Test Pattern

(1001CJA101022230022) )1001CJA101022230022)
CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME JEE(Main)
UNIT TEST
(Academic Session : 2024 - 2025) 24-02-2024
JEE(Main+Advanced) : ENTHUSIAST COURSE [PHASE : II]
Time : 3 Hours PAPER-1 (OPTIONAL) Maximum Marks : 300
IMPORTANT NOTE : Students having 8 digits Form No. must fill two zero before their Form No.
in OMR. For example, if your Form No. is 12345678, then you have to fill 0012345678.

READ THE INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY

Important Instructions :
1. Immediately fill in the form number on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue/Black Ball Point
Pen. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.

DO NOT BREAK THE SEALS WITHOUT BEING INSTRUCTED TO DO SO BY THE INVIGILATOR

2. The candidates should not write their Form Number anywhere else (except in the specified
space) on the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.
3. The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions.
4. There are three parts in the question paper 1,2,3 consisting of Physics, Chemistry and
Mathematics having 30 questions in each subject and each subject having Two sections.
(i) Section-I contains 20 multiple choice questions with only one correct option.
Marking scheme : +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other cases.
(ii) Section-II contains 10 Numerical Value Type questions. Attempt any 5 questions.
First 5 attempted questions will be considered for marking.
Marking scheme : +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other cases.
5. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, mobile
phone any electronic device etc, except the Identity Card inside the examination hall/room.
6. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
7. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the invigilator on
duty in the Room/Hall. However, the candidate are allowed to take away this Test Booklet
with them.
8. Do not fold or make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet.
9. Take g = 10 m/s2 unless otherwise stated.

Name of the Candidate (in Capitals)

Form Number : in figures

: in words

Centre of Examination (in Capitals) :

Candidate’s Signature : Invigilator’s Signature :

Your Target is to secure Good Rank in JEE(Main) 2025

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 PART-1 : PHYSICS

SECTION-I : (Maximum Marks: 80) 2. An object is approaching a fixed plane mirror with
This section contains 20 questions. Each question has 4 speed 15 ms – 1 making an angle of 135° with the
options for correct answer. Multiple-Choice Questions normal to the mirror. The speed of image w.r.t.
(MCQs) Only one option is correct. For each question, mirror is : –
marks will be awarded as follows:
Full Marks : +4 If correct answer is selected.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the option is selected.
Negative Marks : –1 If wrong option is selected.
1. Radii of curvature of surfaces of a biconvex lens are
10 cm and 20 cm and refractive index of its material
is µ = 1.5. If the refractive indices of the medium on
15
the two sides of the lens are µ1 and µ2, then the (A) 15 ms – 1 (B) ms−1
√ 2
parallel rays incident on the lens from left will focus
at a distance of f2 (distance in cm being measured (C) 15√2 ms
--1 (D) 30 ms – 1
from the optical centre of the lens) where f2 is equal 3. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
to :- Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R
Assertion A: When you squeeze one end of a tube to
get toothpaste out from the other end, Pascal's
principle is observed.
Reason R: A change in the pressure applied to an
enclosed incompressible fluid is transmitted
undiminished to every portion of the fluid and to the
walls of its container.
20 μ 1 In the light of the above statements, choose the most
(A)
4.5 − (2 μ 1 + μ 2 ) appropriate answer from the options given below
20 μ 2 (A) A is not correct but R is correct
(B)
4.5 − ( μ 1 + 2 μ 2 ) (B) A is correct but R is not correct
20 μ 2 (C) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct
(C)
4.5 − (2 μ 1 + μ 2 ) explanation of A
20 μ 1 (D) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the
(D)
4.5 − ( μ 1 + 2 μ 2 ) correct explanation of A
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4. When a thin convergent glass lens (µg = 1.5) and has 7. An object of length 15 cm is placed on principal axis
power of +5 D is immersed in a liquid of refractive of a concave mirror of focal length 30 cm. Its one
index µ ℓ it acts as a divergent lens of focal length end is at a distance of 60 cm from the pole of mirror
100 cm. Then µ ℓ is :
as shown in diagram. Find the length of image
(A) 4/3 formed by mirror :-
(B) 5/3
(C) 5/4
(D) 6/5
5. Path of a ray entering from air to a medium of
variable refractive index is shown in figure. Find (A) 10 cm
the value of refractive index of the medium at P.
(B) 15 cm

