CORRECTIONAL-ADMINISTRATION

COMPREHENSIVE EXAMINATION IN CORRECTIONAL ADMINISTRATION
PREPARED BY Prof. RENOR N APELA, RCrim, MAEd, MSCJ, CSP, PhD(units)
INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark only one answer for each item by
marking the box corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES
ALLOWED.
MULTIPLE CHOICE: CHOOSE THE LETTER OF YOUR CHOICE.
INSTITUTIONAL CORRECTIONS
1. The study of control and prevention of crime through PUNISHMENT of criminal offenders is called;
A. Penology
B. Penal Management
C. Correction
D. Penal Science
2. Based on the Pre-Classical Theories of Punishment, which of the following beliefs gave more emphasis on religious
ritual in settling private disputes and that primitive justice were not so much concerned with determining the guilt?
A. Abused of Judicial Individualization
B. The Judean—Christian Theory
C. Individualization of Punishment
D. Rise of the Canonical Courts
3. This theory admits that minors are incapable of committing a crime because they have not reached the age of
responsibility. And it also admits that certain adults are incapable of committing crimes because of their conditions they
are not free to choose.
A. The Neo-Classical School of Penology
B. The Italian or Positivist School of Penology
C. The Classical School of Penology
D. The Modern Clinical School of Penology
4. A criminal is the product of his biological inheritance conditioned in his development by the experience of life to which
he has been exposed from early infancy up to the time of the commission of the crime. Which theory of penology is best
described?
A. The Neo-Classical School of Penology
B. The Italian or Positivist School of Penology
C. The Classical School of Penology
D. The Modern Clinical School of Penology
5. What branch of the Criminal Justice System which concerned with the custody, supervision, and rehabilitation of
criminal offenders?
A. Court
B. Correction
C. Law Enforcement
D. Prosecution
6. The study and practice of systematic management of jails or prisons and other institutions concerned with the custody,
treatment, and rehabilitation of criminal offenders is called;
A. Correctional Administration
B. Correction
C. Penal Management
D. Penology
7. In which of the following pillars/components of the Criminal Justice System is consider as the weakest pillar?
A. Court
B. Correction
C. Law Enforcement
D. Prosecution
8. In the primitive society, what is the oldest code prescribing savage punishment at about 1990 BC in Babylon?
A. Code of King Hammurabi
B. Justinian Code
C. Greek Code of Draco
D. The Burgundian Code
9. Identify which of the following terms means “a redress that the state takes against an offending member of society that
usually involves pain and suffering.”
A. Penalty
B. Retaliation
C. Vengeance
D. Punishment
10. Which of the following is not a justification for punishment?
A. Retribution
B. Retaliation
C. Expiation or Atonement
D. Deterrence
11. Which of the following statements is NOT correct?
A. Punishment must be productive of suffering
B. Punishment may not be commensurate with the offense
C. Punishment must be correctional
D. Punishment must be personal
12. What is the concept of Deterrence?
A. Society’s interest can be better served by helping the prisoner to become law abiding citizen and productive
upon his return to the community by requiring him to undergo intensive program of rehabilitation in prison.
B. Offenders should be punished because they deserve it.
C. Punishment is effected by placing offenders in prison so that society will be ensured from further criminal
depredations of criminals.
D. Punishment gives lesson to the offender by showing to others what would happen to them if they violate the
law.
13. 0n what century is considered the century of change or “The Age of Enlightenment”?
A. 18th Century
B. 17th Century
C. 16th Century
D. 15th Century
14. He is the Superintendent of the penal colony at Norfolk Island in Australia (1840) who introduced the “Mark System”.
A. Domets of France
B. Manuel Montesimos
C. Alexander Mocanochie
D. Sir Evelyn Ruggles Brise
15. What law created the “Bureau of Corrections Act of 2013”?
A. R.A. No. 9262
B. R.A. No. 10575
C. R.A. No. 6975
D. R.A. No. 11575
16. According to the UN Standard Minimum Rules for the Treatment of Prisoners (The Nelson Mandela Rules), no person
shall be received in a prison without a valid __________.
A. Commitment Order
B. Information
C. Complaint
D. Mittimus Order
17. The purposes of classification shall be:
A. To separate from others those prisoners who, by reason of their criminal records or characters, are likely to
exercise a bad influence;
B. To divide the prisoners into classes in order to facilitate their treatment with a view to their social
rehabilitation.
C. So far as possible, separate prisons or separate sections of a prison shall be used for the treatment of different
classes of prisoners.
D. All of these
18. What is the agency under the Department of Justice that is charged with custody and rehabilitation of national
offenders, that is, those sentenced to serve a term of imprisonment of more than three (3) years?
A. Bureau of Jail Management and Penology
B. Provincial Jail
C. Bureau of Corrections
D. National Bureau of Investigation
19. Bureau of Prisons was renamed Bureau of Corrections under passed during the Aquino Administration.
A. Executive Order 929
B. Executive Order 292
C. Presidential Decree 968
D. Presidential Decree 698
20. The manner or practice of managing or controlling places of confinement as in jails or prisons is called;
A. Jail Management
B. Modern Penal Management
C Correctional Administration
D. Penal Management
21. The manner of receiving national inmates, a detainee or convicted person in a prison facility committed by courts or
other competent authority to serve sentence for a certain period or for temporary confinement is called;
A. Admission
B. Commitment
C Reception
D. Acceptance
22. From what province is the Sablayan Prison and Penal Farm located?
A. Occidental Mindoro
B. Palawan
C Zamboanga City
D. Davao
23. What do you call for an institution for the imprisonment (incarceration) of persons convicted of major/ serious crimes?
A. Jail
B. Workhouses
C District Jail
D. Prison
24. Which of the following is a Provincial Prisoner?
A. Those confined in jails to serve an imprisonment from 1 day to 6 months.
B. Those sentenced to suffer a term of imprisonment from 1 day to 3 years or a fine of not more than 1,000 pesos
or both.
C. Those sentenced to suffer a term of imprisonment from 6 months and 1 day to 3 years or a fine not more than
1,000 pesos
D. Those sentenced to suffer a term of sentence of 3 years and 1 day to life imprisonment.
25. Which of the following is a City Prisoner?
A. Those confined in jail to serve an imprisonment from 1 day to 6 months.
or both.
1,000 pesos
26. Which of the following is a Municipal Prisoner?
or both.
1,000 pesos
27. Which of the following is an Insular or National Prisoner?
or both.
1,000 pesos
28. Which of the following special group of prisoners that composed of incorrigible, intractable, and highly dangerous
persons who are the source of constant disturbances even in a maximum security prison?
A. Super Maximum Security Prisoners
B. Maximum Security Prisoners
C. Medium Security Prisoners
D. Minimum Security Prisoners
29. Which of the following group of prisoners whose escape could be dangerous to the public or to the security of the
state?
30. What do you call those constant troublemakers but not as dangerous as the super maximum-security prisoners? Their
movements are restricted and they are not allowed to work outside the institution but rather assigned to industrial shops
within the prison compound.
31. What group of prisoners occupies the Medium Security Prison (Camp Sampaguita) and wear blue as the color of
uniforms?
32. Which of the following group of prisoners can be trusted to report to their work assignments without the presence of
guards? Also, they occupy the Minimum Security Prison (Camp Bukang Liwayway) and wear brown color uniforms.
33. This is a special unit of prison (Camp Sampaguita) where new prisoners undergo diagnostic examination, study, and
observation for the purpose of determining the programs of treatment and training best suited to their needs and the
institution to which they should be transferred.
A. Custodial Center
B. Inmates and Development Center
C. Reception and Diagnostic Center
D. Rehabilitation Center
34. Who is responsible for the examination of the prisoner’s mental and emotional make-up?
A. Sociologist
B. Psychologist
C. Vocational Counselor
D. Psychiatrist
35. Who is responsible to conduct a study on the character and behavior of the prisoners?
A. Sociologist
B. Psychologist
C. Vocational Counselor
D. Psychiatrist
36. Is a place for locking up of persons who are convicted of minor offenses or felonies who are to serve a short sentence
imposed upon them by a competent court, or for the confinement of persons who are awaiting trial or investigation of their
cases.
A. Jail
B. Prison
C. Workhouses
D. Correctional facilities
37. What is a security facility that is common to police stations and used for temporary confinement of an individual held
for investigation?
A. Workhouses, Jail Farms or Camp
B. Prison
C. Ordinary Jails
D. Lock-up Jails
38. The type of jail commonly used to detain a convicted criminal offender to serve a sentence of less than three years is
termed __________.
