Time : 3 Hours Test-7 (RE-NEET Test Series) MM : 720

RE-NEET
Topics covered in various subjects:
Physics : Alternating Current, Electromagnetic Waves, Ray Optics and Optical Instruments,
Wave Optics
Chemistry : Haloalkanes & Haloarenes, Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers, Aldehydes, Ketones and
Carboxylic Acids
Botany : Microbes in Human Welfare, Organisms and Populations
Zoology : Human Health and Disease
Instructions:
(i) Use ball point pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
(iii) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing
material on Answer sheet.
(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.
(vii) There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35
questions from Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15.

[ PHYSICS ]
Section – A (c) LED lights
1. A ray reflected successively from two plane mirrors (d) Magnetic brakes in trains
inclined at a certain angle undergoes a deviation of 5. A ray of light is incident at 50o on the middle of one of
300o. The number of observable image is the two mirrors arranged at an angle of 60o between
(a) 60 (b) 12 them. The ray then touches the second mirror, get
(c) 11 (d) 5 reflected back to the first mirror, making an angle of
2. A small object is placed 10 cm infront of a plane incidence of
mirror. If you stand behind the object 30 cm from the (a) 50o (b) 60o
mirror and look at its image, the distance focused for (c) 70o (d) 80o
your eye will be 6. Two plane mirrors are arranged at right angles to each
(a) 60 cm (b) 20 cm other as shown in figure. A ray of light is incident in
(c) 40 cm (d) 80 cm the horizontal mirror at an angle ‘  ’. For what value
3. A man runs towards at a speed of 15 m/s. The speed of of  the ray emerges parallel to the incoming ray after
image with respect to man is reflection from the vertical mirror?
(a) 7.5 m/s (b) 15 m/s
(c) 30 m/s (d) 45 m/s
4. Which of the following does not the application of eddy
current?
(a) Electric power meters
(b) Inductions furnace
Page 1
 (a) 60o (b) 30o (c) Magnetic flux (d) Both (a) and (b)
o
(c) 45 (d) All of these 15. Find the time taken by light to travel a distance of 3
7. A man of length h requires a mirror, to see his own cm in glass. (c = 3 × 108 m/s and refractive index of
complete image of length at least equal to water = 4/3)
(a) h/4 (b) h/3 (a) 1.333 × 10–10 s (b) 2.333 × 10–10 s
(c) h/2 (d) h (c) 3.333 × 10–10 s (d) 4.333 × 10–10 s
8. The equivalent inductance between A and B is 16. The self inductance of a long solenoid cannot be
increased by
(a) Increasing its area of cross section
(b) Increasing its length
(c) Increasing the current through it
(a) 1H (b) 4 H (d) Increasing the number of turns in it
(c) 0.8 H (d) 16 H 17. A ray of light from a dense medium strikes a rarer
9. A rod of length 10 cm lies along the principal axis of a medium. The reflected and refracted rays make an
concave mirror of focal length 10 cm in such a way angle of 90o with each other. The angles of reflection
that the end closer to the pole is 20 cm away from it. and refraction are r and r ' . The critical angle would be
The length of the image is (a) sin–1(tan r) (b) tan–1(sin r)
(a) 5 cm (b) 10 cm (c) sin–1(tan r ' ) (d) tan–1(sin r ' )
(c) 15 cm (d) 20 cm 18. A light ray travels from a denser medium to a rarer
10. A convex mirror has a focal length f. A real object is medium. If the critical angle of the denser medium
placed at a distance f in front of it from the pole with respect to rarer medium is ‘C’, the maximum
produces an image at possible deviation of any ray will be
(a) Infinity (b) f 
(a)  –C (b) C
(c) f/2 (d) 2f 2
11. A concave mirror gives an image three time as large as (c) 2C (d)   2C
the object placed at a distance of 20 cm from it. For 19. Mutual inductance of two coils can be increased by
the image to be real, the focal length should be (a) Decreasing the number of turns in the coils
(a) 10 cm (b) 15 cm (b) Increasing the number of turns in the coils
(c) 20 cm (d) 30 cm (c) Winding the coils on wooden cores
12. The equivalent inductance of two inductors is 2.4 H (d) None of these
when connected in parallel and 10 H when connected in 20. A small square loop of wire of side l is placed inside a
series. What is the value of inductance of the individual large square loop of wire of side L ( > > l).The loops are
inductors? coplanar and their centres coincide. What is the mutual
(a) 8H, 2H (b) 6H, 4H inductance of the system?
(c) 5H, 5H (d) 7H, 3H 0 l 2 0 l 2
13. The phenomenon used in optical fibres for (a) 2 2 (b) 8 2
 L  L
transmission of light energy is
0 l 2 0 L2
(a) Total internal reflection (c) 2 2 (d) 2 2
2 L l
(b) Scattering
21. A ray of light is incident at 60o on a prism of
(c) Diffraction
refracting angle 30o . The emerging ray is at an angle
(d) Refraction
30o with the incident ray. The value of refractive index
14. The physical quantity which is measured in the unit of
of the prism is:
Wb A–1 is
(a) Self inductance (b) Mutual inductance 3 3
(a) (b)
4 2
Page 2
 (c) 3 (d) 2 3 28. In an ac circuit, V and I are given by

