09-06-2024

9610ZMD801235240003 MD

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

1) The frequency of vibration of a string is given by:

Here p is the number of segments in which the string is divided, F is the tension in
the string and is its length. The dimensional formula for m is:

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

2) If force (F), acceleration (A) and time (T) are taken as the fundamental units, the dimensional
formula for length will be :-

(1) [F°AT2]
(2) [FA°T2]
(3) [FA2T°]
(4) [FAT]

3) Which of the following units denote the dimensions , Where Q denotes the electric charge :

(1) Weber (Wb)

(2)

(3) Henry (H)

(4)

4) For the pitch of a screw 0.1 cm and 200 divisions on circular scale. The least count will be :-

(1) 0.5 mm
(2) 0.05 mm
(3) 0.005 mm
(4) 0.0005 mm

5) The dimensions of mutual inductance (M) are :

(1) [MLT–2A2]
(2) [M2L2T–2A2]
(3) [ML2T–2A–2]
(4) [M2LT–2A–2]

6) The percentage error in the measurement of g is :

{ Given data → g =
Where L = (10 ± 0.1) cm, T = (100 ± 1) sec}

(1) 2%
(2) 5%
(3) 3%
(4) 7%

7) If momentum (P), area (A) and time are taken to be fundamental quantities then force has
dimensional formula :-

(1) [PAT]
0
(2) [PA T–1]
0
(3) [P A1T–1]
(4) [PAT–2]

8) The force F acting on the particle at a time t is given by F = at2 + , where a, b and c are
constants. Then dimensions of ac2/b is :-

(1) [MLT–1]
(2) [LT–1]
(3) [L]
(4) [T–1]

9) A screw gauge has a screw having 2 threads in 1 mm. The circular scale has 50 divisions. Find the
diameter of wire, if the main scale shows 6th division and the vernier reads 46.

(1) 6.46 mm
(2) 3.46 mm
(3) 6.54 mm
(4) 3.04 mm

10) A particle moves in a straight line for 20 seconds with velocity 3m/s and then moves with
velocity 4 m/s for another 20 seconds and finally moves with velocity 5 m/s for next 20 seconds.
What is the average velocity of the particle ?

(1) 3 m/s
(2) 4 m/s
(3) 5 m/s
(4) None

11) A car moves for half of its time at 80 km/h and for rest half of time at 10 km/h. Total distance
covered is 60 km. What is the average speed of the car-

(1) 60 km/h
(2) 45 km/h
(3) 120 km/h
(4) 180 km/h

12) A particle moves in east with velocity of 15 m/s for 2 sec. then moves northward with 5 m/s for 8
sec, then average velocity of the particle is :-

(1) 1 m/s
(2) 5 m/s
(3) 7 m/s
(4) 10 m/s

13) An aeroplane moving horizontally at a speed of 200 m/s and at a height of 8.0 × 103 m is to
drop a bomb on a target. At what horizontal distance from the target should the bomb be released :-

(1) 7.234 km
(2) 8.081 km
(3) 8.714 km
(4) 9.124 km

14) During a projectile motion if the maximum height equals to the horizontal range, then the angle
of projection with the horizontal is :-

(1) tan–1(4)
(2) tan–1(1)
(3) tan–1(3)
(4) tan–1(2)

15) Suppose that a man jumps off a building 202 m high onto cushions having a total thickness of
2m. If the cushions are crushed to a thickness of 0.5 m, what is the man's acceleration as he slows
down ?

(1) 10 m/s2

(2)
m/s2
(3) 50 m/s2
(4) 20 m/s2

16) Assertion (A) :- The horizontal component of the velocity of an oblique projectile remains
unchanged during the flight of the projectile.
Reason (R) :- The vertical component of the velocity of an oblique projectile is zero at the highest
point.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

17)

The reading of the ammeter as per figure shown is :-

(1)
A

(2)
A

(3)
A
(4) 2A
18) Equivalent resistance between the points A and B (in Ω ) :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19) Find the equivalent resistance between A and B:-

(1) (200/17) R
(2) (18/7) R
(3) (216/35) R
(4) None

20) Two unknown resistances X and Y are connected to left and right gaps of a meter-bridge and the
balancing point is obtained at 80 cm from left. When a 10Ω resistance is connected in parallel to X,
the balancing point is 50 cm from left, the values of X and Y respectively are :-

(1) 40Ω, 9Ω
(2) 30Ω, 7.5Ω
(3) 20Ω, 6Ω
(4) 10Ω, 3Ω

21) An infinite sequence of resistors is shown in the figure. The equivalent resistance between A and
B will be, when R1 = 1 ohm and
R2 = 2 ohm :

(1) Infinity
(2) 1 Ω
(3) 2 Ω
(4) 1.5 Ω
22) The figure below shows a Wheatstone bridge circuit. Which of the following correctly shows the

currents I1, I2 and I3 in the correct decreasing order of magnitude ?

(1) I1, I2, I3

(2) I2, I3, I1
(3) I2, I1, I3
(4) I3, I2, I1

23) If the galvanometer G does not show any deflection in the circuit shown, the value of R is given

by :

(1) 50 Ω
(2) 100 Ω
(3) 400 Ω
(4) 200 Ω

24) If length and radius of a cylindrical conductor is doubled then its resistivity becomes -

(1) half
(2) double
(3) unchanged
(4) four times

25)
Find power produced in 2Ω resistor :

(1) 4W
(2) 16W
(3) 8W
(4) 24W

26) The temperature coefficient of resistance of a wire is 0.00125 per degree celcius. At 300 K its
resistance is 1 ohm. The resistance of the wire will be 2 ohms at a temperature :–

(1) 1154 K
(2) 1127 K
(3) 600 K
(4) 1400 K

27) A current flows in a wire of circular cross-section with the free electrons travelling with a mean
drift velocity . If an equal current flows in a wire of twice the radius, new mean drift velocity is:-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) none of these

28)

A bulb of rating P watt, V volt is connected across an input supply of volt. The power consumed in
the bulb will be

(1) P

(2)

(3)

(4) 2P

29)

If a wire of resistivity is stretched to double its length. The new resistivity will be

(1)
(2)
(3)

(4)

30)

The potential of point A will be

(1) + 10 V
(2) + 5 V
(3) - 5 V
(4) + 2 V

31) The area of cross-section of cylindrical wire uniformly increases as shown. When steady current

flows in the wire then in the direction of current :

(1) Potential decreases

(2) Electric field intensity decreases
(3) Drift speed decreases
(4) All of these

32) An electric cell of e.m.f. E is connected across a copper wire of diameter d and length ℓ. The
drift velocity of electrons in the wires is vd. If the length of the wire is changed to 2ℓ, the new drift
velocity of electrons in the copper wire will be :-

(1) vd
(2) 2vd
(3) vd/2
(4) vd/4

33) An galvanometer whose resistance is 180Ω gives full scale deflection when current is 2 mA. The
shunt required to convert it into an ammeter of range 20mA (in ohms) is :-

(1) 18
(2) 20
(3) 0.1
(4) 10

34) Two heaters takes 10 minutes and 20 minutes time to heat same amount of water. If heaters are
connected in parallel then what would be the time required to heat same amount of water :-

(1) 30 minutes

(2)
minutes
(3) 40 minutes
(4) 15 minutes

35) An infinite sequence of resistance is shown in the figure. The resultant resistance between A and

B will be, when R1 = 1 ohm and R2 = 2 ohm :-

(1) Infinity
(2) 1Ω
(3) 2Ω
(4) 1.5 Ω

SECTION-B

1) A new system of units is proposed in which unit of mass is α kg, unit of length is β m and unit of
time is γ s. What will be value of 5J in this new system :

(1) 5αβ2γ–2
(2) 5α–1β–2γ2
(3) 5α–2β–1γ–2
(4) 5α–1β2γ2

2) If x = 12.0 ± 0.6 and y = 5.0 ± 0.2, let P = xy, D = , R = x + y and S = x – y.

