Health Assessment B.

Viral infection of the skin

1. What kind of data makes up the health C. Bacterial infection of the skin

history D. Viral infection of the nail

A. Subjective data 7. is when you skin is a blue color and

B. Objective data indicates that the skin has an increase

C.All of the above concentration of deoxygenated blood

D.None of these A. Erythema

2. The clinical term for nail biting is B. Jaundice

A. Koilonychia C. Pallor

B. Onychophagy D. Cyanosis

C. Onycholysis 8. This is a yellow color to the skin, indication

D. Leuconychia of liver disease or obstruction of bile flow,

3. The purpose of health history and physical results from rising amounts of billirubin in

assessment is..... blood white- see in sclera of eye 1st dark

A. Gather baseline data skinned- oral cavity and palms of hands

B. Develop nursing diagnosis and soles of feet

C. Develop care plan A. Pallor

D. Evaluate nursing care B. Cyanosis

4. What technique is used for observation C. Jaundice

during a physical assessment? D. Erythema

B. Inspection 9. The most commonly used test for accurate

C. Palpation measure of visual acuity is which of the

B.Percussion following?

C.Auscultation A. Jaegar Card

B. Confrontation Test
C. Snellen Eye Chart
5. This body part is best used to assess D. Hirschberg Test
pulsation, texture, shape, size & consistency 10. When assessing the eyes OD...refers to
A. Pads of fingertips which of the following?
B. Back of hand A. Right
C. Palm of hand B. Left
C. Both
6. Herpes simples is a D. Neither
A. Fungal infection of the nail
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11. For the Snellen eye Chart Test results....the D. None of these
larger the denominator =..... 16. Night Blindness occurs with which of the
A. The poorer the vision following...
B. The better the vision A. Optic atrophy
C. None of the above B. Vitamin B deficiency
D. All of the above C. Vitamin A deficiency
D. Glaucoma
12. The result from the near vision test that is 17. Which of the following terms refers to the
equivalent to 20/20 is which of the inability to tolerate light?
following? A. Photopia
A. 12/12 B. Diplopia
B. Normal C. Photophobia
C. 14/14 D. Scotoma
D. There is no equivalent 18. Which of the following tests are direct
13. A 42 year old woman who has problems inspections of extraocular muscle function?
during the nearvision testing, due to the A. Confrontation Test
decrease in power of accomodation, suffers B. Corneal Light Reflex (Hirschberg Test)
from which of the following conditions? C. Corneal Assessment
A. Tropia D. Cover Test
B. Phoria 19. Functional Health pattern designed by
C. Strabismus A. Marjory Gorden
D. Presbyopia B. Florence nightingale
14. A gross measure of peripheral vision, in C. Abdullah
which the patients peripheral vision is D. None of the above
tested in comparison to the nurse's is 20. Normal color range for the optic disc is
referred to as ___________________
A. Confrontation Test A. Creamy yellow-orange to pink
B. Cover Test B. Light pink to red
C. The Hirschberg Test C. Creamy yellow-to brown
D. Diagnostic Positions Test D. Bright yellow-white
15. -------------is the sound of normal lung 21. An elderly patient complains of dry itchy
A. Resonance eyes, upon closer assessment the nurse
B. Wheezy notices that the lower lid is loose and is
C. Dull
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 slightly rolling outward. This abnormality D. Lobule
is known as which of the following... 26. The external large rim of the auricle of the
A. Entropian ear
B. Esophoria A. Cerumen
C. Ectropian B. Helix
D. Ptosis C. Tragus
22. Red, scaly, greasy flakes and thickened, D. Lobule
crusted lid margins occur with sthylococcal 27. Also called the eardrum, this membrane
infection or seborrheic dermatitis of the lid separates the external ear and middle ear
edge. Which of the following terms is used A. Tympanic membrane
for this condition? B. Ossicles
A. Dacroyocystisis C. Eustachian tube
B. Dacryoadenitis D. Cochlea
C. Hordeolum 28. ones of the middle ear: the malleus, the
D. Blepharitis incus, and the stapes
23. A serious result of blunt trauma results in A. Tympanic membrane
blood in the anterior chamber or B. Ossicles
spontaneous hemorrhage. This condition is C. Eustachian tube
referred to as which of the following? D. Cochlea
A. Hypopyon 29. Mucous-lined, air-filled cavities that
B. Hyphema surround the nasal cavity and perform the
C. Pterygium same air-processing functions of filtration,
D. Papilledema moistening, and warming
24. Increased extraocular pressure can cause a A. Paranasal sinuses