B. Prison
C. Ordinary Jails
D. Lock-up Jails
39. A facility that houses minimum custody offenders who are serving short sentences or those who are undergoing
constructive work programs. It provides full employment to prisoners, remedial services, and constructive leisure time
activities.
B. Prison
C. Ordinary Jails
D. Lock-up Jails
40. BJMP is mandated to direct, supervise and control the administration and operation of all district, city, and municipal
jails nationwide with pronged tasks of safekeeping and development of PDL. From which agency of the government is
tasked to manage and control those provincial and Sub-provincial jails?
A. Bureau of Corrections
B. Local Government Unit
C. Provincial Government
D. Bureau of Jail Management and Penology
41. What agency of the government has supervision and control over all cities and municipal jails throughout the country?
A. BJMP
B. BuCor
C. PNP
D. DILG
42. Pursuant to Section 60 to 65, Chapter V, Republic Act No. 6975 amended by Republic Act No. 9263, the BJMP is
headed by a Chief who is assisted by two (2) Deputy Chiefs, one (1) for Administration and another for Operations, and
one (1) Chief of Directorial Staff, all of whom are appointed by the _________.
A. President
B. Secretary of DILG
C. NAPOLCOM
D. Secretary of DND
43. How many years should the Chief BJMP with the rank of Director shall serve his tour of duty?
A. 6 years
B. 5 years
C. 4 years
D. 3 years
44. What is the age of mandatory or compulsory retirement in the BJMP?
A. 56 years old
B. 55 years old
C. 60 years old
D. 65 years old
45. What is the equivalent rank of Senior Jail Officer 4 in the military?
A. Sergeant
B. Staff Sergeant
C. Technical Sergeant
D. Master Sergeant
46. Who is the chairman of the Classification Board and Disciplinary Board?
A. Regional Director
B. Provincial Warden
C. Warden
D. Assistant Warden
47. What do you call a warrant issued by a court directing the jail or prison authorities to receive the convicted offender for
the service of the sentence imposed therein or for detention?
A. Commitment Order
B. Mittimus
C. subpoena duces tecum
D. subpoena ad testificandum
48. The BuCor, through its penal establishments, shall receive prisoners from competent authority upon presentation of
the following documents except one;
A. Mittimus/Commitment Order of the Court
B. Information and Court Decision in the case,
C. Certificate of Detention
D. PNP Booking Sheet
49. The BuCor, through its penal establishments, all female offenders shall be received only at the Correctional Institution
for Women.
A. the statement is correct
B. the statement is wrong
C. the statement is partially correct
D. the statement is partially wrong
50. It means entrusting for the confinement of an inmate to jail by a competent court or authority, for the purposes of
safekeeping during the pendency of his/her case.
A. Commitment
B. Classification
C. Admission
D. Retention
51. The assigning or grouping of inmates according to their respective penalty, gender, age, nationality, health, criminal
records, etc.
A. Commitment
B. Classification
C. Admission
D. Retention
52. Statement No. 1 - Insular Prisoner is one who is sentenced to a prison term of three (3) years and one (1) day to
reclusion perpetua or life imprisonment. Statement No. 2 – A City Prisoner is one who is sentenced to a prison term of
one (1) day to three (3) years.
A. Statement no. 1 is true
B. Statement no. 2 is false
C. Statements no. 1 and 2 are both true
D. Statements no. 1 and 2 are both false
53. Which of the following is a High Profile Inmate?
A. Any formal or informal ongoing inmates’ group, gang, organization or association consisting of
three or more members falling into one of the following basic categories: street gangs, prison gangs, outlaw gangs,
traditional organized crime, aboriginal gangs, subversive groups and terrorist organizations.
B. A target, either a resource or a person, who may either be an enemy combatant, high ranking
official or a civilian in danger of capture or death, typically in possession of critical intelligence, data, or
authority marked as an objective for a mission and which a commander requires for the successful
completion of the same.
C. Those who are considered highly dangerous and who require a greater degree of security,
control and supervision because of their deemed capability of escape, of being rescued, and their ability to
launch or spearhead acts of violence inside the jail.
D. Those who require increased security based on intense media coverage or public concern as
a result of their offense such as but not limited to those who have been involved in a highly controversial or
sensationalized crime or those who became prominent for being a politician, government official, multi-
million entrepreneur, religious or cause-oriented group leader and movie or television personality.
54. This includes those charged with heinous crimes such as murder, kidnapping for ransom, economic sabotage,
syndicated or organized crimes, etc. Also included are inmates with military or police trainings or those whose life is in
danger or under imminent threat.
A. High Profile Inmate
B. High Risk Inmate
C. High Value Target (HVT)
D. Security Threat Group
55. You are a Gater in a jail unit. You are supposed to check the credentials of the person bringing the inmate or the
committing officer to determine his/her identity and authority. Which among the following documents should not be
accepted during the admission process?
A. Commitment Order
B. Complaint/Information
C. A medical certificate taken two days prior to admission
D. Certificate of Detention from PNP and/or NBI
56. Which of the following units inside the jail is tasked to check the authenticity of the entries in the medical certificate?
A. Records Unit
B. Health Unit
C. Property Custodian
D. Gater
57. His task is to orient the newly committed inmates on jail rules and regulations using the Inmate’s Orientation Sheet.
A. Assistant Warden or Officer of the Day
B. Jail Warden
D. Desk Officer
58. During reception procedures, who is in charge of coordination from concerned agencies regarding the case of inmate
for speedy disposition and furnish them with copies of the available needed documents?
A. Assistant Warden or Officer of the Day
B. Jail Warden
D. Desk Officer
59. Under the jail rules, the use of force shall be limited to instances of justifiable self-defense, prevention of self-inflicted
harm, protection of others, prevention of riot, commission of a crime, escape or other jail disturbance and to controlling or
subduing an inmate who refuses to obey a lawful command or order.
A. The statement is Correct
B. The statement is partially correct
C. Both a and b is correct
D. The statement is wrong
60. The conduct regular count of inmates should be done at least _________ times within a 24-hour period and strictly
implement the established procedures in counting inmates.
A. Five to Six
B. Four
C. Three
D. Two
61. What is an elite tactical unit of the BJMP that is trained to perform high-risk operations that fall outside the operational
abilities of the regular BJMP personnel and are equipped with specialized skills and sophisticated firearms and
equipment?
A. Special Weapons and Tactics
B. SAF Commandos deployed in jail
C. Special Tactics And Response (STAR) Team
D. All of these
62. What should be the duty of a Paralegal Officer upon release of the Person Deprived of Liberty?
A. Checks inmate records to ensure that the data in the release order coincide with the data in the inmate’s
carpeta (spelling of name, offense, Criminal Case Number, etc.).
B. Verifies the authenticity of the release order
C. Starts processing inmate’s release.
D. Checks on the receipt of property and returns to the inmate his/her deposited items.
63. What should be the duty of a Property Custodian upon release of the Person Deprived of Liberty?
A. Checks inmate records to ensure that the data in the release order coincide with the data in the inmate’s
carpeta (spelling of name, offense, Criminal Case Number, etc.).
B. Verifies the authenticity of the release order
C. Starts processing inmate’s release.
D. Checks on the receipt of property and returns to the inmate his/her deposited items.
64. Which of the following statements is not correct?
A. A male personnel shall also be designated to keep the keys of the female dorms
B. Male personnel must provide female inmate with utmost privacy and respect for personal space
C. Only work suitable to their age and physical condition should be assigned to female inmates
D. The female dorm should be completely separated from the male dorm
65. Which of the following statement is not correct?
A. Each newly admitted inmate shall be thoroughly searched for weapons and other contraband immediately
upon arrival in the facility
B. All inmates must be searched thoroughly by the duty personnel whenever they enter or leave the security
areas
C. Maintain a key control center for storing keys that is inaccessible to inmates and
unauthorized persons
D. Inmates shall be allowed from handling jail security keys in any given circumstances
66. Statement No. 1- Never allow any personnel with firearms on areas of inmates and/or in any area intended for
inmates’ activities. Statement No. 2- Never allow inmates in the workplace of personnel or in areas where firearms are
authorized.