The correct order of percentage error is

(1) R < P = D < S

(2) R < S < P < D
(3) R < S < P = D
(4) P = D < R < S

3) Consider a screw gauge without any zero error. What will be the final reading corresponding to
the final state as shown? It is given that the circular head translates P MSD in N rotations. One MSD

is equal to 1 mm :- The circular scale has 100 divisions

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

4) If y = x2 + 2x – 3, y – x graph is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) A steam boat goes across a lake and comes back: (i) on a quiet day when the water is still and (ii)
on a rough day when there is a uniform current so as to help the journey onward and to impede the
journey back. If the speed of the launch, on both days, was same, the time required for the complete
journey on the rough day as compared to that on the quiet day, will be :-

(1) less
(2) same
(3) more
(4) cannot be predicted

6) A particle is moving towards East with a velocity 10 m/s. In 10 seconds the velocity changes to 10
m/s. Northwards. The average acceleration during this period is :-

(1) m/sec2 along North-East direction

(2) m/sec2 along North-West direction

(3)
m/sec2 along North-East direction

(4)
m/sec2 along North-West direction

7) A point traversed half a circle of radius r during a time interval t0, its mean speed and magnitude
of mean velocity are :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

8) A cyclist starts from the centre O of a circular park of radius one kilometre, reaches the edge P of
the park. Then cycles along the circumference and returns to the centre along QO as shown in the
figure. If the round trip takes ten minutes, the net displacement and average speed of the cyclist (in

metre and kilometre per hour respectively) is :-

(1) 0, 1

(2)

(3)

(4) 0, 21.4

9) A projectile is thrown with a speed of 50 m/s at an angle of 53o with the horizontal. Its equation of
trajectory will be :-

(1) 180y = 240x – x2

(2) 180y = x2 – 240x
(3) 180y = 135x – x2
(4) 180y = x2 –135x

10) In the circuit shown in figure the reading of ideal ammeter is :-

(1) 1A
(2) 2A
(3) 3A
(4) 4A

11) In the circuit shown in the following figure. The current through 8 ohm is same before and after
connecting E. The value of E is :-
(1) 12 V
(2) 6V
(3) 4V
(4) 2V

12) A voltmeter has resistance of 2000Ω and it can measure upto 2V. If we want to increase its range
to 10V than the required resistance in series will be:-

(1) 2000Ω
(2) 9000Ω
(3) 6000Ω
(4) 8000Ω

13) Assertion: The drift velocity of electrons in a metallic wire will decrease, if the temperature of
the wire is increased.
Reason: On increasing temperature, conductivity of metallic wire decreases.
Note: Read the Assertion (A) and Reason (R) carefully to mark the correct option out of the options
given below:

(1) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If the assertion and reason both are false.

14) To get maximum current through a resistance of 2.5 Ω, one can use m rows of cells, each row
having n cells. The internal resistance of each cell is 0.5 Ω. What are the values of n and m if the
total number of cells is 45 ?

(1) m= 3, n = 15
(2) m = 5, n = 9
(3) m = 9, n = 5
(4) m = 15, n = 3

15) What will be the equivalent resistance between the points A and D ?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

1) Which is inner orbital and low spin complex ?

–2
(1) [NiCl4]
–2
(2) [Ni(CN)4]
–3
(3) [CoF6]
–3
(4) [FeF6]

2) Which of the following complexes will show optical isomerism ?

2+
(1) [Cr(NH3)6]
2+
(2) [Ni(H2O)6]
(3) [Pt(NH3)3Br]NO3
(4) [Cr(en)3]Cl3

3) The spin only magnetic moment of [MnBr6]–2 is :-

(1) BM
(2) BM
(3) BM
(4) BM

4) Which of the following compounds show maximum conductivity :-

(1) [Co(NH3)6]Cl3
(2) [Co(NH3)3Cl3]
(3) [Co(NH3)4Cl2]Cl
(4) [Co(NH3)5Cl]Cl2

5) [EDTA]4– is a :
(1) Monodentate ligand
(2) Bidentate ligand
(3) Quadridentate ligand
(4) Hexadentate ligand

6) The oxidation state of iron in Na4[Fe(CN)5(NOS)] is:-

(1) +1
(2) +2
(3) +3
(4) zero

7) The octahedral complexes of metal ion M+3 with four monodentate ligands L1, L2, L3, L4 absorb
wavelength in the region of Green, Red, Yellow and Blue respectively. The increasing order of ligand
strength of the four ligand is :

(1) L4 < L1 < L3 < L2​

(2) L1 < L2 < L3 < L4
(3) L2 < L3 < L4 < L1
(4) L2 < L3 < L1 < L4

8) In the given complex [Fe(C2O4)3]–3 and [Co(en)3]+3 the coordination number of Fe and Co are
respectively.

(1) 3, 3
(2) 6, 6
(3) 3, 6
(4) 6, 3

9) Which of the following show geometrical isomerism :-

(1) [Pt(en)2]Cl2
(2) [Pt(en)(gly)]Cl
(3) [Zn(NH3)2Cl2]
(4) [Pt(NH3)2Cl2]

10) Correct for the complex [Cu(NH3)4]2+ is/are

(1) Paramagnetic
(2) dsp2 hybridisation
(3) Square planar geometry
(4) All of these

11) Iron carbonyl, Fe(CO)5 is

(1) tetranuclear
(2) mononuclear
(3) trinuclear
(4) dinuclear

12) Which of the following is correct order of decreasing field strength of ligands to form
coordination compounds ?

– –2 – –2
(1) NO2 > CO > C2O4 > NCS > S
–2 – – –2
(2) CO > C2O4 > NO2 > NCS > S
– – –2 –2
(3) CO > NO2 > NCS > C2O4 > S
– – –2 –2
(4) CO > NCS > NO2 > C2O4 > S

13) Match the following :

Coordination no. and Distribution of hybrid

type of Hybridisation orbital in space

(a) 2, sp (i) Square planar

(b) 4, sp3 (ii) Octahedral

(c) 4, dsp2 (iii) Linear

(d) 6, d2sp3 (iv) Tetrahedral

Choose correct options –
(1) a-(i), b-(iv), c-(iii), d-(ii)
(2) a-(iii), b-(i), c-(iv), d-(ii)
(3) a-(iv), b-(i), c-(ii), d-(iii)
(4) a-(iii), b-(iv), c-(i), d-(ii)

14) Which of the following compounds exhibits linkage isomerism ?

(1) [Cr(NH3)3Cl3]
(2) [Cr(NH3)6] [Co(OH)6]
(3) [Co(en)2 (NO2)Cl] Br
(4) [Co(NH3)5Cl] Br2

15) The IUPAC name of the complex :

[Co(NH3) Cl (en)2] Cl2 is :

(1) amminechlorobis (ethylene diammine) cobalt (III) dichloride

(2) chloroamminebis (ethylene diamine) cobalt (III) chloride
(3) amminechlorobis (ethylene diamine) cobalt (III) chloride
(4) amminebis (ethylenediammine) chloro cobalt (III) chloride

16) Match List-I with List-II :

 List-I List-II
(Complexes) (Types)

[Co(NH3)5NO2]Cl2 and ionisation

(a) (i)
[Co(NH3)5ONO]Cl2 isomerism

[Cr(NH3)6] [Co(CN)6] and coordination

(b) (ii)
[Cr(CN)6] [Co(NH3)6] isomerism

[Co(NH3)5(SO4)]Br and
(c) (iii) linkage isomerism
[Co(NH3)5Br]SO4

[Cr(H2O)6]Cl3 and
(d) (iv) solvate isomerism
[Cr(H2O)5Cl]Cl2.H2O

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

17) Select most stable complex :-

3+
(1) [Co(H2O)6]
+3
(2) [Co(NH3)2(en)2]
+3
(3) [Co(en)3]
+3
(4) [Co(NH3)4(en)]

18) If the specific resistance of a solution of concentration C g eq L–1 is R, then its equivalent
conductance is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19) Which is not true for a standard hydrogen electrode ?

