUTION 2006
B. is a bird of prey 1.D 2.C 3.B 4.B 5.C 6.B 7.B 8.D 9.D
C. uses the foot to supplement wing action 10.D 11.C 12.D 13.C 14.D 15.D 16.D 17.B 18.D
D. uses the toot to scratch the soil 19.C 20.D 21.D 22.B 23.B
18. Which of the following is not a means of

conservation
A. repracing harvested mature timber trees
with their seedlings
B. prex cotton of poaching
C. controlling excessive deforestation
D. horning of vegetation before cropping
19. One of the following statements is not true of
viruses
A. they tire micro-organism
B. they are smaller than bacteria
C. they can be seen with an ordinary light
microscope
D. they cause tobacco disease, polio and
small pox
20. Each of the following is an arthropod except
the
A. crab
B. scorpion
C. spider
C snail
21. The largest phylum in the animal kingdom is
A cnidaria
B. mollusea
C. chordate
D. arthropoda
22. With reference to the Figure above, which of

these are correct?
A. I & II are proglottides and hooks
B I & Ill are rostellom and suckers

POST UTME
GEOGRAPHY QUESTION 2014
========================================================================================
C. North Atlantic drift
1. Which of the following locations in Nigeria has D. Peruvian current
the least mean annual rainfall total? 9. Which of the following is nor an element of
A. Sokoto climate?
B. Nguru A. precipitation
C. Kano B. evaporation
D. Maidnguiri C. temperature
2. Nigeria’s Federal Capital Territory shares D. humidity
boundaries with the fo1lowig States except 10. What is the Fahrenheit equivalent of 95
A. Plateau degree Centigrade?
B. Niger A. 203 degree Fahrenheit
C. Kogi B. 51 degree Fahrenheit
D. Kaduna C. 84.78 degree Fahrenheit
3. Which of the following is not a major fold D. 139 degree Fahrenheit
mountain of the world? 11. Which of the following temperate grasslands is
A. Himalayas wrongly paired with its location?
B. Andes A. the Downs of Australia
C. Atlas B. Prairies of Canada and USA
D. Nakatoa C. The Pampas of Argentina
4. The brief period between sunset and the D. the Steppe of South Africa
complete darkness or night is known as 12. Which of the following is not true of
A. dawn Anticyclone?
B. solstice A. a region of relative low atmospheric
C. twilight pressure
D. night B. Blowing clockwise in the northern
5. In an international football match is scheduled hemisphere
to start by 2.00pm on Monday 21 September C. blowing anticlockwise in the southern
0
2014 in location A (longitude 5 E, at what time hemisphere
and date would people in location B.(longitude D. it is also refers to simply as a “HIGH”
0
295 W) be able to listen or watch the start of 13. Which of the following vegetation belts houses
the match? the largest concentration of domesticated
A. 540pm on Sunday 20 September, 2014 livestock in
B. 700pm on Sunday September. 2014 A. Sahel
C. 1000am on Tuesday 22 September, 2014 B. Sudan savanna
D. 840am on Tuesday 22 September, 2014 C. Montane grassland
6. Which of the following is not associated with D. Forest
youthful stage of river? 14. Which of the following is the cause of the
A. narrow valley deflection of all freely-moving bodies (e.g.
B. rapids and water falls wind and ocean current) to the right of their
C. braided channel paths in the northern it hemisphere and left in
D. port holes the southern hemisphere?
7. Which of the following gases constitutes the A. the differences in air pressure
largest percentage by volume in the earth’s B. the resolution of the earth
atmosphere? C. the rotation of the earth
A. oxygen D. the big size of the earth
C. carbon dioxide 15. All of the following are measures of combating
C. nitrogen soil erosion except
D. argon A. terracing
8. Which of the following is not a worm ocean B. cover crops
current? C. mining
A. North Equatorial current D. contour ploughing
B. South Equatorial current
16. The State of equilibrium reached by the 24. The world’s richest fishing ground are found
Vegetation of an area when it is left A. on the continental shelves
undistributed for a long period of time is called B. on the deep sea platforms
A. tropic level C. in oceanic deep
B. ecosystem D. in river estuaries
C. climax 25. Which of the following African cities is
D. phyletic origin stimulated near the confluence of rivers?
17. Which or the following is not it prominent A. Niamey
process of wind erosion n the desert? B. Cairo
A. deflation C. Port-Harcourt
B. abrasion D. Khartoum
C. attrition
D. solution GEOGRAPHY SOLUTION 2014
18. In which of the following latitudes would you
expect more than 24 hours of continuous 1.D 2.A 3.D 4.C 5.C 6.C 7.A 8.D 9.B
daylight or darkness at a particular time to the 10.A 11.D 12.A 13.C 14.C 15.C 16.C 17.D
year? 18.A 19.D 20.A 21.B 22.B 23.B 24.A 25.D
0
A. 70 N and S
0
B. 50 N and S
0
C. 45 N and S
0
D. 23.5 N and S
19. One of the major mineral deposits found in Jos
Plateau is
A. gold
B. coal
C. lignite
D. columbite
20. “Transhumance” is
A. rearing of animal which involves seasonal
movement of animals up and clown hill
slopes in search of pasture
B. animal rearing which involves movement
of farmers from the coast inland
C. animal rearing which involves movement
of farmers from desert to the coast
D. animal rearing in which farmers stay
permanently over a location
21. The movement of people from a village to a
farm settlement may he described as
A. rural-urban migration
B. rural-rural migration
C. sub urban-rural migration
D. urban-urban migration
22. In which of the following took types is
petroleum mainly found?
A. igneous
B. volcanic
C. sedimentary
D. metamorphic
23. Under which of the following atmospheric
conditions is pollution forced to spread
horizontally near the earth’s surface than rising
vertically trough the atmosphere?
A. convectively unstable atmosphere
B. When the envir6nmental lapse rate greatly
exceeds the adiabatic lapse rate
C. absolutely unstable atmosphere
D. temperature inversion