22. The energy stored in an inductor of self inductance L  

V = 150sin (150t) V and I = 150sin 150t   A. The
henry carrying a current of I ampere is  3
1 2 1 2 power dissipated in the circuit is
(a) LI (b) LI
2 2 (a) 106 W (b) 150 W
(c) LI2 (d) L2I (c) 5625 W (d) Zero
23. A glass sphere (  = 1.5) of radius 20 cm has a small 29. An ac source of voltage V = Vmsin  t is connected
air bubble 4 cm below its centre. The sphere is viewed across the resistance R as shown in figure. The phase
from outside and along a vertical line through the relation between current and voltage for this circuit is
bubble. The apparent depth of the bubble below the
surface of sphere is (in cm)
(a) 13.33 (b) 26.67
(c) 15 (d) 30
24. When a white light passes through a hollow prims,
(a) Both are in phase
then
(b) Both are out phase by 90o
(a) There is no dispersion and no deviation
(c) Both are out of phase by 120o
(b) Dispersion but no deviation
(d) Both are out of phase by 180o
(c) Deviation but no dispersion
30. Given that, velocity of light in quartz = 1.5 × 108 m/s
(d) There is dispersion and deviation both
and velocity of light in glycerine = (9/4) ×108 m/s.
25. In dispersion without deviation
Now a slab made of quartz is placed in glycerine as
(a) The emergent rays of all the colours are parallel
shown. What is the shift produced by slab?
to the incident ray
(b) Yellow coloured ray is a parallel to the incident
ray
(c) Only red coloured ray is parallel to the incident
ray
(d) All the rays are parallel, but not parallel to the
incident ray
26. When white light passes through the achromatic (a) 6 cm (b) 3.55 cm
combination of prisms then what is observed. (c) 9 cm (d) 2 cm
(a) Only deviation 31. How much water should be filled in a container of 21
(b) Only dispersion cm in height, so that it appears half filled (of actual
(c) Deviation and dispersion height of the container) when viewed from the top of
(d) None of the above the container?
27. When the plane of the armature of an a.c. generator is (Assume near normal incidence and  w = 4/3)
parallel to the field, in which is rotating (a) 8.0 cm (b) 10.5 cm
(a) Both the flux linked and induced emf in the coil are (c) 12.0 cm (d) 14.0 cm
zero 32. The image for the converging beam after refraction
(b) The flux linked with it is zero, while induced emf is through the curved surface (in the given figure) is
maximum formed at:
(c) Flux linked is maximum while induced emf is zero
(d) Both the flux and emf have their respective
maximum values

Page 3
 38. The equation of a travelling wave is
y = 60 cos (1800 t – 6x)
where y is in microns, t in second and x in metres. The
ratio of maximum particle velocity to velocity of wave
propagation is
(a) 3.6 × 10–11 (b) 3.6 × 10–6
40
(a) x = 40 cm (b) x cm (c) 3.6 × 10–4 (d) 3.6
3
39. A wave is represented by the equation
40 180 y = 0.5 sin(10t – x) metre
(c) x   cm (d) x  cm
3 7 It is a travelling wave propagating along + X direction
33. In the given figure a plano-concave lens is placed on a
with velocity
paper on which a flower is drawn. How far above its
(a) 10 m/s (b) 20 m/s
actual position does the flower appear to be? (c) 5 m/s (d) None of these
40. Two waves are represented by the equations
y1 = a sin(  t + kx + 0.57) and
y2 = a cos (  t + kx),
where x is in metre and t in sec. The phase difference
between them is
(a) 1.0 radian (b) 1.25 radian
(a) 10 cm (b) 15 cm
(c) 1.57 radian (d) 0.57 radian
(c) 50 cm (d) None of these
41. The equation of a progressive wave is given by
34. Critical angle of light passing from glass to air si
  t x 
minimum for y  A sin  2    
  T  
(a) Red (b) Green
(c) Yellow (d) Violet If the maximum particle velocity is six times the wave

35. In which of the following circuits the maximum power velocity, then its wave length is

dissipation is observed? (a) 3A (b) 2A

(a) Pure capacitive circuit A A
(c) (d)
(b) Pure inductive circuit 3 6
(c) Pure resistive circuit 42. The displacement due to a wave moving in the
(d) None of these 1
positive x-direction is given by y  at time t
Section-B (1  x 2 )
36. The rms value of current in an ac circuit is 25A, then 1
= 0 and by y  at t = 2s, where x and y
peak current is [1  (x  1) 2 ]
(a) 35.36 mA (b) 35.36 A are in metres. Velocity of the wave in m/s is
(c) 3.536 A (d) 49.38 A (a) 1 (b) 0.5
37. A transverse wave is represented by the equation (c) 2 (d) 4
2 43. An alternating voltage given by V = 140 sin314t is
y  y 0 sin (vt  x)
 connected across a pure resistor of 50 ohm, the rms
For what values of  , the maximum particle velocity current through the resistor is
equal to two times the wave velocity. (a) 1.98 A (b) 5.63 A
(a)   2y 0 (b)   y 0 / 3 (c) 8.43 A (d) 2.39 A
44. A 44 mH inductor is connected to 220 V, 50 Hz ac
(c)   y0 / 2 (d)   y0
supply. The rms value of the current in the current in the
circuit is
Page 4
 (a) 12.8 A (b) 13.6 A (a) Remains same (b) Doubled
(c) 15.9 A (d) 19.5 A (c) Halved (d) Zero
45. If we study the vibration of a pipe open at both sides, 48. When a stretched wire and a tuning fork are sounded
then the following statement is true together, 5 beat per second are produced, when length
(a) Pressure change will be maximum at both ends of wire is 95 cm or 100 cm. Frequency of fork is
(b) Open end will be antinode (a) 90 (b) 100
(c) Odd harmonics of the fundamental frequency (c) 105 (d) 195
will be generated 49. At resonance frequency the impedance in series LCR
(d) All harmonics of the fundamental frequency will circuit is
be generated (a) Maximum (b) Minimum
o
46. An organ pipe filled with a gas at 27 C ressnates at (c) Zero (d) Infinity
400 Hz in its fundamental mode. If it is filled with the 50. A source of sound of frequency 90 Hz is approaching
same gas at 90oC, the resonance frequency will be a stationary observer with a speed equal to 1/10th
(a) 420 Hz (b) 440 Hz speed of sound. The frequency heard by observer will
(c) 484 Hz (d) 512 Hz be
47. In a pure capacitive circuit if the frequency of ac source (a) 80 Hz (b) 90 Hz
is doubled, then its capacitive reactance will be (c) 100 Hz (d) 120 Hz