(1) The hydrogen ion concentration is 1 M.

(2) Temperature is 25°C.
(3) Pressure of hydrogen is 1 bar.
(4) It contains a metallic conductor which does not adsorb hydrogen.

20) E° for the half cell

Zn2+ | Zn is –0.76 V. E.m.f. of the cell
Zn | Zn2+ (1M) || 2H+ (1M) | H2 (1 atm) is :

(1) –0.76 V
(2) +0.76 V
(3) –0.38 V
(4) + 0.38 V

21) The standard electrode potential of Zn, Ag and Cu are –0.76 V, 0.80 V and 0.34 V respectively,
then :

(1) Ag can oxidise Zn and Cu

(2) Ag can reduce Zn2+ and Cu2+
(3) Zn can reduce Ag+ and Cu2+
(4) Cu can oxidise Zn and Ag

22) E°(Ni2+/Ni) = –0.25 V

E° (Au3+ / Au) = 1.50 V
The emf of the voltaic cell.
Ni / Ni2+ (1.0 M) | | Au3+ (1.0 M) | Au is :

(1) 1.25 V
(2) –1.75 V
(3) 1.75 V
(4) 4.0 V

23) If = – 0.441V and = 0.771V the standard EMF of the reaction Fe + 2Fe+3 →
+2
3Fe will be :

(1) 0.330 V
(2) 1.653 V
(3) 1.212 V
(4) 0.111 V

24) The passage of current liberates H2 at cathode and Cl2 at anode the solution is :–

(1) CuSO4 (aq)

(2) CuCl2 (aq.)
(3) NaCl (aq.)
(4) Water

25) The number of Faradays(F) required to produce 20 g of calcium from molten CaCl2 (Atomic mass
of Ca = 40 g mol–1) is :

(1) 4
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3

26) Two Faraday of electricity is passed through a solution of CuSO4. The mass of copper deposited
at the cathode is (at. mass of Cu = 63.5 u)

(1) 0 g
(2) 63.5 g
(3) 2 g
(4) 127 g

27) Saturated solution of KNO3 is used to make 'salt-bridge' because

+ –
(1) velocity of K is greater than that of NO3
– +
(2) velocity of NO3 is greater than that of K
+ –
(3) velocities of both K and NO3 are nearly the same
(4) KNO3 is highly soluble in water

28) Represent the cell in which the following reaction takes place
Mg(s) + 2Ag+(0.0001M) → Mg2+(0.130M) + 2Ag(s)
Calculate its E(cell) if = 3.17 V.

(1) 2.14 V
(2) 2.96 V
(3) 3.01 V
(4) 2.80 V

29) When 0.1 mole Cr2O7–2 is reduced then quantity of electricity required to reduced Cr2O7–2+3
completely is :-

(1) 9650 C
(2) 96500 C
(3) 57900 C
(4) 54900 C

30) The number of electrons delivered at the cathode during electrolysis by a current of 2 ampere in
120 seconds is
(charge on electron = 1.6 × 10–19 C) :-

(1) 3.75 × 1020

(2) 7.48 × 1020
(3) 1.5 × 1021
(4) 3 × 1020

31) Which change could occur at the anode of an electrochemical cell ?

–
(1) Cl → Cl2
(2) H2O → H2
(3) Na+ → Na
(4) O2 → H2O

32) Three metals, A, B and C, with solutions of their respective cations are tested in a voltaic cell
with the following results :
A and B : A is the cathode
B and C : C is the cathode
A and C : A is the anode
What is the order of reduction potentials from highest to lowest for the cations of these metals?

(1) A > B > C

(2) B > C > A
(3) C > A > B
(4) B > A > C

33) The electrode potential becomes equal to standard electrode potential when reactants and
products concentration ratio is:

(1) Equal to 1
(2) greater than 1
(3) less than 1
(4) none of these

34) Given below are two statements. Identify the correct choice from the following.
Statement I : Increasing the concentration of Cu+2 ions increases the emf of Daniel cell.
Statement II : According to the Nernst equation

EMF of cell =
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is correct and is the correct explanation of Statement-I.
Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is correct but not the correct explanation of Statement-
(2)
I.
(3) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.

35) The equivalent conductance of solution of a weak monobasic acid is 8.0 mho cm2 eq–1and at
infinite dilution is 400 mho cm2 eq–1. The dissociation constant of this acid is :-

(1) 1.25 × 10–4

(2) 1.25 × 10–5
(3) 1.25 × 10–6
(4) 6.25 × 10–4
 SECTION-B

1) The compounds [PtCl2(NH3)4]Br2 and [PtBr2(NH3)4]Cl2 constitutes a pair of :

(1) Coordination isomers

(2) Linkage isomers
(3) Ionisation isomers
(4) Hydrate isomers

2) The crystal field splitting energy for octahedral (Δ0) and tetrahedral (Δt) complexes is related as :-

(1)
Δt =

(2)
Δt =
(3) Δt = –2Δ0

(4) 0
Δ =– Δt

3) Which of following have maximum C–O bond length :-

(1) Ni(CO)4
(2) [Fe(CO)5]
+
(3) [Mn(CO)6]
–
(4) [V(CO)6]

4) Complex have diamagnetic behaviour :-

(1) [Cu(NH3)4]SO4
–2
(2) [PtCl4]
+2
(3) [Ni(H2O)6]
+2
(4) [Ni(NH3)6]

5) Complex which is diamagnetic in nature is :-

–2
(1) [Ni(CN)4]
2–
(2) [NiCl4]
(3) [Ni(CO)4]
(4) Both (1) and (3)

6) Correct statement is.

(A) Complex [Pt(NH3)2Cl2] show geometrical isomerism.
(B) Optical isomers are mirror images that can not be superimposed on one another. These are
called enantiomers.
(C) Chlorophyll is a complex compound of magnesium.
(D) Ethylenediamine is a mono dentate ligand.

(1) (A), (B), (C), (D) are correct options.

(2) (A), (B), (C) are correct options.
(3) (A), (B), (D) are correct options.
(4) (A), (D) are correct options.

7)

Isomers are classified as :

(1) (i) fac-Isomer, (ii) mer-Isomer

(2) (i) optical-Isomer, (ii) trans-Isomer
(3) (i) mer-Isomer, (ii) fac-Isomer
(4) (i) trans-Isomer, (ii) cis-Isomer

8)

The specific conductances in ohm–1 cm–1 of four electrolytes P, Q, R and S are given in brackets :
P (5.0 × 10–5) ; Q (7.0 × 10–8) ; R (1.0 × 10–10) ; S (9.2 × 10–3)
The one that offers highest resistance to the passage of electric current is

(1) P
(2) S
(3) R
(4) Q

9) What is the potential of the cell containing two hydrogen electrodes as represented below Pt; H2(g)
| H+(10–8)M || H+(0.001 M) | H2(g).Pt ;

(1) – 0.295 V
(2) – 0.0591 V
(3) 0.295 V
(4) 0.0591 V

10) One Faraday of electricity will liberate one mole of the metal from the solution of

(1) Auric chloride

(2) Silver nitrate
(3) Calcium chloride
(4) Copper sulphate
11) Standard electrode potential for the cell with cell reaction
Zn(s) + Cu2+(aq) → Zn2+(aq) + Cu(s)
is 1.1 V. Calculate the standard gibbs energy change for the cell reaction. (Given F = 96487 C mol–1)

(1) –200.27 kJ mol–1

(2) –212.27 kJ mol–1
(3) –212.27 J mol–1
(4) –200.27 J mol–1

12)
A and B respectively are :-

(1) HCN, NaCl

(2) KCl, NaCl
(3) KCl, CH3COOH
(4) CH3COOH, HCN

13) The quantity of electricity required to release 112 cm3 of hydrogen at STP from acidified water is

(1) 0.1F
(2) 1F
(3) 965C
(4) 96500C

14) The standard oxidation potential, E°, for the reactions are given as:
Zn → Zn2+ + 2e– ; E° = + 0.76 V
Fe → Fe2++ 2e– ; E° = + 0.41 V
The emf for the cell : Fe2+ + Zn → Zn2+ + Fe

(1) –0.35 V
(2) +0.35 V
(3) +1.17 V
(4) –1.17 V

15) Which is a consistent set of values for a specific redox reaction carried out under standard
conditions?