A. Statement no. 1 is true
B. Statement no. 2 is false
C. Statements no. 1 and 2 are both true
D. Statements no. 1 and 2 are both false
67. The following are the rules to be followed when transporting inmates except one;
A. Jail personnel shall not discuss with the inmate the transportation plans, schedules or equipment to be
used / adopted
B. Inmates shall be notified of a trip only prior to the departure and shall not be allowed to make any phone call
C. Prior to movement/transport, all escort personnel shall be given detailed instructions on their
respective duties and responsibilities
D. Long distance transport of one (1) or more inmates shall be escorted by a minimum of two (2) escort personnel
and a back-up vehicle, if available
68. When transporting inmates, whenever possible, the transfer shall only be made during ________.
A. daytime
B. night time
C. discretion of the warden
D. both daytime and nighttime
69. During noise barrage, the following rules must be followed by the jail personnel, except one;
A. Lock up inmates to ensure perimeter security
B. Dialogue and negotiate with inmates. If inmates are compliant, gather all inmate leaders for further
dialogue and open forum
C. Never resort to any use of force as long as inmates are only doing noise barrage and the incident
does not escalate into a more serious one
D. Whenever possible, argue with inmates
70. He shall be primarily responsible for taking custody of all confiscated contraband before these are turned over to the
jail warden.
A. Contraband Recorder
B. Evidence Custodian
C. Contraband Custodian
D. Contraband Inventory Control-in-Charge
71. Accounting of inmates shall be done at least ________ in a day.
A. 6 times
B. 5 times
C. 4 times
D. 3 times
72. Who shall be the chairman of the inmate’s disciplinary machinery?
A. Warden
B. Assistant Warden
C. Officer of the Day
D. RESJO
73. He/she assumes responsibility for the formulation and implementation of emergency plans to preclude the occurrence
of jail incidents and disturbances
A. Warden
B. Assistant Warden
C. Officer of the Day
D. RESJO
74. This Theory believes that man is a free moral agent and that every act of man is of his free will and accord.
A. The Strain Theory
B. The Neo-classical School
C. The Classical School
D. The Positivist Theory
75. This theory advocates the study of the criminal rather than the crime.
A. The Strain Theory
B. The Neo-classical School
C. The Modern Clinical School of Penology
D. The Positivist Theory
76. This is a psycho-educational drug counseling program developed consisting of twenty-four (24) modules: eighteen
(18) modules to be completed by the PDL in a small group setting with fellow PDL and six (6) family modules to be
participated by the PDL’s family.
A. Katatagan Laban sa Drogas a Komunidad (KLDK)
B. Kalusugan at Kakayahan Laban sa Druga (KKLD)
C. Katatagan Kontra Droga sa Komunidad (KKDK)
D. Kasanayan Laban sa Drogas sa Lipunan (KLDL)
77. Under Article 10, of the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights (ICCPR), in order to prevent labeling,
branding, or shaming by the use of these or other derogatory words, the term “prisoner” has been replaced by this new
and neutral phrase called “____________________”
A. Person Deprived of Liberty (PDL)
B. Person under PNP Custody (PUPC)
C. Person of Interest
D. All of these
78. Any article, item, or thing prohibited by law and/or forbidden by jail rules that would pose as security hazards or
endanger the lives of inmates is called;
A. Nuisance Contraband
B. Prohibited Contraband
C. Illegal Items
D. Contraband
79. In case of Conjugal visitation, what kind of legal document must be presented by the visitor?
A. Barangay Certification
B. Marriage Certificate
C. Certificate of Cohabitation
D. All of the above
80. Are those that are unlawful in themselves and not because of some extraneous circumstances (i.e. dangerous drugs,
weapons, potential weapons, explosives).
C. Illegal Contraband
D. Contraband
81. Are those that may not be classified as illegal under the Philippine laws but are forbidden by jail rules i.e. cellphone,
money or other commodities of exchange such as jewelry, appliances and gadgets, excessive wearing apparels and
sleeping paraphernalia, intoxicating liquors, cigarettes, pornographic materials, gambling paraphernalia and other
products that are considered as instruments for vices since they threaten the security, fire safety, sanitation of the facility,
and the orderly activities of the jail.
C. Illegal Contraband
D. Contraband
82. The main objective of this program is to address the overcrowding in jail facilities.
A. E-Dalaw
B. Interfaith Program
C. Behavioral Management/ Modification Program
D. Paralegal Program
83. What should be the color of uniform for those PDL housed at Medium Security Compound of the Bucor?
A. Orange
B. Blue
C. Brown
D. Gray
84. Inmates shall be prohibited from handling jail security keys.
A. The Statement is correct
B. The statement is wrong
C. The statement is partially correct
D. The statement is partially wrong
85. Who advocated the free will theory of crime causation?
A. Cesare Lombroso
B. Julius Cesare
C. Cesar Montano
D. Cesare Beccaria
86. Which among the following undergoes preventive imprisonment?
A. probation officer
B. parole officer
C. probationer
D. detention prisoner
87. Which of the following best describes the classical theory?
A. there are born criminals and these can be shown by certain stigmatas
B. criminal behavior is learned in the interaction with others
C. basis of criminal liability is free will and purpose of penalty is retribution
D. criminals may be classified into ectomorph, mesomorph and endomorph body types.
88. What is involved when a criminal is made incapacitated to commit a crime in the future?
A. incapacitation
B. mutilation
C. retribution
D. imprisonment
89. What theory says that criminal behavior is learned in the process of interaction and communication with other people?
A. psychoanalytic theory
B. strain theory
C. social disorganization theory
D. differential association theory
90. The theory in criminology that the stress is more on the effects on the felonious acts of the criminal rather than upon
the criminal himself.
A. positivist
B. neo classical
C. classical
D. hedonism
91. What theory states that lower class culture puts people in conflict with the norms of the dominant culture?
A. strain theory
B. anomie theory
C. culture conflict theory
92. Crime is the result of the frustrations and anger a person experience and his inability to achieve a legitimate goal. If a
person cannot achieve his goals he experiences stress which will lead him to criminal behavior.
A. strain theory
B. anomie theory
C. culture conflict theory
93. It has endeavored to establish a mechanical and direct proportion between crime and penalty and there is scant
regard to the human element.
A. classical theory
B. positivist theory
C. strain theory
D. none of the above
94. During the 16th up to the 18th century, a criminal may be sent away from a place carried out by prohibition to coming
against a specified territory. This is an ancient form of punishment called:
A. exile
B. transportation
C. banishment
D. public trial
95. The theory in penal science which maintains that punishment gives lesson to the offender and the would be criminals
is called
A. deterrence
B. reformations
C. incapacitation
D. public safety
96. One of the following represents the earliest codification of roman law, which was incorporated into the Justinian code.
A. twelve tables
B. burgundian code
C. code of draco
D. hammurabic code
97. Municipal prisoners are those sentenced to suffer a term of imprisonment from______.
A. 1 day to 3 years
B. 1 day to 30 days
C. 1 day to 6 months
D. none of these
98. If the Warden is taken as a hostage, for all intents and purposes, he ceases to exercise authority and the next in
command or the officer present shall assume the command.
A. Veteran
B. most senior
C. assistant
D. custodial
99. When a jailbreak, escape and riot is in progress or has just been perpetrated in the jail, the officer at the control
centers shall immediately.
A. sound the alarm
B. locked prisoners in their respective cells
C. notify the nearest police precinct
D. call the warden or Director
100. In case of mass jailbreak, all members of custodial force shall be immediately issued firearm and assigned to critical
post, to;
A. plug off the escape routes
B. to shoot the escape
C. protect the other inmates
D. to give warning
-- END –
NON-INSTITUTIONAL CORRECTIONS
1. What branch of the administration of Criminal Justice System charged with the responsibility for the custody,
supervision and rehabilitation of convicted offenders?
A. Corrections
B. Institutionalized Corrections
C. Community Based Corrections
D. Court
2. It is defined as the study of jail or prison management and administration as well as the rehabilitation and reformation
of criminals.
A. Corrections
B. Institutionalized Corrections
C. Community Based Corrections
D. Court
3. In the Philippine Correctional System, the purpose of corrections is to punish and rehabilitate the offender. Is the
statement correct?
A. Correct
B. Wrong
C. Partially correct
D. Partially wrong
4. Which of the following agencies in the corrections pillar that has supervision over the national penitentiary and its penal
farms?
B. Provincial Government
C. Department of Social Welfare and Development
D. Bureau of Corrections
5. This is an agency under the DILG which has exclusive control over all city, municipal and district Jails nationwide.
6. What is an agency under DILG that has exclusive supervision and control of provincial and sub-provincial Jails in their
respective area of jurisdiction?
