AHLCON PUBLIC SCHOOL, MAYUR VIHAR PHASE – I, DELHI – 91

TERM- 1 FINAL EXAMINATION – 2021 - 2022

CLASS – IX
SUBJECT: SOCIAL SCIENCE

TIME: 90 MINUTES MAX: MARKS: 40

General Instructions:

1. The Question Paper contains four sections.

2. Section A has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
3. Section B has 22 questions. Attempt any 18 questions.
4. Section C has 12 questions (Case based). Attempt any 5 questions per case.
5. Section D contains 2 Map based questions. Q.59 is from History and Q.60 from
Geography. Attempt both the questions.
6. All questions carry equal marks. Each question is of 0.8 marks.
7. There is no negative marking.
8. Answer the following questions in the OMR sheet.

SECTION A: (Attempt any 20 out of 24 questions)

Q.1- In which of the following book’s was ‘the doctrine of the divine and absolute right of
the monarch’ refuted?

(A) The Social Contract

(B) What is the Third Estate
(C) The Spirit of the Laws
(D) Two Treatises of Government

Q.2- Name the direct tax levied on the Third Estate.

(A) Livre
(B) Tithe
(C) Taille
(D) Custom Duty
Q.3- Identify the correctly matched pair:
(A) Montesquieu Social Contract
(B) Livre Unit of currency in Russia
(C) Abolition of feudal System 4th August 1789
of obligations in France
(D) Right to vote to women in France 1846

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Q.4- The French philosopher whose book proposed a division of power between the
Legislature, Judiciary and Executive was:-
(A) Rousseau
(B) John Locke
(C) Montesquieu
(D) George Danton
Q.5- What was the most important result of the “Tennis Court Oath” taken by the
representatives of the Third Estate on 20th June 1789?
(A) Formed a National Assembly
(B) Executed king Louis XVI
(C) Broke the walls of the Bastille
(D) Confiscated Church’s property
Q6. Which is the westernmost longitude of India?
(A) 68° 7’ E in Gujarat
(B) 69° 7’ E in Gujarat
(C) 70° 7’ E in Gujarat
(D) 60° 7’ E in Gujarat
Q7. Which two states of India share their land boundaries with Bangladesh?
(A) Rajasthan and Assam
(B) West Bengal and Jharkhand
(C) West Bengal and Assam
(D) Assam and Uttar Pradesh

Q8. India's relationships through the____________ routes are much older than
her_______contacts.
(A) land, Air
(B) land, maritime
(C) Air, Maritime
(D) Air, Sea

Q9. Total length of India's coastline of the mainland includes______________.

(A) Andaman Islands
(B) Nicobar islands
(C) Lakshadweep Islands
(D) All of these

Q.10. Name the imaginary line in India along which time is taken as standard time.
(A) Tropic of Cancer
(B) Tropic of Capricorn
(C) Equator
(D) Standard Meridian.

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Q.11-The aims of the Constitution of India are reflected in the ____
(A) Fundamental rights
(B) Emergency provisions
(C) Directive Principles
(D) Preamble

Q.12- Elections to the Constituent Assembly were held in –

(A) July 1945

(B) August 1945
(C) July 1946
(D) September 1945

Q.13- The main objective of a constitution is to ____.

(A) Generate trust among the people

(B) Make a royal ruling body
(C) Make a profit-making institution
(D) Rule the nation

Q.14- Match column A with B

A B
(a) Motilal Nehru (i) President of the Constituent Assembly

(b) B.R Ambedkar (ii) Member of the Constituent Assembly

(c) Rajendra Prasad (iii) Chairman of the Drafting Committee
(d) Sarojini Naidu (iv) Prepared a Constitution for India in 1928

(A) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii

(B) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(C) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
(D) a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i

Q.15-Which of these is permitted under the Rule of Law?

(A) Prime Minister can be punished for violating the Constitution

(B) Police has a right to kill anybody.
(C) Women can be paid lesser salaries
(D) President can rule for as long as he wants.

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Q.16- Which of these is not a feature of monarchy, dictatorship or one -party rule?