[ CHEMISTRY ]
Section - A 55. The position of — Br in the compound in
51. Which of the following is a secondary alcohol? CH3CH = CHC(Br)(CH3)2 can be classified ……… .
(a) Allyl (b) Aryl
(c) Vinyl (d) Secondary
56. Which of the following compounds are primary
haloalkanes?
I H
| |
52. Which of the following is polyhydric alcohol?
(a) CH3  C C CH3
(a) CH3CHOHCH2OH | |

(b) CH3CHOHCHOHCH2OH H CH 3
(c) CH2OHCH2OH CH 3
(d) C6H5CHOHCH3 |

53. Alkene can be converted into alcohol by which (b) CH 3  C  Cl

|
reaction? CH 3
(a) Displacement reaction
(c) CH3 – CH2 – CBr3
(b) Elimination reaction
CH3
(c) Addition reaction |
(d) Reduction reaction (d) CFH3  CH 2  C
|
54. Which of the following reagent converts alkene into
CH3
alcohol?
57. Alkyl halide can be prepared from:
(a) HOH/H2SO4
(a) Alkene (b) Alcohol

(b) (i) BH3 (ii) H2 O2/ O H (c) Carboxylic acid (d) All of these
(c) (i) Hg(OAc)2 (ii) H2O2/NaBH4 58.
Pb(OAc)4
CH3CH2COOH   [P]; Product [P] is:
I / hv
2
(d) All of these

Page 5
 O (a) Cl2/UV light (b) NaCl + H2SO4
(a) ||
(c) Cl2 gas in dark
CH3CH 2 COCH 2CH 3
(d) Cl2 gas in the presence of iron in dark
O 63. Chlorobenzene is formed by reaction of chlorine with
(b) ||
CH3CH 2 C OCH 3 benzene in the presence of AlCl3. Which of the
following species attacks the benzene ring in this
(c) CH3CH2I
reaction?
O
(d) || (a) Cl– (b) Cl+
CH3 C OCH 2CH 3 (c) AlCl3 (d) [AlCl4]–
C2H 5 64. The synthesis of alkyl fluorides is best accomplished
| by:
NaI/HOH/Acetone
59. CH 3  C Br   [P]; Product [P] is: (a) Sandmeyer’s reaction
|

C 3H 7 (b) Finkelstein reaction

(c) Swarts reaction
C2 H 5 C2 H 5
|
(d) Free radical fluorination
|
(a) CH3  C I (b) I  C CH 3 65. Arrange the following compounds in increasing order
| |
of their boiling points:
C3 H 7 C 3H 7
I (I)
(c) |
CH3CH 2CH 2 CHCH 2CH 2CH 3 (II) CH3CH2CH2CH2Br

(d) Mixture of (a) and (b)

Acetone
60. R — Cl + NaI  R — I + NaCl
In the above reaction, which alkyl chloride will give (III)
maximum yield?
(a) (II) < (I) < (III) (b) (I) < (II) < (III)
CH 3 (c) (III) < (I) < (II) (d) (III) < (II) < (I)
|
66. Which of the following is liquid at room temperature?
(a) CH3  C Cl (b) CH3CH2CH2Cl
|
(a) CH3I (b) CH3Br
CH 3 (c) C2H5Cl (d) CH3F
CH 3 67. Dipole moment is highest in:
C 6 H5  C  Cl | (a) CHCl3 (b) CH4
(c) | (d) C 6 H5  C  Cl
| (c) CHF3 (d) CCl4
CH 3
CH 3 68. Which of the following is least reactive for
61. What compound is obtained when ethanol is distilled nucleophilic substitution reaction?
with potassium bromide and concentrated sulphuric (a) CH3CH2CHBr (b) H2C = CHBr
acid? (c) C6H5CH2 Br (d) C6H5Br
(a) Ethyl hydrogen sulphate 69. Which of the following combinations is correctly
(b) Ethyl bromide matched?
(c) Ethylene bromide H
|
(d) Acetylene dibromide
(a) CH 3  C  Cl,SN 2 , Walden inversions
62. Which reagent will you use for the following |

reaction? D
CH3CH2CH2CH3  CH3CH2CH2 CH2Cl + H
|
CH3CH2CHClCH3 (b) CH 3  C Cl,SN1 , Walden inversions
|

D
Page 6
 C2H 5
|
(c) C 6 H5  C Cl,SN1 , Only retention
|

CH3
75. Which of the following alcohols will be oxidised by
C2H 5 Br2 /KOH?
|
(d) C 6 H5  C Cl,SN1 , Only inversions
| (a) CH3OH
CH3
70. Order of nucleophilicity in polar protic solvent?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
71. Order of nucleophilicity in polar aprotic solvent?

