(1001CJA101022240007) )1001CJA101022240007) Test Pattern

CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME JEE(Main)

UNIT TEST
(Academic Session : 2024 - 2025) 30-06-2024

JEE(Main+Advanced) : ENTHUSIAST COURSE (PHASE : II)

Time : 3 Hours PAPER-1 (OPTIONAL) Maximum Marks : 300
IMPORTANT NOTE : Students having 8 digits Form No. must fill two zero before their Form No.
in OMR. For example, if your Form No. is 12345678, then you have to fill 0012345678.

READ THE INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY

Important Instructions :
1. Immediately fill in the form number on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue/Black Ball
Point Pen. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.
2. The candidates should not write their Form Number anywhere else (except in the specified

DO NOT BREAK THE SEALS WITHOUT BEING INSTRUCTED TO DO SO BY THE INVIGILATOR

space) on the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.
3. The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions.
4. There are three parts in the question paper 1,2,3 consisting of Physics, Chemistry and
Mathematics having 30 questions in each subject and each subject having Two sections.
(i) Section-I contains 20 multiple choice questions with only one correct option.
Marking scheme : +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other cases.
(ii) Section-II contains 10 Numerical Value Type questions. Attempt any 5 questions.
First 5 attempted questions will be considered for marking.
Marking scheme : +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other cases.
5. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers,
mobile phone any electronic device etc, except the Identity Card inside the examination
hall/room.
6. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
7. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the invigilator
on duty in the Room/Hall. However, the candidate are allowed to take away this Test
Booklet with them.
8. Do not fold or make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet.
9. Take g = 10 m/s2 unless otherwise stated.

Name of the Candidate (in Capitals) _______________________________________________________

Form Number : in figures _______________________________________________________________

: in words ________________________________________________________________

Centre of Examination (in Capitals) : ______________________________________________________

Candidate’s Signature : ________________________ Invigilator’s Signature : ___________________

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 PART-1 : PHYSICS

SECTION-I : (Maximum Marks: 80)
This section contains 20 questions. Each question has
4 options for correct answer. Multiple-Choice
Questions (MCQs) Only one option is correct. For
each question, marks will be awarded as follows:
Full Marks : +4 If correct answer is selected.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the option is selected.
Negative Marks : –1 If wrong option is selected.
1. Two uniform rods of equal length but different
masses are rigidly joined to form an L-shaped
body, which is then smoothly pivoted about O as
shown. If in equilibrium the body is in the shown
configuration, ratio M/m will be :
3. Assertion (A) : Smaller the orbit of the planet
around the sun, shorter is the time it takes to
complete one revolution.
Reason (R) : According to Kepler’s third law of
planetary motion, square of time period is
proportional to cube of mean distance from sun.
(A) (A) is true, (R) is true. (R) is the correct
explanation of (A).
(B) (A) is true, (R) is true. (R) is NOT the correct
explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false, (R) is true.

4. If point A of rod is moving with velocity v0 in right
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) √ 2 (D) √ 3 direction then speed of B is :-
2. In the pulley system shown, if radii of the bigger and
smaller pulley are 2 m and 1 m respectively and the
acceleration of block A is 5 m/s2 in the downward
direction, then the acceleration of block B will be :-

(A) v0 tan θ
(B) v0 cot θ
v0
(C)
cos θ
v0
(A) 0 m/s2 (B) 5 m/s2 upwards (D)
sin θ
(C) 10 m/s2 upwards (D) 5/2 m/s2 upwards
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5. In the given figure a ball strikes a rod elastically
and rod is hinged smoothly at point A. Then which
of the statement(s) is correct for the collision ?
7. In the given figure a light source ‘S’ is placed at the
centre of a glass sphere of radius ‘R’ and refractive
index μ . The maximum angle θ with the x-axis
which an incident light ray can make without
suffering total internal reflection is :-