E° ΔG° Description

(A) + – Spontaneous

(B) – + Spontaneous
 (C) + + Non- Spontaneous

(D) – – Non- Spontaneous

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

BIOLOGY-I

SECTION-A

1) Which of the male reproductive organ situates outside the abdominal cavity ?

(1) Seminal vesicles

(2) Testes
(3) Vasa defferenita
(4) Vasa efferentia

2) If the duration of menstrual cycle of female is 38 days, what is the duration of luteal phase and
what is the day of ovulation respectively?

(1) 14, 24
(2) 24, 14
(3) 19, 19
(4) 11, 17

3) Read the following statement

(a) After implantation, finger like projections appear on the trophoblast called chorionic villi
(b) The blastomeres in the blastocyst are arranged into an outer layer called trophoblast.
(c) Placenta also acts as an endrocrine tissue.
(d) hCG, hPL and Relaxin are produced in women during non-pregnancy.
How many of the above statement are wrong.

(1) One
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) Four

4) Study the flow chart. Name the hormones labelled as A, B, C, D at each stage.
 Choose the correct option :

A B C D

(1) Gn-RH ICSH Androgen FSH

(2) Gn-RH LH/ICSH FSH Testosterone

(3) Gonadotropins LH FSH Testosterone

(4) Gn-RH FSH LH Androgens

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

5) At the onset of puberty :

Primary follicles begin to mature within each ovarian cycle to form secondary follicle and then
(1)
tertiary follicle
(2) Primary oocyte within the tertiary follicle grows in size and completes its meiotic division
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Primary ooctyes develop from oogonial cells

6) Which of the following statement is incorrect ?

(1) The male germ cells undergo meiotic divisions finally leading to sperm formation
(2) The functions of male sex accessory ducts and glands are maintained by the testicular hormones
(3) In fact, the presence or absence of hymen is not a reliable indicator of virginity
(4) Sperm and ovum formation ceases around the age of fifty years.

7) Identify the structure shown below as well as the related right place of its occurrence in the
human, and select the right option for the two together.

Structure Site of occurrence

(1) Testis Abdominal cavity

(2) Penis Abdominal cavity

Seminiferous
(3) Testis
tubules

Below the urinary

(4) Prostate
bladder
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

8) Which hormone play important role in expulsion of milk and faciliating the expulsion of embryo
from takes once labour has set in :

(1) FSH
(2) LH
(3) Progesterone
(4) Oxytocin

9) Transfer of sperms into female genital tract is known as :-

(1) Ejaculation
(2) Spermiation
(3) Insemination
(4) Copulation

10) This diagram shows :-

(1) Morula
(2) Blastocyst
(3) Gastrula
(4) Blastomere
11) The signals for parturition originates from:

(1) Placenta only

(2) Fully developed foetus
(3) Placenta as well as fully developed foetus
(4) Oxytocin released from maternal pituitary

12) Which of the following structures are included in female external genitalia?
(a) Mons pubis
(b) Labia minora
(c) Ovary
(d) Uterus
(e) Clitoris
(f) Hymen
(g) Labia majora

(1) a, b, c, d, e
(2) a, b, c, g
(3) c, d, e, f, g
(4) a, b, e, f, g

13) Match the column-A with column-B : -

Column-A Column-B

(A) Mons pubis (i) Fleshy folds of tissue

(B) Labia majora (ii) Paired folds of tissue

(C) Labia minora (iii) Finger-like structure

(D) Clitoris (iv) Cushion of fatty tissue

(1) A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii
(2) A-iv, B-ii, C-i, D-iii
(3) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii
(4) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i

14) The___________of sperm possess numerous ______, which provides energy for the movement of tail
that facilitates sperm motility for fertilization :

(1) Head ; mitochondria

(2) Neck ; mitochondria
(3) Middle piece ; mitochondria
(4) Middle piece ; endoplasmic reticulum

15) Capacitation refers to changes in the :-

(1) Ovum after fertilization

(2) Ovum before fertilization
(3) Sperm after fertilization
(4) Sperm before fertilization

16) How many structures in the list given below are haploid ?
Spermatid, secondary oocyte, primary spermatocyte, ovum, sperm, oogonia, spermatogonia, polar
body

(1) Six
(2) Four
(3) Two
(4) Five

17)

Select the correct sequence of layers around ovum from outer to inner side -
(a) Zona pellucida
(b) Corona radiata
(c) Plasma membrane

(1) a → b → c
(2) b → a → c
(3) a → c → b
(4) c → a → b

18) Select the correct anatomical sequence.

(1) Seminiferous tubules → Rete testis → Vasa efferentia → Vasa deferens → Epididymis
(2) Seminiferous tubules → Rete testis → Vasa efferentia → Epididymis → Vasa deferens
(3) Seminiferous tubules → Vasa efferentia → Rete testis → Vasa deferens → Epididymis
(4) None of these

19) Copper releasing IUD is :-

(1) Progestasert
(2) LNG-20
(3) Multiload-375
(4) Lippes loop

20) Natural method of contraception include the following?

(1) Coitus interruptus, periodic abstinence

(2) Lactational amenorrhea
(3) Periodic abstinence, Diaphragms
(4) Both (1) & (2)

21) Which of the following is not a method of birth control ?

(1) Tubectomy, IUD
(2) Vasectomy, Vaults
(3) Tubectomy
(4) Periodic abstinence of coitus from the day 6th to 9th of menstrual cycle.

22)

given the figures below are related with contraceptive devices. Identify them and choose the correct
option :-

a b c d
(1) Condom for female Condom for male IUD Implant
(2) Condom for male Condom for Female Implant IUD
(3) Condom for female Condom for male Implant IUD
(4) Condom for male Condom for Female IUD Implan
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

23) Select the incorrect statement for given figure :-

(1) This is a permanent method of contraception in females

(2) Menstrual flow isn’t affected after using this method of contraception
(3) Maturation of graffian follicles permanently ceases after applying this contraceptive method
(4) Reversibility of this technique is very poor

24) Which of the following is a correct statement?

(1) IUDs once inserted need not be replaced.

(2) IUDs are generally inserted by the user herself
(3) IUDs increase phagocytosis of sperms in the uterus.
(4) IUDs suppress gametogenesis.
25) Assertion : Copper releasing IUD prevent fertilization.
Reason : Copper ions inhibits motility of sperms.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

26) Which of the following is the incorrect expanded form?

A. IUI Intra-uterine Insemination

B. RTI Reproductive Tract Infections

C. VD Vaginal Diseases

D. STD Sexually Transmitted Diseases

E. IVF Intra Vaginal Transfer

(1) B, C
(2) A, B
(3) C only
(4) C, E

27) Flower with feathery and sticky stigma, numerous light pollen, colourless petals are
characteristically :-

(1) Bird pollinated flower

(2) Bat pollinated flower
(3) Wind pollinated flower
(4) Insect pollinated flower

28) Intine of pollen grain is a :-

(1) Thick, continuous layer made up of cellulose and lignin

(2) Thin, continuous layer made up of cellulose and pectin
(3) Thin, discontinuous layer made up of cellulose only
(4) Thin, discontinuous layer made up of cellulose and Pectin

29) Identified A, B, C and D of a seed given below:-

(1) A - Plumule; B - Radicle; C - Pericarp; D - Coleorhiza
(2) A - Radicle; B - Plumule; C - Pericarp; D - Coleorhiza
(3) A - Radicle; B - Plumule; C - Coleorhiza; D - Pericarp
(4) A - Radicle; B - Coleorhiza; C - Plumule; D - Pericarp

30) The gynoecium may consist of a single pistil called A. Identify A.