(C) 20 cm

(D) 30 cm
8. In the given figure velocity of efflux will be:-

(A) √ 3
2
(B) 1
2
(C) √ 2

(D) 2
6. A bird is flying vertically upward with velocity of (A) √ 3gh

1.2 m/sec. It’s velocity as seen by a fish at rest in (B) 2√gh

4
water of R.I. is
3 (C) √ 2gh
(A) 0.9 m/sec (B) 1.8 m/sec
(D) √ 8gh
(C) 1.6 m/sec (D) 2 m/sec
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9. An arrangement of the pipes of circular cross-section is
10. A liquid of density ' ρ ' flows at a rate Q m3/sec
shown in the figure. The flow of water (incompressible
and nonviscous) through the pipes is steady in nature. through a pipe of diameter 'd'. If the coefficient of
Three sections of the pipe are marked in which section
viscosity for the liquid is η , the relation for Reynolds
1 and section 2 are at same horizontal level, while
being at a greater height than section 3. Correctly number will be :
match order of the different physical parameter with
the options given. In List-I certain statements are given (A) 4 ρ Q
πdη
and numbers given in List-II represent the section
shown in figure. Match the statements in List-I with (B) 2 ρ Q
corresponding ranking in List-II. πdη

(C) ρ Q
πdη

(D) ρ Q
π d2 η
11. Two drops of same radius are falling through air

with steady velocity of v cm/s. If the two drops

List-I List-II coalesce, what would be the terminal velocity?
(P) Order of volume flow rate in section. (1) 1 > 2 > 3
(A) 4 v
Order of total energy of unit
(Q) (2) 3 > 2 > 1
weight while flowing through sections. (B) (4)1/3 v
(R) Order of pressure in the sections. (3) 1 > 2 = 3 (C) 2 v
(S) Order of flow speed in sections. (4) 1 = 2 = 3
(D) 64 v
(A) P→4, Q→4, R→2, S→3
(B) P→1, Q→4, R→2, S→3
(C) P→2, Q→4, R→3, S→2
(D) P→4, Q→2, R→3, S→1
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12. A cubical block of wood 10 cm on a side, floats at 14. A body having volume V is floating fully submerged
the interface of oil and water as shown in figure. in a liquid of density ρ . If the container starts moving
The density of oil is 0.6 g cm – 3 and density of upward with constant acceleration g/3, then the
water is 1 g cm – 3. The mass of the block is buoyant force acting on the body will become

(A) 706 g (B) 607 g V ρg

(A)
(C) 760 g (D) 670 g 3

(B) 2V ρ g
13. The liquids shown in figure in the two arms are 3
mercury (density = 13.6 gm/cm3) and water. If the
(C) 4V ρ g
difference of heights of the mercury column is 2 cm, 3
find the height h of the water column:- (D) V ρg

15. A vertical spring block system is made to oscillate.

Statement-1 : Its time period on earth is more than
that on the moon.
Statement-2 : Its extension on earth (in equilibrium)
is more than that on the moon.
(A) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and
(A) 10 cm statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1.
(B) 2 cm (B) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and
(C) 18 cm statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation
(D) 27.2 cm for statement-1.
(C) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(D) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.
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16. A particle performing SHM is found at positive 19. A particle moves along X axis such that its
extreme at t = 0. What will be the equation of
SHM? [A = amplitude, ω = angular frequency] :- acceleration is given by a = – β (x – 2). Where β is
π) a positive constant and x is the position coordinate.
(A) A sin( ω t +
6
The time period of oscillation (in sec) :-
π
(B) A sin( ω t + )
3 (A) π
(C) π
A sin( ω t + )
(B) 2 π
2
2π π
(D) A sin( ω t + )
(C)
3 √
β
17. A particle executes a simple harmonic motion of
2π
time period T. The time taken by the particle from (D)
its mean position to half the amplitude will be :-
√
β