7. What agency under the Department of Justice (DOJ) who is tasked to provide Community-Based Correction program?
A. National Bureau of Investigation
B. National Prosecution Service
C. Parole and Probation Administration
D. Board of Amnesty
8. What agency under the Department of Justice (DOJ) who is tasked to provide Community Based Correction program?
A. National Bureau of Investigation
B. National Prosecution Service
C. Parole and Probation Administration
D. Board of Amnesty
9. It is one of the most common forms of community correction.
A. Probation
B. Diversion
C. Restitution
D. Halfway houses
10. A community-based residential facilities that are less secure and restrictive than prison or jail but provide a more
controlled environment than other community correctional programs.
A. Probation
B. Diversion
C. Restitution
D. Halfway houses
11. What is the other term for home confinement?
A. Shelter Home
B. Solitary confinement
C. House Arrest
D. House Confinement
12. It is the process of suspending the sentence of a convict after having served the minimum of his sentence without
granting him pardon, and the prescribing term upon which the sentence shall be suspended.
A. Parole
B. Executive Clemency
C. House Arrest
D. House Confinement
13. Which of the following is not a form of executive clemency?
A. Parole
B. Pardon
C. Amnesty
D. Commutation of Sentence
14. Who grants Probation?
A. Judge
B. President
C. Secretary of Justice
D. Parole and Probation Administration
15. It refers to the total extinction of the criminal liability of the individual to whom it is granted without any condition
whatsoever and restores to the individual his civil rights and remits the penalty imposed for the particular offense of which
he was convicted.
A. Commutation of Sentence
B. Amnesty
C. Conditional Pardon
D. Absolute Pardon
16. It refers to the exemption of an individual, within certain limits or conditions; from the punishment that the law inflicts
for the offense he has committed resulting in the partial extinction of his criminal liability.
B. Amnesty
D. Absolute Pardon
17. A general pardon extended to a group of persons, such as political offenders purposely to bring about the return of
dissidents to their homes and to restore peace and order in the community.
B. Amnesty
D. Absolute Pardon
18. What is the Latin word for Probation?
A. probational
B. probacio
C. probatio
D. probationar
19. What do you call an accused whose probation was granted but failed to report for supervision within the period
ordered by the court or a probationer who fails to continue reporting for supervision and/or whose whereabouts are
unknown for a reasonable period of time?
A. Petitioner
B. Probationer
C. Absconding Petitioner
D. Absconding Probationer
20. Which among the following shall serve as the informational for the court’s decision to grant or deny probation?
A. Post Sentence Investigation Report
B. Pre-Sentence Investigation Report
C. Evaluation Report
D. None of these
21. Probation is believed to be originated in
A. England
B. United States
C. Massachusetts
D. Boston
22. Who is considered as the father of probation in England?
A. John Augustus
B. Teodolo Natividad
C. Alexander Machonochie
D. Mathew Davenport Hill
23. He is a Boston shoemaker, first to develop a sustained service to promote temperance and to reclaim drunkards and
considered as the father of probation in USA.
A. John Augustus
B. Teodolo Natividad
C. Alexander Machonochie
D. Mathew Davenport Hill
24. What is the first state to enact a real probation law in United States?
A. Massachusetts
B. Philadelphia
C. Chicago
D. Boston
25. What is the first adult Probation Law in the Philippines?
A. Presidential decree No. 968
B. Act No. 4221
C. House Bill No. 393
D. Presidential Decree No. 1612
26. Probation may be granted whether the sentence imposes a term of imprisonment or a fine only. Where should an
application for probation shall be filed?
A. Parole and Probation Administration
B. Trial Court
C. Board of Pardons and Parole
D. Ombudsman
27. The filing of the application of Probation shall be deemed a waiver of the right to appeal, or the automatic withdrawal
of a pending appeal.
A. The statement is correct
B. The statement is wrong
C. The statement is partially correct
D. The statement is partially wrong
28. The period of punishment which is probationable is;
A. Not more than Six years
B. At least Four years and 1 day
C. More than Six years but not Reclusion Perpetua
D. At least One year
29. Can a first-time minor convicted with Sec 11 of RA 9165 shall be place in Probation even if the sentence is higher
than 6 years?
A. Yes
B. No
C. Maybe
D. Not sure
30. Probation is a matter of ________.
A. right
B. privilege
C. both a and b
D. discretionary
31. What is the basis of granting probation?
A. Human condition
B. Age
C. Good behavior
D. Sentence
32. How many times can one be granted probation?
A. Once
B. Twice
C. Three times
D. Upon discretion of honorable court
33. Is granting or denying probation not be appealable?
A. Yes
B. No
C. Maybe
D. Not sure
34. Are all convicted persons who are not disqualified entitled to probation automatically?
A. Yes
B. No
C. Maybe
D. Not sure
35. The following are the crimes against national security except one, hence probation shall not be entitled;
A. Treason
B. Espionage
C. Violation of neutrality
D. Direct Assault
36. What is the effect of filing an application for probation?
A. The right to appeal is waived
B. It extinguishes the criminal liability of the convict
C. The court may, upon receipt of the application suspend the execution of sentence imposed in judgment
D. All of the above
37. How many days can the offender or his counsel may file petition for probation with the convicting court after the
promulgation of judgment?
A. 10 days
B. 15 days
C. 30 days
D. 60 days
38 The post-sentence investigation report (PSIR) shall be submitted by the probation officer to the court within
__________.
A. 10 days
B. 15 days
C. 30 days
D. 60 days
39. How many days should the court grants or denies the petition for probation upon receipt of the Post Sentence
Investigation Report?
A. 10 days
B. 15 days
C. 30 days
D. 60 days
40. If the court already determined the convict qualifications in his application/petition for probation, the court should
immediately notify the prosecutor of the filing of the petition. How many days should the prosecutor must submit his
comments on such application upon receipt of the notification?
A. 10 days
B. 15 days
C. 30 days
D. 60 days
41. It refers to the investigation conducted by a probation officer to obtain information regarding petitioner’s character,
antecedents, environment, mental and physical condition with the aim of determining whether the latter is qualified and
suitable for released under probation.
A. Custodial Investigation
B. Pre-sentence investigation
C. Post sentence investigation
D. Preliminary investigation
42. Is the petitioner had Right to Counsel During the post-sentence investigation and covered by Republic Act No. 7438?
A. Yes
B. No
C. Maybe
D. Not sure
43. Can the offender be released while his application for probation is pending?
A. Yes, at the discretion of the court
B. Yes, on the same bond he filed during the trial in the criminal case
C. Yes, on a new bond
D. Yes, the court may allow the release of defendant on Recognizance
E. All of the above
44. What happen if the probationer failed to comply with any of the conditions prescribed in the probation order or his
commission of another offense?
A. He shall serve the penalty imposed for the offense under which he was placed on probation
B. He shall indemnify his civil liability
C. He will be criminally charged again
D. He shall continue to serve his penalty
45. What will happen if the application for probation is denied?
A. The offender will be sent by the sentencing court to prison to serve his sentence
B. He shall indemnify his civil liability
C. He will be criminally charged
D. He shall continue to serve his penalty
46. The following probationers may be recommended for the early termination of their probation period, except one;
A. Those who are suffering from serious physical and/or mental disability such as deaf- mute, the lepers, the
crippled, the blind, the senile, the bed-ridden, and the like
B. Those with a positive response to the programs of supervision designed their rehabilitation
C. Has n approved application for immigration
D. All of these
47. If the convict is sentenced to a term of imprisonment of NOT MORE THAN ONE (1), how long is his period of
probation?
A. Shall not exceed two (2) years
B. Shall not exceed three (3) years
C. Shall not exceed (4) years
D. Shall not exceed six (6) years
48. In all cases, if the convict is sentenced to MORE THAN ONE (1) YEAR, how long is his period of probation?
C. Shall not exceed (4) years
49. When the sentence imposes a FINE ONLY and the offender is made to SERVE SUBSIDIARY IMPRISONMENT in
case of insolvency, how long is his period of probation?
C. Shall not exceed 6 months
50. One of the mandatory conditions imposed to the probationer is to report himself to the Probation Officer at least
____________ during the period of probation.
A. once a month
B. twice a month
C. at the discretion of Probation Officer
D. at the discretion of the court
51. Upon receipt of Probation Order, the probationer should present himself to his probation officer who has concern for
his supervision within ________.
A. 72 hours
B. 48 hours
C. 36 hours
D. 24 hours
52. In case of termination and closing of probation case, the City and Provincial Parole and Probation Office shall submit
to the Trial Court a Probation Officer’s Final Report (PPA Form 9) ___________ before the expiration of the period of
probation.
A. 10 days
B. 15 days
C. 30 days
D. 60 days
53. They are citizen of good standing in the community who are volunteer to assist the parole and probation officers in the
supervision of a number of probationers, parolees, and pardonees in tier respective community.