(1) Multicarpellary
(2) Monocarpellary
(3) Syncarpous
(4) Apocarpous

31) The proximal end of filament of a typical stamen is attached to which part of the flower?

(1) Anther
(2) Thalamus
(3) Pollen sac
(4) Microspores

32) Generative cell of pollen grain

(1) Is spindle shaped with dense cytoplasm

(2) Floats in the nucleoplasm of the vegetative cell
(3) Is diploid
(4) Is larger than vegetative cell

33) Example of annual plant is :

(1) Bamboo
(2) Neelakuranji
(3) Century plant
(4) Wheat

34) Which one of the following option gives the correct characterisation of layers of anther wall
(A,B,C) according to the their nature or function :
 A B C
Endothecium Middle layer Tapetum

(1) Hygroscopic Callose bands Ubisch body

(2) Protection Ephemeral Dehiscence

(3) Hygroscopic Storage of food granules Nourishes

(4) Ephemeral Nourishes Storage of food granules

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

35) Meiosis occur in :

(1) Archesporial cell

(2) Microspore
(3) Megaspore
(4) Megaspore mother cell

SECTION-B

1) Which of the following events is not associated with ovulation in human female ?

(1) LH surge
(2) Decrease in estrogen level
(3) Full development of Graffian follicle
(4) Release of secondary oocyte from ovary

2) There are three layers present in uterus, one of them is thick muscular, second is thin visceral
peritoneum and Third glandular layer. Layers are respectively :-

(1) Perimetrium, Myometrium, Endometrium

(2) Endometrium, Myometrium, Perimetrium
(3) Myometrium, perimetrium, Endometrium
(4) Myometrium, endometrium, Perimetrium

3) The milk produced during the initial few days of lactation is called-

(1) Calciquestron
(2) Calciferon
(3) Colostrum
(4) Lactation

4) Which one of the following is not the function of placenta ?

(1) Secretes oxytocin during parturition
(2) Facilitates supply of oxygen and nutrients to embryo
(3) Secretes estrogen
(4) Facilitates removal of CO2 and waste material from embryo

5) Which statement is incorrect regarding female external genitalia ?

(1) Mons pubis is a cushion of fatty tissue covered by skin and pubic hairs
(2) Clitoris lies at the upper junction of labia minora below the urethral opening
(3) Hymen is not a reliable indicator of virginity
(4) Labia majora are fleshy folds of tissue

6) Which one of the following structure of sperm is mismatched?

(1) Acrosome Contain spermlysins that help in fertilisation

(2) Nucleus Contain haploid DNA

Proximal
(3) Starts cleavage in zygote
centriole

Contain numerous mitochondria, which produce

(4) Tail
energy for movement of tail
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

7) How many technologies in the list given below are showing invitro fertilisation :-
GIFT, ZIFT, IUT, AI, IUI

(1) Six
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

8) Which of the following contraceptive methods makes the uterus unsuitable for implantation :-

(1) Today
(2) Nim–76
(3) Condom
(4) LNG-20

9) Vasa deferens is cut for

(1) Female sterilization

(2) Male sterilization
(3) Both of the above
(4) Temporary sterilization

10) Select the correct statements.

(1) Pelvic infilamentory diseases doesn’t occur in STDs

(2) MTP was legalised in india in 1951.
(3) Saheli is a weekly non-steroidal oral contraceptive pill.
(4) Genital herpes is curable

11) Number of microsporangia is present in the anther of typical angiosperm plant :

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1

12) Pollen grains of different species show characteristic difference in :-

(1) Shape, size & colours only

(2) Exine & ploidy only
(3) Shape, size, colour and design only
(4) Ploidy only

13) When egg cell develops into the embryo without fertilisation, the process is known as :-

(1) Parthenocarpy
(2) Parthenogenesis
(3) Apogamy
(4) Polyembryony

14) Geitonogamy is :-

(1) Functionally and genetically autogamy

(2) Functionally cross pollination involving a pollinating agent
(3) Genetically it is dissimilar to autogamy since the pollen grains comes from the different plant
(4) Seen in papaya & date palm

15) Identify the most closely related terms in the given sets:

(1) Megasporangium, megaspore, egg, ovule

(2) Microsporangium, microspore, egg, ovule
(3) Megasporangium, megaspore, pollen grain, ovule
(4) Microsporangium, microspore, carpel, ovary
 BIOLOGY-II

SECTION-A

1) The ovule of an angiosperm is technically equivalent to:

(1) Megasporangium
(2) Megasporophyll
(3) Megaspore mother cell
(4) Megaspore

2) The pollen viability in some cereals like wheat and rice is with in :-

(1) 30 minutes
(2) 30 seconds
(3) 30 Hours
(4) 30 Days

3)

Which of following is not a character that resemble with self incompatibility.

(1) prevention of pollen germination

(2) deorientation of pollen tube
(3) prevent the formation of intine
(4) failure of nuclear fusion

4) Microsporangia develop in to:-

(1) Ovules
(2) Microgametes
(3) Megagametes
(4) Pollen sacs

5) Which of the following is not correct :

(1) Integument – Protection

(2) Chalaza – Main part of ovule
(3) Micropyle – Entry of pollen tube
(4) Nucellus – Mass of cells

6) Tassels of corn-corb which wave in the wind to trap pollen grains are ____and ____

(1) Stigma, Thalamus

(2) Style, Pedicle
(3) Stigma, Style
(4) Stigma, Ovary

7) Before the fertilization which event is more curical after the gamete transfere.

(1) Microsporogenesis
(2) Megasporogenesis
(3) Pollen pistil interaction
(4) Double fertilization

8) Identify the polidy of A,B,C if the endosperm is 3n of this plant.

(1) 2n, 2n, 3n

(2) n, 2n, 3n
(3) 2n, 2n, 2n
(4) 3n, 3n, 3n

9) Identify the A,B,C in given chart with respect to pollination.

(1) A-Hypohydrophily, B-Epihydrophily, C-By insect

(2) A-Epihydrophily, B-Hypohydrophily, C-By air
(3) A-Hypohydrophily, B-By air, C-Epihydrophily
(4) A-Hypohydrophily, B-Epihydrophily, C-Epihydrophily

10) Identify the correct sequence for stages in embryo development

(1) Globular embryo → Heart shaped embryo →Mature

(2) Heart shaped embryo → Globular embryo → Mature
(3) Globular embryo → Mature → Zygote
(4) Globular embryo → Pro-embryo → Heart shaped embryo

11) Inbreeding depression occurs when plant is continuous pollinated by :-

(1) Autogamy
(2) Geitonogamy
(3) Xenogamy
(4) Both (1) and (2)

12) Number of nuclei in mature embryo sac is

(1) Seven
(2) Five
(3) Eight
(4) Three

13) Which statement is wrong among them with respect to embryo sac

(1) Large central cell has two polar nuclei

(2) Exine is made up of pecto-cellulose
In 2-nucleate embryo sac three sequential mitotic division result in formation of 8-nucleated
(3)
stage
(4) Free nuclear divisions occur in embryo sac

14) Which is true for sporopollenin :-

(1) Most resistant organic material

(2) Tolerate high temperature
(3) Tolerate strong alkali and acid
(4) All of these

15) A breeder is interested in crossing different species and often genra to obtain

(1) Inferior varieties

(2) Superior varieties
(3) Half-interior varieties
(4) Genetically lethal varieties

16) Identify the correct location of A,B,C from base of ovule to entery of pollen tube region into
embryo sac.

