GRAND TEST Q.P I

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FILE NO. IIT-777/66 (31/01/09) CODE  VSSS.

IIT JEE – 2009


NARAYANA GRANDTEST-10
PAPER – I
Time: 3 hours Max. Marks: 207
DATE: 02– 02 – 09
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this
purpose.

INSTRUCTIONS 12. Section I contains 6 multiple choices questions. Each


question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which
A. General:
only one is correct.
1. This booklet is your Question Paper containing 48
13. Section II contains 3multiple choice questions. Each
questions. The booklet has ____ pages .
question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which
one or more answer/s is/ are correct.
2. The question paper CODE is printed on the right hand
14. Section III contains 1 paragraph based upon
top corner of this booklet.
paragraph 3 multiple choice questions. Each question
3. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules,
has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which only one
calculators, cellular phones, pagers, and electronic
is correct.
gadgets in any form are not allowed to be carried inside
the examination hall. 15. Section IV contains 2 subjective or numerical or
4. The answer sheet, a machine–readable Objective ICR model type questions
Response Sheet (ORS), is provided separately. 16. Section V contains 2 questions .each question contains
5. DO NOT TAMPER WITH / MUTILATE THE ORS OR THE statements given in 2 columns .Statement in the
BOOKLET. Column I have to be matched with the statement/s in
the Column II. The answers to these questions have to
B. Filling the ORS be appropriately bubbled in the ORS as per the
6. On the lower part of the ORS, write in ink, your instructions given at the beginning of the section.
Registration Number in box L ,Test No. in box L ,Date
D. Marking Scheme:
in box L ,Your Name in box L ,Signature of the 17. For each questions in Section I, you will be awarded 3
marks if you have darkened only the bubble
candidate in box L ,Signature of Invigilator with name corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no
bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one (–1)
in box L and Name of the Center in L .Do not write mark will be awarded.
18. For each question in Section II, you will be awarded
these anywhere else.
+5 marks if you have darkened only the bubble
7. Write your Registration No. in ink, in the box L corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no
provided in the Upper part of the ORS and darken the bubble is darkened.. In all other cases, minus one (–1)
appropriate bubble UNDER each digit of your mark will be awarded
Registration No. with a good quality HB pencil. 19. For each question in Section III, you will be awarded
8. The ORS has a CODE printed on its lower and upper +4 marks if you darkened only the bubble
parts. corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no
9. Make sure the CODE on the ORS is the same as that on bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one (–1)
this booklet and put your signature in ink in box L on mark will be awarded.
20. For each question in Section IV, you will be awarded
the ORS affirming that you have verified this. +6 marks if you darkened all the bubble corresponding
10. IF THE CODES DO NOT MATCH, ASK FOR A CHANGE only to the correct answer. No negative mark will be
OF THE BOOKLET. awarded for an Incorrectly bubbled answer
21. For each question in Section V, you will be awarded +6
C. Question paper format:
marks if you darkened all the bubble corresponding
11. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Part I: Physics:
only to the correct answer. No negative mark will be
Part II: Chemistry, Part III: Maths). Each part has 5
awarded for an Incorrectly bubbled answer
sections.
FILE NO. IIT-572/48 (30/12/2008)

Useful Data
Gas Constant R = 8.314 J K1 mol1 1 Faraday = 96500 Coulomb
= 0.0821 Lit atm K1 mol1 1 calorie = 4.2 Joule
= 1.987  2 Cal K1 mol1 1 amu = 1.66  10–27 kg
Avogadro's Number Na = 6.023  1023 1 eV = 1.6  10–19 J
Planck’s constant h = 6.625  1034 J  s
= 6.625  10–27 erg  s

Atomic No: H = 1, D = 1, Li = 3, Na = 11, K = 19, Rb = 37, Cs = 55, F = 9, Ca = 20, He = 2, O = 8, Au = 79, Ni = 28,