POST UTME
========================================================================================
C. Mohociviv discontinuity
1. The second Equinox in any year takes place D. Gutenburg discontinuity
during the month 10. Where is Sahel Savanna vegetation belt found
A. March. in Nigeria?
B. June A. Northwest
C. September B. Northeast
D. December C. Both Northwest and Northeast
2. Which one of the following countries in Africa D. From the middle belt to the north
would be person NOT pass over by crow fly 11. The largest soil group, found in the temperate
(distance) from Abidjan to Cairro grasslands, having a deep, black, nun lent rich
A. Niger A- horizon, a compact B - horizon and a zone
B. Libya of calcium carbonate accumulation is called a
C. Bukina Paso A. Chemozem
D. Chad B. Pedocal
3. The main work of a river in its torrent state is C. Pudsol
A. Widening its valley D. Chestnut
B. Down cutting 12. Drought tolerant plants are known as
C. Deposition A. Epiphytes
D. Bifurcation B. Hydrophytes
4. Which of the following locations in Nigeria has C. Drouphytes
the highest mean annual rainfall total? D. Xerophytes
A. Benin City 13. The Major disadvantage of the River Nile as a
B. Port - Harcourt trade route is that
C Calabar A. It is too long
D. Ondo B. It is too shallow
5. the world’s longest river is C. It flows during the wet season only
A. River Amazon D. It has several cataracts
B. River Mississippi 14. The earth rotates from
C. Rivet Nile A. Southeast to Southwest
D. River Chang Jiang B. Southwest to Southeast
6. Which of the following is a feature of a C. West to East
rejuvenated river B. East to West
A. Incised members 15. The Tropical maritime air mass attains its
B. Braided chattel maximum incursion over West African
C. Delta hinterlands
D. Levees A. When the sun is overhead on the Tropic of
7. Which of the following is not a thermometric Capricorn
scale? B. When the sun in overhead on the Tropic of
A. Celsius Cancer
B. Kelvin C. When the sun is overhead on the Equator
C. Fahrenheit D. When the sun is overhead on both the
D. Octas Tropic of Cancer and Tropic of Capricorn
8. Which of the following is not a dorm of 16. A line Joining places of equal salinity is known
condensation? as
A. Snow A. Isohalin
B. Rime B. Isoneph
C. Cloud C. Isoyhet
D. Fog B. Isohel
9. The surface of discontinuity between the 17. Which of the following continents has the
earth’s crust and the mantle is known as largest area tropical type of climate?
A. Lithosphere A. Asia
B. Barysphere B South America
C. Northern America 17.D 18.A 19.A 20.D 21.D 22.A 23.C 24.A
D. Africa 25.A
18. One hour’s difference in mean solar time
represent what angular difference in
longitude?
0 0 0 0
A. 15 B.23.5 C.90 D.66.5
19. An extended urban area, typically consisting
of several towns merging with the suburbs of
one or more cities can best be referred to as
A. conurbation
B. Urban decay
C. Growth pole
D. Urban inertia
20. Which of the following terms is not associated
with desert type topography?
A. Zuegen
B. Yardang
C. Mesa
D. Uvala
21. The major characteristics of a kerst scenery
include
A. Excessive overland flow
B. Extensive and long surface flow
C. An underground network of’ caves and
streams
D. Frequent surface drainage
22. Which of the following landforms originates
horn Aeolian erosion?
A. Deflation hollow
B. Sand clone
C. Playa
D. Wadi
23. The cheapest means of transport for S tong
distance travel is by
A. Air
B. Rail
C. Water
D. Road
24. A traveller crossing the International Date Line
from America to Asia at 1.00p.m. on Saturday,
July 13th, 2013. would have to change his
watch to 1.00 p.m. on
A. Sunday, July 14th 2013
th
B. Friday. July 12 2013
C. Saturday, July 13th 2013
D. Monday, July 15th. 2013
25. The shaduf method of irrigation was first
practiced in
A. Sudan
B. Ghana
C. Egypt
D. Mali
GEOGRAPHY SOLUTION 2013