T 20. In the shown arrangement, the coefficient of

(A)
4 friction between the blocks is µ and no friction
(B) T
8 between ground surface and block 2m. The blocks
(C) T are displaced slightly and released. They move
12
together without slipping on each other. The time
(D) 3T
4 period will be :-
18. A particle performs S.H.M. of amplitude A with
angular frequency ω along a straight line. When it is
√ 3
at a distance A from mean position, its kinetic
2
energy gets increased by an amount 1 m ω 2A2 due
2 m
to an impulsive force. Then its new amplitude (A) 2 π √

k
becomes :-
√ 5 (B) 2 π 3m
(A) A
√

2k
2

(B) √ 3 (C) 2 π 2m
A √

2 3k
(C) √ 2A
(D) 2 π √
9m
(D) √ 5A 2k
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 SECTION-II : (Maximum Marks: 20) 3. The focal length of a thin biconvex lens is 20cm.
This section contains 10 questions Candidates have to
attempt any 5 questions out of 10. If more than 5 When an object is moved from a distance of 25cm
questions are attempted, then only first 5 attempted in front of it to 50cm, the magnification of its image
questions will be evaluated. m25
changes from m25 to m50. The ratio is
The answer to each question is a Numerical Value. m50

For each question, enter the correct integer value (In case 4. Find out angle (in degree) of incidence so that
of non-integer value, the answer should be rounded off to reflected and refracted rays are perpendicular to each
the nearest Integer).
other :-
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to
the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If correct answer is entered.
Zero Marks : 0 If the question is unanswered.
Negative Marks : –1 If wrong answer is entered.
5. One end of an ideal spring is fixed to a wall at origin
1. A convex mirror of focal length 10 cm is shown in O and axis of the spring is parallel to x-axis.
the figure. A linear object AB = 5 cm is placed along A block of mass 1 kg is attached to the free end of
the optical axis. Point B is at distance 25 cm from the the spring and is performing SHM. Equation of
n position of the block in co-ordinate system shown in
pole of mirror. The size of image of AB is cm.
14
figure is x = 10 + 3 sin (10t), where t is in second
Find the value of n.
and x in cm. Another identical block B, moving
towards the origin with velocity 0.6 m/s collides
elastically with the block A at t = 0. The new
amplitude (in cm) of oscillations will be :
2. Two convex lenses of focal length 20 cm each are
placed coaxially with a separation of 60 cm between
them. The image of the distant object formed by the
combination is at _______ cm from the first lens.
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6. A particle performing SHM of time period T was at 9. If the terminal speed of gold is 20 m/s in a viscous

x=−
A
and moving towards mean position. The liquid, find the terminal speed (in m/s) of a sphere
2
of silver of the same size in the same liquid :
average velocity from − A to +A is given by nA
.
2 T density of gold = 19.5 kg/ m3
Find 2n density of silver = 10.5 kg/m3
7. A uniform solid hemisphere of mass m and radius R density of viscous fluid = 1.5 kg/m3
is attached to the roof with a chord of torsional 10. Position of two plane mirrors and object O is shown
constant C and performing torsional SHM. Then the in diagram. Total number of images formed by the
time period (in seconds) of SHM is mirrors is :
2
(Take m = 15 kg, R = , C = 6 Nm/rad.)
π

8. Container is accelerating left side with an

g
acceleration , density of liquid and rod are ρ and
2
ρ
respectively and length of rod is ℓ . Length of
2
a
rod submerged in liquid is √ ℓ, where a & b are
b
least integer value then find (a + b).