(a) (b) 76.

(c) (d)
72. Which of following is least reactive towards SN1 ?
Product/s of the reaction is/are:

77. Which of the following alcohols dehydrates with the

73. faster rate?

78.

Major product of the reaction is:

(d) CH3 – CH = CH2

74.

Product [P] is:

79. Substrate in Dow’s process for the manufacture of
phenol is:
(a) Chlorobenzene
(b) Benzenediazonium chloride
(c) Mixture of (a) and (b)
(c) Benzenesulphonic acid
(d) Cumene
Page 7
80. Benzenediazonium chloride may be converted into
phenol by action of:
(a) H2O(v) (b) NaNO2/HCl
(c) H3PO2 (d) Either of these (a) Cyclohexanal
81. Which of the following compound will not undergo (b) Cyclohexane carbaldehyde
Reimer-Tiemann reaction? (c) Cyclohexyl carbaldehyde
(d) None of these
O
87. IUPAC name of || is:
CH3CH 2 C CH 2CHO
(a) 1-formyl-3-pentanone
(d) All of these (b) 3-oxopentanal
82. Electrophile in Reimer-Tiemann reaction is: (c) Pentan-1-al-3-one
 (d) None of these
(a) C Cl3 (b) CH2Cl2
88. What is the main reason for the fact that carboxylic

(c) CHCl3 (d)  C Cl2 acids can undergo ionization?
83. (a) Absence of alpha-hydrogen
(b) Resonance stabilization of the carboxylate ion
(c) High reactivity of alpha-hydrogen
(d) Hydrogen bonding
The given reaction is known as: O
||
(a) Elbe oxidation (i)conc.NaOH
89. CH3  C H  NO 2 
(ii) H SO
 CH3  C CH3 ,
(b) Elbe reduction | 2 4

(c) Houben-Hoesch reaction CH3

(d) Air oxidation The given reaction is known as:
84. (a) Stephans reductions
(b) Rosenmund reduction
(c) Nef carbonyl synthesis
(d) Claisen condensation
90. Predict which of the following compounds will have a
lower boiling point than 1-butanal?
(a) 1-butanol (b) 2-butanol
(c) 1-butene (d) butanoic acid
91. Arrange the given four compounds in decreasing
order of acidic strength:
O O
85. Carbonyl compounds impart fragrance to several
(i) || ||
natural substances. In this regard, select the correctly CH3  C  CH 2  C  CH 3
matched:
O
(a) Cinnamaldehyde-cinnamon (ii) ||

(b) Salicylaldehyde-meadow sweet CH3  C  CH 3

(c) Vanilin-vanila beans (iii) CH  CH
(d) All of these (iv) CH3 — CHO
Section-B (a) I > IV > III > II (b) I > IV > II > III
86. IUPAC name of (c) III > I > IV > II (d) II > IV > I > III

Page 8
92. Which of the following compounds is a hydrazone? O
(iii) ||
CH 3  C CH 3
(a) i > ii > iii (b) ii > i > iii
(c) iii > i > ii (d) i > iii > ii
97.

93. Find out the incorrect statement about the above

given reaction:
Which type of reaction it is? (a) It is a nucleophilic addition reaction
(a) Electrophilic addition (b) Product obtained is present in racemic mixture
(b) Nucleophilic addition (c) If the hydrolysis of obtained product give  -
(c) Nucleophilic substitution hydroxy acid
(d) Electrophilic substitution (d) It is a electrophilic addition reaction
94. Which of the following is least reactive toward 98. Which of the following reagents is best used for the
Grignard reagent? conversion shown below?
O
(a) || (b) CH3 – C = O
H  C H
O
(c) C2H5 – CH = O (d) ||
CH3  C CH 3 (a) 1. NaBH4/2. D3O+
(b) 1. NaBD4/2. H3O+
95. What is/are the major product(s) of the following
(c) 1. LiAlH4/2. D3O+
reaction?
(d) 1. H2/Pt/2. D2O
99. Bezaldehyde is more reactive than ……….. toward
nucleophile attack.
O O
(a) || (b) ||
H  C H CH 3  C H
O
(c) ||
Ph  C  H

(d)
100.

96. Compare rate of reaction with RMgBr:

(a) Cyclic acetal
O
(i) (b) Cyclic hemiacetal
||
H  C H (c) Open chain acetal
O (d) Open chain Hemiacetal
(ii) ||
CH 3  C H