1.C 2.C 3.B 4.B 5.C 6.A 7.D 8.C
9.C 10.B 11.A 12.D 13.D 14.C 15.C 16.A

POST UTME
========================================================================================
9. The world’s richest fishing ground are found
1. Which of the lot owing is not a rapid type of A. on the continental shelves
mass movement B. in oceanic deeps
A. solifluction C. in big and fast-flowing river
B. rockfall D. in river estuaries
C. mudflow 10. A deflation hollow is produced by
D. debris slide A. Riser erosion
2. A front in which warm air is overtaken and B. Water action in a limestone area
lifted oft the ground by cold air in a depression C. wind erosion in deserts
is known as D. wave erosion on the coast
A. cold front 11. Akosombo dam is on the River
B. warm front A. Niger B. Nile
C. mixed front C. Congo D. Volta
D. occluded front 12. Which of the following is not characteristic of
3. The earths atmosphere is said to be stable the International Date Line?
A. when the environmental lapse rate is A. The line is approximately along the 180°
greater than the adiabatic lapse rate meridian
B. when the adiabatic lapse rate is greater B. The line has a zigzag shape
than the environmental lapse rate C. local time is the same on either side of the
C. When the environmental lapse rate is equal tine
to the adiabatic lapse rate D. a traveler gains a day when crossing the
D. when the environmental lapse rate is not line from the west to the east
equal to the adiabatic lapse rate. 13. Which of the following African cities is situated
4. Environmental lapse rate is near the confluence of rivers?
A. the rate of temperature changes of an air A. Niamey
parcel undergoing vertical displacement B. Freetown
B. the rate of temperature decrease of an air C. Cairo
parcel undergoing horizontal displacement D. Khartoum
C. the actual rate of decrease of temperature 14. Ferrel’s law states that winds deflect to the
with increase in altitude at a given place at A. left in the northern hemisphere and to the
a given moment right in the southern hemisphere
D. the rate of horizontal temperature gradient B. right in the northern hemisphere and to the
of an air parcel left in the southern hemisphere
5. What s the Centigrade equivalent of 950 C. right in both hemispheres
Fahrenheit? D. left in both hemispheres
0 0
A.139 C B. 37.2 C 15. Given an environmental lapse rate of 0.650C
0 0
C. 35 C D. 3.6 C per 100 metres, a place with sea level
6. Which one of the following state sin Nigeria temperature of 400C and 2500 meter above
would a person NOT pass over by crow the sea level will approximately have a
fly(direct distance) from Ibadan to Makurdi? temperament of
A. osun B. Ondo A. 31.25°C
C. Kogi D. Enugu B. 23.75°C
7. The latitude which marks the limits of the C. 32.5°C
overhead sun’s apparent movement is D. 28.25°C
0 0 0 0
A. 0 B.66.5 C.32.5 D. 23.5 16. At the summer solstice (June 21) which of the
8. Which of the following features s not following latitudes will have the shortest night?
commonly associated with a river at the A.30°N B. 30 °S C. 50 15N D. 50 °S
floodplain stage? 17. Which of the following landforms results from
A. meanders wind deposition?
B. Levees A. Playa
C. braided channel B. Barehan
D. knickpoint C. Bajada
D. Pan
18. Which of the following fanning practices can
be used to check soil erosion?
A. contour ploughing
B. ploughing of land upslope
C. bush burning
D. shifting cultivation
19. Aeolian erosion refers to the work of
A. Plants
B. Wind
C. Ice
D. Running water
20. The difference n the readings on the city and
wet bulb thermometers used to determine
A. relative humidity
B. temperature range
C. evaporation
D. transpiration
21. Which of the following scales should show the
greatest amount of detail on a map?
A. 1:50,000
B. 1:500,000
C. 1:20,000
D. 1:200,000
22. Sandstone is metamorphosed into
A. Slate
B. Quarzite
C. Schist
D. Graphite
23. In humid areas, farmers add lime to the soil to
A. Reduce acidity
B. Act as fertilizer
C. Facilitate the absorption of nutrients
D. encourage the farmers
24. In the hydrological cycle, the transfer of water
from the earth’s surface to the atmosphere is
by
A. evaporation only
B. transpiration only
C. evapotranspiration
D. condensation
25. In which of the following countries was the
shaduf method of Irrigation first practiced?
A. Niger
B. Egypt
C. Sudan
D. Ghana
GEOGRAPHY SOLUTION 2012