Zn = 30, Cu = 29, Cl = 17, Br = 35, Cr = 24, Mn = 25, Fe = 26, S = 16, P = 15, C = 6, N = 7, Ag = 47.
Atomic Masses: He = 4, Mg = 24, C = 12, O = 16, N = 14, P = 31, Br = 80, Cu = 63.5, Fe = 56, Mn = 55, Pb = 207, Au = 197,
Ag = 108, F = 19, H = 1, Cl = 35.5, Sn = 118.6, Na = 23, D = 2, Cr = 52, K = 39, Ca = 40, Li = 7, Be = 4,
Al = 27, S = 32.1
PHYSICS

PART – I
SECTION – I
Straight Objective Type
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions, numbered 1 to 6 .Each question
has four choices (A),(B),(C) and (D),out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. As shown in the figure, initially both the springs are in normal length . At
, the block is given a rightward velocity 2 m/s. the mass of the block
is (14/3) kg. How much distance does the block cover before it comes to rest
for the first time?
(The spring constant of the left spring is and that of the right spring
is not constant and varies as where x is the compression in the spring)

(A) 2 m (B) 1 m (C) 3 m (D) 4 m

2. Two identical rods of length l and mass m are welded together at right angles
and then suspended from a knifeedge as shown. Angular frequency of small
oscillation of the system in its own plane about the point of suspension is

(A) (B)

(C) (D)
CODE: VSSS
3. A sonic source starts falling under gravity at time towards detector lying
on the ground vertically below it as shown. velocity of sound. If is the
frequency of the source, then the apparent frequency recorded by the detector
corresponding to sound wave emitted at is

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

4. Two parallel straight rails of negligible resistance are l apart. At one end they
are connected with each other by a resistanceless wire as shown in figure. A
uniform magnetic field of induction B exists in the space, normal to the plane
of rails. An isosceles right angled triangle abc, made of a uniform wire of
resistance per unit length slides along rails with constant velocity v. Force
required to pull it, is:

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

5. A particle moves in the x - y plane under the action of a force such that the
value of its linear momentum at time t is:

and . The angle between and at time t will be:


(A) (B) (C) (D)
CODE: VSSS

6. If the width of slit S in Young’s double slit experiment is gradually increased:


(A) Bright fringes become brighter and dark fringes become darker.
(B) Bright fringes become less bright dark fringes become less dark.
(C) Bright fringes become brighter, dark fringes lighter.
(D) Bright fringes become less bright, dark fringes darker.

SECTION – II
Multiple Correct Answer Type
This section contains 3 multiple choice questions, numbered 7 to 9. Each question
has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.

7. A gas in a container A is in thermal equilibrium with another gas of the same


mass in container B. If corresponding pressures and volumes are denoted by
the suffixes A and B, then which of the following statements is / are possible?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)

8. A conductor is made of an isotropic material


(resistivity ) has rectangular cross  section.
Horizontal dimension of the rectangle
decreases linearly from 2x at one end to x at
the other end and vertical dimension increases
from y to 2y as shown in figure. Length of the conductor along the axis is
equal to l. A battery is connected across this conductor. Then:
(A) Resistance of the conductor is equal to
(B) Rate of generation of heat per unit length ismaximum at middle cross 
section.
(C) Drift velocity of conduction electrons is minimum at middle section.
(D) At the ends of the conductor, electric field intensity is same.

9. Y and Z are two partially reflecting thin glass


sheets, a distance l a part in air. White light
falls normally on Y; the light emerging from Z
is analysed by a spectrometer. A dark band is
observed in the spectrum at wavelength . Possible values of l is / are:

(A) (B)
CODE: VSSS

(C) (D)

SECTION – III
Linked Comprehension Type
This section contain 1 paragraph. Based upon paragraph, 3 multiple choice
questions, numbered 10 to 12. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out
of which ONLY ONE is correct

Paragraph for Questions Nos. 10 to 12

A block of mass M is kept in elevator (lift) which starts


moving upward with constant acceleration ‘b’ as shown in
figure. Initially elevator at rest. The block is observed by
two observers A and B for a time interval to .
Observer B is at rest with respect to elevator and observer
A is standing on the ground.