red patch on the eye, which is not a serious B. Uvula
problem isknown as which of the following? C. Palate
A. Conjunctivitis D. Presbycusis
B. Iritis 30. Swimmer's ear, infection of the outer ear or
C. Subconjuctival Hemorrhage ear canal
D. Corneal Abrasion A. Otitis externa
25. The external portion of the ear B. Mastoiditis
A. Auricle or pinna C. Air conduction (AC)
B. Helix D. Bone conduction (BC)
C. Tragus
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31. The transmission of sound through the
tympanic membrane to the cochlea and
auditory nerve
A. Otitis externa
B. Mastoiditis
C. Air conduction (AC)
D. Bone conduction (BC)
32. A 2-years-old child is scheduled for
removal of her tonsils and adenoids. On
which areas of this client's throat will the
surgery be done?
A. Nasopharynx and oropharynx
B. Oropharynx and palate
C. Oropharynx and laryngopharynx
D. Nasopharynx and laryngopharynx
33. A client reports a family history of ear
problems and hearing loss and is concerned
about agoing deaf. The most appropriate
response by the nurse is:
A. "Don't worry, hearing loss is
hereditary."
B. "You will likely have hearing problems."
C. "What medications are you currently
taking?"
D. "Hearing loss can be hereditary. Have
you noticed any changes in your hearing?"
34. The nurse notes dense, white patches on a
client's tympanic membrane. What does
this finding suggest?
A. An infection of the middle ear
B. Increased pressure in the middle ear
C. A blocked eustachian tube
D. Scars from prior infections
35. During the Weber test, the sound lateralizes
to the client's right ear. This finding
suggests:
A. A normal finding for the Weber test.
B. The test should be repeated.
C. The client has nerve damage.
D. The client has a potential hearing loss.
36. The nurse notes that a client has a smooth,
red, shiny tongue with no lesions. Which of
the following is the most appropriate in this
situation?
A. Ask whether the client has a history of
halitosis.
B. Ask the client to describe his diet.
C. Look in the client record for a history of
leukoplakia.
D. Continue with assessment as this is a
normal finding for the tongue.
not 37. Sebaceous glands secrete
A. Sweat
B. Uric acid
C. Water
D. Sebum
38. The skin plays a part in increasing body
temperature by which of the following?
A. Sweating
B. Shivering
C. Vasodilation
D. None of these
39. Which of the following is a pigment found
in the skin?
A. Melanin
B. Keratin
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 C. Collagen A. Inspection ,Palpation ,Percussion
D. Elastin ,Auscultation
B. Palpation, inspection, percussion,
40. Collection of subjective and objective data auscultation
to determine a client’s overall level of C. Inspection, percussion, palpation,
functioning in order to make a professional auscultation
D. Auscultation, percussion, palpation,
clinical judgment are.
inspection
A. Medical assessment 45. Elevated 'spot'; palpable, firm,
B. Nursing assessment circumscribed lesion generally less than 5
C. Health assessment mm-1cm in diameter. Example:
D. Health scabies/insect bites, ringworm
41. It is an abnormal highly personal and A. Macule
subjective feeling in which individual B. Papule
C. Nodule
physical, emotional , intellectual ,social,
D. Blister
developmental or spiritual function is 46. Skin loss extending epidermis, necrotic
thought to be diminished or impaired tissue loss bleeding and scarring possible
A. Illness known as:
B. Wellness A. Scar
C. Disease B. Nodule
D. Health C. Ulcer
D. Lesion
42. POMR stand for… 47. pain around the eye, forehead, and cheek,
A. Process Oriented Memory Pain unilateral are:
Resolution A. migraine headache
B. Problem oriented medical record B. tension headache
C. Principles of Marketing Research C. throbbing
D. cluster headache
D. Piece of Mind Radio
48. Abnormality of a body or mind that causes
43. Positions used during nursing assessment,
discomfort, dysfunction, distress or death to
medical examinations, and during
the person afflicted or those in contact with
diagnostic procedures are
person
A. Dorsal recumbent, Supine
A. Wellness
B. Sims, Prone
B. Disease
C. Lithotomic ,sitting
C. Health
D. All of the above
D. Illness
44. Which sequence are correct for physical
49. Which option is correct for therapeutic
examination:
communication techniques:
A. Accepting, Broad opening, reflecting
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 B. Advising, Challenging, Defending A. Atrial rate.
C. Empathy, Acceptance, trust B. Ventricular rate.
D. None of them C. Configuration of the flutter waves.
D. PR interval.

