FILE NO. IIT-777/66 (31/01/09) CODE  VSSS.

IIT JEE – 2009

NARAYANA GRANDTEST-10
PAPER – II
Time: 3 hours Max. Marks: 207
DATE: 02– 02 – 09
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this
purpose.

INSTRUCTIONS 12. Section I contains 6 multiple choices questions. Each

question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which
A. General:
only one is correct.
1. This booklet is your Question Paper containing 48
13. Section II contains 3multiple choice questions. Each
questions. The booklet has ____ pages .
question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which
one or more answer/s is/ are correct.
2. The question paper CODE is printed on the right hand
14. Section III contains 1 paragraph based upon
top corner of this booklet.
paragraph 3 multiple choice questions. Each question
3. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules,
has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which only one
calculators, cellular phones, pagers, and electronic
is correct.
gadgets in any form are not allowed to be carried inside
the examination hall. 15. Section IV contains 2 subjective or numerical or
4. The answer sheet, a machine–readable Objective ICR model type questions
Response Sheet (ORS), is provided separately. 16. Section V contains 2 questions .each question contains
5. DO NOT TAMPER WITH / MUTILATE THE ORS OR THE statements given in 2 columns .Statement in the
BOOKLET. Column I have to be matched with the statement/s in
the Column II. The answers to these questions have to
B. Filling the ORS be appropriately bubbled in the ORS as per the
6. On the lower part of the ORS, write in ink, your instructions given at the beginning of the section.
Registration Number in box L ,Test No. in box L ,Date
D. Marking Scheme:
in box L ,Your Name in box L ,Signature of the 17. For each questions in Section I, you will be awarded 3
marks if you have darkened only the bubble
candidate in box L ,Signature of Invigilator with name corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no
bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one (–1)
in box L and Name of the Center in L .Do not write mark will be awarded.
18. For each question in Section II, you will be awarded
these anywhere else.
+5 marks if you have darkened only the bubble
7. Write your Registration No. in ink, in the box L corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no
provided in the Upper part of the ORS and darken the bubble is darkened.. In all other cases, minus one (–1)
appropriate bubble UNDER each digit of your mark will be awarded
Registration No. with a good quality HB pencil. 19. For each question in Section III, you will be awarded
8. The ORS has a CODE printed on its lower and upper +4 marks if you darkened only the bubble
parts. corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no
9. Make sure the CODE on the ORS is the same as that on bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one (–1)
this booklet and put your signature in ink in box L on mark will be awarded.
20. For each question in Section IV, you will be awarded
the ORS affirming that you have verified this. +6 marks if you darkened all the bubble corresponding
10. IF THE CODES DO NOT MATCH, ASK FOR A CHANGE only to the correct answer. No negative mark will be
OF THE BOOKLET. awarded for an Incorrectly bubbled answer
21. For each question in Section V, you will be awarded +6
C. Question paper format:
marks if you darkened all the bubble corresponding
11. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Part I: Physics:
only to the correct answer. No negative mark will be
Part II: Chemistry, Part III: Maths). Each part has 5
awarded for an Incorrectly bubbled answer
sections.
 Useful Data
Gas Constant R = 8.314 J K1 mol1 1 Faraday = 96500 Coulomb
= 0.0821 Lit atm K1 mol1 1 calorie = 4.2 Joule
= 1.987  2 Cal K1 mol1 1 amu = 1.66  10–27 kg
Avogadro's Number Na = 6.023  1023 1 eV = 1.6  10–19 J
Planck’s constant h = 6.625  1034 J  s
= 6.625  10–27 erg  s

Atomic No: H = 1, D = 1, Li = 3, Na = 11, K = 19, Rb = 37, Cs = 55, F = 9, Ca = 20, He = 2, O = 8, Au = 79, Ni = 28,