10. The observer A finds that the work done by gravity on the block is
(A) (B) (C) (D)

11. The observer A finds that work done by normal reaction acting on the block is
(A) (B) (C) (D)

12. According to observer B


(A) The work done by gravity on the block is zero
(B) The work done by normal reaction on the block is zero
(C) The work done by pseudo force on the block is zero
(D) All the above are correct.
Section – IV
Subjective /Numerical Type /ICR Model Type Questions
This section contains 2 Subjective /Numerical Type /ICR Model Type Questions
numbered 13 and 14.if your answer is<1.5 then the correct answer is 1 and it can
be marked in ORS Sheet as 000000001.if the answer is 1.5 then the correct
answer is 2, it can be marked in ORS Sheet as 000000002.if your answer is 225
then it can be marked in ORS Sheet as 000000225.

13. A source of sonic oscillations with frequency and a reciver are


located at the same point. At the moment the source starts receding from
CODE: VSSS
the reciver with constant acceleration . Assuming the velocity of
sound to be equal to . The oscillation frequency registered by the
stationary reciver at after the start of motion is …….Hz.

14. A cylindrical rod of length and cross  sectional radius is


placed at a distance 50 r from an infrared point source S of power 1.25 kW as
shown in the figure. The lateral surface of the rod is perfectly insulated from
the surroundings. The crosssection A, absorbs of the incident energy,
has temperature in steady state. The surface B is radiating energy into
space and the wavelength emitted by it with maximum energy density is
. The value of if conductivity varies with temperature as is
(Assume that the rate of flow of heat through the rod is steady)……..
CODE: VSSS

Section – V
Matrix–Match Type
This section contains 2 questions, numbered 15 and 16.
Each question contains statements given in two columns
which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, D) in
Column I have to be matched with statements (p, q, r, s)
in Column II. The answers to these questions have to be
appropriately bubbles as illustrated in the following
example. If the correct matches are A–p,B–q, B–r, C–p, C–
q and D–s, then the correctly bubbled 4 × 4 matrix
should be as follows :

15. A square loop of uniform conducting wire is as shown in figure. A current I


(in amperes) entres the loop from one end and exits the loop from opposite
end as shown in figure. The length of one side of square loop of l metre. The
wire has uniform cross section area and uniform linear mass density. In four
situations of column I, the loop is subjected to four different uniform and
constant magnetic field. Under the conditions of column I, match the
column  I with corresponding results of column  II ( in column  I is a
positive nonzero constant)

Column I Column II


(A) in tesla (p) magnitude of net force on loop is lN
(B) in tesla (q) magnitude of net force on loop is zero
(C) in tesla (r) magnitude of net torque on loop about its
centre is zero
(D) in tesla (s) magnitude of net force on loop is l
CODE: VSSS
16. Match the statements in column  I with the results in columnI I and
indicate your answer by darkening appropriate bubbles in the 4 X 4 matrix
given in OMR.

Column  I Column  II
(A) A thin uniform spherical shell of surface area (p) is independent of
‘S’ has an initial temperature more than its ‘S’
surrounding atmosphere. Then magnitude of
rate of change of its temperature with time
(B) A soap bubble initially in equilibrium is given (q) depends on ‘S’
a cange Q, which distributes uniformly over
its surface. The centre of the bubble is
always fixed. For the duration the bubble
having surface area ‘S’ expands, the
magnitude of electric potential at a fixed
point always lying outside the bubble
(C) A container with open top and filled with (r) remains constant
ideal liquid is placed at rest on a smooth
horizontal table. A small hole of area ‘S’ is
drilled at the bottom of a side wall of
container. The magnitude of force exerted by
escaping liquid on the container
(D) An infinitely long straight current carrying (s) decreases with
wire liesalong the axis of a closed cylindrical time
surface of total surface area ‘S’ in space. As
the magnitude of current in the wire is
continuously increased, the magnitude flux
through the surface of this cylinder
CODE: VSSS
CHEMISTRY
PART II
SECTION – I
Straight Objective Type
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions, numbered 17 to 22 .Each question has four choices
(A),(B),(C) and (D),out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