(A) Censorship of press

(B) No opposition party or parties
(C) Citizens taking part in politics
(D) One-man rule

Q.17- Which statement/statements are INCORRECT?

i. The authority of the rules of the constitution is the same as that of any other law.
ii. Constitution doesn’t lay down how different organs of the government will be
formed.
iii. Rights of citizens and limits on the power of the government are laid down in the
constitution.
iv. A constitution is about institutions, not about values

(A) i and ii
(B) i, ii and iv
(C) ii, iii, iv
(D) iii and iv

Q.18- Which of the following statement/statements are true about the village Palampore:-
i) Palampore is well connected with neighbouring villages and towns. An all weather road
connects the village to Raiganj and further on to the nearest small town of Shahpur.
ii) This village has about 500 families belonging to several different castes. The 80 upper
caste families own the majority of land in the village.
iii) Most of the houses have electric connections. Electricity powers all the tubewells in the
fields and is used in various types of small business.
iv) Palampore has two primary schools and one high school. There is one primary health
centre run privately and one govt run dispensary where the sick are treated.
Options:
(A) i, ii, iii & iv
(B) i, ii, & iv
(C) i & iii
(D) i, iii & iv

Q.19- Which one of the following does not come under modern farming method:-
(A) Use of chemical fertilisers
(B) Use of HYV seeds
(C) Use of tractors
(D) Use of Persian wheel for irrigation
Q.20- Why is literacy rate low among the females in India?

(A) lack of equal Educational opportunities

(B) lack of transport facilities
(C) lack of infrastructure
(D) lack of income
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Q.21- Match the following and choose the correct option:

1)Small farmers A) Non farm

activity
2) Labour B) Fixed capital
3) Dairy C) Borrow
money to
arrange for the
capital
4) Machines D) The most
abundant factor
of production

Options:

(A) 1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B

(B) 1-D, 2-C, 3- A, 4-B
(C) 1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B
(D) 1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B

Q.22- Which of the following is a standard unit of measurement of land?

(A) Bigha
(B) Acre
(C) Hectare
(D) Guintha

Q.23- Why do the farmers of Palampur follow multiple cropping? Choose the correct
answer.
(A) Because the water consumption is less in this method
(B) Because this method consumes less chemical fertilisers
(C) Because this method doesn't require fertile soils
(D) Because this method is the most common way of increasing production

Q.24- Which of the following is true about the Green Revolution and its impact?

(i) The Green Revolution in the late 1950s introduced Indian farmers to cultivation
of wheat and rice using high yielding variety of seeds.
(ii) The HYV seeds promised to produce much greater amounts of grain on a single
plant. HYV seeds needed plenty of water, chemical fertilisers and pesticides to
produce best results.
(iii) Farmers of Punjab, Haryana and Western Uttar Pradesh were the first to try out
modern farming methods in India. They were rewarded with high yields of wheat.
(iv) In many areas, Green Revolution is associated with the increase in soil fertility
due to the use of chemical fertilizers.

(A) (i) only

(B) (ii), & (iii) only
(C) (ii), (iii), (iv)
(D) (i) & (iv) only
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SECTION B: (Attempt any 18 out of 22 questions)

Image based Question (Q.25)

Q.25-‘Declaration of the Rights of Man and Citizen’, was painted by the artist Le Barbier in
1790. Which of the following provisions DID NOT form a part of this Declaration?
(A) Liberty means the power to do what is not injurious to others.
(B) Men are born free.
(C) The source of all sovereignty resides in the nation.
(D) It was the duty of the individuals to protect each citizen’s natural rights.
Q.26- Women in France were actively participating in the events which brought about so
many important changes in French society. Which of the following is true about the changes
that occurred in the lives of women after the revolution:-
i) Women started their own political clubs to discuss and voice their interests.
ii) Schooling was made compulsory for all girls
iii) They were given right to vote.
iv) Marriage was made into a contract entered into freely and registered under civil law.
Options:
(A) i, ii, iii, iv
(B) i, ii, & iv
(C) i, iii, & iv
(D) ii, iii & iv
Q.27- The “Old Regime” was a term used to describe French society and institutions uptil:
(A) 1791
(B) 1789
(C) 1792
(D) 1793