(1) A, B, C
(2) B, C, A
(3) A, B only
(4) C, B, A

17) Identify A, B and C :-

(1) A - False fruit, B-True fruit, C-Parthenocarpic fruit

(2) A - True fruit, B-False fruit, C-Parthenogenesis
(3) A-False fruit, B-Parthenocarpic fruit, C-True fruit
(4) A-False fruit, B-Parthenogenesis, C-True fruit

18) The numbe of ovule is one in ovary except

(1) Wheat
(2) Orchids
(3) Paddy
(4) Mango

19) According to World Health Organisation (WHO) reproductive health means total well being in all
aspects of reproduction i.e. in
(a) Physical
(b) Social
(c) Emotional
(d) Behavioural

(1) a, b, d
(2) a, b, c
(3) a, c, d
(4) All

20) 'Saheli' - a new oral contraceptive for the females was developed by scientists at.

(1) CDI
(2) CORI
(3) CDRI
(4) ART

21) The world population as well as population of India is increasing the possible reason for this is

(1) Rapid decline in death rate

(2) Decline in maternal mortality rate
(3) Steady infant mortality rate
(4) Both (1) and (2)

22) Within how much duration if IUDs are used in case of rape to avoid possible pregnancy.

(1) 48 hours
(2) 72 hours
(3) 24 hours
(4) 36 hours

23) Which statement is wrong among them :-

(1) MTP is safe up to 12 weeks

(2) Second trimester is much more risker
(3) MTP is illegal for female foeticides
(4) MTP is legal for male foeticides

24) Statement I : The scrotum helps in maintaining the low temperature of the testes.
Statement II : Both testis has about 250 compartments called testicular lobules.

(1) Both statement I and statement II are true

(2) Statement I is true but statement II is false
(3) Statement II is true but statement I is false
(4) Both statement I and statement II are false

25) The epididymis is located along ____surface of testis.

(1) Anterior
(2) Lateral
(3) Posterior
(4) Anterio-posterior

26) In a normal healthy human the number of chromosome in secondary spermatocytes, spermatids
and primary spermatocytes is :-

(1) 46, 23, 23

(2) 23, 23, 46
(3) 46, 23, 46
(4) 23, 46, 46

27) During ovulation which hormones are generally high in blood sample of normal women :-
(a) LH
(b) FSH
(c) Estrogen
(d) Progesterone

(1) a, d
(2) a, b, c
(3) a, c, d
(4) b, c

28) Assertion (A) : Spermatogenesis in human begins at the age of puberty.

Reason (R) : Spermatogonia followed by mitosis and differentiation change into primary
spermatocytes.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A

(2) A is false but R is true
(3) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A
(4) Both A and R are false

29) The glandular tissue of each breast is divided into__________ mammary lobes.

(1) 15 - 25
(2) 20 - 25
(3) 10 -15
(4) 15 - 20

30) Select the correct statement among them :-

(1) Mammary tubules store milk.

(2) Mammary tubule of all lobes join to form a mammary duct.
(3) Milk is sucked out through lactiferous duct
(4) Single mammary duct join to form a wider mammary ampulla
31) In human being menstrual cycle ceases around 50 year of age so :-

(1) Ova will not produce

(2) Fertilization not occur after copulation
(3) Labour pain not occur after copulation
(4) Both (1) and (2)

32) Secretion of which part of sperm help in fertilization :-

(1) Zona pellucida

(2) Acrosome
(3) Mitochondrial region
(4) Neck region

33) Statement I : Sex of baby is decided by the gamete of father not mother.
Statement II : There is 50% chances of female baby and 50% of male baby.

(1) Both statement I and statement II are false

(2) Both statement I and statement II are true
(3) Statement I is true but statement II is false
(4) Statement I is false but statement II is true

34) Statement I : hCG, hPL and relaxin are produced in women only during pregnancy.
Statement II : During pregnancy several other hormones are also increased in the maternal blood.

(1) Both statement I and statement II are true

(2) Both statement I and statement II are false
(3) Statement I is true but statement II is false
(4) Statement I is false but statement II is true

35) Match the column I with column II

Column I Column II

(i) Heart is formed (a) After one month

Most of major organ system

(ii) (b) By the end of first trimester
are formed

(iii) First movement of foetus (c) By end of second trimester

(iv) Eye lids separate (d) During fifth month

(1) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d
(2) i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d
(3) i-a, ii-b, iii-d, iv-c
(4) i-a, ii-d, iii-b, iv-c

SECTION-B
1) How many gametes and nuclei are involved in double fertilization?

(1) 5 gametes, 3 nuclei

(2) 3 gametes, 3 nuclei
(3) 3 gametes, 2 nuclei
(4) 3 gametes, 5 nuclei

2) Statement I : Majority of plants use biotic agent for pollination.

Statement II : Pollen grains coming in contact with the stigma is a chance factor in both wind and
water pollination.

(1) Both Statement I and statement II are incorrect

(2) Both statement I and statement II are correct
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement II is correct but statement I is incorrect

3) In Asteraceae and grasses which event mimics sexual reproduction.

(1) Formation of flower

(2) Seed production with fertilization
(3) Fruit formation without ovary
(4) Seed production without fertilization

4) After fertilization mostly zygote divides only after certain amount of endosperm is formed because

(1) This is an adaptation to provide assured place for seed development

(2) This is an adaptation to provide assured nutrition for fertilization
(3) This is an adaptation to provide assured nutrition to the developing embryo
(4) Before it the harmful U-V rays damage zygote so it takes time to repair

5) Assertion (A) : Depending on the source of pollen, pollination is of three types.

Reason (R) : Geitonogamy is genetically similar to the autogamy.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A

(2) A is true but R is false.
(3) A is false but R is true
(4) Both A and R are true but R is not correct explanation of A

6) In which condition female flower buds are bagged before the flower open to prevent unwanted
pollination.

(1) When flowers of male plant are unisexual

(2) When flowers of plant are sterile
(3) When flowers of female plant are unisexual
(4) When flowers of female plant are bisexual

7) Which condition best describe the polyembryony

(1) Production of more than one seed without fertilization
(2) Production of more than one embryo in pericarp
(3) Presence of more than one embryo in seed
(4) Presence of more than one fruit in plant

8) Match the column I and column II

Column I Column II

(i) Pollen sac (a) Allergies

(ii) Microsporangia (b) Pollen grain

(iii) Parthenium (c) PMC

(iv) Pollen bank (d) –196° C

(1) i-c, ii-b, iii-a, iv-d
(2) i-b, ii-c, iii-d, iv-a
(3) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d
(4) i-b, ii-c, iii-a, iv-d

9) Select the incorrect statement among them.

India was the last countries in the world to initiate action plans and programmes at national
(1)
level to attain total reproductive health as social goal.
(2) Family planning were initiated in 1951.
(3) RCH programmes means reproductive and child health care programmes
(4) Audio-visual are use to create awareness about reproduction related aspects

10) Natural methods work on the principle of avoiding chancing of :-

(1) Ovum development

(2) Sperm development
(3) Sperm and ovum maturation
(4) Sperm and ovum meeting

11) Use of condoms has increased in recent years due to its additional benefits of protecting the user
from contracting :-

(1) Malaria and dengue

(2) Typhoid and dengue
(3) STIs and AIDS
(4) Allergies and dengue

12) Dysfunctioning of which gland reduces the lubrication of the penis :-

(1) Seminal vesicle

(2) Bulbourethral
(3) Glans penis
(4) Prostate

13) Match the column I with column II

Column I Column II

(i) Morula (a) Endometrium

(ii) Embryo differentiation (b) 8-16 blastomere

(iii) Implantation (c) Inner cell mass

(iv) Division of zygote (d) Cleavage

(e) Meiotic
(1) i-c, ii-b, iii-a, iv-e
(2) i-b, ii-e, iii-a, iv-d
(3) i-b, ii-c, iii-a, iv-d
(4) i-e, ii-c, iii-a, iv-d

14) How many statement(s) are correct among them

(a) Oviduct is only accessory duct in female.
(b) Oviduct extends from the periphery of each ovary to the vagina.
(c) Infundibulum posses finger like projection called fimbriae.
(d) Fimbriae help in collection of ovum after fertilization.