(A) linear momentum of system (ball + rod) is

conserved.
1
(B) angular momentum of system about hinged (A) cos−1 ( )
μ
point A is conserved. 1
(B) sin−1 ( )
(C) kinetic energy of system is conserved during μ
collision. 1
(C) tan−1 ( )
μ
(D) linear momentum of ball is conserved.
(D) no internal reflection takes place.
6. A mass m moves in a circle on a smooth horizontal
plane with velocity v0 at a radius R0. The mass is 8. In the figure, an object is placed at distance 25 cm
attached to a string which passes through a smooth from the surface of a convex mirror, and a plane
hole in the plane as shown. The tension in the mirror is set so that the image formed by the two
string is increased gradually and finally m moves in mirrors lie adjacent to each other in the same plane.
a circle of radius R0/2. The final value of the The plane mirror is placed at 20 cm from the
kinetic energy is :- object. What is the radius of curvature of the
convex mirror?

1 2
(A) mv (A) 75 cm
4 0
(B) 2mv20 (B) 37.5 cm
1 2 (C) 150 cm
(C) mv
2 0
(D) 50 cm
(D) mv20
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9. Match the List-I with nature of image in List-II. 10. The figure shows a nonconducting ring which has
(Consider all optical devices are kept in air.) positive and negative charge non uniformly
List-I List-II
distributed on it such that the total charge is zero.
Which of the following statements is true ?
Erect
(P) (1)
image

Inverted
(Q) (2)
image
(A) The potential at all the points on the axis will
be zero.
(B) The electric field at all the points on the axis
Magnified will be zero.
(R) (3)
image (C) The direction of electric field at all points on
the axis will be along the axis.
(D) If the ring is placed inside a uniform external
electric field then net torque and force acting
Diminished on the ring would be zero.
(S) (4)
image
11. An uncharged conducting hollow spherical shell of
radius r2 surrounds a solid conducting sphere,
(A) (P)→(2,3), (Q)→(1,3), (R)→(1,3), (S)→(1,4) having charge Q1 and radius r1. Potential difference
bewteen solid sphere and shell is V. If shell is now
(B) (P)→(2,3), (Q)→(2,3), (R)→(1,3), (S)→(1,4)
given a charge Q2. the new potential difference is:-
(C) (P)→(1,3), (Q)→(2,3), (R)→(1,4), (S)→(1,3) (A) V

(D) (P)→(1,3), (Q)→(1,3), (R)→(2,3), (S)→(1,4) (B) 2V

(C) – 2V
(D) 4V

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12. A ring of radius R carries a charge +q. A test 14. In the diagram resistance between any two junctions
charge – q0 is released on its axis at a distance 3R
√
is R. Equivalent resistance across terminals A and B
is :-
from its centre. How much kinetic energy will be
acquired by the test charge when it reaches the
centre of the ring ?
1 qq0
(A)
4π ε0 R
(A) 11R
1 qq0 7
(B)
4π ε0 2R
(B) 18R
1 qq0 11
(C)
4π ε0 √ 3R (C) 7R
11
1 qq0
(D) (D) 11R
4π ε0 3R 18
13. Distance between the centres of two stars is 10 a. 15. Statement – 1 : A metal has resistance and gets
The masses of these stars are M and 16 M and their often heated by flow of current.
radii a and 2a, respectively. A body of mass m is and
fired straight from the surface of the larger star Statement – 2 : When free electrons drift through a
towards the smaller star. The minimum initial speed
metal they makes occasional collisions with the
for the body to reach the surface of smaller star is :-
lattice. These collisions are inelastic and transfer
energy to the lattice as internal energy.
(A) Statement – 1 is True, Statement – 2 is True ;
2 √ GM Statement – 2 is a correct explanation for
(A)
4 a Statement – 1

(B) 3 √ 5GM (B) Statement – 1 is True, Statement – 2 is True ;