Page 9
 [ BOTANY ]
Section - A (a) Incubators (b) Sterilizers
101. Acetobacter aceti essentially produces _________ . (c) Fermenters (d) Microbial vessels
(a) Citric acid (b) Acetic acid 113. The traditional drink of south India is made by
(c) Butyric acid (d) Lactic acid fermenting sap from _______ tree.
102. ‘Gal ghotu’ is a common name for which disease? (a) Eucalyptus (b) Coconut
(a) Whooping cough (b) Diphtheria (c) Palm (d) Date
(c) Plague (d) Leprosy 114. Which microbe helps us in the preparation of bread?
103. Penicillin was extensively used during which war? (a) Bacteria (b) Yeast
(a) World War I (b) World War II (c) Fungi (d) Algae
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Cold War 115. If someone wants to make curd form milk, a small
104. The full potential as an effective antibiotic in the amount of curd is added to fresh milk. The small
context of penicillin was studied by __________ . amount of curd containing millions of LAB is known
(a) Sutton and Boveri (b) Chain and Florey as
(c) Watson and Crick (d) Edward Jenner (a) Accelerator (b) Promoter
105. The name penicillin was given after the mould _____ . (c) Inoculum (d) Germ
(a) Penicillium notatum 116. BOD ________ polluting potential of waste water.
(b) Penicilium chrysogenum (a) Is not proportional to
(c) Penicillium candidum (b) Is directly proportional to
(d) Penicillium glaucum (c) Is inversely proportional to
106. Point the odd one out. (d) None of these
(a) Rum (b) Beer 117. The ‘flocs’ present in large aeration tanks causes
(c) Whiskey (d) Brandy _________ in BOD.
107. ‘Antibiotics’ literally means (a) Decrease (b) Increase
(a) Protecting life (b) Against life (c) No change (d) Either (a) or (b)
(c) Healing life (d) Accelerating life 118. In context of secondary treatement of sewage, ‘flocs’
108. Penicillin was discovered by ________ . is associated with which microbes?
(a) Edward Jenner (b) Louis Pasteur (a) Bacteria and algae
(c) Alexander Fleming (d) Howard Florey (b) Algae and fungus
109. Penicillin was discovered by chance as the organism (c) Fungi and bacteria
producing it retarded the growth of _______. (d) Fungi and lichen
(a) Lactobacilli (b) Staphylococci 119. Sewage water treatment is done in how many stages?
(c) Streptococci (d) E.Coli (a) 1 (b) 3
110. ______ is the alcoholic beverage obtained without (c) 2 (d) 4
distillation. 120. If ‘+’ sign is assigned to beneficial interaction, ‘–’
(a) Whiskey (b) Brandy sign to detrimental and ‘O’ sign to neutral interaction,
(c) Wine (d) Rum then the population interaction represented by ‘+’ ‘–’
111. Brewer’s Yeast is refers to :
(a) Saccharomyces cariocanus (a) Mutualism (b) Amensalism
(b) Saccharomyces florentinus (c) Commensalism (d) Parasitism
(c) Saccharomyces cerevisiae 121. Cyclosporine-A is produced by fungus ____.
(d) Saccharomyces spencerorum (a) Trichoderma polysporum
112. Vessels for growing microbes on industrial scale are (b) Penicillium notatum
known as ________ . (c) Micromonospora
(d) Aspergillus niger
Page 10
122. The major portion of waste water in cities and towns (c) More abundant species will exclude the less
is ________. abundant species through competition
(a) Household waste (d) Competition for the same resources exclude
(b) Industrial waste species having different food preferences
(c) Human excreta 131. ‘Swiss cheese’ bears large holes due to the production
(d) Both (a) and (b) of CO2 by which microbe?
123. Which enzyme produced by microbes is an important (a) Lactobacillus
ingredient in detergent formulations? (b) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
(a) Urease (b) Lipase (c) Propionibacterium shermanii
(c) Pectinase (d) Cleansase (d) Aspergillus niger
124. Choose the correct option which regard to statement A 132. Salinity in sea water is in between –
and B. (a) < 5 ppt (b) 5 – 30 ppt
A : Microbes are present everywhere on earth. (c) 30 – 35 ppt (d) > 100 ppt
B : They cannot live in thermal vents where 133. The puffed-up dough of dosa and idli is due to
temperature is as high as 100oC. _______.
(a) Statement A is correct and B is incorrect (a) Fermentation by bacteria and production of O2
(b) Statement A and B are correct (b) Hydrolysis by bacteria and production of CO2
(c) Statement A is incorrect but B is correct (c) Fermentation by bacteria and production of CO2
(d) Statements A and B are incorrect (d) Hydrolysis by bacteria and production of O2
125. The principle of competitive exclusion was stated by: 134. What does the shape of the given age pyramids (A to
(a) C. Darwin (b) G.F. Gause C) reflect about the growth status of populations?
(c) Mac Arthur (d) Verhulst and Pearl
126. Citric acid is produced by ______.
(a) Aspergillus niger
(b) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
(c) Lactobacillus
(d) Clostridium butylicum
127. An animal that can survive at 10oC and 40oC both, can
be placed under the category of
(a) Conformers (b) Regulators
(c) Migratory (d) Modifiers
A B C
128. Alcoholic beverages are produced by microbial
(a) Declining Stable Expanding
fermentation of
(b) Stable Expanding Declining
(a) Malted cereals (b) Fruit juices
(c) Expanding Stable Declining
(c) Vegetable juices (d) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Declining Expanding Stable
129. Roquefort cheese is ripened by growing a specific
135. In Verhulst-Pearl logistic growth, following equation
fungus on it which gives it a particular ___________.
(a) Texture (b) Large holes dN KN
was derived :  rN   . What does K refer
(c) Flavour (d) Colour dt  K 
130. Gause’s principle of competitive exclusion states that: to?
(a) No two species can occupy the same niche (a) A constant
indefinitely for the same limiting resources (b) Intrinsic rate of natural increase
(b) Larger organisms exclude smaller ones through (c) Population density
competition (d) Carrying capacity