(1) One
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) Four

15) Among them which hormone is secreted by ovary :-

(1) FSH
(2) LH
(3) Relaxin
(4) All of these
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 1 3 3 3 3 2 4 2 2 2 2 2 1 2 1 2 3 3 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
A. 3 3 2 3 3 2 3 3 3 2 4 3 2 2 3

SECTION-B

Q. 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 2 1 1 3 3 2 3 4 1 1 3 4 2 1 3

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 2 4 3 1 4 2 4 2 4 4 2 3 4 3 3 3 3 3 4 2
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 3 3 3 2 2 3 2 3 3 1 3 1 1 2

SECTION-B

Q. 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 3 1 4 2 3 2 1 3 3 2 2 3 3 2 1

BIOLOGY-I

SECTION-A

Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 2 1 1 2 3 4 3 4 3 2 3 4 3 3 4 4 2 2 3 4
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 4 3 3 3 1 4 3 2 1 2 2 1 4 3 4

SECTION-B

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 3 3 1 2 4 3 4 2 3 1 3 2 2 1

BIOLOGY-II
 SECTION-A

Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 1 1 3 4 2 3 3 3 3 1 4 3 3 4 2 4 3 2 4 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185
A. 4 2 4 2 3 2 2 3 4 3 4 2 2 1 3

SECTION-B

Q. 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. 4 2 4 3 4 3 3 4 1 4 3 2 3 1 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

[v] = [T–1]
[ℓ] = [L1]
[F] = [M1L1T–2]

[m] = [M1L–1]

2) ℓ ∝ FaAbTc
ℓ = KFaAbTc
0 0
[M L1T ] = [MLT–2]a [LT–2]b[T]c
0 0
[M L1T ] = [MaLa + b T–2a – 2b + c]
a=0
a+b=1 ⇒b=1
–2a –2b + c = 0 ⇒c=2
0
∴ [ℓ] = [F AT2]

3) We have , L → inductance

∴L=
And unit of inductance(L) is henry(H).

4)

least count =

5)

Dimensional formula of mutual inductance = [ML2T–2A–2]

6)
= (1 + 2)% = 3%

7)

F ∝ [P]a [A]b [T]c

[MLT–2] ∝ [MLT–1]a [L2]b [T]c
a = 1 .....(i)
a + 2b = 1 .....(ii)
b=0
–a + c = –2 .....(iii)
c = –1
0
F ∝ [P1A T–1]

8)

[F] = [at2] =

∴ [F] = [at2] and [F] =

[MLT–2] = [a T2] ∴ [t] = [c]
–4
[a] = [MLT ] [c] = [T]

⇒ [MLT–2] =
b = [MLT–1]

9) Pitch = = 0.5 mm

L.C. =

=
Observed Length = MSR + CSR × L.C.
= 3 + 46 × 0.01
= 3.46 mm

10) Average velocity =

= 4 m/s

11) Vavg =

=
= 45 km/h
 12)

13) Horizontal distance travelled by the bomb S= u × t

= 8.081km

14) if R = nH then tan θ =

∵ R = H then tan θ =
θ = tan–1(4)

15)

Use basic kinematics,

v2 – v0 = 2a (x – x0)

= = 62.61 m/s
2 2
v – v0 = 2a (x – x0)
02 – 62.612 = 2a(0.5 – 2)
a = 1307 m/s2
a = 133 g

16)

As in a projectile motion horizontal component of acceleration is zero. So horizontal component of

velocity remains unchanged.
Particle will active maximum height when during the motion vertical component of velocity become
zero.

17)

The circuit can be redrawn as follows.

Resistance across AB
 RAB = W
Total resistance of circuit

RT = 2 + W
Current through ammeter

i= A

18) Effective circuit is

RAB = 1 + +1=2 Ω

19)

20)

⇒ X = 4Y and ⇒

= = Y = ⇒ 40 X = 10 X + X2
⇒ X2 = 30 X ⇒ X = 30 Ω & Y = 7.5 Ω

21)

Let the resultant resistance be R. If we add one more branch, then the resultant resistance would be
the same because this is an infinite sequence.
∴
⇒ R2 – R – 2 = 0 Þ R = –1 or R = 2Ω

22) The bridge is balanced and the current in the part ADC is larger than in the part ABC. Also
I3 = 0

23)

For no reading galvanometer. Potential across it is same.

24)

Resistivity depends on nature of metal & temperature only.

25)

P=

26)

R = R0 (1 + αΔT)
1 = R0[1 + α(27)]

0
2 = R [1 + α(T)] ⇒

T = 854°C
T = 854 + 273 = 1127 K
 27)

28) .....(1)

29) Resistivity does not depend on physical dimension.

30)

31)

J=
As A increase, decreases
i = neAvd
Current is constant, so as A increases vd decreases.

32)

Drift velocity, vd =

or

or

According to question, if length ℓ is replaced by 2ℓ, then

33)
= 20 Ω

34) H = t (V, H → same)

then = constant ⇒ t ∝ E

teq = (in parallel)

teq = = min

35)
If RAB = R

⇒R=1+
⇒ R(2+R) = 2 + R + 2R
⇒ R2 – R – 2 = 0
⇒ R = 2Ω

36) Dimensions of energy = [M1L2T–2]

n1u1 = n2u2

n2 = n1 =
–1 –2 2
n2 = 5α β γ (in new system)

37)

= ± (5 + 4) = ± 9%

R = x + y, R ± DR = 17.0 ± 0.8

S = x – y, S ± DS = 7.0 ± 0.8

correct order of % error is

R<P=D<S

38)

Pitch =

LC =

LC =

Reading

39) At x = 0, y = –3

at y = 0, x = = –1 ± 2
= 3, 1

Thus, concavity is upward.

40)

If L be the length of the lake and the velocity of boat is V, time taken in going and coming back on a
quiet day

tQ = = ...(i)
Now, if u is the velocity of air-current, then time taken in going across the lake,

t1 = (as the current helps the motion)

and time taken in coming back,

t2 = (as the current opposes the motion)

So, tR= t1+t2= ...(ii)

Hence, from eqns. (i) and (ii),

∴ tR > tQ.

41)
 42) mean speed =

magnitude of mean velocity =

43) because initial & final positions are same so the displacement is zero.

vavg =

44) ∵ y = x tan θ –

∴ y = x tan 53º –

∴y=
∴ 180 y = 240 x – x2

45)

The equivalent resistance between A and B = 4Ω.

Current I =
The current divides into different branches as shown in the figure. It is clear that the ammeter will

read . So the correct choice is (1)

46)

Before connecting E, the circuit diagram is as shown in the figure. The equivalent resistance of the
given circuit is,

Req. 6Ω + 8Ω + 10Ω = 24Ω

Current in the circuit,

Before connecting E, the current through 8Ω is,

After connecting E, the current through 8Ω is also .

∴ E=

47)

iR + iRs = V

48) On increasing temperature of wire the kinetic energy of free electrons increase and so
they collide more rapidly with each other and hence their drift velocity decreases. Also when
temperature increases, resistivity increase and resistivity is inversely proportional to
conductivity of material.

49) For maximum current, ...(i)

mR = nr ...(ii)
Given that mn = 45
Hence, m × 2.5 = n × 0.5
or n = 5m ...(iii)
From equation (ii) and (iii), 5m2 = 45 or m = 3
⇒ n = 15

50)

CHEMISTRY

51)

CN¯ (SFL) causes pairing.

52)

[Cr(en)3]Cl3 → [M(AA)3] type show O.I.