2 a Statement – 2 is NOT a correct explanation for
2 √ 5GM Statement – 1
(C)
3 a (C) Statement – 1 is True, Statement – 2 is False.
(D) 3 √ GM (D) Statement – 1 is False, Statement – 2 is True.
2 a

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16. The length of a wire of a potentiometer is 100 cm,
and the emf of its stand and cell is E volt. It is
employed to measure the emf of a battery whose
internal resistance is 0.5 Ω If the balance point is
obtained at ℓ = 30 cm from the positive end, the
emf of the battery is-
19. A particle of charge ‘q’ and mass ‘m’ enters a
uniform magnetic field region B→ = −Bk^ at origin
‘O’ with a velocity →v0 = 6i^ m/s and after some time
it exits the magnetic field region with a velocity
→v = 3i^ + 3 3j^ m/s as shown. The time interval
( √ )

30E
for which the particle has moved in the magnetic
(A) field region is :-
100.5
(B) 30E
100 − 0.5
30(E − 0.5i)
(C) , where i is the current in the
100
potentiometer wire
(D) 30E
100
17. Three resistances of values 2 Ω , 3 Ω and 6 Ω are to
be connected to produce of effective resistance of πm πm
(A) (B)
4 Ω . This can be done by connecting. qB 2qB
πm πm
(A) 6 Ω resistance is series with the parallel (C) (D)
3qB 4qB
combination of 2 Ω and 3 Ω 20. Magnetic field at point 'P' of current distribution
(B) 3 Ω resistance is series with the parallel (where OP = r) :-
combination of 2 Ω and 6 Ω
(C) 2 Ω resistance is series with the parallel
combination of 3 Ω and 6 Ω
(D) None of these
μ0 i α
18. The capacitance and energy stored in a parallel (A) cot( )
2πr 4
plate condenser with air between its plates are C0​ μ0 i
(B) α
and W0 respectively. If air is replaced by the glass tan( )
2πr 4
(dielectric constant = 5) between the plates, the
capacitance and energy stored in it will respectively sin( α2 ) + 1
μ0 i
be :- (Battery not connected) (C)
2πr cos( α2 )
(A) 5 C0 and 5W0 (B) 5 C0 and W0/5
μ0 i α
(C) C0/5 and 5W0 (D) C0/5 and W0/5 (D) cot( )
2πr 2
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 SECTION-II : (Maximum Marks: 20) 3. Three large conducting plates are kept close to each
This section contains 10 questions Candidates have to other as shown. Now all the three plates A, B, and
C are connected by a thin conducting wire. Find the
attempt any 5 questions out of 10. If more than 5 charge (in µC) on left surface of plate A at
questions are attempted, then only first 5 attempted electrostatic equilibrium.
questions will be evaluated.
The answer to each question is a Numerical Value.
For each question, enter the correct integer value (In
case of non-integer value, the answer should be
rounded off to the nearest Integer).
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to
the following marking scheme:
4. If electric field in the space is given by
Full Marks : +4 If correct answer is entered. → = 4xi^ − (y 2 + 1)j^,
E and electric flux through
Zero Marks : 0 If the question is unanswered. ABCD is ϕ 1 and electric flux through BCEF is ϕ 2,
Negative Marks : –1 If wrong answer is entered. then find magnitude of ( ϕ 1 − ϕ 2 ) :-
1. A converging lens (focal length f) is broken in two
equal pieces and placed at 60 cm as shown along with
the object. It is found that real images are formed at the
same place and ratio of image heights is 9:1. If the
1
value of f is ( 22 + ) cm then value of x is :-
x

2. A simple microscope is rated 5 X for a normal
relaxed eye. What will be its magnifying power for
a relaxed farsighted eye whose near point is 40 cm?
Enthusiast Course / Phase-II / Paper-1
5. Find the ratio of total mechanical energy of 2 satellites
of same mass, first in near earth orbit and second in
orbit at height of 3, 84, 000 km above surface of earth
Rearth = 6400 km.
1001CJA101022240007