Zn = 30, Cu = 29, Cl = 17, Br = 35, Cr = 24, Mn = 25, Fe = 26, S = 16, P = 15, C = 6, N = 7, Ag = 47.
Atomic Masses: He = 4, Mg = 24, C = 12, O = 16, N = 14, P = 31, Br = 80, Cu = 63.5, Fe = 56, Mn = 55, Pb = 207, Au = 197,
Ag = 108, F = 19, H = 1, Cl = 35.5, Sn = 118.6, Na = 23, D = 2, Cr = 52, K = 39, Ca = 40, Li = 7, Be = 4,
Al = 27, S = 32.1
 PHYSICS
PART – I
SECTION – I
Straight Objective Type
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions, numbered 1 to 6 .Each question has four choices (A),(B),
(C) and (D),out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. A circuit element is placed in a closed box. At time , a constant current

generator supplying a current of 1 amp is connected across the box. Potential
difference across the box varies according to graph shown in figure. The element in
the box is:
(A) Resistance of
(B) A battery of emf 6V.
(C) An inductance of 2H.
(D) A capacitance of 0.5 F.

2. Circuit shown in figure is a simple ohm  meter, in which G is a galvanometer, is

known resistance and R is the resistance which is to be measured. If A and B are
short circuited by a resistancesless wire, galvanometer gives full scale deflection.
Then to read the resistance R directly from galvanometer, ohm  meter scale would
look like:

(A) (B)

Space for rough work

 (C) (D)

3. In the adjacent circuit, ammeter reads 0.5 A. Bulbs and are brightly lit, but
is not lit. What is the reason for not being lit?
(A) The ammeter is faulty. (B) The filament of is broken.
(C) Resistance of is much lower than that of .
(D) None of these

4. Which one of the sketches below correctly compares the distribution of radiated
energy of the ‘grey’ body with that of a ‘black’ body at the same temperature? (A
‘grey’ body is one that has an emissivity which has is less than unity and which is
independent of wavelength.)

Space for rough work

5. A battery is connected to a potentiometer and a balance point is obtained at 84 cm
along the wire. When its terminals are connected by resistor, the balance point
changes to 70 cm.
The new position of the balance point when the resistor is changed by
resistor
(A) 69.6 cm (B) 67.2 cm (C) 67.6 cm (D) 68.6 cm

6. Four uniform wires of the same material are stretched by the same force. The
dimensions of wire are as given below. The one which has the minimum elongation
has:
(A) radius 3mm, length 3m (B) radius 0.5 mm, length 0.5 m
(C) radius 2 mm, length 2 m (D) radius 3 mm, length 2 m

SECTION – II
Multiple Correct Answer Type
This section contains 3 multiple choice questions, numbered 7 to 9. Each question has 4
choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.

7. Suppose frequency of emitted photon is when electron of a stationary hydrogen

atom jumps from a higher state m to a lower state n. If the atom is moving with a
velocity and emits a photon of frequency f during the same transition, then
which of the following statements are possible ?
(A) f may be equal to (B) f may be greater than .
(C) f may be less than (D) f cannot be equal to

Space for rough work

8. A fish, F in the pond is at a depth of 0.8 m from water surface and is moving
vertically upwards with velocity . At the same instant a bird B is at a height of 6
m from water surface and is moving downwards with velocity . At this instant
both are on the same vertical line as shown in the figure. Which of the following
statements is/are correct?
(A) Height of B, observed by F
(form itself) is equal to 5.30 m
(B) Depth of F, observed by B(from itself)
is equal to 6.60 m
(C) Height of B, observed by F (From itself
Is equal to 8.80m
(D) None of these.

9. The system shown in figure is released from rest at . Block A hits the pulley at
and B hits the vertical wall at . If pulley is light and friction is absent then:
(Blocks A and B are connected with a mass less thread)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D) At an instant kinetic energy of the system is
equal to loss of potential energy of the block B.

