Professional Documents
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EFA EXIT Converted (1) Merged
EFA EXIT Converted (1) Merged
Ans .Airway
Ans.direct pressure
Ans.10min
5.when caring for someone who has sufferd an electric shock, you would not….
Ans.IV injection
8.what should you do if you think the victim has serious internal bleeding?
Ans: apply cool running water until there is litter or no remaining pain
16. What should a casualty with severe allergy carry at all time
Ans: adrenaline
18. To Flesh an eye that has been exposed to a chemical, have the injured eye lower than
the unaffected eye
Ans: True
19. Which of the following includes the top layers of skin and involve blistering
20. When Dealing with an unconscious casualty, we should check upto…… for normal
breathing
Ans: 10 sec
22. What will be the effect if a person shows the symptoms of drowsiness?
Ans: Unconscious
Ans: A bruise
25. When Performing CPR on an adult, How deep should the chest compression be?
Ans: 2 inches
Ans: The circulatory system fails to deliver blood to all parts of the body
27. what do you do for a victim who has a bleeding injury to the mouth and you are sure
that there is no head,neck,or spine injury.
Ans: Either A or C
29. when caring for someone who is suffering from frostbite ,you should not…
Ans: Rub vigorously until skin appears red and feels warm.
30. when giving care for external bleeding What should you do first?
31. When caring for a victim who has an object impaled in their hand,you should…
32. A victim is coughing up blood with bleeding from the mouth and is tender in the
abdomen. Pulse is weak and rapid. The victim is having signs of
33. What is the first thing you should do for someone you suspect has an Electrical burn?
34. What should you do FIRST if someone is unconscious but you are not a trained first
aider?
36. How can you reduce the risk of disease transmission when caring for open, bleeding
wounds?
Ans: Septic
38. You should suspect a victim has head and spine injuries for……
Ans: This type of fracture is best handled by a traction splint applied by those with special
training
40. of the following casualties, which would you care for first? The casualty who is?
41. Sharp, stabbing twinges of pain in the chest is a sure sign of a heart attack
Ans: False
Ans: Keep the shoe on , apply an ankle splint and apply heat if possible
43. A crew has his finger severed off, what action would be the best?
Ans: Wrap the severed finger in sterile gauze, place it in a plastic bag, put the beg on ice
transport both finger and the victim to the hospital
44.When performing CPR on a child how deep should the chest compressions be?
Ans: 1 ½ Inches
45. Which of the following techniques is not suitable for moving an unconscious Victim?
Ans: Four-handed seat carry
46. The primary symptom of the advanced stages of hypothermia requiring immediate
medical attention is violent shivering
Ans: False
47. Which of the following correctly describes the CPR Technique for an adult:
48. Severe Bleeding is a “Hurry Case” Which of the following statements is true:
Ans: Try to avoid direct contact with the victim’s blood by using latex gloves or another
barrier
49. A Person indicates that he was bitten by a snake, what would you do?
Ans: Was the Wound, Keeping injured area lower than the heart: get professional medical
care within 30 min
50: What should you do if you think the victim has serious internal bleeding?
Ans: Apply cool running water until there is little or no remaining pain
52. What do you for a victim who has a bleeding injury to the mouth and you are sure that
there is no head, neck or spine injury.
Ans: Either a or C
Ans: Have the victim lean forward. Apply gentle pressure on the nostril. Apply cold towels
54. What treatment does a victim who’s life threatening condition is “not breathing” need?
Ans: The Circulatory system fails to deliver blood to all parts of the body
57. What is the appropriate treatment for a suspected broken collarbone or shoulder
Ans: Apply a simple sling. Bind the sling to the chest with a cravat
58. What would you do if a victim had a body a body part torn or cut off?
60. White or Grayish-yellow patches on someone’s ears noses or cheeks are signs of
Ans: Frostbite
61. who is required to show proficiency in medical first aid training on board a vessel?