1.A 2.D 3. 4.C 5.C 6.D 7.B 8.A
9.A 10.C 11.D 12.C 13.D 14.B 15.B
16.C 17.B 18.A 19.B 20.A 21.C 22.B
23.A 24.C 25.B
EGL 001 INTRODUCTION OF ENGLISH Support ideas ordered logically and linked clearly
LANGUAGE I
(a) introduction to Essay/ Composition
1. Description of a composed text Support dc//s ordered ogleatly and itnkeo clear)):
(i) Unity of theme 1 se of .1 thesis (focus’cont.rolhing idea to
(ii) Coherence establish control of content;
(iii) Cohesion Ideas receive rstequate ‘.tlppOrl to make them
2. Features of Composed text cleat;
(i) Focus Skilled use of language.
(ii) Organization (d) Argumentative Essay
(iii) Support and elaboration (i Form(s
(vi) Style Arguments on both sides of an issue (opcn’t
(v) Conventions /\rguments on one side of an issue (closed)
3. Writing a text (ii) Feature
(i)Purpose of writing Logical piesentation of ideas. viesspotltts eic:
(ii) Choosing a topic Providing su fficient m formation to support or
(iii) Developing an outline rebut a position,
(iv) Paragraph development Careful selection of what to present;
(v) identifying characteristics of target audience Anticipating counter arguments:
4. Types of Essay/Composition
(a) Narrative Essay B. Grammar i
(i) Form(s) The Sentence: l)cfinitions using various criteria
 Relating personal or imaginative experience; semantic. stntcture and ot thographv. with many
 Giving a historical account o a person, place. examples of sentence.
event etc., 2. Structural (‘lassitication of Sentence: simple
 Narrating a story to supports a position sentence, complex sentence, compound sentence,
(proverb, philosophical view) eonipouitd eumptcx sentence, multiple-complex
(ii) Features Sentence.
Narration usually involves; 3. Functional Classification of Sentence, namely:
(i) Setting (place, time), Statements, commands, questions and
(ii) Characters (people, actors) exclamations.
(iii) Actions, 3. Basic simple sentence and various sentence
(iv) Use of flashback, parts
(v) Tense usage usually past tense. ‘ Explication of basic simple sentences Sentence
(b) Descriptive Essay part e.g., subject, vcih, direct object. indirect
(i) Form(s) object, and subject complement and object
Painting in words of persons, objects. scenes. eomplentent.
event etc. 5. Elements on the grammatical rank scale:
(ii) Features Sentence, clause. phrase!group, word and
 Emphasis more on showing rather titan telling; morpheme
 There is always one dominant impression 6. Forniation of non—simple sentences. iC.
 Selection of details to support dominant sartants
impression N the basic simple sentence. tormea througli ttic
 Reliance on concrete sensor’, details to i oeess of /11/) 1c’Iiiefl I //d’/Ci/Ofri (hid I/I.’ L’i1I0?t.
support points. negative sentence, passive sentence, polar
(c) Expository Essay question. il/i question etc.
(i) Form(s) 7. Fornsatioii of )on smmpie rntcmiee
cUmllblaeiiUti
 Presentation, explanation or expounding of
01 sim0Le SCi!te!.. 01 1110111 l0o..CS 0 U1a/i
ideas, theories, beliefs,