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 Section-B (a) Curve ‘A’ shows exponential growth, represented
136. Diagrammatic representation of organismic response dN
by equation  rN .
is given. Select the correct option. dt
(b) Curve ‘B’ shows logistic growth, represented by
dN KN
equation  rN  .
dt  K 
(c) Exponential growth curve is considered as more
realistic than the logistic growth curve
(d) Curve ‘A’ can also be represented by equation
A B
N t  N 0e r t
(a) Conformers Regulators
140. Aquatic mammals in polar seas have a thick layer of
(b) Regulators Partial regulators
fat known as__________:
(c) Conformers Partial regulators
(a) Blubber (b) Flubber
(d) Conformers Partial conformers
(c) Rubber (d) Stubbe
137. What are the two major factors that account for the
141. Visiting a place like Manali and Mansarovar gives you
formation of biomes?
an uncomfortable feeling. This is referred to
(a) Light and precipitation
as__________:
(b) Soil and light
(a) Motion Sickness (b) Altitude Sickness
(c) Temperature and precipitation
(c) Acrophobia (d) All of these
(d) Temperature and soil
142. Tiger census in our national parks and tiger reserves is
138. The given figure represents different factors affecting
done by counting:
population density (N). If B = natality, D = mortality,
(a) Tiger cubs (b) Tiger pug marks
E = emigration and I = immigration; then select the
(c) Tiger faecal pellets
incorrect option regarding these.
(d) Both (b) and (c)
143. Identify the correct equation for population density at
time t + 1:
(a) N = Nt + [(D + I) – (B + E)]
(b) N = Nt + [(B – I) – (D + E)]
(c) Nt + 1 = Nt + [(B + D) – (I + E)]
(d) Nt + 1 = Nt + [(B + I) – (D + E)]
(a) B and D are most influential factors under normal
conditions while I and E become important in 144. The r value for human population in India is
special conditions ________:
(b) In a new habitat just being colonized, I becomes (a) 0.15 (b) 0.0502
more important than B. (c) 0.0205 (d) 0.012
(c) B and I cause positive changes in N 145. Carrying capacity K means________:
(d) I is generally equal to E. (a) Organism’s capability of maximum reproduction
139. Study the population growth curves (A and B) in the (b) Nature’s limit for supporting maximum growth
given graph and select the incorrect option. of a species
(c) Nature’s limit for supporting maximum number
of species
(d) Organism’s capability to withstand
environmental odds

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146. Lice on human, ticks on dogs, cuscuta on hedge 149. Which of the following statements are correct w.r.t.
plants, Lichen, Mycorrhiza & Rhizobium in Legume population?
plants. How many are the example of parasitism? A. Some species of insects and frogs are cryptically
(a) 3 (b) 5 coloured to avoid being detected easily by the
(c) 4 (d) 6 predator.
147. Match Column I & II and choose correctly matched: B. Lichens represent an intimate mutualistic
(a) Predation – Pseudocopulation relationship between a fungus and
(b) Mutualism – Wasp Pollinator & fig inflorescence photosynthesizing algea.
(c) Parasitism – Fungal hyphea & Roots of higher C. CAM plants morphologically adapt to open
plants as mycorrhiza stomata during daytime.
(d) Ammensalism – Cattle egret & grazing cattle (a) Only A, C is correct
148. Which of the following statement is incorrect? (b) Only B, C is correct
(a) In the aquatic environment the sediment (c) Only C is incorrect
characteristics often determine the type of (d) All are correct
benthic animals that can thrive there 150. Competitive exclusion principle states that:
(b) In animal the organism if unable to migrate, (a) Two closely related species competing for
might avoid the stress by escaping in time different resources cannot co-exist indefinitely
(c) Many species of small plants growing in forests (b) Two closely related species competing for same
are adapted to photosynthesis optimally under resource can coexist indefinitely
very high light conditions (c) Two closely related species competing for same
(d) The levels of thermal tolerance of different resources cannot coexist indefinitely
species determine their geographical distribution (d) More than one option is correct
to a large extent
[ ZOOLOGY ]
Section - A (a) The microgametocytes and macrogametocytes
151. A doctor identifies symptoms of nasal congestion, are destroyed by WBCs
headache, sore throat, hoarseness, cough in a patient. (b) The trophozoites reach maximum growth and
According to his diagnosis, the patient is suffering give out certain toxins
with (c) The sporozoites released from RBCs are being
(a) Adeno virus (b) Rhino virus rapidly killed and broken down in spleen
(c) Yersinia pestis (d) Plasmodium (d) The parasite after its rapid multiplication inside
152. Which of the following diseases is caused by a RBCs ruptures them, releasing the Haemozoin to
protozoan? enter fresh RBCs
(a) Syphilis (b) Plague 155. Widal test is used diagnosis of
(c) AIDS (d) Babesiosis (a) Malaria (b) Typhoid
153. Which of the following is an incorrect statement? (c) Pneumonia (d) Common cold
(a) Plague is caused by pasteurella or yersinia pestis 156. Ringworm infections are caused by
(b) Trophozoite is the infective stage of malarial (i) Microsporum
parasite for humans (ii) Epidermophyton
(c) The larval stage of filarial worm carried by Culex (iii) Trichophyton
mosquito is microfilaria/ Filaria (iv) Trichomonas vaginalis
(d) Infection of Ascaris occurs by consuming food or (a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
water carrying its eggs (c) (i) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iv)
154. A patient suffering with malaria experiences recurring 157. Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t amoebiasis?
chills and fever at the time when