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 PART-2 : CHEMISTRY

SECTION-I : (Maximum Marks: 80) 4. The molecule (SiH3)3N is (with respect to 'N' atom)
This section contains 20 questions. Each question has 4 (A) Pyramidal and more basic than (CH3)3N
options for correct answer. Multiple-Choice Questions (B) Planar and less basic than (CH3)3N
(MCQs) Only one option is correct. For each question,
(C) Pyramidal and less basic than (CH3)3N
marks will be awarded as follows:
Full Marks : +4 If correct answer is selected. (D) Planar and more basic than (CH3)3N
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the option is selected. 5. Observe the following conversion and structure of
Negative Marks : –1 If wrong option is selected. B2H6 (Diborane) 2BH3(g) —→ B2H6(g)
1. Identify correct order according to their mentioned
properties.
(A) Mn+2 > Mn+4 > Mn+6 (Ionisation potential)
The correct statement is :
(B) Li > B > Be (2nd Ionisation potential)
(A) ℓ 1 > ℓ 2
(C) B > A ℓ > Ga > Tl (atomic size)
(B) θ1 > θ2
(D) F > C ℓ > Br > I (electron affinity)
(C) B2H6 consists 3c – 2e bond and is a planar species
2. The correct order of electron affinity of S, O, F and
Cl is - (D) The hybridisation state of Boron atom in B2H6
is not changed as compared to monomeric form
(A) S > O > F > Cl (B) Cl > F > O > S of BH3
(C) Cl > F > S > O (D) F > Cl > O > S 6. Assertion (A) : PbI4 doesn't exist and converts into
3. From the given information of element M PbI2 and I2 spontaneously at room temperature but
M → M+3 + 3e¯ Δ H = x kJ / mole PbCl4 needs heating to convert into PbCl2 and Cl2.
Reason (R) : Pb2+ is more stable than Pb4+ due to
IE1 (M) = y kJ / mole
inert pair effect.
IE1 (M+2) = z kJ / mole
The value of IE2 (M) will be (A) A is false but R is true.
(B) A is true but R is false.
(A) (x + y + z) kJ / mole
(C) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(B) (x – y – z) kJ / mole
explanation of A.
(C) (x – y + z) kJ / mole
(D) Both A and R are true and R is NOT the
(D) z – (x + y) kJ / mole correct explanation of A.
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7. Which of the following molecule is chiral. 11. In the following structure, the double bonds are
marked as I, II, III and IV

(A) (B)

Geometrical isomerism is not possible at site (s) :

(C) (D)
(A) I
(B) III
8. How many optically active stereoisomers are possible (C) I and III
for 2, 3-butanediol ?
(D) I and IV
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
12. Among the following, the conformation that
9. The correct statement regarding following compound corresponds to the most stable conformation of meso-
is butane-2,3-diol is -

(A)

(A) It contains plane of symmetry

(B) It contains centre of symmetry and alternating
axis of symmetry (B)
(C) It cannot show geometrical isomerism
(D) It can have axis of symmetry
10. Which of the following is correctly matched
Compound Minimum carbon atoms (C)
present for chain isomer
(A) Alkane 3
(B) Alkene 3
(C) Alkyne 5 (D)
(D) Alcohol 2
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 16. If same element atoms are assumed to be crystallized
13. Statement-1 : is a chiral resolvable as simple cubic and FCC lattices, then ratio of
densities of simple cubic to FCC unit cell is
molecule. (A) 1 : √ 2

(B) √ 2:1

(C) 1:4
Statement-2 : is non-superimposable
(D) 4:1

on its mirror image.
(A) Statement – 1 is true, Statement – 2 is true;
Statement – 2 is not the correct explanation of
Statement – 1
17. AB2 crystallises as CaF2 lattice, certain B – are
replaced by C2 – ions (at same location). If 4 of B –
were replaced what percent of octahedral voids are
empty in new crystal lattice.
(A) 25%