Ans . smile
63 . some people are very allergic to insect bites and stings. This condition is called
Ans . apply pressure and elevate the would to slow blood flow
Ans . bones
68 . if a known diabetic appears has missed their lunch and vague ,you should do what
immediately
69 . a person suffering from hypoglycemia or low blood sugar can be quickly treated by
Ans . providing food with high sugar content such as chocolate ,peanut butter ,or even plain
sugar
70 . the most effective first aid treatment for chemical burns is to immediately
71 . hyperglycaemia is
73 . when it is necessary to remove a victim from a life threatening situation, the person
giving first aid must
Ans . rinse the effected area immediately with soap and water
79 . doctors recommend the RICE method for treating sprains, rest, ice, ____and elevate?
Ans . compress
82 . which of the following steps should normally be take first by those who have boarded a
lifeboat in an emergency situation
83 . a rescuer can most easily determine whether or not an adult victim has a pulse by
checking the pulse at the __________-
84 . which procedure should NOT be done for a person who has fainted?
85 . in reviving a person who has been overcome by gas fumes ,which of the following
treatment would you AVOID using ?
86. which of the following precautions should be taken when treating burns caused by
contact with dry lime ?
Ans . before washing with water ,the lime should be brushed away gently and removed from
skin contact
87 . severe exposure to chlorine gas can be fatal . chlorine gas is primarily a ___
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Instructions
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Complete questions 1 through 50 for each of the following multiple choice questions (1 mark
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each). Circle the letter (a, b, c, d) indicating your answer. If you change your answer before handing
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in your paper, circle your new choice, place an "X" over your previous choice and initial the change.
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Select the single BEST answer to each of the following questions.
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1. The acronym SAMPLE stand for signs and 3. Increased respiratory difficulty
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symptoms, allergies, medications, past ○
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accompanied by a weak ineffective
history, ________ and events. cough, wheezing, high-pitched
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shock is to:
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d. Follicular.
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March 2007
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5. A small percentage of casualties with 8. An industrial worker sustains a severe
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chronic obstructive pulmonary disease laceration to his forearm. Direct pressure
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have hypoxic drive. These patients to the wound fails to control the bleeding.
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breathe because of a: The correct arterial pressure point to
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control the bleeding is the:
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a. High oxygen level.
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a. Carotid.
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b. Low oxygen level.
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b. Radial.
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c. High carbon dioxide level.
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c. Femoral.
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d. Low carbon dioxide level.
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d. Brachial.
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the chain of services known as the: return of normal colour is done to check
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for:
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system.
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system.
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indicate:
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b. EMCA.
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a. An oncoming faint.
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c. OPQRST.
b. Emotional stress.
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d. AVPU.
c. Internal bleeding.
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4
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11. For which one of the following infectious 14. During the primary assessment of a
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diseases is a vaccine presently available: responsive adult patient, you detect a
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breathing rate of 28 breaths per minute.
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a. Herpes. You would categorize this as:
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b. AIDS. a. Above normal.
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c. Mononucleosis. b. Below normal.
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d. Hepatitis B. c. Normal.
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d. Indeterminate.
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12. Based on current research, which of the 15. A blood-soaked dressing on the arm
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following statements about the AIDS virus indicates that bleeding has not yet been
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a. It can be found in blood and semen. a. Remove the dressing and check the
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wound.
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d. Apply a tourniquet.
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a. Septic.
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a. hot zone
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b. Psychogenic.
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b. warm zone
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c. Cardiogenic.
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c. cold zone
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d. Hemorrhagic.
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d. neutral zone
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March 2007
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17. Which one of the following is considered 20. The secondary assessment of the patient
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a breach of duty: consists of a head to toe examination and a
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check of the:
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a. failure to obtain consent.
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a. Pressure points.
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b. failure to wear your name tag.
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b. Procedures for administering CPR.
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c. inappropriate use of lights and siren.