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6. 324 identical galvanic cells, each of internal
resistance 9 Ω are arranged as several in-series,
groups of cells connected in parallel. The
arrangement has been laid out so that power output
in an externally connected resistance of value 4 Ω
is maximum. If n cells are connected in every series
group that form parallel combination, then find
value of n.
9. As shown in the figure, two parallel plate
capacitors having equal plate area of 200 cm2 are
joined in such a way that a ≠ b. The equivalent
capacitance of the combination is x ∈ 0 F. The
value of x is______.

10. Ratio of magnetic field at the centre of a current

carrying coil of radius R and at a distance √3R on
its axis is
7. Find time constant of circuit shown in figure in
microseconds.

8. In the circuit shown here C1 = 6µF, C2 = 3µF and

battery B = 20V. The switch S1 is first closed and
S2 is kept open then S1 is opened and S2 is closed.
What is the charge finally on C2 in µC

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 PART-2 : CHEMISTRY

SECTION-I : (Maximum Marks: 80) 3. Bonding in which of the following diatomic

This section contains 20 questions. Each question has
4 options for correct answer. Multiple-Choice
Questions (MCQs) Only one option is correct. For
each question, marks will be awarded as follows:
Full Marks : +4 If correct answer is selected.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the option is selected.
molecule(s) become(s) stronger, on the basis of
MO theory, by removal of an electron?
(a) NO (b) N2 (c) O2 (d) C2 (e) B2
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below :-
(A) (a) , (b) , (c) only
(B) (b) , (c) , (e) only

Negative Marks : –1 If wrong option is selected. (C) (a) , (c) only

(D) (d) only
1. Which of the following complex compounds
4. Identify the correct statement for B2H6 from those
exhibit cis-trans isomerism?
given below.
(A) [PtCl2(NH3)2]
(a) In B2H6 , all B-H bonds are equivalent.
(B) [PdCl2BrI] (b) In B2H6 there are four 3-centre-2-electron
(C) [Pt(NH3)(py)(Cl)(Br)] bonds.
(D) All of these (c) B2H6 is a Lewis acid.
2. The IUPAC name for [Pt(Br)(Cl)(NH3)3(NO2)]Cl (d) B2H6 react with methanol to form
is :- B(OCH3)3 and H2.
(A) Triamminechloridobromidonitroplatinum(IV) (e) B2H6 is a planar molecule.
chloride Choose the most appropriate answer from the
(B) Triamminebromidochloridonitroplatinum(IV) options given below :
chloride
(A) (a) and (e) only
(C) Triamminnitrochlorobromoplatinum(IV)
chloride (B) (b) , (c) and (e) only

(D) Triamminechloronitrobromoplatinum(IV) (C) (c) and (d) only

chloride (D) (c) and (e) only

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5. Given belwo are two statements. One is labelled as 7. In the following reaction, the correct structure of X
is
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
P Br3
Assertion A : The first ionisation enthalpy for X −−−→
Et2 O
oxygen is lower than that of nitrogen.
Reason R : The four electrons in 2p orbitals of
(A)
oxygen experience more electrons-electron
repulsion.
In the light of the above statements, choose the (B)
correct answer from the options given below.

(A) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct (C)

explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are correct but R is not the (D)
correct explanation of A.
8. Arrange the following compounds in decreasing
(C) A is correct but R is not correct.
order of their reactivity for hydrolysis reaction
(D) A is not correct but R is correct.
6. The reaction of SOCl2 on alkanols to form alkyl
(I) C6H5 – CH2 – Br (II)
chlorides gives good yields because
(A) Alkyl chlorides are immiscible with SOCl2
(B) The other products of the reaction are gaseous
and escape out (III) (IV)