i:trger sentences e.g. compound sentence,
 Presentation of a proposal on in issue, topic:
complex Sentence, compound complex sentence,
 Presentation of an analysis of something,
multiple- sentence and multiple—complex
event, issue:
sentence.
 Presentation of commentary on an issue:
8. Structural types of clauses
 Writing of an editorial
Noun clause
 Comparing and contrasting two things or Adjectival clause
event. Adverbial clause
(ii) Features
C. Word Formation, Collocation and The English meanings

Dictionary o Confusion in the use 01 vetbs and nouns
The nature of Language • Errors in the choice and ordcnng of adjectives
2. Vocabulary Development Errors in plural formation
3. World formation Processes • Errors in the use of prepositions
a. Clipping 4. Common Errors in Grammar
b. Blending • Common errors in the use of nouns
c. Borrowing Common errors mn the use of vet bs
d. Non owing • Common errors n the use ot adverbs and
C. conversion adjectives
Common errors in the use of pronouns
4. Word Types • Common errors in the rise of tense
Simple. complex, compounds • Common of tenses in conditional sentence
a. Murphemes The Concept of Nigeria English at the Levels ol
Ia. I exical Morphemes Phonology, Lexis and Syntax.
e Grammatical Morphemes
1. !dioms Collection
a ixed EGL 002 INTRODUCTION TO ENGLISH
h. Noujixod LANGUAGE II
6. The Dictionary
a. Types A. Essay/Composition
b. Functions 1. Report Writing
c. Merits a. The Narrative Report
d. Demerits i) Topic, audience, situation
D. The Study of Meaning in English What is (ii) Features of narration
Meaning (iii) Emphasts on fact
• Not easily definable; a simple term (iv) Accuracy of information:
• Ambiguous, vague, polysemous persons, time, place
2. Types of Meaning Ia. The Project Report (based on empirical data)
a Linguistic Meaning. Phonological, ii Choosing a topic.
orthographic. Mu rp huh 5iC a. Sviitact ie. (iN Developing site of data collec don
Lexical ‘it Dun colletirn
h C’ontextuil Meaning (is) Data collection
Verbal, Cultural, Siiuatiunsl, Stylistic t I L.’dl’J 1lId1\ SI’,
Meaning defined hs theme suhiect matter 2. Steech Writing
Meaning defined bs tenut The topic, audience and situatton
Meaning dedned by mode The ontact clireci comnntnicntion w’th
c. Concepts of Meaning a u die nec
Reibrenees. Sense. Componenual \natvsis. 3. i.ettcr Writing I orm(s
(urleept. I not’its C no
Meaning. Cugnits a. tilterpersunak Textuat
N caning, Ambiguity v. Vague ness.
Nominahism V. Realism.
F. Common Errors
Introduction: Reasons for contmor errors in
‘rudents’ ririting
2. Common Spelling Errot
Wrung acs’eiarior ‘V ‘geht’ng ‘.‘nib pronunciation
o Spelling mistakes attributable to poor
pronunciation.
Wotds commonhv mispelt
Unnecessary duplication of letters
Writing compound words as sepal ate as orda
• British and Amei iean spellings Some spelling
rules
3. Errors in choice of LexIcal Items
• Words with similar sounds taut different
pellings and meaningssame spetlings but di iterent