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c. Manual stabilization of the head.
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d. insubordination.
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d. Vital signs.
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18. Immediately before a seizure, the patient 21. You are taking blood pressure by palpation.
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c. Tonic. c. 90 mmHg
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d. Postical. d. 80 mmHg
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19. The emergency responder should 22. You are called for an asthma attack,
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a. Alert. b. Bronchodilators
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d. Unresponsive.
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23. In topographic anatomy, the term "lateral"
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26. A condition where air builds up in the
means:
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pleural space, collapses the lung and
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puts pressure on the heart is called:
a. Nearer the midline of the body.
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a. Closed pneumothorax
b. Away from the midline of the body.
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b. Tension pneumothorax
c. Nearer the head.
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c. Hemothorax
d. Away from the head.
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d. Open pneumothorax
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24. Which one of the following conditions may 27. Oxygen humidification is recommended if
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mimic the signs of acute alcohol you are administering oxygen for longer
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intoxication? than:
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a. Hypoglycemia a. 15 minutes.
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25. Which one of the following breathing 28. You find a male patient with obvious
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b. Hyperventilation
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a. Anaphylaxis.
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c. Emphysema.
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b. Bronchitis.
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d. Dyspnea
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c. Emphysema.
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d. Asthma.
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March 2007
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32. A rapid body survey should take no longer
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29. When you are giving mouth-to-nose AR,
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you should: than:
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a. Hold the casualty's mouth closed. a. 30 seconds
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b. Pinch the nostrils closed before b. 45 seconds
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blowing air into the casualty.
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c. 60 seconds
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c. Tilt the head back less than for the
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mouth-to-mouth method of AR. d. 90 seconds
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d. Keep the mouth and nose closed
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between breaths.
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30. During one-rescuer CPR for adults, the 33. To correctly size an oropharyngeal airway
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31. A guideline for normal systolic blood 34. ASA should be offered to the patient with
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pressure in an adult male would be: chest pain who is taking nitroglycerin:
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a. 50 plus the man's age up to 150 mm. a. Before the first dose of nitro
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Hg.
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c. 80 plus the man's age up to 130 mm. d. After the third dose of nitro
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Hg.
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mm. Hg.
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March 2007
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8
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35. When suctioning a non-breathing adult 38. A flail chest results when :
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casualty, a first aider should:
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a. Three ribs are broken on each side of
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a. Apply suction as soon as the suction tip the chest.
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touches the mouth.
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b. Part of the spine becomes separated
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b. Insert the suction tip deep into the from the ribs.
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larynx.
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c. The breastbone is broken in three
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c. Suction for no more than 15 seconds. places.
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d. Insert the tip with the curved side d. Several ribs are broken in more than
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towards the tongue. one place.
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36. Which of the following devices provides the 39. Status epilepticus refers to:
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a. Nasal cannula.
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37. You suspect a patient's pain is due to a 40. OPQRST is used to assess:
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March 2007
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41. The recommended oxygen flow rate for 44. To prepare a completely amputated part
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nasal cannulae (nasal prongs) is: of the body for transportation to hospital
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with the casualty, you should:
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a. 1-6 litres/min.
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a. Place it in a clean plastic bag filled
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b. 6-8 litres/min. with cold water.
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c. 8-12 litres/min. b. Wrap it in clean, moist dressings and
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keep it cool.
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d. 10-15 litres/min.
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c. Wash it off and place it into a bag of
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crushed ice.
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d. Wrap it in clean, moist dressings and
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keep it at body temperature.
protein.
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b. An overdose of insulin.
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infection.
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43. Manual support of the head and neck of 46. A conscious casualty who has suffered a
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the patient with suspected spinal injury stroke becomes unconscious. To keep his
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should:
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to a backboard.