(C) Alcohol and SOCl2 are soluble in water (A) I > II > III > IV
(D) The reaction does not occurs via intermediate (B) IV > II > I > III
formation of an alkyl chloro sulphite. (C) III > IV > II > I
(D) IV > III > II > I
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9. The major product of the following reaction is : 12. The complexes [ Co (NO2 ) (NH3 )5 ] Cl2 and
(i)DCl (1 equiv.)
CH3 C ≡ CH −−−−−−−−−−→ [ Co (ONO) (NH3 )5 ] Cl2 are the examples of
(ii) DI
(A) Co-ordination isomerism
(A) CH3CD(Cl)CHD(I)
(B) Ionisation isomerism
(B) CH3CD2CH(Cl)(I)
(C) Geometrical isomerism
(C) CH3CD(I)CHD(Cl)
(D) Linkage isomerism
(D) CH3C(I)(Cl)CHD2
Alc. Br 2KCN
13. Which of the following order with respect to given
10. C2H5I −−−→ X −−−2→ Y −−−−→ Z, Z is properties is correct :
KOH CCl4

(A) F – < Cl – < Br – < I – : Polarisability

(A) CH3CH2CN (B)
(B) Pb+2 < Pb+4 : Stability
(C) BF3 > BCl3 : Lewis acid character
(C) Br—CH2—CH2CN (D) Br—CHCHCN
(D) Sn+2 > Sn+4 : Stability
11. For the following reactions :-
Alco. KOH
(a) CH3CH2CH2Br −−−−−−−→ CH3CH=CH2+KBr 14. Match List I with List II
Δ
+ H2O 1 - Bromopropane is reacted with reagents in List I
to give product in List II
(b)
List-I List-II
Reagent Product
(c)
(P) KOH (alc) (1) Nitrile
Which of the following statement is correct? (Q) KCN (alc) (2) Ester
(A) (a) and (b) are elimination reaction and (c) is
(R) AgNO2 (3) Alkene
addition reaction
(S) H3CCOOAg (4) Nitroalkane
(B) (a) is elimination, (b) is substitution and (c) is
addition reaction (A) P → 3; Q → 1; R → 4; S → 2
(C) (a) is elimination, (b) and (c) are substitution (B) P → 1; Q → 3; R → 4; S → 2
reactions (C) P → 3; Q → 4; R → 1; S → 2
(D) (a) is substitution, (b) and (c) are addition (D) P → 2; Q → 1; R → 4; S → 3
reaction
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15. Statement 1 : Change in enthalpy is an intensive 17. For reversible elementary reaction :
property. 2R P
Statement 2 : Between same initial and final states Correct option is :
enthalpy change does not depend on the path taken d[R]
(A) = 2{k1[R]2 – k – 1 [P]}
by the process. dt

(A) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and d[P ]

(B) = {k1[R] – k – 1[P]}
statement-2 is correct explanation for dt
statement-1. d[R]
(C) = 2 {k – 1[P] – k1[R]2}
(B) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and dt
statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for
(D) d[P ]
statement-1. = {k – 1[P] – k1[R]2}
dt
(C) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
18. On introducing a catalyst at 500 K the rate of a first
(D) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.
order reaction increases by 1.718 times. The
16. For a real gas following plot is given in high
pressure range. Value of (b/RT) is : activation energy in presence of catalyst is

4.15 kJ mol – 1. The slope of the plot of

1
ln k (in sec – 1) vs (T in Kelvin) in absence of
T
catalyst is (R = 8.3 J mol – 1 K – 1)

(Given : ln 1.718 = 0.54)

(A) – 230

(A) 10 – 3 atm – 1 (B) – 770

(B) 2 × 10 – 3 atm – 1 (C) +1000
(C) 5 × 10 – 4 atm – 1 (D) – 1000
(D) 10 – 4 atm – 1