17. EMF of the cell, Pt(s)|H2(1 atm)|H+(0.1 M)||KCl(aq)|Hg2Cl2(s)|Hg(l) is 0.045 V


at 298 K and the temperature coefficient of the cell is 3.4  10-4 V K-1. The
entropy change of the cell in J K-1 mol-1 is
(A) 65.2 (B) 60 (C) 33.1 (D) 69.2

18. Incorrect statement among the following is


(A) Vapour pressure is not a colligative property.
(B) Vapour pressure does not not depend on the quantity of the liquid taken
and the surface area of the liquid.
(C) Vapour pressure of a liquid always increases with temperature.
(D) Vapour pressure depends only on temperature and not on the nature of the
liquid.
19. In which of the following sets central atom of each molecule is sp 3d hybridized?
(A) IO4−, ICl4−, IF4+ (B) IF5, PCl5, Fe(CO)5
(C) I3−, ClF3, SF4 (D) SO42−, PO43−, XeO4

20. NaCN is sometimes added in the froth floatation process when mineral
contains both ZnS and PbS because
(A) Pb(CN)2 is precipitated while there is no effect on ZnS and hence it can float
with froth.
(B) PbS forms a soluble complex Na2[Pb(CN)4] while ZnS floats with froth.
(C) silicious impurities settle down on the bottom.
(D) ZnS forms a soluble complex Na2[Zn(CN)4] while PbS doesn’t and hence it
floats with froth.

Space for rough work


CODE: VSSS
21. 2-Phenylcycloprop-2-en-1-one is allowed to react with phenyl magnesium
bromide and the reaction mixture is then treated with perchloric acid. The
product formed is
(A) (B)

(C) (D)

22. Following reaction can be effected by

(A) H2/Ni (B) B2H6/THF followed by acidification

(C) Na/alcohol (D) All of these

SECTION – II
Multiple Correct Answer Type
This section contains 3 multiple choice questions, numbered 23 to 25. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.

23. CaCO3 is often added during the extraction of lead from galena. Which of the
following may the probable function(s) of CaCO3?
(A) It removes silica as fusible slag.
(B) It prevents formation of undesired lead silicate.
(C) It removes iron impurity as fusible slag.
(D) It oxidizes PbS to PbO.

Space for rough work


CODE: VSSS
24. One mole of an ideal diatomic gas (Cv = 5 cal) was transformed from initial 25°C
and 1 L to the state at which the temperature is 100°C and volume 10 L. Then
for this process (R = 2 cal mol-1K-1)
(A) H = 525
(B) U = 525

(C) S =

(D) G of the process can not be calculated using given information


25. Which of the following can not be used to produce Grignard’s reagent?

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

SECTION – III
Linked Comprehension Type
This section contain 1 paragraph. Based upon paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions ,numbered 26
to 28. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

Paragraph for Questions Nos. 26 to 28


In monosubstituted benzene derivatives, if the substituent group provides electron
density to the ring by its resonance effect, it is always ortho-para directing. The
arenes astabilize the arenium ion by +I and hyperconjugative effect so are also
activating and ortho-para directing. If the substituted group withdraws electron
density by resonance effect the it is meta directing. In case of disubstituted benzenes,
the strongly activating group dominates over weakly activating or deactivating groups
in deciding the orientation of major product. There is often little substitution between
two groups that are meta to each other due to steric repulsion.