56. What's an important teaching point for the

50. Although the assessment phase of the
patient receiving a heart transplant?
nursing process precedes the other phase,
A. He'll need to stay indoors during the
the assessment phase is
winter months.
A. Continuous. B. He'll need to take
B. Completed on admission. immunosuppressant’s for at least 6
C. Linear. months following surgery.
D. Performed only by nurses. C. He'll be at risk for life-threatening
51. All the diagnostics listed below are crucial infections because of the medications
in diagnosing a heart attack except: he'll be taking.
D. After 6 weeks, he'll no longer be at
A. Electrocardiogram (ECG)
risk for rejection
B. Stress Test
57. The normal pacemaker of the heart is the
C. CT Head
D. None of these A. Sinoatrial (SA) node.
52. ______________ is an itchy, swollen lesion B. AV node.
C. Bundle of His.
that lasts only a few hours. An example is D. Ventricles.
hives or an insect bite. 58. Straight movements of the eye are
A. Bulla controlled by the
B. Papule
A. Lacrimal muscles.
C. Vesicle
B. Oblique muscles.
D. Wheal
C. Corneal muscles.
53. The most commonly used method of
D. Rectus muscles.
percussion is 59. An adult client tells the nurse that her
A. Direct percussion. peripheral vision isn’t what it used to be
B. Mild percussion. and shehas a blind spot in her left eye. The
C. Indirect percussion. nurse should refer the client for evaluation
D. Blunt percussion. of possible
54. 56 .The palpable vibration on the chest wall A. Glaucoma.
when the client speaks B. Increased intracranial pressure.
C. Bacterial infection.
A. Dullness
D. Migraine headache.
B. Fremitus
C. Bronchophony
D. Egophony
60. The transmission of sound waves through
55. In atrial flutter, the key consideration in the external ear and middle ear is known as
determining treatment is the A. Perceptive hearing.
B. Conductive hearing.
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 C. External hearing. 66. During assessment of the genitilia of an
D. Connective hearing. adult male, the nurse has an erection. The
61. How many cervical vertebrae are in the
human spine? nurse should
A. Four A. Explain to the client that this often
B. Five happens during an examination.
C. Six B. Cover the client’s genitals and
D. Seven discontinue the examination.
62. Pt Tells the nurse that her breasts become C. Allow the client time to rest before
lumpy and sore before menstruation but proceeding with the examination.
get better at the end of the menstrual cycle. D. Continue the examination in unhurried
The nurse should explain to the client manners
thatthese symptoms are often associated 67. To palpate tenderness of an adult's
with a female client
A. Malignant tumors. appendix, where should you begin?
B. Fiber adenoma. A. Left lower quadrant
C. Fibrocystic breast disease. B. Left upper quadrant
D. Increased estrogen production. C. Right lower quadrant
63. To test range of motion, the nurse should have D. Right upper quadrant
the client 68. The transmission of sound waves through
A. Protrude and retract jaw
the external ear and middle ear is known as
B. Move jaw side to side
C. Open mouth as wide as possible E.Perceptive hearing.
D. Clench the teeth F.Conductive hearing.
64. The nurse is auscultating the heart sounds G.External hearing.
of an adult client. To auscultate H.Connective hearing.
Erb’spoint,the nurse should place the 69. How many cervical vertebrae are in the human
stethoscope at the spine?
A. Second intercostal space at the right
E. Four
sternal border F. Five
B. Third to fifth intercostal space at the G. Six
left sternal border H. Seven
C. Apex of the heart near the 70. Pt Tells the nurse that her breasts become
midclavicular line.
lumpy and sore before menstruation but
D. Fourth or fifth intercostal space at the
left lower sternal border. get better at the end of the menstrual cycle.
65. The nurse plans to assess an adult client’s The nurse should explain to the client that
kidneys for tenderness. The nurse should these symptoms are often associated with a
assess the area at the
A. Right upper quadrant female client
B. Left upper quadrant. E. Malignant tumors.
C. External oblique angle. F. Fiber adenoma.
D. Costo vertebral angle. G. Fibrocystic breast disease.
H. Increased estrogen production.