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Q.28- ‘Subsistence Crisis’, which occurred frequently in France referred to-
(A) Subsidy in food grains
(B) An extreme situation endangering the basic means of livelihood
(C) Large scale production of food grains
(D) Feudal system in France
Q29. Identify the Ocean with the help of clues given below.
1. It helps India to establish close contacts with Africa, West Asia, and Europe from
the western coast and with the Southeast and East Asia from the Eastern coast.
2. The natural harbours and the vast coastline have benefitted India in the process of
trade and commerce with the distant countries as well as its neighbours.
3. It has given India a distinct climate than the rest of the Asian Continent.
(A) Southern Ocean
(B) Pacific Ocean
(C) Atlantic Ocean
(D) Indian Ocean
Q30. The sun rises two hours earlier in Arunachal Pradesh as compared to Gujarat in the
west but the watches show the same time. How does this happen? Select the correct option.
(A) There is a longitudinal gap between Arunachal Pradesh and Gujarat which is about
30 degree. Because of which there is a time lag of about 2 hours between the
states.
(B) As Arunachal Pradesh is in the East therefore the sun rises early there compared to
Gujarat.
(C) The Indian Standard Time is taken from the time of Standard Meridian of India
passing through Mirzapur in Uttar Pradesh.
(D) All of the above

Q31- How much of the total geographical area of the world does India account for
(A) 37.6 %
(B) 20.4 %
(C) 240%
(D) 2.4%

Q.32- In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and
Reason (R) Read the statements and choose the correct option:-

Assertion (A): The kings of Saudi Arabia rule because people have chosen them.
Reason (R): In a democracy, the rulers are elected by the people.

(A) Both A and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(B) Both A and R is true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false but R is true.

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Q.33- Democracy must be based on

(A) One-party system

(B) Free and fair election
(C) Dictates of the ruling party
(D) The ideas and whims of the ruler

Q.34- Democracy is considered an effective form of government because o

(A) Instability and delays
(B) corruption and hypocrisy
(C) Politicians fighting among themselves
(D) Debates, discussion and correcting mistakes

Q.35- There are no unreasonable restrictions on the citizens in what they think, how they
wish to express their thoughts and the way they wish to follow up their thoughts in
action. Which principle in the preamble is being referred to in the above lines.

(A) Justice
(B) Liberty
(C) Republic
(D) Equality

Q.36- Provisions incorporated in the Constitution for bringing changes in the Constitution
from time to time

(A) Amendment procedure

(B) Judicial decisions
(C) Executive order
(D) Decision of the P.M

Q.37- Which of the following statements is in keeping with democracy as a value?

(A) Father to daughter: I don’t want to hear your opinion about your marriage. In our
family children marry where the parents tell them to.
(B) Teacher to student: Don’t disturb my concentration by asking me questions in the
classroom.
(C) Employee to the officer: Our working hours must be reduced according to the law.
(D) Army is the most disciplined and corruption-free organisation in the country.
Therefore army should rule the country

Q.38- Which statement do you think qualify as to be meeting the basic features of
democracy?

(A) All the citizens of the country have right to vote. Elections are held regularly.
(B) The country took loan from international agencies. One of the conditions for giving
loan was that the government would reduce its expenses on education and health.
(C) People speak more than seven languages but education is available only in one
language, the Language which is spoken by 52 percent people of that country.
(D) Several organisations have given a call for peaceful demonstrations and nationwide
strikes in the country to oppose these policies. Government has arrested these leaders.

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Q.39- In Nehru’s speech ‘Tryst with Destiny’ The ambition of the greatest man of our
generation has been to wipe every tear from every eye. That may be beyond us, but as
long as there are tears and suffering, so long our work will not be over. Who was he
referring to?

(A) Mahatma Gandhi

(B) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(C) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(D) K.M. Munshi

Q.40- In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and
Reason (R) Read the statements and choose the correct option.

Assertion (A): Unemployment affects the overall growth of the Country.

Reason (R): It leads to Wastage of Manpower & increases economic overload.

(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is correct but R is wrong.
(D) A is wrong but R is correct

Q.41- Choose the correct option from the following:-

List A (Example) List B (Sectors)

(A) Courier Tertiary Sector

(B) Fisherman Secondary Sector
(C) Carpenter Primary Sector
(D) Transporter Secondary sector

Q.42- Read the graph and answer the question that follows:-

Which of the following is true about the distribution of land among farmers in India?

(A) Land is equally distributed among the farmers in India.

(B) 55.4% of marginal and small farmers are possessing 85% of land in India.
(C) 44.6% of medium and large farmers are possessing 85% of land in India.
(D) 55.4% of medium and large farmers are possessing 15% of land in India.
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Q.43-The workforce population of India includes people from the age group of:-

(A) 10 – 49 years
(B) 15 – 59 years
(C) 25 – 59 years
(D) 20 – 59 years.