A. Probation Officer
B. Probationer
C. Volunteer Probation Aides
D. Volunteer Probation Assistant
54. What is an agency of the Philippine government under the Department of Justice that is responsible for providing a
less costly alternative to imprisonment of first-time offenders who are likely to respond to individualized community-based
treatment programs?
A. Board of Pardons and Parole (BPP)
B. Parole and Probation Administration (PPA)
C. Amnesty International
D. Public Attorney’s Officer (PAO)
55. The Parole and Probation Administration (PPA) is headed by a Probation Administrator, also referred to as the
Administrator. Who is the appointing authority of the Probation Administrator of PPA?
A. Secretary of Department of Justice
B. President
C. Both a and b
D. Chief of Public Attorney’s Office
56. Under Section 20 of PD 968 there shall be an Assistant Probation Administrator who shall assist the Administrator
perform such duties as may be assigned to him by the latter and as may be provided by law. Who is the appointing
authority of the Assistant Probation Administrator of PPA?
A. Secretary of Department of Justice
B. President
C. Both a and b
D. Chief of Public Attorney’s Office
57. It is a philosophy and a process whereby stakeholders in a specific offense resolve collectively how to deal with the
aftermath of the offense and its implications for the future.
A. Behavioral Management Program
B. Therapeutic Community (TC)
C. Volunteer Probation Aide (VPA) Program
D. Restorative Justice
58. Is a strategy by which the Parole and Probation Administration may be able to generate maximum citizen participation
or community involvement.
59. Is a self-help social learning treatment model used in the rehabilitation of drug offenders and other clients with
behavioral problems.
60. What do you call a process of suspending the sentence of a convict after having served the minimum of his sentence
without granting him pardon?
A. Probation
B. Parole
C. Pardon
D. Amnesty
61. The Parole and Probation Administration has been authorized by the Board to conduct pre-parole investigation of
deserving city, provincial and national prisoner confined in the city and provincial jails, the national penitentiary and penal
colonies, whenever their best interests and that of justice will be served thereby, and to submit reports of said
investigation at least before the expiration of the minimum sentences of the prisoners concerned.
A. 10 days
B. 15 days
C. 30 days
D. 60 days
62. Who grants Parole?
A. Board of Pardons and Parole (BPP)
B. Parole and Probation Administration (PPA)
C. President
D. Judge
63. The following prisoners are disqualified for Parole except one;
A. Those who have served the minimum period of the indeterminate sentence
B. Those who are habitual delinquents
C. Those who escaped from confinement or those who evaded sentence
D. Those persons convicted of offenses punished with reclusion perpetua
64. The following prisoners are qualified for Parole except one;
A. Those who have served the minimum period of the indeterminate sentence
B. Inmate is serving an indeterminate sentence the maximum period of which exceeds one (1) year
C. Inmate's conviction is final and executory
D. Those persons convicted of offenses punished with reclusion perpetua
65. What law created the Board of Pardons and Parole?
A. PD 968
B. RA 7659
C. RA 9346
D. Act No. 4103
66. This is known as the Indeterminate Sentence Law.
A. PD 968
B. RA 7659
C. RA 9346
D. Act No. 4103
67. It is an agency under the Department of Justice (DOJ) tasked to uplift and redeem valuable human resources to
economic usefulness and to prevent unnecessary and excessive deprivation of personal liberty by way of parole or
through executive clemency.
A. Board of Pardons and Parole
B. Parole and Probation Administration
68. Who administers the Parole system of the country?
A. Board of Pardons and Parole
B. Parole and Probation Administration
69. What do you call an institutional record of an inmate which consists of his mittimus or commitment order issued by the
Court after conviction, the prosecutor's information and the decisions of the trial court and the appellate court, if any;
certificate of non-appeal, certificate of detention and other pertinent documents of the case?
A. Prison Record
B. NIMS
C. Carpeta
D. PDL Profile
70. This refers to information concerning an inmate's personal circumstances, the offense he committed, the sentence
imposed, the criminal case number in the trial and appellate courts, the date he commenced serving his sentence, the
date he was received for confinement, the place of confinement, the date of expiration of the sentence, the number of
previous convictions, if any, and his behavior or conduct while in prison
A. Prison Record
B. NIMS
C. Carpeta
D. PDL Profile
71. It refers to the conditional release of an offender from a correctional institution after he has served the minimum of his
prison sentence
A. Probation
B. Parole
C. Pardon
D. Amnesty
72. Refers to Reprieve, Absolute Pardon, Conditional Pardon with or without Parole Conditions and Commutation of
Sentence as may be granted by the President of the Philippines.
A. Executive Clemency
B. President’s Clemency
C. Discretionary Power of the President
D. Prerogative of the President
73. This refers to the final report submitted by the Probation and Parole Officer on his supervision of a parolee/pardonee
as basis for the latter's final release and discharge.
A. Progress Report
B. Summary Report
C. Infraction Report
D. Summary Report
74. Is national prisoner confined in a local jail can be released on Pardon/Parole?
A. Yes
B. No
C. Maybe Yes
D. Maybe No
75. The prisoner is qualified to apply for commutation of sentence if he has served at least ________of the minimum of
his indeterminate and/or definite sentence or the aggregate minimum of his indeterminate and/or definite sentences
A. two-third (2/3)
B. one-third (1/3)
C. one-fifth (1/5)
D. one-half (1/2)
76. In order to avail for Conditional Pardon, the prisoner shall have served at least _______of the minimum of his original
indeterminate and/or definite sentence.
A. two-third (2/3)
B. one-third (1/3)
C. one-fifth (1/5)
D. one-half (1/2)
77. Who among the following are not eligible for Parole?
A. Recidivists
B. Quasi-Recidivists
C. Habitual Delinquents
D. All of the above
78. Which among the following may the Board shall not favorably recommend petitions for executive clemency?
A. Prisoners who are (70) years old and above who have served at least five (5) years of their sentence
B. Prisoners who suffer from serious and life-threatening illness/disease or severe physical disability such as
those who are totally blind, paralyzed, bedridden, etc.,
C. Alien prisoners where diplomatic considerations and amity among nation necessitate review
D. Those who are habitual delinquents or recidivists
79. It is a form of executive clemency granted by the President of the Philippines as a privilege to a convict as a
discretionary act of grace.
A. Pardon
B. Parole
C. Reprieve
D. Amnesty
80. It refers to the total extinction of the criminal liability of the individual to whom it is granted without any condition
whatsoever and restores to the individual his civil rights and remits the penalty imposed for the particular offense of which
he was convicted.
A. Absolute Pardon
B. Conditional Pardon
C. Reprieve
D. Amnesty
81. The pardoning power of the President can be exercised on the following cases except one;
A. Estafa
B. Robbery
C. Impeachment
D. PD 1612
82. What you call the withholding of the sentence for an interval of time, a postponement of execution and a temporary
suspension of execution?
A. Pardon
B. Parole
C. Reprieve
D. Amnesty
83. Probation is a part of the judicial power, while pardon is a part of the _____________.
A. Executive power
B. Legislative power
C. Both a and b are correct
D. None of the above
84. What do you call a general pardon extended to a group of persons, such a political offenders purposely to bring about
the return of dissidents to their home and to restore peace and order in the community?
A. Absolute Pardon
B. Conditional Pardon
C. Amnesty
D. Reprieve
85. In probation system’s philosophy and concept, it is stated that the individual has the ability to ____ and to modify his
anti-social behavior with the right kind of help.
A. challenge
B. none of these
C. change
D. aggravate his behavior
86. Which of the following is an executive clemency that requires the concurrence of congress?
A. Probation
B. Pardon
C. Amnesty
D. Parole
87. The Parole and Probation Administration administers the _____ Correctional Program.
A. Institutional
B. Integrated
C. Community – based
D. Traditional
88. A minimum and maximum amount of time to be served in prison is referred to as
A. a corporal punishment
B. a determinate sentence
C. an indeterminate sentence
D. a capital punishment
89. Pedro was required to provide financial remuneration for the losses incurred by the victim. What is the type of penalty
described?
A. Bond
B. Retribution
C. Restitution
D. Remuneration
90. Which of the following should a probationer avoid?
A. Make periodic report
B. Go and play in the gambling den
C. Work regularly to support family
D. Stay away from bad associates.
91. The Supreme Court automatically reviews the cases of criminals convicted and meted out the penalty of
A. 12 years 6 months and one day
B. Death
C. Life imprisonment
D. 6 years one month and one day
92. What law renamed the Bureau of Prison to Bureau of Correction during the Aquino administration in the Philippines?
A. E.O 727
B. E.O 292
C. E.O 645
D. E.O 104
93. The pardonee in absolute pardon granted by the President is relieved from criminal liability although his ____ liability
remains.