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19. An ideal gas sample undergoes cyclic process as 1. Consider two closest Cl2 molecules to find covalent
shown in figure :
and Vander Waals radii of Cl atom in chlorine
molecule. The inner circles in figure corresponds to
the size of the chlorine atom. Calculate value of
covalent radius (in pm) of Cl atom.
The incorrect option is :
(A) The enthalpy change for the overall process is zero.
(B) Δ H > Δ E for the AB process.
(C) Magnitude of net work done equals the magnitude
of net heat exchanged for overall process.
(D) Total work in the process = +620.77 J.
20. Liquids A and B form an ideal solution and the
former has stronger intermolecular forces. If xA and
yA are the mole fractions of A in the solution and
vapor phase at equilibrium, then :
(A) yA/xA = 1 (B) yA/xA > 1
(C) yA/xA < 1 (D) yA + xA = 1
2. Among XeF4 , [PCl4]+ , [PdCl4]2 – , [Cu(CN)4]3 – ,
SECTION-II : (Maximum Marks: 20)
P4 , [FeCl4]2 – , [ZnCl4]2 – and Ni(CO)4 number of
This section contains 10 questions Candidates have to
attempt any 5 questions out of 10. If more than 5 species with tetrahedral shape is ______.
questions are attempted, then only first 5 attempted
questions will be evaluated.
The answer to each question is a Numerical Value. 3. Among the following , the total number of
For each question, enter the correct integer value (In diamagnetic species is ______,
case of non-integer value, the answer should be
rounded off to the nearest Integer). [Mn(NH3)6]3+ , [MnCl6]3 – , [FeF6]3 – , CsO2 ,
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to
the following marking scheme: NO(g) , H-atom , He-atom , Zn2+ ion.
Full Marks : +4 If correct answer is entered.
Zero Marks : 0 If the question is unanswered.
Negative Marks : –1 If wrong answer is entered.
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4. Find the number of reaction those proceed with 7. In a cold climate, water gets frozen causing damage
retention of configuration only. to the radiator of cars. Ethylene glycol (CH2OH)2 is
used as an anti-freeze. Calculate the amount
(a) (b)
(in gm) of ethylene glycol to be added to 4.0 kg of
water to prevent it from freezing at – 6°C, Kf of
(c) (d) water = 1.86 K molal – 1.
8. A sample of an ideal gas is expanded from 1m3 to
3m3 in a reversible process for which P = KV2, with
(e)
K = 6 bar/m6. What is work done by the gas (in kJ) ?
9. For the reaction
2NO(g) + H2(g) → N2O(g) + H2O (g),
(f) at 900K, following data are observed.
Find out the rate constant (in atm – 2 sec – 1) of
disappearance of NO gas :
5. Initial pressure Initial Rate of
of pressure reaction
NO (atm) of H2 (atm) (atm / sec)
on treating with excess aq. AgNO3. The number of 0.1 0.4 16 × 10 – 3
moles of AgCl formed is
0.05 0.4 4 × 10 – 3
6. How many orders are correct for given property of
0.1 0.8 32 × 10 – 3
following compounds
(a) Boiling point : 16
10. If the weight of one atom is gm and it form X2
NA
type gas, how many grams of X2 is required to fill
(b) Density : up the gas vessel with volume 350 mL at 0°C and
(c) Density : to obtain the pressure 2 atm.

(d) Boiling point :