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10
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47. A worker has fallen from a six-foot ladder 49. The correct ratio of compressions to
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onto a concrete floor. You first action ventilations for two -rescuer CPR on a
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should be. child is:
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a. Take a SAMPLE history. a. 5:1
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b. Perform a secondary survey. b. 15:2
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c. Take charge and perform a scene c. 5:2
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survey.
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d. 15:1
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d. Asess the rate and quality of breathing.
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48. To determine whether a c-spine injury has 50. Shock is best defined as:
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a. The force that causes the injury and the b. Inadequate delivery of oxygen to the
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11
ELECTIVE SESSIONS
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Instructions
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Complete only the multiple choice questions that correspond to the electives of your program. (1
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mark each). Circle the letter (a, b, c, d) indicating your answer. If you change your answer before
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handing in your paper, circle your new choice, place an "X" over your previous choice and initial the
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change.
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Select the single BEST answer to each of the following questions.
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14 14 AED
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54. When transporting a patient, a shock should be
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51. The most critical factor in defibrillation is: administered:
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a. The time from collapse to ○
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a. Only in a vehicle that is properly
defibrillation. grounded.
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b. The skill of the AED responder. b. Whenever the machine indicates shock
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necessary.
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history.
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20 km per hour.
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b. In asystole.
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a. Directly on pacemaker.
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c. In ventricular fibrillation.
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a. 1.
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b. 2.
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c. 3.
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d. 4.
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56. You have shocked a casualty and there are 59. The most immediate serious
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complication associated with burns is:
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signs of circulation. You should:
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a. Shock
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a. Remove the AED from the scene.
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b. Infection
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b. Leave the AED attached to the casualty.
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c. Scarring
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c. Disconnect the cables from the AED.
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d. Hypothermia
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d. Remove the pads from the chest.
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1515 Burns
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57. Burns that involve all layers of the skin 60. A man is filling a gas tank on a generator
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b. Partial thickness.
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a. Critical
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c. Full thickness.
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b. Superficial
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d. First degree.
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c. Moderate
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d. Minor
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16 Wound Management
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the hand represents ____ % of the body a. A deep break in the skin involving
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c. Five
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d. Nine epidermis.
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62. A soft tissue injury resulting from the 65. Tetanus is a condition:
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impact of a blunt object is called:
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a. That involves specific infection in the
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a. A laceration. lower jaw.
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b. An avulsion. b. That only occurs in the third world.
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c. A contusion. c. That is caused by a virus
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d. A concussion. d. That can be prevented by
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immunization.
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63. The acronym SHARP refers to: 66. Which one of the following factors
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wound injury.
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a. High velocity.
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potential damage.
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d. Low energy.
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injuries.
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64. Responders involved in wound management 67. Which action is part of first aid for a
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b. All open wounds are contaminated to b. Plug the nose with gauze.
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some degree.
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14
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68. To prevent further contamination and 70. If it becomes necessary to thaw a hand
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infection of a wound, you should cleanse the with deep frostbite you should ensure
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surrounding skin by: that:
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a. Swabbing in circular motions around the a. The patient sees a doctor no later
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wound. than 48 hrs after thawing
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b. Wiping lightly over the edges of the b. There is no danger of refreezing
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wound.
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c. Adequate pain relief medication is
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c. Swabbing from one side of the wound to
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available
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the other.
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d. Capillary refill takes no longer than
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d. Wiping away from the edges of the 15 seconds
wound. ○
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a. Heat exhaustion.
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b. Stroke.
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including:
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d. Heatstroke.
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and respiration.
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14
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and respiration.
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patient
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15
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76. After discovering a possible fracture you
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73. You are alone and must remove a casualty
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with a suspected spinal injury from a very should assess which of the following before
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and after splinting:
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hazardous situation. You should
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a. Sensation, morbidity, protrusion.
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a. Grab his wrists and drag him lengthwise.
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b. Capillary refill, pulse, sensation.
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b. Keep his body rigid, support his head and
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neck and roll him away from the scene.