A. conscience
B. moral
C. civil
D. financial
94. Assume that once a person is granted (enjoyed) probation, and assume he committed another probationable crime
then he is ..
A. disqualified to avail of probation for the 2nd time
B. a recidivist
C. still qualified to avail of probation
D. a quasi-recidivist
95. Alfonzo was convicted to a prison term of prison correctional. Is he qualified for probation?
A. No his sentence is less than (6) six years and one (1) day
B. Yes his sentence is less than (6) six years and one (1) day
C. No his sentence is more than (6) six years and one (1) day
D. Yes his sentence is (3) three years and one (1) day
96. Which of these is known as an act institutionalizing recognizance as a mode of granting the release of an indigent
person in custody as an accused in a criminal case and for other purposes?
A. RA No. 10389
B. PD 968
C. E.O 292
D. RA No. 9344
97. The authority of Pres Marcos Jr. to grant commutation, amnesty, pardon, among others is collectively known as his:
A. vetoing power
B. budgetary power
C. executive clemency
D. military powers
98. Pardon can be given only after the person is ___.
A. dead
B. convicted
C. acquitted
D. elected to public office
99. Is a privilege granted to a prisoner that shall entitle him to a deduction of his term of imprisonment.
A. Good Conduct Time Allowance
B. Special Time Allowance for loyalty
C. Preventive Imprisonment
D. All of the above
100. A deduction of one fifth of the period of his sentence shall be granted to any prisoner who, having evaded his
preventive imprisonment or the service of his sentence under the circumstances mentioned in Article 158 of this Code,
gives himself up to the authorities within 48 hours following the issuance of a proclamation announcing the passing away
of the calamity or catastrophe referred to in said article.
A. Good Conduct Time Allowance
B. Special Time Allowance for loyalty
C. Preventive Imprisonment
D. All of the above
--END--
THERAPEUTIC MODALITIES
1. What agency under the Department of Interior and Local Government (DILG) which has supervision over all district,
city and municipal jails and detention centers?
D. Philippine National Police
2. These jail house court detainees and prisoners whose prison terms range from six (6) months and one (1) day, to three
(3) years.
A. Workhouse Jail
B. Ordinary Jail
C. Provincial Jail
D. Municipal Jail
3. What agency under the Department of Justice (DOJ), which has control over the national penitentiary and its penal
farms, houses convicted offenders with prison sentences ranging from three (3) years and one (1) day, to life
imprisonment?
D. Philippine National Police
4. What do you call an environment that helps people get help while helping others?
A. Therapeutic Community
B. Therapeutic Modality Program
C. Psychosocial program
D. Community-based program
5. This is also called “job functions” are arranged in a hierarchy, according to seniority, individual progress and
productivity.
A. Work assignments
B. Job description
C. Duties and Responsibilities
D. All of the above
6. Who is considered the “therapist” and “teacher” who serves as guides in the recovery process of the residents in the
Therapeutic Community?
A. Peers
B. Community
C. Senior Residents
D. Chief Expediters
7. It believes that _________ is a place where: One can change – unfold; the group can foster change; individuals must
take responsibility; structures must accommodate this; Act as if – go through the motion.
A. therapeutic community
B. therapeutic modality program
C. psychosocial program
D. community-based program
8. From what phases of treatment in the Therapeutic Community Modality Program of the BJMP should an inmate after
committed to jail, undergoes a series of examination to determine his physical, social and psychological status?
A. Phase I- Entry/Orientation Phase
B. Phase II- Primary Treatment
C. Phase III- Pre Re-entry
D. Phase IV- Re-entry
9. What specific group under the Therapeutic Community Modality Program should a newly committed PDL belong?
A. Encounter Groups
B. Extended Groups
C. Static Group
D. Men’s Group
10. It is a daily ritual that starts the day in a Therapeutic Community facility.
A. Pre-Morning Meeting
B. Morning Meeting
C. Talk To
D. Pull-up
11. It is done as an expression of concern over the lapses of some members and encourage ownership of mistakes on
the violators.
A. Pre-Morning Meeting
B. Morning Meeting
C. Talk To
D. Pull-up
12. Aftercare is an outpatient program that requires clients to report twice a week to an outreach center. They are
required to attend group sessions to ensure their adjustment to life outside jail to reduce __________.
A. recidivism
B. habitual delinquency
C. quasi-recidivism
D. all of these
13. BuCor TC was patterned after ___________ which is the base of the Therapeutic Community movement in the world.
This program was adopted as part of the Bureau's holistic approach towards inmate rehabilitation.
A. New Jersey
B. Chicago
C. Philadelphia
D. Daytop TC, New York
14. It is a self-help social learning treatment model used for clients with problems of drug abuse and other behavioral
problems such as alcoholism, stealing, and other anti-social tendencies.
A. Therapeutic Community Modality
B. Counseling
C. Behavioral Management
D. Anger Management
15. What component of Therapeutic Community Modality Program (TCMP) that introduces the concept and mechanics of
the various shaping tools to include Morning Meeting in order to facilitate the management of and shape the behavior of
the residents?
A. The Behavior Management
B. Counseling
C. Intellectual and Spiritual Components
D. Anger Management
16. In the Modern Penal Management which of the following general principles of treating offenders does not conform
based on humane practices?
A. Abusive or indecent language to prisoners shall not be used.
B. Custodial force shall, at all times, conduct themselves as good examples.
C. The use of force must be made by any of the custodial force, except in self- defense or attempt to escape or
in case of passive physical resistance to a lawful order.
D. Custodial force shall bear in mind that prisoners are sick people who need treatment.
17. Which of the following is not the mandate of the Bureau of Corrections pursuant to R.A. 10575?
A. Education and Training Program for PDL Detainees
B. Safekeeping of National Inmates
C. Security of National Inmates
D. Reformation of National Inmates.
18. Which of the following is the administration of formal and non-formal education, and skills development of inmates
which shall be institutionalized by the Directorate for Education and Training (DET)?
A. Moral and Spiritual Program
B. Education and Training Program
C. Work and Livelihood Program
D. Sports and Recreation Program
19. Which of the following refers to the administration of programs for the character formation of an inmate necessary for
effective interpersonal relationship in the prison community.? This program also includes Therapeutic Community.
A. Moral and Spiritual Program
B. Education and Training Program
C. Health and Welfare Program
D. Behavior Modification Program
20. Which of the following is not a major program under the mandate of BJMP?
A. PDL custody, security and control program
B. PDL welfare and development program
C. Decongestion program
D. Moral and Spiritual Program
21. The objective of this program is to equip the PDL with technical/vocational skills which they can use in seeking
employment or starting their own business after release from confinement.
A. Educational Program
B. Skills Training/ Enhancement Program
C. Livelihood Program
D. Interfaith Program
22. This program aims to provide to PDL with the opportunity to practice their faith while under custody without
discrimination, subject only to usual safety and security measures.
A. Educational Program
B. Skills Training/ Enhancement Program
23. BJMP implements the _________________to manage and modify behaviors of PDL with the goal of positively
changing their thinking and behavior through structured group processes.
A. Therapeutic Community Modality Program (TCMP)
B. Behavioral Management/ Modification Program
24. Which of the following shall earn by the PDL enrolled in the ALS program earn their respective pursuant to RA 10592.
A. Time Allowance for Teaching, Studying and Mentoring (TASTM)
B. Special Time Allowance
C. Subsistent Allowance
D. Book Allowance
25. This program presents income-generating activities to PDL during their confinement where they are able to earn for
their personal upkeep and for financial support to their families.
A. Livelihood Program
B. Interfaith Program
C. Educational Program
D. Skills Training/ Enhancement Program
26. According to the UN Standard Minimum Rules for the Treatment of Prisoners (The Nelson Mandela Rules), the
purposes of a sentence of imprisonment or similar measures deprivative of a person’s liberty are primarily to protect
society against crime and to reduce __________.
A. Anti-social Act
B. Quasi-Recidivism
C. Recidivism
D. Habituality
27. To carry out its mandate, the Bureau of Corrections undertakes the following except;
A. Confine detained persons by the courts to serve a sentence in jails.
B. Keep prisoners from committing crimes while in custody.
C. Provide humane treatment by supplying the inmates' basic needs and
implementing a variety of rehabilitation programs designed to change their pattern of criminal or anti-social
behavior.