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 PART-3 : MATHEMATICS

SECTION-I : (Maximum Marks: 80) sin−1 (sin x) 0⩽x<π

4. Function f(x) = { has
This section contains 20 questions. Each question has cos−1 (cos x) π ⩽ x ⩽ 2π
4 options for correct answer. Multiple-Choice (A) One local maxima & one local minima in (0, 2 π )
Questions (MCQs) Only one option is correct. For
(B) Two local maxima in (0, 2 π )
each question, marks will be awarded as follows:
Full Marks : +4 If correct answer is selected. (C) Two local minima in (0, 2 π )
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the option is selected. (D) Exactly one minima in (0, 2 π )
Negative Marks : –1 If wrong option is selected.
5. Let f(x) be a non-constant twice differentiable
1. The distance between the origin and the tangent to function on R such that f(2 + x) = f(2 – x) and
the curve y = e2x + x2 drawn at the point x = 0 is 1
f′ ( ) = f '(1) = 0. Then minimum number of roots
1 2 2
(A) (B) of the equation f "(x) = 0 in (0, 4) are
√5 √5
−1 2 (A) 2 (B) 4
(C) (D)
√ 5 √ 3 (C) 5 (D) 6
x
2. 1
The maximum value of (
x
) is 6. If f(x) = 4x3 – x2 – 2x + 1 and
e ⎡
Min {f (t) : 0 ⩽ t ⩽ x} ; 0⩽x⩽1
e 1 1 g (x) =
(A) e (B) e (C) e e (D) ( )
e ⎣
3−x ; 1<x⩽2
3. 1 3 5
Let f : ( – ∞ , ∞ ) → ( – ∞ , ∞ ) be defined by then g ( ) + g ( ) + g ( ) has the value
4 4 4
f(x) = x3 + 1. equal to
Assertion A : The function f has a local extremum
(A) 7 (B) 9
at x = 0
4 4
Reason R : The function f is continuous and 13 5
(C) (D)
differentiable on ( – ∞ , ∞ ) and f '(0) = 0 4 2
(A) A is correct but R is not correct sin3 x + cos3 x
7. ∫ dx =
sin2 xcos2 x
(B) A is not correct but R is correct
(A) tan x + cot x + c
(C) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the
(B) tan x − cot x + c
correct explanation of A
(C) cosec x − cot x + c
(D) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct
explanation of A (D) sec x − cosec x + c

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 dx 1
e5loge x − π 4log π x
8. If ∫ = xf (x) (1 + x6 ) 3 + C where 10. ∫ dx = f(x) + C, where f(6) = 72,
x3 (1 + x6 )2/3 e3loge x − π 2log π x
C is a constant of integration, then the function ƒ(x) then value of f(9) is -
is equal to- (A) 3 (B) 27
1 3 (C) 81 (D) 243
(A) − (B)
6x3 x2
(C) −
1 (D) −
1 11. The integral ∫ sec2/3 x cos ec4/3 x dx is equal to
2x2 2x3
(here C is a constant of integration)
9. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
answer using the code given below the list. (A) 3tan – 1/3x + C

List-I List-II (B) – 3tan – 1/3x + C

1 −1 2 4
(C) – 3cot – 1/3x + C
lim tan ( x −x )
(A) x→ ∞ π (I) 1 3
is equal to (D) − tan−4/3 x + C
4

(B) ex ℓ n2 1 12. If f(0) = 0, f '(0) = 2, then the derivative of

lim
x→ ∞
is equal to (II) −
2
ex y = f(f(f(f(x))) at x = 0 is :
If y = fofof(x) is (A) 2
differentiable function (B) 8
(C) where f(0) = 0 and (III) 0
(C) 16
f'(0) = 2, then value of
y'(0) is equal to (D) 4

[x]
13. Which is correct -
lim is equal to
x→2− {x} (A) 31/3 < 41/4 < 51/5
(here [.] & {.} denotes
(D) greatest integer and (IV) 8 (B) 31/3 > 41/4 < 51/5
(C) 31/3 > 41/4 > 51/5
fractional function
respectively) (D) 41/4 > 31/3 > 51/5
14. An even function ƒ(x), differentiable ∀ x ∈ R satisfies
(A) (A) – II, (B) – III, (C) – IV, (D) – I
the condition ƒ(x – y) = ƒ(x) + ƒ(y) – 4xy – 1 and
(B) (A) – I, (B) – II, (C) – III, (D) – IV
ƒ'(0) = 0 then ƒ(x) is
(C) (A) – II, (B) – IV, (C) – III, (D) – I (A) x2 (B) x4 + 1
(D) (A) – III, (B) – I, (C) – IV, (D) – II (C) 2x2 + 1 (D) 2x4 + 1
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15. Let f : (0,1) → be a function defined by sin2 ( π cos4 x)
1 19. lim
x→0
is equal to :
f (x) = , and g(x) = (f ( – x) – f(x)). x4
1 − e−x (A) π 2
Consider two statements
Statement-I : g is an increasing function in (0,1) (B) 2 π 2
Statement-II : g is one-one in (0,1) (C) 4 π 2
(A) Statement-I is true but Statement-II is false (D) 4 π
(B) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are false 1
20. lim1 [x [ ]] equals :-