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c. Pulse, motor function, sensation.
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c. Tie his legs together and drag him feet
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d. Crepitus, resistance, pain.
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first.
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d. Grasp his clothing under his shoulders,
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support his head and neck, and drag him
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lengthwise. ○
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74. To safely perform a chair carry you need 77. A worker has had his hand caught in a car
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bandages.
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rubbing together
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uninjured side.
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79. Force on a joint may cause bone ends to 82. Effective immobilization of the tibia includes
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come out of their proper position. This type immobilization of the:
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of injury is called a:
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a. Knee, tibia, fibula and ankle.
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a. Sprain
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b. Femur, knee, tibia and ankle.
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b. Fracture
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c. Femur and ankle.
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c. Dislocation
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d. Hip, femur, knee, tibia and ankle.
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d. Strain
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80. After an extremity fracture has been 83. You can best control the swelling and pain
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circulation:
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of heat.
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the:
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a. Humerus.
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b. Fibula.
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c. Tibia.
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d. Femur.
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March 2007
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17
21
21 Head/spinal/pelvic Injury
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84. If the patient has an open fracture
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86. A concussion is best described as:
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responders should :
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a. Bruising or swelling of the spinal cord.
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a. Attempt to push bones back into the
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wound.
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b. Tearing of brain tissue.
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b. Use bulky dressings to pad around the
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c. Pooling of blood in the brain.
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protruding bones ends.
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d. Temporary loss of brain function
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c. Apply pressure directly over the
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fracture to control bleeding.
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d. Apply a tourniquet above the fracture
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site. 87. You are examining the head of an infant who
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○ has been involved in a car crash. You need
to be aware of:
○
following injuries:
a. Soft spots in the infant’s skull.
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a. A fractured pelvis.
b. Infant’s pupils react differently than
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○
adults.
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c. A dislocated hip.
forcefully.
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to be strapped?
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a. Chest
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b. Pelvis
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c. Legs
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d. Head
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18
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89. Contusions are: 91. Which one of the following changes in vital
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signs is characteristic of brain injury:
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a. Usually controlled with direct
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pressure a. Increase in pulse rate.
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b. Very serious for the patient due to b. Constant respiratory rate.
○
○
increased pressure in the brain.
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c. increase in blood pressure.
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c. Usually associated with scalp
○
lacerations d. Decrease in blood pressure.
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d. Almost always seen in children.
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90. The Glasgow Coma Scale measures three 92. “Raccoon eyes” indicates:
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response.
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voluntary movement.
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19
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93. You are called to the scene of a motorcycle 96. When dealing with pelvic injuries you must
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○
crash. The rider is dazed and walking always consider the possibility of:
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around. You should:
○
○
a. Ruptured bladder.
○
a. Suspect spinal injury and manage
○
○
accordingly. b. Ruptured spleen.
○
○
○
b. Not worry about spinal injury because c. Spinal injuries.
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the person is mobile.
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d. Rib fractures.
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c. Advise the person to lie down in case of
○
fainting.
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97. To properly measure a cervical collar, you:
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d. Determine the chief complaint and
○
○
provide first aid for it. ○
○
greatest comfort.
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c. Apply a cervical immobilization device trapezius muscle to the angle of the jaw
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22
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95. A helmet must be removed from a patient: 98. Contact dermatitis occurs when:
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c. When the helmet has a face mask that c. Hot gases are inhaled.
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March 2007
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20
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99. Carbon monoxide:
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102. Muscles are attached to the bones by:
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a. May result from fires or automobile
○
exhaust.
○
a. Ligaments.
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○
b. Has a very distinct odour
○
b. Meninges.
○
○
c. Is not life-threatening.
○
c. Cartilage.
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d. Requires the administration of low
○
d. Tendons.
○
concentration O 2.
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○
○
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○
○
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100. A child has swallowed an unknown ○
the abdomen:
○
○
a. Lower right.