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 SECTION – III
Linked Comprehension Type
This section contain 1 paragraph. Based upon paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions, numbered 10 to 12.
Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct

PARAGRAPH FOR Q.NO’S 10 TO 12

A concave mirror of radius of curvature 20 cm is shown in the figure. A circular

disc of diameter 1 cm is placed on the principle axis of mirror with its plane
perpendicular to the principal axis at a distance 15 cm from the pole of the mirror.
The radius of disc starts increasing according to the law r=(0.5+0.1 t) cm/sec
where t is time is second. (Neglect abberations)

10. The image formed by the mirror will be in the shape of a:

(A) Circular disc

(B) Elliptical disc with major axis horizontal
(C) Elliptical disc with major axis vertical
(D) Distorted disc

11. In the above question, the area of image of the disc at t = 1 second is:
(A) ` (B) (C) (D) none of these

12. What will be the rate at which the radius of image will be changing
(A) 0.2 cm/sec increasing (B) 0.2 cm/sec decreasing
(C ) 0.4 cm/sec increasing (D) 0.4 cm/sec decreasing

Space for rough work

 SECTION – IV
Subjective /Numerical Type /ICR Model Type Questions
This section contains 2 Subjective /Numerical Type /ICR Model Type Questions numbered 13 and 14.if
your answer is<1.5 then the correct answer is 1 and it can be marked in ORS Sheet as 000000001.if the
answer is 1.5 then the correct answer is 2, it can be marked in ORS Sheet as 000000002.if your answer is
225 then it can be marked in ORS Sheet as 000000225.
13. A 20 gm bullet is fired into a 4 kg wooden block and becomes embedded in it.
Knowing that the block and bullet then move up the smooth long inclined (fixed) for
12 sec before they come to a stop.

The magnitude of the initial velocity of the bullet is …..m/sec

14. A box used to keep the cans of cold drinks has a total wall area (including the lid)
and wall thickness 2 cm. it is filled with ice water and cans of cold drink at
. The temperature of the outside wall is . The ice melts in 24 hrs is………gm.
(nearly) (Given: Thermal conductivity of the box is 0.01 W/mK and latent heat of
fusion of ice is )

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 SECTION – V
Matrix–Match Type
This section contains 2 questions, numbered 15 and 16. Each
question contains statements given in two columns which have to be
matched. Statements (A, B, C, D) in Column I have to be matched
with statements (p, q, r, s) in Column II. The answers to these
questions have to be appropriately bubbles as illustrated in the
following example. If the correct matches are A–p,B–q, B–r, C–p, C–q
and D–s, then the correctly bubbled 4 × 4 matrix should be as
follows :

15. Match the statements in column  I with the results in column  II and indicate
your answer by darkening appropriate bubbles in the 4 X 4 matrix given in OMR.

Column  I Column – II
(A) A variable resistor is connected (p) first increases for some time and
across a non- ideal cell. As then decreases.
the resistance of the variable
resistor is continuously
increases from zero to a very
large value, the electric power
consumed by the variable
resistor
(B) A circular ring lies in space (q) first decreases for some time
having uniform and constant and then increases.
magnetic field. Initially the
direction of magnetic field is
parallel to plane of the ring.
Keeping the centre of ring fixed,
the ring is rotated by
about one of its diameter with
constant angular speed. For the
duration the ring rotates, the
magnitude of induced emf in the
ring.
(C) A thin rod of length 1 cm lies (r) is always constant
along principal axis of a convex
lens of focal length 5cm. One end
of rod is at a distance 10 cm
from optical centre of the lens.
The convex lens is moved
(without rotation) perpendicular

Space for rough work

 to initial principal axis by 5 mm
and ought back to its initial
position. The length of
the image of the rod
(D) A bulb (of negligible inductance) (s) increases or may increase
and a capacitor in series are over some time interval.
connected across an ideal ac
source of constant peak voltage
and variable frequency. As
frequency of ac source is
continuously increased, the
brightness of bulb.

16. In each situation of columnI a mass distribution is given and information

regarding x and y coordinate of centre of mass is given in column II. match the
figures in columnI with corresponding information of centre of mass in column II.