D. Engage in agro-industrial projects for the purpose of developing prison lands and resources into productive
bases or profit centers, developing and employing inmate manpower skills and labor, providing prisoners with
source of income and augmenting the Bureau's yearly appropriations.
28. Which of the following is not a right of the of Person Deprived of Liberty under the UN Standard Minimum Rules for
the Treatment of Prisoners?
A. The right to be treated as a human being, and not to be subjected to corporal punishment
B. The right to be informed of the regulations governing the detention center
C. The right to be informed on the matter of accusation.
D. The right to adequate food, space and ventilation, rest and recreation
29. The following are the privileges of inmate he/she may avail of except;
A. To write letters, subject to reasonable censorship, provided that expenses for such correspondence shall be
borne by them
B. To receive visitors during visiting hours
C. Free access to courts and any other judicial bodies
D. To wear their own clothes while in confinement
30. A deduction of one fifth of the period of his sentence shall be granted to any prisoner who, having evaded his
preventive imprisonment or the service of his sentence under the circumstances mentioned in Article 158 of this Code,
gives himself up to the authorities within 48 hours following the issuance of a proclamation announcing the passing away
of the calamity or catastrophe referred to in said article.
A. Special Time Allowance for Loyalty
B. Preventive Imprisonment
C. Good Conduct Time Allowance
D. Subsidiary Imprisonment
31. Under Special time allowance for loyalty, a deduction of ________ the period of his sentence shall be granted in case
said prisoner chose to stay in the place of his confinement notwithstanding the existence of a calamity or catastrophe.
A. one-third
B. one-half
C. two-third
D. two-fifths
32. Under Article 10, of International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights (ICCPR), this term refers to a detainee,
inmate, or prisoner, or other person under confinement or custody in any other manner.
A. Person of Interest
B. Accused
C. Person Under Investigation
D. Person Deprived of Liberty
33. This refers to the custodial mandate of the BuCor’s present corrections system, and shall refer to the act that
ensures the public (including families of inmates and their victims) that national inmates are provided with their basic
needs.
A. Safekeeping
B. Custody and Control
C. Inmates Welfare and Development
D. All of these
34. What do you call a program on moral and spiritual values-formation of inmates which shall be institutionalized by the
Directorate for Moral and Spiritual Welfare (DMSW), which include the practice of one’s religion and beliefs?
A. Sports and Recreation Program
B. Work and Livelihood Program
C. Moral and Spiritual Program
D. Education and Training Program
35. This refers to the administration of formal and non-formal education, and skills development of inmates which shall be
institutionalized by the Directorate for Education and Training (DET).
D. Education and Training Program
36. This is a psycho-educational drug counseling program developed consisting of twenty-four (24) modules: eighteen
(18) modules to be completed by the PDL in a small group setting with fellow PDL and six (6) family modules to be
participated by the PDL’s family.
D. Katatagan Kontra Droga sa Komunidad (KKDK)
37. Under the KKDK, the drug counseling runs for the maximum duration of __________.
A. two (2) months
B. four (4) months
C. six (6) months
D. one (1) year
38. What is the primary purpose of imprisonment?
A. Rehabilitation and Reformation
B. To stand trial
C. Punishment
D. Socialization
39. The task of changing an offender’s attitude so that he or she may not commit another crime in the future.
A. Retribution
B. Deterrence
C. Incapacitation
D. Rehabilitation
40. The idea that re-entry of an offender should be in the mainstream of society rather than the usual abrupt re-entry at
the end of a prison sentence.
A. Reintegration
B. Deterrence
C. Incapacitation
D. Rehabilitation
41. What kind of program employs prisoners in various product or good producing tasks?
A. Agricultural
B. Operational
C. Industrial
D. Administrative
42. It literally means “produce the body” of a detained person)
A. corpus delicti
B. habeas data
C. habeas corpus
D. writ of amparo
43. The generic term that includes all Government agencies, facilities, programs, procedures, personnel, and techniques
concern with the investigation, intakes, custody, confinement, supervision or treatment of alleged offenders, refers to:
A. Correction
B. Penology
C. Criminal Justice
D. base pillar
44. What system was referred to where prisoner were employed in the production of goods and services used only in
government institute and agencies?
A. Leave system
B. contract labor system
C. State use system
D. public account system
45. Inmates with heart diseases need to be treated with a little more care than other inmates. Which of the following
should not be done by a jail officer?
A. Ensure that the inmate comply with his prescribe diet
B. Avoid assigning sentence jobs to the inmate
C. Ensure that the inmates see the medical staff regularly
D. Prescribe the medicine to the heart patient-inmate
46. Can a jail unit may impose the use of chains, irons or other instruments of restraint for hardened criminals?
A. Yes
B. No
C. Maybe Yes
D. Maybe No
47. The following are the rights of every prisoner which shall be promptly provided with written information upon
admission to jail, except one;
A. The prison law and applicable prison regulations
B. His or her rights, including authorized methods of seeking information, access to legal advice, including
through legal aid schemes, and procedures for making requests or complaints
C. His or her obligations, including applicable disciplinary sanctions
D. All of the above
48. Persons arrested or imprisoned by reason of a criminal charge against them, who are detained either in police
custody or in prison custody (jail) but have not yet been tried and sentenced, will be referred to as “____________”.
A. detainee
B. persons deprived of liberty
C. untried prisoners
D. unconvict
49. Is an action or activity given to a resident who was subjected to Haircut or General Meeting who did an infraction to
correct or modify a behavior.
A. Haircut
B. Pull up
C. Dealt with
D. Learning Experience
50. Aside from protecting the public, imprisonment has for its latest objective, the –
A. reformation of offenders
B. Deterrence
C. segregation of offender
D. Confinement of Offenders
51. The putting of offenders in prison for the purpose of protecting the public and at the same time rehabilitating them by
requiring the latter to undergo institutional treatment program is referred to as:
A. imprisonment
B. trial
C. conviction
D. detention
52. This refers to the phased re-entry of an offender into society rather than the usual abrupt re-entry at the end of a
prison sentence.
A. reintegration
B. deterrence
C. incapacitation
D. rehabilitation
53. Under Therapeutic Community Modality Program, the resident is expected to have internalized the TC values and
concept to start life afresh. What stage in the TCMP is referred to?
C Phase III- Pre Re-entry
E. Phase IV- Re-entry
54. The resident is now ready to undergo the treatment proper. He becomes a part of the community starting as a crew
member of the Housekeeping department until he gradually ascends in the hierarchy. What stage in the TCMP is referred
to?
55. In TCMP, a resident at this stage is now ready to be released back to society as he has demonstrated adequate self-
control and discipline.
56. In TCMP, when a repeated breach to the Cardinal Rules is continuously committed by a resident, what should be the
right intervention to carry out?
A. Conduct a General Meeting
B. Expel the responsible resident in the program
C Cancel his GCTA privilege
D. Subject a resident to disciplinary punishment
57. Is defined as a professional activity of helping individuals, groups or communities enhance or restore their capacity for
psychological, emotional and social functioning and creating an environment favorable for the attainment of these goals.
A. Psycho Social Activity
B. Anger Management
C Stress Management
D. Counseling
58. The ability to perceive the client s feelings’ and to demonstrate accurate perception of the client. What Psychosocial
Skills and Characteristics of Counseling is referring to?
A. Empathy
B. Warmth
C. Respect
D. Congruence
59. Is also called “unconditional positive regard”.
A. Empathy
B. Warmth
C. Respect
D. Congruence
60. Anything discussed during counseling sessions is held absolutely private and not to be discussed anywhere. What
Psychosocial Skills and Characteristics of Counseling is usually referring to?
A. Empathy
B. Confidentiality
C. Respect
D. Congruence
61. The main purpose of this activity is to elicit information about the resident and provide information about the program
and what the expectations are on both parties.
A. One to One Counselling/Individual Counseling
B. Group Counseling
C. Initial Interview/ Intake Interview
D. None of these
62. It is a sort of “home” group who provides support for one another and to the new members of the community. What
kind of group counselling when a permanent group of peers and leaders meets regularly while the residents are in
treatment?
A. STATIC GROUPS
B. PEER CONFRONTATION GROUP
C. ENCOUNTER GROUPS
D. EXTENDED GROUP
63. It is done in a more compassionate way where each resident try to help one another.
A. STATIC GROUPS
C. ENCOUNTER GROUPS
D. EXTENDED GROUP
64. Are usually composed of 5-12 residents and is being facilitated by 2 highly trained staff members. It may last for 8-72
hours. The participants must have at least 4 months in the program and have shown adequate stability before he can be
included in the activity.
