KO : AIEEE – 2006 : Full Test – 04

CHEMISTRY
61. The lightest particle is :
65. Zeeman effect refers to the :
(1) α –particle (2) positron (1) splitting up of the lines in an emission
spectrum in the presence of an external
(3) proton (4) neutron
electrostatic field
(2) random scattering of light by colloidal
62. In a gaseous reversible reaction
particles
(3) splitting up of the lines in an emission
N2 + O2 ﾇﾈ ﾈﾈﾆﾈ 2NO + Heat spectrum in a magnetic field
(4) emission of electrons from metals when
If pressure is increased then the equilibrium light falls upon them
constant would be :
66. Correct gas equation is :
(1) unchanged
P1T1 P2 T2 V1T2 V2 T1
(1)  (2) 
(2) increased V1 V2 P1 P2
(3) decreased P1V1 T1 V1V2
(3)  (4)  P1P2
(4) sometimes increased sometimes decreased P2 V2 T2 T1T2

63. Bohr model can explain : 67. Which combinations of quantum numbers, n, l,
m and s for the electron in an atoms does not
(1) the solar spectrum provide a permissible solution of the wave
(2) the spectrum of hydrogen molecule equation?
(3) spectrum of any atom or ion containing 1 1
(1) 3, 2, 1, (2) 3, 1, 1, 
one electron only 2 2
(4) the spectrum of hydrogen atom only 1 1
(3) 3, 3, 1,  (4) 3, 2, – 2,
2 2
64. Gamma rays have : 68. Ca2+ is isoelectronic with :
(1) no mass and no charge (1) Na+ (2) Ar
(2) mass only (3) Mg 2+
(4) Kr
(3) charge only 69. Which element is used for making a transistor?
(4) mass and charge both (1) Sn (2) Sb
(3) Si (4) Mg

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70. The rate constant for a first order reaction 76. The action of enzymes in living system is to :
whose half–life, is 480 second is : (1) supply energy to tissues
(1) 2.88 × 10–3 sec–1 (2) create immunity
(2) 2.72 × 10–3 sec–1 (3) circulate oxygen
(3) 1.44 × 10–3 sec–1 (4) enhance the rate of biochemical reactions
(4) 1.44 sec–1
77. Amongst the following, the molecule that is
71. For the following homogeneous reaction, the linear is :
unit of rate constant is : (1) SO2 (2) CO2
k
AB C (3) ClO2 (4) NO2
–1 –1
(1) mole L sec (2) sec–1 78. The hydrogen bond is strongest in :
(3) sec (4) sec–1 mole L–1 (1) F–H– – –O (2) F–H…F
72. A sample of rock from moon contains equal (3) S–H…S (4) O–H…O
number of atoms of uranium and lead. t1/2 for
U = 4.5 × 109 years. The age of the rock would 79. Dipole moment is shown by :
be : (1) cis–1, 2–dichloro ethene
(1) 2.25 × 109 years (2) 13.5 × 109 years (2) trans–1, 2–dichloro ethene
(3) 9.0 × 109 years (4) 4.5 × 109 years (3) trans–1, 2–dichloro–2 pentene
(4) both (1) and (3)
73. The half–life period of a radioactive material is
15 minutes. What percent of radioactivity of 80. The compound 1, 2–butadiene has :
that material will remain after 45 minutes ? (1) sp, sp2 and sp3–hybridized carbon atoms
(1) 17.5% (2) 15% (2) only sp2–hybridized carbon atoms
(3) 12.5% (4) 10% (3) only sp hybridized carbon atoms
74. In terms of energy 1 a.m.u. is equal to : (4) both sp and sp2–hybridized carbon atoms
(1) 100 J (2) 931.1 kcal 81. The C–H bond distance is the longest in :
(3) 931.1 MeV (4) 107 erg (1) C2H6 (2) C2H2
75. A biological catalyst is : (3) C2H2Br2 (4) C2H4
(1) the N2 molecule (2) an enzyme 82. Which one of the following solutions has the
(3) an amino acid (4) a carbohydrate highest B.P.?
(1) 0.1 M NaCl (2) 0.1 M urea
(3) 0.1 M BaCl2 (4) 0.1 M glucose