Column I Column  II.

(A) An equilateral triangular wire frame (p)

is made using three thin uniform rods
of mass per unit lengths , and
as shown

(B) A square frame is made using four (q)

thin uniform rods of mass per unit
length lengths as
shown.

(C) A circular wire frame is made of (r)

two uniform semicircular wires
of same radius and mass per unit
length as shown.

(D) A circular wire frame is made of (s)

four uniform quarter circular
wires of same radius and mass per
unit length as shown.

CHEMISTRY

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 PART – II
SECTION – I
Straight Objective Type
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions, numbered 17 to 22 .Each question has four choices (A),
(B),(C) and (D),out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

17. Which of the following undergoes decarboxylation most readily on being heated with
soda lime?
(A) CH3COOH (B) CCl3COOH
(C) CF3COOH (D) C6H5COOH

18. Intense blue precipitate of Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3 and KOH solution when mixed gives
(A) Turnbull’s blue (B) soluble Prussian blue
(C) deep red colouration (D) reddish-brown precipitate

19. A sample of water gas has a composition by volume of 50% H 2, 45 % CO and 5 %

CO2. The volume at STP of water gas which on treatment with excess steam will
produce 50 L of H2 is
(A) 42.63 L (B) 52.63 L
(C) 62.63 L (D) 72.63 L

20. Consider the three planes (P1, P2 and P3) in FCC unit cell of a metal.

P1 P2 P3
Choose the correct statement from the following
(A) P3 contains only tetrahedral voids
(B) P2 contains both tetrahedral and octahedral voids

Space for rough work

 (C) P1 contains both tetrahedral and octahedral voids
(D) P3 contains both tetrahedral and octahedral voids

21. The geometry of [NiCl4]2- and [NiCl2(PPh3)2] respectively are

(A) both square planar (B) both tetrahedral
(C) square planar and tetrahedral (D) tetrahedral and square planar

22. Tollen’s reagent can be used to distinguish between

(A) (B)

(C) Formic acid and Acetaldehyde (D) All

SECTION – II
Multiple Correct Answer Type
This section contains 3 multiple choice questions, numbered 23 to 25. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B),
(C) and (D), out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.

23. Which of the following is/are correct statement(s)?

(A) Spontaneous adsorption of gases on solid surface is an exothermic process as
entropy decreases during adsorption.
(B) Formation of micelle takes place when the temperature is below Kraft
temperature and the concentration above critical micelle concentration (CMC).
(C) A colloid of Fe(OH)3 is prepared by adding a little excess of NaOH in FeCl3
solution the particles of this sol will move towards cathode during
electrophoresis.
(D) Coagulation value of Fe3+ is more than Ba2+ or Na+

24. Sodium thiosulphate is prepared by

Space for rough work

 (A) boiling Na2SO3 solution with elemental sulphur in alkaline medium
(B) boiling Na2SO3 solution with elemental sulphur in acidic medium
(C) oxidation of Na2S3 with air
(D) heating sulphur with NaOH

25. RCOCl undergoes nucleophilic substitution faster than RCl because

(A) of the tendency of O of C=O to attract electrons making the carbon more
electrophilic.
(B) the transition state of the acid derivative leading to the tetrahedral intermediate
is less sterically hindered than the transition state in the S N2 reaction of RCl.
(C) a sigma bond must be broken to form the alkyl transition state, and a weaker 
bond is broken in the acyl case
(D) chlorine in acyl halide is resonance stabilized while no such stabilization is in
alkyl halide.

SECTION – III
Linked Comprehension Type
This section contain 1 paragraph. Based upon paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions ,numbered 26 to 28 .
Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

Paragraph for Questions Nos. 26 to 28

The decomposition of diacetone alcohol to acetone in aqueous solution is catalyzed by
hydroxyl ions, with the rate proportional to the concentration of the alcohol and that of
the base. Since the concentration of the base does not change within any one experiment,
however, the rate equation reduces to one of first order with respect to the alcohol. But
the rate constant obtained for various concentration of the base are not identical, as may
be seen from the table. To obtain from these the true second order velocity constant, the
k’s must be divided by the hydroxyl ion concentration. When this is done excellent k 2
values result as column 3 indicate.