 53) Mn+4 = [Ar]3d3

54)

Conductivity ∝ no. of ions

55)

( is EDTA–4 and is hexadentate.

56) Na4[Fe(CN)5NOS]
+ 4 + x + 5 (–1) + (–1) = 0
x=+2

57)

58)

Coordination number of Fe and Co are 6 and 6 respectively.

Both en and are symmetrical bidentate ligand.

59) [Zn(NH3)2Cl2] sp3 (no G.I.)

[Pt(NH3)2Cl2] dsp2 (2 G.I.)

60)

As per C.F.T.

61)

Fe(CO)5
EAN = Z–O.N. + 2(C.N.)
= 26 – 0 + 2(5)
= 26 + 10
= 36
only one central metal atom is present and it follows EAN rule, so it is mononuclear

62) Acc. to spectrochemical series.

63) Concept of V.B.T.

 64) Due to presence of NO2– ambidentate ligand.

65) IUPAC naming rules

66)

(a) [Co(NH3)5NO2]Cl2 and [Co(NH3)5ONO]Cl2

- linkage isomerism (iii)
(b) [Cr(NH3)6] [Co(CN)6] and [Cr(CN)6] [Co(NH3)6]
- coordination isomerism (ii)
(c) [Co(NH3)5SO4]Br and [Co(NH3)5Br]SO4
- ionisation isomerism (i)
(d) [Cr(H2O)6Cl3] and [Cr(H2O)5Cl]Cl2.H2O
- solvate isomerism (iv)
(a) – (iii), (b) – (ii), (c) – (i), (d) – (iv)

67)

Chelation complex are more stable.

68) Given : Specific resistance (ρ) = R

Concentration (N) = C g-eq L–1

Now, Specific conductance (κ) =

Equivalent conductance

69) In construction of S.H.E. a platinum block is used with conducting wire at 1M[H+], 1 bar
pressure and 25°C temp. The use of platinum block is adsorb H2 gas at surface.

70)

↓
=
= 0–(–0.76)
= +0.76 V

71) Lesser SRP substance will oxidise itself and reduce other.
Like Zn will oxidise itself but reduce Ag+ and Cu+2 ions.
72) Cell is at standard condition.
So
=
= 1.5–(–0.25)
= 1.75 V

73) Given :
(i) Fe+2 + 2e– → Fe ;
;
+3 – +2
(ii) Fe + e → Fe ;
;
+3 +2
(iii) Fe + 2Fe → 3Fe ; ;
2× Equation (ii) – equation (i) will give equation (iii)

74) For aq. NaCl

At cathode : H2 gas is liberated
At anode : Cl2 gas is liberated

75)

Ca+2 + 2e– → Ca(s)

v.f. = 2
As per faraday's 1st law
Charge passed in faraday = g.eq of product
=

76)

At cathode Cu2+ + 2e¯ → Cu

2 Faraday means 2mole of e¯
2 mole of e¯ requires for 1 mole of Cu (63.5gm)

77) Saturated solution of KNO3 is used because velocities of both K+ and NO3¯ are nearly same.

78)

E(cell) =

= 3.17 V –
 = 3.17 V – 0.21 V = 2.96 V

79)

→ 2Cr+3 + 6e–
0.1 mole 0.6 mole
Charge required = 0.6 F = 0.6 × 96500
= 57900C

80)

Q = ne = It

n= = 1.5 × 1021 electron

81) As per theory

82)

R.P. of C > A > B.

83)

84)

Daniel Cell
Zn(s) + → + Cu(s)
Nernst equation:

Ecell =

Ecell =
[Cu+2] ⇒ Ecell

85) α =
α % < 5%
Ka = c. α2

= × = 1.25 × 10–5

86)
NCERT Pg.#246 Para-9.4.3

87)

According to CFT.

88)

Back π bonding (M-C) ∝ C-O bond length

89) Cl– behave as S.L. with Pt+2, so pairing occur

90)

[Ni(CO)4] O.State = 0

[Ni(CN)4]–2 ⇒ Ni2+ → 3d8 with CN¯ forms inner orbital low spin complex dsp2.
Hence no unpaired electron so dimagnetic.

91)

Pt(NH3)2Cl2] is a sqaure planar complex and show G.I.

93) Specific conductance

94)

Concentration of [H+] in negative electrode (Anode) C1 = 10–8 M

Concentration of [H+] in positive electrode (cathode) C2 = 0.001 M

At anode : H2(g) → H+(C1) + e–

At cathode : H+(C2) + e– → H2(g)

Cell reaction H+(C2) → H+(C1)

Here n = 1
 95) 1 F ⇒ 1 mol e–
So, AgNO3
↓

96)

ΔG° = –nF · E°cell

ΔG° =
ΔG° = –212.27 kj mol–1

97)

A → Strong electrolyte (KCl)

B → Weak electrolyte (CH3COOH)

98)

Faraday = g.eq. of H2

99)

Fe2+ + Zn → Zn+2 + Fe
= SRP of cathode – SRP of anode
= –0.41 + 0.76
= 0.35

100) As per theory

BIOLOGY-I

111) NCERT XII, Pg. # 38

117)

NCERT XII Pg # 51

119) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 44,45

 120)

NCERT XII Pg # 44

121)

NCERT XII Pg # 44

123) NCERT XII Pg # 45, 46

125) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 44

127) NCERT, Pg. # 13

128)

NCERT XII Pg # 07

129)

NCERT - 21

130)

NCERT Pg. # 08

131) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 05

132)

NCERT XII Pg. # 07

The generative cell is small and floats in the cytoplasm of the vegetative cell.

134) NCERT XII, Page # 05

135)

NCERT-XII, Pg# 10

146) NCERT, Pg. # 05

147)

NCERT, Pg. # 07

148)
NCERT Pg # 38

149)

NCERT, Pg. # 12

150) NCERT XII, Pg. No. 09

BIOLOGY-II

151)

NCERT Page No. 09

152)

NCERT-XII Page # 08

154)

NCERT XII Pg. # 05

155)

NCERT XII Pg.# 09

156) NCERT Page # 13

157)

NCERT 12 Page # 15,16

158)

NCERT Page # 19

159)

NCERT 12 Page # 13

160)

NCERT 12 Page 18

161)

NCERT 12 Page # 12,15

162)

NCERT 12 Page # 11
 163)

NCERT 12 Page # 11

164)

NCERT 12 Page # 07

165)

NCERT 12 Page # 17

166)

NCERT 12 Page # 16

167)

NCERT 12 Page # 20, 21

168)

NCERT 12 Page 9

169)

NCERT 12 Page # 41

170)

NCERT 12 Page 43

171)

NCERT 12 Page # 43

172)

NCERT 12 Page # 45

173)

NCERT 12 Page 46

174)

NCERT 12 Page # 27

175)

NCERT 12 Page # 27

176)

NCERT 12 Page # 31,33

 177)

NCERT 12 Page # 34

178)

NCERT 12 Page # 31,33

179)

NCERT 12 Page # 31

180)

NCERT 12 Page # 31

181)

NCERT 12 Page # 35

182)

NCERT 12 Page # 35

183)

NCERT 12 Page # 36

185)

NCERT 12 Page # 38

186)

Fact.
→ 2 male + 1 female gamete.
→ 2 male nuclei + 2 polar nuclei, 1 female nuclei.

188)

NCERT 12 Page # 22

189)

NCERT 12 Page # 19

190)

NCERT 12 Page # 11,12

191)

NCERT 12 Page # 17

192)
NCERT 12 Page 23

193)

NCERT 12 Page # 5,7,8

194)

NCERT 12 Page # 40

195)

NCERT 12 Page # 44

196)

NCERT 12 Page # 44

197)

NCERT 12 Page # 28

198)

NCERT 12 Page # 37

199)

NCERT 12 Page # 29

200)

NCERT 12 Page # 37