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83. The freezing point of 1% solution of lead (3) CuSO4·5H2O (4) MgSO4·7H2O
nitrate in water will be :
90. Cyanide process is used for the extraction of :
(1) 2°C (2) 1°C
(1) Au
(3) 0°C (4) below 0°C
(2) Ag
84. The amount of urea to be dissolved in 500 c.c. (3) Cu
of water (K = 1.86°C) to produce a depression
(4) both (1) and (2)
of 0.186°C in the freezing point is :
(1) 9 g (2) 6 g 91. Which of the following metal is correctly
matched with its ore?
(3) 3 g (4) 0.3 g
Metal Ore
85. The solubility of AgI in NaI solution is less
(1) Zinc Calamine
than that in pure water because :
(2) Silver Ilmenite
(1) the temperature of the solution decreases
(3) Magnesium Cassiterite
(2) solubility product of AgI is less than that
of NaI (4) Tin Azurite
(3) of common ion effect 92. An example of a Lewis acid is :
(4) AgI forms complex with NaI (1) MgCl2 (2) SnCl4
86. Which is chemically most active non–metal? (3) AlCl3 (4) NaCl
(1) S (2) O2 93. Which solution has pH equal to 10?
(3) F2 (4) N2 (1) 10–4 M KOH (2) 10–10 M KOH
87. Which one of the given transition metal ions is (3) 10–10 M HCl (4) 10–10 M HCl
diamagnetic? 94. Solubility product of BaCl2 is 4 × 10–9. Its
2+ 2+
(1) Cu (2) Co solubility would be :
(3) Cr3+ (4) Zn2+ (1) 1 × 10–27 (2) 1 × 10–3
88. Which of the following isoelectronic species (3) 1 × 10–7 (4) 1 × 10–2
has the largest size? 95. Molecular orbital theory was given by :
(1) Na+ (2) O2– (1) Kossel (2) Mosley
(3) N3– (4) F– (3) Mulliken (4) Werner
89. Molecular formula of Glauber’s salt is : 96. In methane the bond angle is :
(1) Na2SO4·10H2O (2) FeSO4·7H2O (1) 180° (2) 90°

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(3) 109° (4) 120° (3) NH4+ (4) NO2

97. Oxidation number of ‘N’ in N3H (hydrazoic 104. A mixture of camphor and benzoic acid
acid) is : can be separated by :
1
(1)  (2) + 3 (1) sublimation
3
(3) 0 (4) – 3 (2) extraction with a solvent
98. Phosphorus has the oxidation state of +3 in : (3) chemical method
(1) phosphorus acid
(4) fractional crystallisation
(2) pyrophosphoric acid
(3) orthophosphoric acid 105. The empirical formula of a compound is
CH2. One mole of this compound has a mass of
(4) metaphosphoric acid
42 grams. It molecular formula is :
99. Which of the following has highest pH?
(1) C3H6 (2) C3H8
M M (3) CH2 (4) C2H2
(1) KOH (2) NaOH
4 4
M M 106. How many isomers are possible for the
(3) NH 4 OH (4) Ca(OH) 2 alkane C4H10?
4 4
(1) 3 (2) 5
100. The heat of neutralization of HCl and HCN
by NaOH are – 55.9 kJ/mole and – 12.1 (3) 2 (4) 4
kJ/mole respectively. The energy of 107. Geometrical isomerism is possible in case
dissociation of HCN is : of :
(1) 43.8 kJ (2) –43.8 kJ (1) pentene–2 (2) propane
(3) –68 kJ (4) 68 kJ
(3) pentane (4) ethene
101. Bronze is an alloy of :
(1) Pb + Sn + Zn (2) Cu + Sn 108. The wrong IUPAC name of the compound
CH3CHOH·CH2CH3 is :
(3) Pb + Zn (4) Cu + Zn
102. In photography we use : (1) Butane–2–ol
(2) 2–Buanol
(1) AgI (2) NH3
(3) Butanol–2
(3) AgCl (4) AgBr
(4) 1–methyl–propanol–1
103. The treatment of Cu wit dilute HNO3 gives
: 109. The number of isomers of the compound
(1) N2O (2) NO with molecular formula C2H2Br2 is

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(1) 4 (2) 3 (4) reversible colloids

(3) 5 (4) 2
110. The number of ether isomers possible for 115. White vitriol has the formula :
C4H10O are : (1) CaSO4·2H2O
(1) 2 (2) 5 (2) CuSO4·5H2O
(3) 4 (4) 3 (3) ZnSO4·7H2O
111. Keto–enol tautomerism is observed in : (4) FeSO4·7H2O
O O 116. The decomposition temperature is
(1) || || maximum for :
H 5 C6  C  CH 2  C  C6 H5
(1) MgCO3 (2) SrCO3
O
(2) || (3) CaCO3 (4) BaCO3
H 5 C6  C  CH 3
117. What is the molarity of 0.2 N Na2CO3
O solution?
(3) ||
H 5 C6  C  H (1) 0.05 M (2) 0.4 M
(4) both (1) and (2) (3) 0.1 M (4) 0.2 M

112. Which of the following compounds will 118. The strength of 10 c.c. of “10 volume”
show geometrical isomerism? solution of H2O2 in terms of normality is :
(1) 1–phenyl propene (1) 6.8 N (2) 1.7857 N
(2) propene (3) 4.4 N (4) 30.35 N
(3) 2–methyl–2–butene 119. Zeolite which shows ion exchanging
(4) 2–butene ability :
(1) can provide H+ in place of Na+ ions
113. The number of primary amines of formula
C4H11N is : (2) is a sodium aluminosilicate
(1) 1 (2) 3 (3) is an ion–exchange resin
(3) 4 (4) 2 (4) is a close–packed assemblance of silicon
and oxygen atoms
114. Lyophobic colloids are :
120. Which of the following is an electrophile ?
(1) gun proteins
(1) Lewis acid
(2) protective colloids
(2) Lewis base
(3) irreversible colloids

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(3) Negative species

(4) none of these

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