OAU Pume Science Pq and Answer

Uploaded by

Document Information

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

OAU Pume Science Pq and Answer

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

Examsguru.

OBAFEMI AWOLOWO UNIVERSITY

A. an Eldorado gift 18. It was apparent that the international

3. Friendliness word “PYRRHIC” actually originated from

- Subsequently means successively, next. 47. The correct option is D

32. “run errands” . The correct option is B

33. Pilfer means to steal small items of little value,

34. B - When something/an action, is performed in

35. Etymology — is the study of history or origins

36. When something is erratic, it means it is not

37. Pyrrhic Victory means a victory that is not

38. The correct option is D; Greek gift

39. Thanks takes the preposition “to”

40. Bereft takes the preposition “of’

OBAFEMI AWOLOWO UNIVERSITY

A. waiter A. strive not to be wasteful

PASSAGE ENGLISH LANGUAGE SOLUTION 2013

22. A - Few as a word shows not enough to be

13. C - Broach means to begin a discussion which

14. C - The word vituperative is an adjective which

15. A - Recluse is a noun and it means a person

17. C - A rascally child is one who does not

18. B - the word futile is an adjective which means

19. A - Prevaricate is a verb which means to beat

20. D - The word hang can be used for both

21. D - Sense is an uncountable noun and cannot

OBAFEMI AWOLOWO UNIVERSITY

Choose from the options a-d the correct spelling

24. A. ebmbaras B. enibarras

2012 ENGLISH LANGUAGE SOLUTION

1. B: If an expression that has an adjectival

OBAFEMI AWOLOWO UNIVERSITY

C. doubt D. back waited for her friend.

OBAFEMI AWOLOWO UNIVERSITY

In each of Questions 22 to 25, choose the option

OBAFEMI AWOLOWO UNIVERSITY

(a) in the creeks (a) weakness

(c) premature 21. Hemmed means to surround somebody or

Lexis and Structure

OBAFEMI AWOLOWO UNIVERSITY

(c) afflicted (d) insulted

14. Trouble shooter is a person that settles trouble is

OBAFEMI AWOLOWO UNIVERSITY

(c) he can have eight wives purposes.

OBAFEMI AWOLOWO UNIVERSITY

OBAFEMI AWOLOWO UNIVERSITY

10. If x is a real number and x + 11 < 0 evaluate

12. If m is the gradient of the line pq - px - qy = 0

13. If P is directly proportional to p = 20 when

16. Evaluate (In Sin3x)

OBAFEMI AWOLOWO UNIVERSITY

9. Evaluate A. 25 B. -25 C. -11 D. 11

13. Simplify logx x + logx4x

OBAFEMI AWOLOWO UNIVERSITY

3. Evaluate log8 128 – long39 13. The modal score is A. 5 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8

OBAFEMI AWOLOWO UNIVERSITY

2. Cos (180 - ) is equivalent to 14. Given that a= , b=

5. Integrate A. Not defined B. 0 C. A.

MATHEMATICS 2011 SOLUTION

OBAFEMI AWOLOWO UNIVERSITY

22. Express in partial fractions

24. In the figure AB and AD are tangents to the

25. Find the area of the triangle

MATHEMATICS 2010 SOLUTION