○
b. Upper right.
○
c. Upper left.
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○
d. Lower left.
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23
○
a. Cutaneous tissue.
○
○
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b. Dermis.
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c. Adipose tissue.
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d. Epidermis.
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March 2007
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21
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104. The white exterior portion of the eye is called 106. The pulse point located in the upper
○
the:
○
portion of the thigh is called the:
○
○
a. Pupil.
○
a. Popliteal.
○
○
b. Sclera.
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b. Femoral.
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c. Cornea.
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c. Brachial.
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d. Iris.
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d. Temporal.
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105. A skeletal injury to the lower back could result of the skin?
○
a. Cervical vertebrae.
○
○
b. Production of proteins.
○
b. Thoracic vertebrae.
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c. Lumbar vertebrae.
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d. Coccygeal vertebrae.
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March 2007
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22
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24 Behavioural Emergencies
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108. Urine is expelled from the body through
○
○
the:
○
110. When communicating with patients:
○
○
a. Kidneys.
○
a. Stay at eye level & maintain eye contact.
○
○
b. Bladder.
○
b. Stay as close to the patient as possible.
○
○
c. Ureters.
c. Use medical terminology to enhance
○
○
credibility.
○
d. Urethra.
○
○
d. Hide facts if the situation is serious.
○
○
○
○
○
○
○
○
○
○
responder should:
○
○
○
a. Spleen.
○
b. Liver. hallucinations.
○
○
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d. Gall bladder.
○
○
○
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a. Ignore it.
○
○
○
situation.
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March 2007
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23
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25
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25 Eye Injuries 115. Signs and symptoms of intense light burns
○
to the eyes include:
○
○
113. Remove a contact lense only if:
○
a. Bleeding from the conjunctiva.
○
○
a. There is a chemical burn to the eye.
○
b. Gritty feeling in the eyes.
○
○
b. The eyeball is injured.
○
c. Lacerations to the globe.
○
○
c. Transport time is short.
○
d. Discolouration of the orbits.
○
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d. The casualty is wearing hard lenses.
○
○
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○
○
○
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○
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dressings.
○
bleeding.
○
particle.
d. Require moderate pressure on the
○
○
to medical help.
○
○
○
○
a. Diluted vinegar.
○
○
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b. Saline solution.
○
○
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d. Sodium bicarbonate.
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March 2007
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24
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26
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26 Gastrointestinal and Genitourinary
○
○
121. In the case of abdominal evisceration, the
○
emergency responder should:
○
118. Signs and symptoms of acute abdomen
○
○
include: a. Irrigate the wound before dressing it.
○
○
○
a. Excessive hunger or thirst. b. Give oxygen by nasal canula.
○
○
○
b. Hypertension and brachycardia. c. Dress the wound with a moist, sterile
○
○
dressing
○
c. Distension with rebound tenderness.
○
○
d. Gently reposition the organs in the
○
d. Fever with deep, shallow breathing. abdominal cavity.
○
○
○
○
○
○
○
○
○
delayed.
○
patient.
○
○
○
120. Which one of the following is not crucial in 123. Trauma to male and female genitalia:
○
nerve endings.
○
○
○
hypovolemic shock.
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March 2007
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25
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27 Multiple Casualty Incident (MCI)
○
○
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124 The priorities of MCIs include all but one 127. The most knowledgable responder in the
○
of the following. first ambulance is generally assigned to
○
○
role of:
○
a. Overestimating the resources that may
○
○
be required. a. Incident manager.
○
○
○
b. Comprehensive care of all patients. b. Triage officer.
○
○
○
c. Planning for the positioning of all c. Staging officer.
○
vehicles.
○
○
d. Communications officer.
○
d. Arranging for advanced level care
providers at the scene. ○
○
○
○
○
○
○
triaged.
○
conscious.
○
○
immediately.
○
○
○
○
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○
level 1.