A. STATIC GROUPS
C. ENCOUNTER GROUPS
D. EXTENDED GROUP
65. In TCMP, it is designed to respond to the inner longing of residents to find greater faith where they can anchor
themselves within their struggle to find meaning to their existence.
A. Spirituality
B. Intellectual Component
C. TC PHILOSOPHY
D. Counselling
66. It responds to the natural human characteristics of yearning for knowledge in order to attain a higher level of
understanding.
A. Spirituality
B. Intellectual Component
C. TC PHILOSOPHY
D. Counselling
67. It embodies all the challenges and aspirations of most residents who feel alienated and the desire to overcome the
imposed limitations on their freedom and find their own place where they could feel safe and welcome. It is recited daily
during the Morning Meeting.
A. TC Doctrine
B. TC Unwritten Philosophy
C. TC Philosophy
D. TC Covenant
68. This consists of slogans or aphorisms that are verbally given to the residents to impart the beliefs and values of TC in
relation to their day to day living.
A. TC Doctrine
B. TC Unwritten Philosophy
C. TC Philosophy
D. TC Covenant
69. In TC, what do you call a concept wherein each one is responsible for the other members of the community?
A. “Hang tough”
B. “You are your brother’s keeper”
C. “Responsible love and concern”
D. “To be aware is to be alive”
70. In reality, nothing really comes easy. If we aim for something, we have to work for it. Which of the following concept in
TC best describe for?
A. “Hang tough”
C. “Be careful what you ask for, you might just get it”
D. “No free lunch”
71. Learning and accepting the TC program is not easy. Most residents feel resistant towards it. This philosophy teaches
the residents to go with the flow as a way of compliance. Which of the following concept in TC best describe for?
A. “Act as if”
C. “Be careful what you ask for, you might just get it”
D. “No free lunch”
72. It refers to a word or saying that will serve as a guide for the community to ponder upon in relation to their day-to-day
interactions and behaviors.
A. CONCEPT OF THE DAY
B. DISCOVERING YOUR INNER SANCTUARY
C. SEMINARS
D. THE DEBATE
73. Is introduced to provide the residents the opportunity to learn how to reason ably and put together arguments in a
logical manner.
C. SEMINARS
D. THE DEBATE
73. Is a form of seminar which enhances the residents’ ability to communicate, analyze ideas and develop insights about
themselves with the use of identification with inanimate objects.
C. “GRAB BAG”
D. THE DEBATE
74. In TC, what do you call a recreational event purposely to instill fun, humor and entertainment after an intense and
hectic week?
A. THE DEBATE
B. CONCEPT OF THE DAY
C. “GRAB BAG”
D. SATURDAY NIGHT ACTIVITIES
75. In TC, new residents will be assigned automatically at the __________________ for one month for orientation
purposes.
A. Senior Adviser
B. Chief Expediter
C Coordinator & Department Head
D. housekeeping department
76. Are activities in TC that provide intellectual stimulation and seek personal involvement among the residents.
C. SEMINARS
D. THE DEBATE
77. Is used to help an individual establish a practice of moving his attention within, finding his place of relaxation and
peace by contacting his inner wisdom.
C. SEMINARS
D. THE DEBATE
78. The Therapeutic Community (TC) Program represents an effective, highly structured environment with defined
boundaries, both moral and ethical. What is the primary goal of the program towards residents?
A. To reintegrate residents into the mainstream of society
B. To earn GCTA
C. To foster personal growth
D. To develop skills
79. You are the Warden of the jail unit, where do you refer those clients released from jail for the purpose of follow up and
aftercare program?
A. Parole and Probation Administration
B. Local Government Units
C. Department of Justice
D. Both a and b
80. All of the following except one are the goals of aftercare program for the newly release PDL.
A. Transition to life outside of jail
B. Maintaining positive behavior and prevent recidivism
C. Sustaining interest in job or vocation to maintain livelihood
D. Integration into society
81. Modern justification for punishment which concludes that society will be best protected if criminal offenders are
rehabilitated. Which of the following best describe?
A. Reformation
B. Protection
C. Rehabilitation
D. Incarceration
82. In penal management, what do you call a method of punishment resorted to in extreme cases when lighter penalties
are ineffectual?
A. Corporal Punishment
B. Bartolina
C. Solitary Confinement
D. Loss of privileges
83. Place wherein a newly convicted prisoner is housed for at least a minimum period of five days for the conduct of
medical examination, vaccinations, X-ray to prevent physical contamination.
A. Reception Diagnostic Center
B. Quarantine unit
C. Isolation Cell
D. All of these
84. It provides development and acquisition of skills necessary for successful work in a socially accepted occupation while
in prison.
A. Psycho Social program
B. Intervention program
C. Recreational program
D. Vocational training program
85. It takes care of prisoners with unsocialized attitudes which had been a factor in their criminal act.
A. Recreational Services
B. Educational Services
C. Psychiatric Services
D. Religious services
86. The program in jail or prison which provide the most intensive diagnostic and treatment activities is the:
A) Case work
B) Counseling
C) Medical/Health program
D) all of these
87. The office of the Assistant Warden undertakes the development of a systematic process of treatment. He is the
chairman of the:
A) Classification Board in the NBP
B) Disciplinary Board for jails
C) Custodial Force for jails
D) All of these
88. A unit of the prison or a section of the RDC where the prisoner is given thorough physical examination including blood
test, x-rays, vaccinations and immunity is the:
A) Quarantine Cell
B) Death Row
C) NBP
D) Control Area
89. Imprisonment is not always advisable. Placing a person to custodial coercion is to place him in physical jeopardy, thus
drastically narrowing his access to sources of personal satisfaction and reducing his self-esteem. This principle is based
on the ____ of community based treatment programs.
A) Restorative aspect
B) Humanitarian aspect
C) Managerial aspect
D) Legal aspect
90. What is the primary purpose of imprisonment?
A. Rehabilitation and Reformation
B. To stand trial
C. Punishment
D. Socialization
91. Aside from protecting the public, imprisonment has for its latest objective, the
A. reformation of offenders
B. deterrence
C. segregation of offender
D. confinement of Offender
92. The putting of offenders in prison for the purpose of protecting the public and at the same time rehabilitating them by
requiring the latter to undergo institutional treatment program is referred to as:
A. Imprisonment
B. Trial
C. Conviction
D. Detention
93. The task of changing an offender’s attitude so that he or she may not commit another crime in the future.
A. Retribution
B. Deterrence
C. Incapacitation
D. Rehabilitation
94. In extreme cases, when a resident is incorrigible and becomes a threat to the community (Instigator, initiator of jail
disturbances), the Director with the recommendation of the Disciplinary Board may transfer him/her to the nearest jail
facility with an appropriate ___________.
A. Warden’s Order
B. Disciplinary Board Decision
C. Court Order
D. All of these
95. A resident subjected to Bans must be first processed in a General Meeting called for the purpose. Which of the
following are the examples of Bans?
A. Regulation of visiting privilege
B. Banned from attending Entertainment and Recreational activities
C. Both a and b
D. None of these
96. TCMP in the BJMP set up is quite unique in the sense that inmates are in custody while undergoing trial for their
individual cases. All of the following except one are the goals of Entry/Orientation Phase in which a new resident should
be acquaint.
A. The rules and norms of the community
B. TC concepts, written and unwritten philosophy
C. Developing positive coping skills to deal with difficult life situations
D. The staff and the members of the community
97. This refers to the administration of physical and recreational engagement to achieve mental alertness and physical
agility in the spirit of sportsmanship.
C. Education and Training Program
98. This refers to the administration of proper nutrition, hygiene, sanitation, cleanliness and promotion of good health to
inmates.
A. Health and Welfare Program
B. Behavior Modification Program
99. This refers to the administration of programs for the character formation of an inmate necessary for effective
interpersonal relationship in the prison community.
A. Health and Welfare Program
B. Behavior Modification Program
100. It is otherwise known as “The Bureau Of Corrections Act Of 2013”.
A. REPUBLIC ACT NO. 10755
B. REPUBLIC ACT NO. 10575
C. REPUBLIC ACT NO. 10765
D. REPUBLIC ACT NO. 10578
--END—

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COMPREHENSIVE EXAMINATION IN CORRECTIONAL ADMINISTRATION

PREPARED BY Prof. RENOR N APELA, RCrim, MAEd, MSCJ, CSP, PhD(units)

MULTIPLE CHOICE: CHOOSE THE LETTER OF YOUR CHOICE.

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