26. Major product of the following reaction is


Space for rough work
CODE: VSSS

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

27. Select the correct statement regarding the reaction

(A) Bromine substitutes the hydrogen meta to both –NO2 and –NO groups as
both are deactivating groups.
(B) Bromine replaces the hydrogen ortho to –NO but para to –NO2 as –NO group
is activating.
(C) Bromine replaces the hydrogen para to –NO but ortho to –NO2 as –NO is a
+R group.
(D)No reaction occurs as Br+ is too weak an electrophile to compete with the
deactivating ability of –NO2 group.

Space for rough work


CODE: VSSS
28. Which of the following compound forms a six membered ring most readily when
treated with anhydrous AlCl3?
(A) (B)

(C) (D)

SECTION – IV
Subjective /Numerical Type /ICR Model Type Questions
This section contains 2 Subjective /Numerical Type /ICR Model Type Questions ,numbered 29 and
30.if your answer is<1.5 then the correct answer is 1 and it can be marked in ORS Sheet as
000000001.if the answer is 1.5 then the correct answer is 2, it can be marked in ORS Sheet as
000000002.if your answer is 225 then it can be marked in ORS Sheet as 000000225.

29. What is the osmotic pressure of a solution(in Torr) made by mixing 20 mL of


0.01 M BaCl2 and 30 mL of 0.01 M NaF at 27°C? Ksp of BaF2 is 2.4  10−5, R =
0.082 L atm mol−1 K−1, 1 atm = 760 Torr.

30. Linus Pauling wanted to determine the electron gain enthalpy (electron affinity)
of an unknown element X. He took one mole of atoms of X and found that on
absorption of 410 kJ of energy half of X-atoms transfer one electron to the
other half. To convert all the resulting X− ions to X+ ions, an additional energy
of 735 kJ was required. What was the electron gain enthalpy of X as obtained
by Linus Pauling? Report your answer in kJ mol-1

SECTION – V
Space for rough work
CODE: VSSS
Matrix–Match Type
This section contains 2 questions, numbered 31 and 32. Each
question contains statements given in two column which have to be
matched. Statements (A, B, C, D) in Column I have to be matched
with statements (p, q, r, s) in Column II. The answers to these
questions have to be appropriately bubbles as illustrated in the
following example.
If the correct matches are A–p,B–q, B–r, C–p, C–q and D–s, then the
correctly bubbled 4 × 4 matrix should be as follows :
31. Match the particulars given in column I with appropriate chemical reagents in
column II.
Column I Column II
(A) Al3+, Cu2+ and Fe3+ can be distinguished by (p) KI solution

(B) PbS, CuS and CdS dissolve in (q) Aqeous NH3

(C) Pb2+ gives yellow precipitate with (r) 50 % HNO3 solution

(D) Bi3+ gives black precipitate with (s) K2CrO4 solution

32. Match the reactions mentioned in column I with the nature of the
reaction/characteristic(s) of the products mentioned in column II.
Column I Column II
(A) H3PO3 (p) One of the products is a reducing agent

(B) PCl3 + H2O (q) One of the products is tribasic acid and non-
reducing

(C) NO2 + H2O (r) Dehydration

(D) HNO3 + P4O10 (s) At least one of the products contains central
atom in +5 oxidation state

MATHEMATICS

Space for rough work


CODE: VSSS
PART – III
SECTION – I
Straight Objective Type
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions, numbered 33 to 38 .Each question
has four choices (A),(B),(C) and (D),out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

33. (x 1)2 + (y  3)2 = 9 and (x  7)2 + (y + 5)2 = 25 are two circles then the area of the
hexagon formed by the points of contact of direct common tangents and the two
centres is
A) 25 sq.units B) 50 sq.units
C) 45 sq.units D) 48 sq.units

34. If the odd against an event E are 4 : 7 and the odds in favour of another event F
independent of E are 6 : 7. Then the probability that exactly one of them occurs
if it is given that at least one of them occurred is

A) B) C) D)

35. If , then the value of ‘n’ when nC0 + 2.nC1 + 3.nC2 + …. + (n+1)nCn =

1280, is
A) 7 B) 8 C) 9 D) 10

36. Number of ways of giving away 10 different gifts to 5 students so that each get at
least one and a particular student gets at least 5 gifts is
A) 5040 B) 60480
C) 65520 D) 10080

Space for rough work


CODE: VSSS

37. Suppose , then is equal to

A) B)

C) D)

38. If a, b, c are distinct positive real numbers in H.P., but not in G.P., the value of
the expression is equal to
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4

SECTION – II
Multiple Correct Answer Type
This section contains 3 multiple choice questions ,numbered 39 to 41. Each question
has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.