C k k2
Con. of

Space for rough work

 NaOH(M) min−1 (M-1min-1)
0.0205 0.0455 2.22
0.0292 0.0651 2.23
0.0518 0.1160 2.24
0.0710 0.1576 2.22
0.1045 0.2309 2.21

26. Which of k and k2 is dependent of concentration?

(A) only k2 (B) only k (C) both k2 and k (D) neither k2 nor k

27. By what factor does the rate of reaction of diacetone alcohol in aqueous solution
change if pOH is decreased by 2 units other things remaining the same?
(A) decreases 100 times (B) increases 100 times
(C) increases 2 times (D) decreases 2 times

28. For the reaction A + B  C; r = k[A][B] with [A]0 = 0.001M and [B]0 = 10 M, the time
in which the concentration of A becomes 0.0005 M will be nearly

(A) (B) (C) (D)

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 SECTION – IV
Subjective /Numerical Type /ICR Model Type Questions
This section contains 2 Subjective /Numerical Type /ICR Model Type Questions ,numbered 29 and 30.if
your answer is<1.5 then the correct answer is 1 and it can be marked in ORS Sheet as 000000001.if the
answer is 1.5 then the correct answer is 2, it can be marked in ORS Sheet as 000000002.if your answer
is 225 then it can be marked in ORS Sheet as 000000225.

29. Identify compounds A to G and enter the sum of  bonds in A to G in the

response sheet.

A hydrocarbon A of molecular formula C6H12 does not react with bromine water but
reacts with bromine in presence of sunlight, forming compound B. Compound B on
treatment with alcoholic KOH gives C which on ozonolysis gives D as the only
organic product. Compound D reduces ammoniacal silver nitrate solution and gives
E. E gives iodoform test and produces compound F which on acidification followed
by heating with P4O10 forms a cyclic anhydride G.

30. One of the earliest methods used in the determination of formulae of the complexes
was precipitation reactions. Alfred Werner proposed his theory mainly on the basis
of simple precipitation and conductivity measurements. There are three complexes
with the formula CrCl3.6H2O. Complex A is incapable of showing geometrical
isomerism while complex B shows geometrical isomerism. Complex C too is
incapable of showing any kind of stereoisomerism and has a molar conductivity less
than A but more than B. If a solution has 1 mol of A, 3 mol of B and and 1.5 mol of
C is treated with excess of silver nitrate solution, find the number of moles of AgCl
precipitated from each complex. If the number of moles of AgCl obtained from
complex A, B and C respectively from the solution is x, y and z report your answer
as xyz.

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 SECTION – V
Matrix–Match Type
This section contains 2 questions, numbered 31 and 32. Each
question contains statements given in two column which have to be
matched. Statements (A, B, C, D) in Column I have to be matched
with statements (p, q, r, s) in Column II. The answers to these
questions have to be appropriately bubbles as illustrated in the
following example.
If the correct matches are A–p,B–q, B–r, C–p, C–q and D–s, then the
correctly bubbled 4 × 4 matrix should be as follows :

31. Match the reactions in column I with the nature of reactions in column II
Column I Column II
(A) Sb3+ SbO+ (p) Acidification
(B) CrO42- Cr2O72- (q) Hydrolysis
(C) B4O72- B(OH)3 (r) dimerization
(D) XeF4 Xe + XeO3 (s) Disproportionation

32. Match the Column I with column II

Column I Column II
(A) (p) Diastereomer

(B) (q) Racemic mixture

(C) (r) Optically active

(D) (s) CO2 gas is evolved

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 MATHEMATICS

PART – III
SECTION – I
Straight Objective Type
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions, numbered 33 to 38 .Each question has four choices (A),
(B),(C) and (D),out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