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 (a) It is caused by Entamoeba histolytica which is a 164. The acvidic pH in stomach kills ingested pathogens.
protozoan parasite of small intestine of humans.
(b) Housefly acts as the mechanical carrier and
serves to transmit the parasite from faeces of
infected persons to food and food products
(c) Symptoms of amoebiasis include constipation,
abdominal pain and cramps, stools with excess 165. Mark the part of the antibody to which the antigen
mucous and blood clots
(d) It is also called amoebic dysentery
158. Mark the wrong statement:
(a) Ascariasis, taeniasis and Enterobiasis
helminthic diseases
(b) Measles, Mumps and Rubella are viral diseases
(c) Malaria, Amoebiasis and Filariasis are protozoan
diseases
(d) Cholera, Diphtheria and Tetanus are bacterial
Diseases
159. Identify the odd one w.r.t. helminthic diseases:
(a) Taeniasis (b) Ascariasis
(c) Enterobiasis (d) Amoebiasis
160. Pneumonia is caused by Streptococcus pneumonia and 167. Which of the following agents are produced in the
(a) Rhinovirus
(b) Haemophilus influenzae
(c) Salmonella typhi
(d) Clastridium tetani
161. Symptoms of AIDS appear when
(a) HIV multiplies in RBCs
(b) Bone marrow depression takes place
(c) Virus attacks helper T-cells causing their
depletion resulting in immunodeficiency
(d) Virus attacks B-lymphocytes
162. Identify the wrong statement:
(a) The army of proteins produced by
lymphocytes in response to pathogens are called
antibodies
(b) lgE is released in response to allergens
(c) IgM has 10 antigen binding sites
(d) IgA provides natural passive immunity to foetus
163. Which of the following are not the components of
innate immunity?
(a) Skin, macrophages, neutrophils
(b) Mucous coating of epithelium, natural killer cells
(c) B-lymphocytes, T-lymphocytes
(d) Interferons, cytokines, neutrophils
This contributes to
(a) Acquired active immunity
(b) Innate physiological barrier
(c) Innate physical barrier
(d) Acquired passive immunity
binds:
(a) Variable region of light chain and constant region
of heavy chain
are (b) Variable region of light and heavy chain
(c) Constant region of light chain and variable region
of heavy chain
(d) Constant region of light and heavy chain
166. The lymphoid tissue located within the lining of major
tracts (respiratory, digestive and urinogenital) is called
(a) Spleen
(b) Thymus
(c) Mucosal-associated lymphoid tissue
(d) Bone marrow
body by use of vaccines?
(a) Antibodies (b) Memory B-cells
(c) memory T-cells (d) All of these
168. Which of the following is incorrect match regarding
the type of macrophage and the corresponding organ
where it is found?
(a) Microglia - Brain
(b) Kupffer cells - Lungs
(c) Histiocyte – Connective tissue
(d) Kuffer cells – Liver
169. Which of the following is not a property of innate
B- immunity?
(a) It is also called non-specific immunity
(b) It is also called inborn immunity
(c) It does not have the property of memory
(d) B-lymphocytes act as cellular barrier
170. Which of the following is an incorrect statement?
(a) Tobacco contains number of chemical substances
including nicotine, an alkaloid
(b) Nicotine stimulates adrenal gland to release
adrenaline and noradrenaline, which increase
blood pressure and heart rate
(c) Tobacco chewing is associated with increase risk
of cancer of the oral cavity
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 (d) Smoking reduces carbon monoxide content in (v) Malaria  Schizont stage in crop of
blood and increases the concentration of haem- mosquito
bound oxygen (a) One pair (b) Two pairs
171. Which of the following is an incorrect statement w.r.t.
(c) Three pairs (d) Four pairs
opioids?
176. Read the following statements about health and select
(a) Opioids bind to specific receptors present in our
the incorrect one
central nervous system and gastrointestinal tract
(a) Immune system maintains our health
(b) They are obtained from Papaver somniferum
(b) Health is defined as a state of complete physical
(c) Heroin is a natural alkaloid obtained from leaves
mental and social well-being
of poppy plant
(c) Health increases productivity and economic
(d) Codeine is chemically methylmorphine and used
prosperity
to suppress cough
(d) Health increases infant and maternal mortality
172. Which of the following drug is taken commonly
177. Which one of the following diseases is non-
through snorting and suddenly causes increased heart
communicable?
rate and sense of euphoria and increased energy?
(a) Diphtheria (b) Flu
(a) LSD (b) Cocaine
(c) Cancer (d) Malaria
(c) Hashish (d) Morphine
178. Which of the following pairs contains an infectious
173. Identify the leaf whose diagram is given below:
and a non-infectious disease respectively?
(a) Typhoid and AIDS
(b) AIDS and cancer
(c) Pneumonia and malaria
(d) Cancer and malaria
179. Which of the following statements regarding the
(a) Papaver somniferum disease typhoid is/are correct?
(b) Atropa belladonna (i) Salmonella typhi a pathogenic bacterium which
(c) Cannabis sativa enter human intestine through contaminated food
(d) Datura and water and migrate to other organs through
174. (A) AIDS was reported first time in 1981. blood
(B) Genetic material of HIV is a ssRNA. (ii) Sustained high fever (39oC to 40oC), weakness,
(C) HIV attacks macrophage and helper T-cells. stomach pain, constipation, headache and loss of
(D) AIDS is detected by ELISA test. appetite are some common symptoms of typhoid
(a) Only (A) is correct (iii) Typhoid vaccine is available as DPT vaccine.
(b) (A) and (B) are correct (iv) Widal test is used for diagnosis of typhoid fever
(c) (A), (B) and (C) are correct (v) The patient of this disease is not required to be
(d) All are correct treated with antibiotics
175. How many pairs are incorrect? (a) (i) and (ii) only (b) (iii) and (v)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iv) (d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(i) Typhoid  Intestinal perforation
180. Which of the following pathogens causes whooping
(ii) Dysentery and Diphtheria  Bacterial
cough?
diseases
(a) Legionella sp (b) Bordetella pertussis
(iii) Haemophilus influenza  Lips turn bluish (c) Vibrio (d) Brucella melitensis
in colour 181. Which one of the following sets includes only
(iv) Rhino virus  Infects nose, respiratory bacterial diseases?
passage and lung (a) Tetanus, tuberculosis, measles
(b) Diphtheria, leprosy, plague
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 (c) Cholera, typhoid, mumps (c) Nervous system (d) Blood circulation
(d) Malaria, mumps, poliomyelitis 188. The pathogen Microsporum responsible for ringworm
182. The main reason why antibiotics could not always disease in humans belongs to the same kingdom as
treat the bacteria-mediated diseases is that of
(a) insensitivity of the individual following (a) Taenia, a tapeworm
prolonged exposure to antibiotics (b) Ascaris, a roundworm
(b) inactivation of antibiotics by bacterial enzymes (c) Rhizopus, a mould
(c) decreased efficiency of immune system (d) Wuchereria, a filarial worm
(d) the development of mutant bacterial strains 189. Read the following statements and select the correct
resistant to antibiotics option.
183. Common cold differs from pneumonia as Statement 1 : Many fungi belonging to genera
(a) pneumonia is caused by a virus whereas common Microsporum, Trichophyton and Epidermophyton are
cold is caused by a bacterium responsible for the disease ringworm
(b) pneumonia pathogen infects alveoli whereas Statement 2 : Ringworm infection is generally
common cold affects nose and respiratory acquired from soil or by using towels, clothes, comb,
passage but not the lungs etc. of infected individuals
(c) pneumonia is a non-communicable disease (a) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct
whereas common cold is a communicable disease (b) Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect
(d) none of these (c) Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is correct
184. Where will you look for the sporozoites of malarial (d) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect
parasite? 190. Gambusia is a fish which is being introduced into the
(a) Human ponds in order to check the vector borne diseases such
(b) Female Anopheles mosquito as
(c) Male Anopheles mosquito (a) dengue (b) malaria
(d) Both (a) & (b) (c) chikungunya (d) all of these
185. Match column- I with column- II and select the correct 191. Which one of the following pairs of diseases is viral as
option from the given codes well as transmitted by mosquitoes?
Column- I Column- II (a) Encephalitis and sleeping sickness
A. Amoebiasis (i) Treponema pallidum (b) Yellow fever and sleeping sickness
B. Diphtheria (ii) Houseflies as mechanical carriers (c) Elephantiasis and dengue
C. Cholera (iii) DPT vaccine (d) Yellow fever and dengue
D. Syphilis (iv) Oral rehydration therapy 192. MALT is
A B C D (a) Muscle Associated Lymphoid Tissue
(a) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv) (b) Mucosal Associated Lymphoid Tissue
(b) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) (c) Mucosal and Lymphoid Tissue
(c) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (d) Memory Associated Lymphoid Tissue
(d) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii) 193. The lymphoid tissue, located within the lining of
Section-B digestive tract is
186. Which one of the following diseases cannot be cured (a) spleen (b) Peyer’s patches
by taking antibiotics? (c) lymph nodes (d) MALT
(a) Plague (b) Amoebiasis 194. An antibody consists by
(c) leprosy (d) Whooping cough (a) two light peptide chains and two heavy peptide
187. Which of the following is affected by the infection of chains
Wuchereria bancrofti? (b) two light peptide chains and one heavy peptide
(a) Lymphatic vessels (b) Respiratory system chain