(B) Statement – 1 is true, Statement – 2 is true ; (B) 100 %

Statement – 2 is the correct explanation of (C) 50%
Statement – 1 (D) 75%
(C) Statement – 1 is true, Statement – 2 is false 18. A cubic solid is made by atoms A forming close pack
arrangement, B occupying one-fourth of tetrahedral
(D) Statement – 1 is false, Statement – 2 is true
void and C occupying half of the octahedral voids.
14. a ≠ b ≠ c, α ≠ β ≠ γ ≠ 900 represents What is the formula of each unit cell of this
(A) tetragonal system compound :-
(B) orthorhombic system (A) A4B4C2 (B) A4B2C4
(C) monoclinic system (C) A4BC (D) A4B2C2
(D) triclinic system 19. What is the mass ratio of ethylene glycol
15. Due to Frenkel defect (C2H6O2, molar mass = 62 g/mol) required for
making 0.25 molal aqueous solution with 500 gm
(A) Density of the crystal decreases
solvent in it and another 250 mL of 0.25 molar
(B) Conductivity increases aqueous solution ?
(C) Conductivity decreases (A) 1 : 1 (B) 3 : 1
(D) Crystal becomes charged electrically (C) 2 : 1 (D) 1 : 2
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20. Match the following List 1. Among the following total number of planar species
List II is/are :-
List I Cl2O , P(CH3)3 , N(CH3)3 , I2Cl6 , ⋅ CH3 , N(SiH3)3
(Packing
(Structure)
fraction) 2. Find the number of chemical species, in which
atoms are present at corners as 2p π – 3d π back bond is present
(P) (1) π /6
well as on edge centres B(OH)3, N(SiH3)3, P(CH3)3, N(GeH3)3, BeCl2,
atoms are present at corners as O(SiH3)2, OCl2, BCl3
(Q) (2) √ 3 π /8
well as on face centres 3. Number of species will do homolytic cleavage of
atoms are present at corners as B2H6 molecule.
(R) (3) π /12
well as on body centres (a)
atoms are present only at (b) CO
(S) (4) √ 2 π /6
corners (c) THF
The correct code is :- (d) NH3
(A) P → 1 ; Q → 2 ; R → 3 , S → 4 (e)
(B) P → 3 ; Q → 4 ; R → 2 , S → 1
4. How many of the given statements are correct?
(C) P → 4 ; Q → 2 ; R → 1 , S → 3
(i) In 13th group, stability of lower oxidation state
(D) P → 1 ; Q → 4 ; R → 2 , S → 3 increases down the group.
SECTION-II : (Maximum Marks: 20) (ii) Pentavalent bismuth compounds act as reducing
This section contains 10 questions Candidates have to agent.
attempt any 5 questions out of 10. If more than 5 (iii) BiF5 does not exist at room temperature.
questions are attempted, then only first 5 attempted ∙

questions will be evaluated. (iv) When C H3 dimerises, hybridisation of carbon

The answer to each question is a Numerical Value. atom changes.
For each question, enter the correct integer value (In case (v) NO⊕ Θ
2 > NO2 > NO2 (bond angle)
of non-integer value, the answer should be rounded off to
(vi) BeH2(s) & Al2(CH3)6 contain 3c-2e – bonds.
the nearest Integer).
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to (vii) R3C – OH is stronger acid than R3Si – OH
the following marking scheme: 5. How many stereoisomers are possible for the following
Full Marks : +4 If correct answer is entered.
compound which are optically active
Zero Marks : 0 If the question is unanswered.
Negative Marks : –1 If wrong answer is entered.

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6. Optical rotation data are expressed in standard way 9. In a face centered cubic lattice atoms A are at the
(specific rotation [ α ]D). If magnitude of specific corner points and atoms B are at the face centered
rotation of isomer d-lactic acid is 3.82. What will points. If an atom B is missing from one of the face
centered points in each unit cell, then simplest
be the magnitude of specific rotation of acetic acid
formula of the remaining ionic compound is AxBy
in degree.
then calculate x + y :
7. The dihedral angle in staggered form of Newman
10. A metal M forms hexagonal close-packed structure.
projection of 1, 1, 1-Trichloro ethane is .........
The total number of voids in 0.02 mol of the metal
degree. (Round off to the nearest integer)
M is __________ × 1021 (Nearest integer)
8. When 800 mL of 0.5 M nitric acid is heated in a (Given NA = 6.02 × 1023)
beaker, its volume is reduced to half and 12.6 g of
nitric acid is evaporated. The molarity of the
remaining nitric acid solution is x × 10 – 2 M.
(Nearest Integer)
(Molar mass of nitric acid is 63 g mol – 1)

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 PART-3 : MATHEMATICS

SECTION-I : (Maximum Marks: 80) 3. Assertion (A) : If the function f : R – {1, – 1} → A

This section contains 20 questions. Each question has 4 x2
defined by f(x) = , is surjective, then A is
1 − x2
options for correct answer. Multiple-Choice Questions R – [ – 1, 0)