33. Number of divisors of the number

is
(A) 6009 (B) 4016 (C) 8016 (D) 6012

34. Let then are respectively

(A) (B) (C) (D)

35. Let by observing orthogonally among the columns vectors of A one

may obtain the inverse of A as

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

36. The number of rational terms in the expansion of is

(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 0

37. There are ‘n’ kinds of fruits. There are at least r fruits in each kind. ‘r’ persons are to
be given one fruits each. Then the number of ways of giving the fruits is
(A) nr (B) rn (C) rr (D) npr or rpn

Space for rough work

38. Let f(x) = cos2x + cos22x + cos23x. Number of values of x  [0, 2] for which f(x) equals
the smallest +ve integer is
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6

SECTION – II
Multiple Correct Answer Type
This section contains 3 multiple choice questions ,numbered 39 to 41. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B),
(C) and (D), out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.

39. The function

(A) is monotonic (B) has two critical points
(C) has one inflection point (D) has the value equal to

40. The first term of a geometric progression is 6 and the sum of the first n terms is

and the sum of reciprocals of the same number of terms is . Then which of the

following is Correct.
(A) The sequence is decreasing (B) The value of n is 8
(C) Sum of the first two terms is 9 (D) The sum to infinite number of terms is 12.

41. Which of the following will be an impossible condition for the existence of a triangle
with vertices A, B and C?

(A) Right angle and

(B)

(C) and triangle is isosceles.

(D) Right triangle and

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 SECTION – III
Linked Comprehension Type
This section contains 1 paragraph. Based upon paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions ,numbered 42 to 44.
Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct

Paragraph for Questions Nos. 15 to 17

Five digit numbers are formed in all possible ways using the digits 0, 1, 2, 3, 5, 6
without repetition. If one such number is selected at random, then

42. The probability that it is divisible by 6, is

A) B) C) D)

43. The probability that it is divisible by 5, but not divisible by 4 is

A) B) C) D)

44. The probability that it is divisible by 4 given that it is divisible by 6 is

A) B) C) D)

SECTION – IV
Subjective /Numerical Type /ICR Model Type Questions
This section contains 2 Subjective /Numerical Type /ICR Model Type Questions, numbered 45 and 46.if
your answer is<1.5 then the correct answer is 1 and it can be marked in ORS Sheet as 000000001.if the
answer is 1.5 then the correct answer is 2, it can be marked in ORS Sheet as 000000002.if your answer is
225 then it can be marked in ORS Sheet as 000000225.

45. If the polynomial is divided by another polynomial

the remainder comes out to be . Then find the value of .

46. If the coefficient of in the expansion

is N, then find the value of .

Space for rough work

 SECTION – V
Matrix–Match Type
This section contains 2 questions, numbered 47 and 48. Each
question contains statements given in two column which have to be
matched. Statements (A, B, C, D) in Column I have to be matched
with statements (p, q, r, s) in Column II. The answers to these
questions have to be appropriately bubbles as illustrated in the
following example.
If the correct matches are A–p,B–q,B–r,C–p,C–q and D–s, then the
correctly bubbled 4 × 4 matrix should be as follows :

47. Column I Column II

(A) The equation of all possible curves which satisfy the differential (P) 4xy+14=0
equation and passing through (1,1)
(B) Members of the family of lines and satisfying (Q) y=2x
is
(C) If the area bounded by the line and the curve (R) 2y=x+1
is , then equation of lines
(D) The equation of straight line passing through the point of (S) y=x+2
Intersection of family of lines
Which is at a maximum distance from the point is

48. Column  I Column  II

(A) (P) periodic

(B) (Q) manyone

(C) (R) oneone

(D) (S) odd

PAPER SETTER: HYD – CO

Maths Dr.Saini 9885206477
Physics Mr. Siva Sanker 9000822524
Chemistry Mr. Lawrence 9703804794

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