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 (c) one light peptide chain and one heavy peptide (a) P (b) Q
chain (c) R and S (d) T
(d) one light peptide chain and two heavy peptide 199. In the following question, a statement of assertion is
chains followed by a statement of reason. Mark the correct
195. The antibody which can cross placental barrier is choice as:
(a) lgA (b) lgE (a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is
(c) lgM (d) lgG the correct explanation of assertion
196. A protein or polysaccharide molecule that stimulates (b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is
antibody formation is not the correct explanation of assertion
(a) antigen (b) antibiotics (c) If assertion is true but reason is false
(c) exotoxin (d) endotoxins (d) If assertion is false but reason is true
197. Select the option with correct set of differences Assertion: Proto-oncogenes are cellular genes
required for normal growth
Reason: Under normal conditions they could lead to
the oncogenic transformation of the cell
200. Read the following statements and select the correct
option.
Statement 1 : Malignant tumors normally remain
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) and (iii) confined to their original location, do not spread to
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (i), (ii) and (iii) other body parts and cause less damage.
198. The figure given below shows mode of action of Statement 2 : cancer arising from epithelial tissues of
AIDS virus. Which step shows formation of viral internal organs and glands is referred to as sarcoma
DNA from RNA by reverse transcription? e.g., breast cancer, cervical cancer etc.
(a) Both statement 1 and 2 are correct
(b) Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect
(c) Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is correct
(d) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect

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