○
○
○
level 2.
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March 2007
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26
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○
28 Substance Abuse
○
○
129. The factor which indicates a drug related
○
132 An essential element of a responder’s
○
emergency is life-threatening is: verbal report includes:
○
○
○
a. Altered mental status. a. The name of the patient.
○
○
○
b. Dilated pupils slow to respond to b. The patient’s telephone number.
○
light.
○
○
c. The time of the incident.
○
c. Lack of coordination and slurred
○
○
speech. d. The patient’s response to the care
○
○
given
○
d. High, low or irregular pulse.
○
○
○
○
30 Geriatric Emergencies
○
○
○
130. Constant monitoring of the patient in a 133. Which one of the following is the
○
○
a. The patient will likely try to take more a. Check the mucous membranes in the
○
○
quickly.
○
○
violent.
○
○
○
○
29
29 Communications
○
prone to vomitting.
○
○
March 2007
○
○
27
○
○
○
135. Which of the following is NOT a special 138. To help control bleeding after the baby is
○
○
consideration when assessing elderly born:
○
patients:
○
○
a. Pack the vagina with pads.
○
a. Geriatric patients often have a reduced
○
○
gag reflex. b. Massage the mother’s uterus.
○
○
○
b. Radial pulses may be weakened by c. Elevate the mother’s legs above heart
○
peripheral vascular disease. level.
○
○
○
c. Patients may not show signs of fever d. Place the mother on her right side.
○
○
even in cases of serious infection.
○
○
○
d. Mental status often reflects a fear of
○
emergency responders. ○
○
○
31 32 Pediatric Emergencies
○
31Emergency Childbirth
○
○
○
136. Crowning occurs: 139. One of the most difficult things to assess
○
a. Blood pressure.
○
○
b. Pain.
○
○
c. Adequate perfusion.
○
○
○
d. Level of consciousness.
○
○
○
○
○
○
○
○
use: children:
○
○
○
problems.
○
○
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March 2007
○
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28
○
○
○
33 Aquatic Emergencies
○
33
○
141. Assessments of children should take
○
into consideration: 144. The mammalian reflex refers to:
○
○
○
a. No splints should be used since all are a. An increase in heart rate and respiration.
○
○
designed for adult patients.
○
b. A decrease in heart rate and dilation of blood
○
○
b. Abdominal injuries are less serious vessels.
○
since muscles are less developed.
○
○
c. An increase in heart rate and constriction of
○
c. The skull has not completely fused, pupils.
○
so head injuries are uncommon.
○
○
d. A decrease in heart rate and constriction of
○
d. Chest injury is likely to involve organs
○
blood vessels.
○
without damage to ribs.
○
○
○
○
b. Focus on management of injuries to 145. Three common scuba related emergencies are:
○
the child.
○
○
bystanders.
○
parents or caregivers.
○
○
barotrauma.
○
○
○
medical facility.
○
○
○
respiration.
○
○
○
March 2007
○
○
29
○
○
○
34 34 Extended Care
○
146. In cases of near drowning:
○
○
○
a. The lungs are often filled with water
○
and require deep suctioning. 148. To reduce the risk of respiratory infection
○
○
and pneumonia where medical care is
○
b. Laryngospasm prevents water from delayed, responders should:
○
○
entering the lungs.
○
a. Have the patient breathe deeply and
○
○
c. Abdominal thrusts should always be cough.
○
performed before ventilating the
○
○
patient. b. Provide the patient with adequate
○
hydration.
○
○
d. Manual suction devices are not
○
powerful enough to remove water c. Position the patient in the position of
and fluids from the airway. ○
○
○
comfort.
33
○
○
rest.
○
○
○
○
○
○
○
○
○
○
147. You have been helping at a water rescue should consider that:
○
○
problems. You suspect air embolism. This a. Raising arms and legs will produce
○
swelling.
○
a. Oxygen at 15 lpm.