(MCQs) Only one option is correct. For each question, Reason (R) : If a function is surjective then it is one-
one and onto.
marks will be awarded as follows:
(A) A is correct but R is not correct
Full Marks : +4 If correct answer is selected. (B) A is not correct but R is correct
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the option is selected. (C) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the
correct explanation of A
Negative Marks : –1 If wrong option is selected. (D) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct
explanation of A
1. Which of the following function is not odd
4. Which of the following is not one-one function ?
function ?
(A) f : (0, ∞ ) → R, f(x) = 5 + ℓ nx
(A) y = sinx
(B) f : R → R, f(x) = x3 + 1
(B) y = x3 + x
(C) f : R → R, f(x) = ex
(C) y = | – x| (D) f : R → R, f(x) = |x – 1| + |x – 2|
(1 + x) 5. Let f : −
π , 2 π ] → [−2, 2] be a function defined
(D) y = ℓn
[
3 3
1−x
as f (x) = √ 3 sin x − cos x then f – 1(x) is
2. Domain of y = sin −1
(√ x) is

(A) [0, ∞ ) (A) π + sin−1 (

x
)
3 2

(B) (0, ∞ ) (B) π + sin−1 (

x
)
6 2

(C) [0, 1] x π
(C) sin−1 ( ) −
2 3
(D) [ – 1, 1] x π
(D) sin−1 ( ) −
2 6

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6. Four graphs marked G1, G2, G3 and G4 are given 1
7. The domain of the function f (x) =
in the figure which are graphs of four functions √
[x]2 − 3 [x] − 10
is (where [x] denotes the greatest integer less than
f1 (x) = |x – 1| – 1, f2 (x) = | |x − 1| − 1 |, or equal to x)
f3 (x) = | x | – 1, f4(x) = 1 – | x |, (A) (− ∞ , −2) ∪ (5, ∞ )
not necessarily in the correct order.
(B) (− ∞ , −3] ∪ [6, ∞ )

(C) (− ∞ , −2) ∪ [6, ∞ )

(D) (− ∞ , −3] ∪ (5, ∞ )

x
8. If f(x) = , x ≠ 1 then (fo fo. . . . . f) (7) is
x−1 
7times
equal to :
(A) 7 (B) 7 (C) 8 (D) 8
6 7
9. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
answer using the code given below the list.
List-I List-II
ƒ : R → R, One one and
(A) (I)
ƒ(x) = x|x| is into function
g : R → R+ ∪ {0}, Many one and
(B) (II)
g(x) = |x| is
√ onto function
h : R → R, Many one and
(C) (III)
h(x) = x + [x] is into function
p : R → R,
(D) (IV) Odd function
p(x) = |x – 1| is
[Note : [.] denotes the greatest integer less than or
equal to x.]
(A) (A) – IV (B) – II (C) – III (D) – I
(B) (A) – IV (B) – II (C) – I (D) – III
The correct order is
(C) (A) – II (B) – III (C) – IV (D) – I
(A) G2, G1, G3, G4 (B) G3, G4, G1, G2
(D) (A) – II (B) – III (C) – I (D) – IV
(C) G2, G3, G1, G4 (D) G4, G3, G1, G2
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10. Number of distinct real solutions of the equation 2π 7π 3π
14. sin−1 (sin ) + cos
−1
(cos ) + tan
−1
(tan )

x2 + x = {x} is (where {.} dentoes fractional part 3 6 4

function) : is equal to :
(A) 0 (A) 11 π
12
(B) 2
(B) 17 π
(C) 3 12
(D) 4 31 π
(C)
e sin2 x
−e −sin2 x 12
11. Let f(x) = , then
e sin2 x + e−sin
2x
(D) 3π
−
(A) f(x) is one-one function 4

(B) f(x) is an odd function 15. Consider the function f(x) such that
e2 − 1 f(x – 1) + f(x + 3) = f(x + 1) and f(5) = 1.
(C) Range of f(x) is [ 0, ]
e2 +1 90