(C) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true x→ 2 x

(where [.] denotes greatest integer function)
(D) Statement-I is false but Statement-II is true
(A) 1 (B) 0
16. The coordinates of point P on the line 2x + 3 y + 1 = 0
such that |PA – PB| is maximum, where A(2,0) and (C) 2 (D) Does not exist
B(0,2) is- SECTION-II : (Maximum Marks: 20)
(A) (5, – 3) This section contains 10 questions Candidates have to
(B) (7, – 5) attempt any 5 questions out of 10. If more than 5
(C) (9, – 7) questions are attempted, then only first 5 attempted
questions will be evaluated.
(D) (11, – 9)
The answer to each question is a Numerical Value.
17. The complete set of values of x for which
π is- For each question, enter the correct integer value (In
tan−1 x + cot−1 x =
∣
∣
∣
∣
∣
∣
∣
∣
2 case of non-integer value, the answer should be
(A) [0, ∞ ) rounded off to the nearest Integer).
(B) [1, ∞ ) Answer to each question will be evaluated according to
(C) ( – ∞ ,0) the following marking scheme:
(D) ( – ∞ , – 1] Full Marks : +4 If correct answer is entered.
√ 1 − sin x + √1 + sin x
Zero Marks : 0 If the question is unanswered.
18. The value of cot−1 [ ] is
√ 1 − sin x − √1 + sin x Negative Marks : –1 If wrong answer is entered.
ℓ n √x
(A) x
(B) π−
x 1. If ∫ dx = g (x) + C where g(1) = 0, then
2 2 x

(C) π − x (D) 2 π − x g(e6) is equal to

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 1 7. Let f(x) be a differentiable function such that
2. Let f(x) = x+ 1
. Then the value
2x + 1 2f(x + y) + f(x – y) = 3f(x) + 3f(y) ∀ x, y ∈ R and
2x + 2x + .... ∞
of f(50).f ′ (50) is ______ f ′ (0) = 0, then the value of f(5) + f ′ (5) is

3. Let y = t10 + 1 and x = t8 + 1, then 16

d2y
at t = 1, 8. If f(x) = sin 3x + A sin52x + B sin x (x ≠ 0) is
dx2 x
is : continuous at x = 0, then the value of (A + B + f(0)) is
4. Let f (x) = |x|2 − 9|x| + 20 and number of points
∣
∣
∣
∣
9. Number of points where ƒ(x) = |(2x – 1).(3x – 3)x.
where f(x) is not differentiable is 'n', then the value (x – 1).(x – 2)| is not differentiable, is
of 'n' is 10. Consider the pair of lines ax2 + 2hxy + by2 = 0. If
5. Number of points of discontinuity of slope of one of the lines is three times that of other
x x 4ab
f(x) = { } + [ ] in [0, 20] is -
line, then the value of is :
2 3 h2
(where [.] & {.} denote greatest integer function
and fractional part function respectively)
6. ƒ(x), g(x) are differentiable function in [0, 1] and
ƒ(0) = 0, g(0) = 0, ƒ(1) = 10, g(1) = 2, then an
interior point c in (0, 1) is such that ƒ'(c) = kg'(c),
then k is equal to

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