39) Which of the following statements is/are TRUE ?

A) If f has domain [0, ) and has no horizontal asymptotes then or

B) If f is continuous on [1, 1] and f(1) = 4 and f(1) = 3, then there exist a


number r such that |r| < 1 and f(r) = .

C) does not exist

D) For all values of m  R the line ymx + m1 = 0 cuts the circle
x2 + y2  2x 2y + 1 = 0 orthogonally.

Space for rough work


CODE: VSSS
40) If z1 and z2 are two complex numbers satisfying then

A) B) C) D)

41) Let and then

A) 3Q = 4P B) 3P = 4Q C) P + 2Q = 5 D) 2(Q + P) = 7

SECTION – III
Linked Comprehension Type
This section contains 1 paragraph. Based upon paragraph, 3 multiple choice
questions ,numbered 42 to 44. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out
of which ONLY ONE is correct

Paragraph for Questions Nos. 42 to 44


Consider three vectors , and and let be a unit
vector, then

42) are

A) linearly dependent
B) can form the sides of a possible triangle

C) such that the vector is orthogonal to

D) such that each one of these can be expressed as a linear combination of other
two

43) If , then (p + q + r) equal to


A) 8 B) 2 C) 2 D) 4

44) The magnitude of the vector is


A) 4 B) 8 C) 18 D) 2

Space for rough work


CODE: VSSS

SECTION – IV
Subjective /Numerical Type /ICR Model Type Questions
This section contains 2 Subjective /Numerical Type /ICR Model Type Questions,
numbered 45 and 46.if your answer is<1.5 then the correct answer is 1 and it can be
marked in ORS Sheet as 000000001.if the answer is 1.5 then the correct answer is
2, it can be marked in ORS Sheet as 000000002.if your answer is 225 then it can be
marked in ORS Sheet as 000000225.

45. If are nonzero numbers such that ‘r’ and ‘s’ are roots of
and are the roots of , then find the value of .

46. Let

Then find the value of .

SECTION – V
Matrix–Match Type
This section contains 2 questions, numbered 47 and 48.
Each question contains statements given in two column
which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, D) in
Column I have to be matched with statements (p, q, r, s)
in Column II. The answers to these questions have to be
appropriately bubbles as illustrated in the following
example.
If the correct matches are A–p,B–q,B–r,C–p,C–q and D–s,
then the correctly bubbled 4 × 4 matrix should be as
follows :

Space for rough work


CODE: VSSS

47)
If and ,  [0, 2]. The quantity f()  g()  
in the interval given in column-I, match with column-II.
Column-I Column-II
A) p) negative

B) q) positive

C) r) non-negative

D) s) non-positive

48) Consider the following four pair of lines in column-I and match them with
one or more entries in column-II
Column-I Column-II
A) L1 : x = 1 + t, y = t, z = 2  5t p) non-coplanar lines
L2 :
B) q) lines lie in a unique plane
L1 :

L2 :

C) L1 : x = 6t, y = 1 + 9t, z = 3t r) infinite planes containing


L2 : x = 1 + 2s, y = 4  3s, z = s both the lines
D) s) lines are not intersecting
L1 :

L2 :

Space for rough work


CODE: VSSS

PAPER SETTER: HYD – CO


Maths Dr.Saini 9885206477
Physics Mr. Siva Sanker 9000822524
Chemistry Mr. Lawrence 9703804794

Space for rough work

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