(D) f(x) is invertible function Statement-I : ∑ f (5 + 12r) = 90

r=0
12. Let E = {1, 2, 3, 4} and F = {1, 2}. Then the Statement-II : f(x) is a periodic function with
number of onto functions from E to F is
period 12.
(A) 14
(A) Statement-I is true but Statement-II is false
(B) 16
(B) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are false
(C) 12
(C) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true
(D) 8
x
(D) Statement-I is false but Statement-II is true
13. A function f(x) is given by f(x) = x5 , 6−x
5 +5 16. If ƒ(x) = ax3 + bsin3x + clog ( ) +4
then the sum of the series 6+x

1 2 3 39 and ƒ(1) = 2, then ƒ( – 1) equals

f( ) + f ( ) + f ( ) +. . . . . . +f ( ) is
20 20 20 20
(A) 4
equal to :
(B) 6
(A) 19 (B) 49
2 2 (C) 2
29 39 (D) 8
(C) (D)
2 2
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17. Let A = {x ∈ R : |x + 1| < 2} and 20. In a study about a pandemic, data of 900 persons

B = {x ∈ R : |x − 1| ⩾ 2}. Then which one of the was collected. It was found that

following statements is not true? 190 persons had symptom of fever,

220 persons had symptom of cough,
(A) A − B = (−1, 1)
220 persons had symptom of breathing problem,
(B) B − A = R − (−3, 1)
330 persons had symptom of fever or cough or
(C) A ∩ B = (−3, −1]
both,
(D) A ∪ B = R − [1, 3) 350 persons had symptom of cough or breathing
18. Range of y = |x + 1| + |x – 1| + |x – 2| is problem or both,
(A) [3, ∞ ) 340 persons had symptom of fever or breathing
(B) [5, ∞ ) problem or both,
30 persons had all three symptoms (fever, cough
(C) [0, ∞ )
and breathing problem).
(D) (− ∞ , ∞ )
Based on above information, which of the
19. The number of integral solutions of the equation
following option is INCORRECT ?
x+2y = 2xy is (are)
(A) Number of persons with atmost one symptom
(A) 2
is 720
(B) 1
(B) Number of persons with at least one symptom
(C) 4 is 420

(D) infinitely many (C) Number of persons without any symptom is

480
(D) Number of persons with exactly one symptom
is 260
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 SECTION-II : (Maximum Marks: 20) 6. If f is an even function defined on interval ( – 5, 5),
This section contains 10 questions Candidates have to then the number of real values of x satisfying the
attempt any 5 questions out of 10. If more than 5 x+1
questions are attempted, then only first 5 attempted equation f (x) = f ( ) is :
x+2
questions will be evaluated.
The answer to each question is a Numerical Value. 7. Number of integers lying between ( – 10, 10)
For each question, enter the correct integer value (In case x3 (x − 2)2 (x − 5)
satisfying inequality ⩾ 0 are
of non-integer value, the answer should be rounded off to (x + 1)5 (x + 3)7
the nearest Integer). 8. A and B are two sets where n(A) = 5, n(B) = 6 and
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to
n(A ∪ B) ⩽ 9. Then sum of all possible values of
the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If correct answer is entered. n(A – B) is
Zero Marks : 0 If the question is unanswered. 9. Each set Xr contains 'a' elements and each set
Negative Marks : –1 If wrong answer is entered. 20 20
Yr contains 2 elements and ⋃ Xr = S = ⋃ Yr . If
1. Number of solution of |x – 2| = – 5 is (where x ∈ R) r=1 r=1
each element of S belongs to exactly 10 of Xr's and
2. If P(x) = 2024x2024 + x2023 + 2022 is divided by
to exactly 4 of the Yr's then a = ?
(x – 1) then remainder is
10. Let N = {x : 32x + 2 – 13 × 6x + 4x + 1 = 0 & x ∈ R}.
⎧ x+1 ; x⩽1
3. Let f (x) = ⎨ and If S is sum of distinct elements of set N, then S2 is
⎩
2x + 1 ; 1<x⩽2
⎧ x2 ; −1 ⩽ x < 2
g (x) = ⎨
⎩
, then number of
x+2 ; 2⩽x⩽3

integers which are in range of goƒ(x) are

4. If f(x) = x2 – 2x, then number of solutions of

|f(|x|)| = 1 are :
5. The function f(x) satisfies the condition
1
(x − 2) f (x) + 2f ( ) = 2 for all x ≠ 0. Then 4f(2)
x
is
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