○
the heart.
○
○
b. Oxygen at 6 lpm.
○
the abdomen.
○
c. Epinepherine.
○
○
d. Inhaled steroids.
○
breathing.
○
○
○
○
○
○
○
○
○
○
○
○
○
○
○
○
○
○
March 2007
○
○
○
30
○
○
○
○
○
152. When administering medication,
150. When caring for wounds over extended
○
responders should consider that:
○
periods, always:
○
○
a Right medication, right amount, right
○
a. Remove dressings and bandages
○
person, right time, right method.
regularly to check the wound.
○
○
○
b Right nutrition, , right method, right time,
b. Clean wounds with antiseptic before
○
right person, right amount
○
applying dressings.
○
○
c Right medication, right action, right
○
c. Apply a tourniquet to prevent excessive
○
person, right time, right responsibility
bleeding.
○
○
d Right medication, right amount, right
○
d. Check regularly for signs of infection or
○
person, right responsibility, right action
○
reduced circulation.
○
○
○
should be pulled:
○
○
○
provided by:
○
○
○
regardless of MOI.
○
○
35
○
they would like to make them feel more a. First aid boxes, first aid rooms and first
○
○
d. Even if the patient is not thirsty or b. First aid stations, training programs and
○
intake.
○
record keeping.
○
○
○
training.
○
○
○
○
March 2007
○
○
31
○
○
○
155. First aid stations must: 3737Record Keeping
○
○
○
a. Be easily accessible to workers
○
158. When completing the patient narrative:
○
○
b. Have a shower
○
a. Try to establish an accurate diagnosis.
○
○
c. Be at least 6 square meters in size
○
b. Record the signs and symptoms as
○
○
accurately as possible.
d. Have oxygen available
○
○
○
c. Do not include negative data.
○
○
○
d. Always use medical terminology.
○
○
○
36 Ambulance Operation/Maintenance ○
○
○
the ambulance.
○
Care" form.
○
○
you consent.
○
○
○
situated:
○
○
○
March 2007
○
○
○
32
○
○
○
○
○
3838 General Pharmacology 39 Dental Emergencies
○
○
○
○
○
160. Sublingual medication is given: 163. To manage severe toothaches, responders
○
should:
○
○
a. By injection using an auto-injector.
○
a. Advise the patient to chew on the other
○
○
b. Under the patient’s tongue. side of the mouth.
○
○
○
c. By inhalation using a metered dose b. Advise the patient to drink hot liquids to
○
inhaler. sooth discomfort.
○
○
○
d. As a tablet to be swallowed. c. Advise the patient to suck on ice cubes
○
○
to dull the pain.
○
○
○
a second responder.
○
responders:
○
○
○
b. When the medication is commonly used a. Place the tooth back in the patient's
○
○
c. The expected results of the medication. b. Place the tooth in a cup of milk.
○
○
○
d. Actions that might not be desirable yet c. Wrap the tooth in dry gauze.
○
March 2007
○
○
33
4039 Death at Sea/Remote Areas
5. a b c d 36. a b c d 82. a b c d
16 Wound
Management 83. a b c d
6. a b c d 37. a b c d
7. a b c d 38. a b c d 61. a b c d 84. a b c d
9. a b c d 40. a b c d 63. a b c d
10. a b c d 41. a b c d 64. a b c d
11. a b c d 42. a b c d 65. a b c d
12. a b c d 43. a b c d 66. a b c d
13. a b c d 44. a b c d 67. a b c d 21 Head/Spinal/
Pelvic Injury
14. a b c d 45. a b c d 68. a b c d
15. a b c d 46. a b c d 86. a b c d
26. a b c d
19 Musculoskeletal
97. a b c d
53. a b c d - Upper Ext.
27. a b c d 54. a b c d 75. a b c d
28. a b c d 55. a b c d 76. a b c d (cont’d)
March 2007