Q.44- ‘All the members of a family appear to be working. They have agricultural plot where
they find work. All members are engaged in agricultural activity. The work requires the
service of five people but engages eight people.’
Find out which of the following unemployment is being referred to:-
(A) Seasonal Unemployment
(B) Technical Unemployment
(C) Structural Unemployment
(D) Disguised Unemployment

Q.45- What are the major determinants of the earning of any individual?

(A) Their physical capacity to work

(B) Their education and skill
(C) Their role in politics
(D) Their financial ability to invest

Q.46- In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and
Reason (R) Read the statements and choose the correct option.

Assertion (A): A firm will not like to employ an unhealthy worker.

Reason (R): An Unhealthy worker is a liability rather than an asset for an organisation.

(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is correct but R is wrong.
(D) A is wrong but R is correct

SECTION – C
(Attempt any 5 out of 6 questions in each of the Case based questions)

Read the source given below and answer the questions by choosing the most appropriate
options:- (Q.47 to Q.52- DO ANY FIVE)
Robespierre followed a policy of severe control and punishment. All those whom he saw as
being ‘enemies’ of the republic – ex-nobles and clergy, members of other political parties,
even members of his own party who did not agree with his methods – were arrested,
imprisoned and then tried by a revolutionary tribunal. Robespierre’s government issued
laws placing a maximum ceiling on wages and prices. Meat and bread were rationed.
Peasants were forced to transport their grain to the cities and sell it at prices fixed by the
government. The use of more expensive white flour was forbidden; all citizens were
required to eat the pain d’égalité (equality bread), a loaf made of wholewheat. Equality was
also sought to be practised through forms of speech and address. Instead of the traditional
Monsieur (Sir) and Madame (Madam) all French men and women were henceforth Citoyen
and Citoyenne (Citizen). Churches were shut down and their buildings converted into
barracks or offices.
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Q.47- Which of the following period refers to ‘Reign of Terror’ –

(A) From 1793 to 1794

(B) From 1893 to 1894
(C) From 1789 to 1790
(D) From 1790 to 1791

Q.48- Which of the following statement/s are true about the Reign of Terror?

i) Robespierre followed a policy of severe control and punishment.

ii) All those whom he saw as being ‘enemies’ of the republic – ex-nobles and clergy,
members of other political parties, were arrested, imprisoned and then tried by a
revolutionary tribunal.
iii) Robespierre’s government issued laws placing a maximum ceiling on wages and
prices.
iv) Workers were forced to transport their grain to the cities and sell it at prices fixed by
the government.

Options-
(A) i & ii only
(B) i, ii & iii only
(C) i, ii, iii & iv
(D) i & iv only

Q.49- Which of the following acquired power in France after the fall of Robespierre?

(A) Napoleon Bonaparte

(B) Convention
(C) Directory
(D) National Assembly

Q.50- Which of the following is NOT TRUE about the members of the Jacobin Club:-

(A) They belonged mainly to the less prosperous section of society like small
shopkeepers, artisans, printers etc.
(B) In the summers of 1792 the Jacobins planned an insurrection and stormed the Palace
of Tuileries, massacred king’s guards and held the king captive for several hours.
(C) The Jacobins wore knee breeches and came to be known as Sans-culottes.
(D) The leader of Jacobins was Maximilian Robespierre.

Q.51- Which of the following was Robespierre’s favourite method to punish his opponents:-

(A) Imprisonment in the Bastille

(B) Sending to exile
(C) Payment of higher taxes
(D) Guillotine

Q.52- In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and
Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option:
Assertion(A): The use of more expensive white flour was forbidden; all citizens were
required to eat the pain d’egalite (equality bread), a loaf made of wholewheat.

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Reason (R): Churches were shut down and their buildings converted into barracks or
offices.
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is correct but R is wrong.
(D) A is wrong but R is correct.

Read the source given below and answer the questions that follows by choosing the most
appropriate option: (Q.53 to Q.58- DO ANY FIVE ONLY)

The Ganga Plain extends between Ghaggar and Teesta rivers. It is spread over the states of
North India, Haryana, Delhi, U.P., Bihar, partly Jharkhand and West Bengal to its East,
particularly in Assam lies the Brahmaputra plain. The northern plains are generally
described as flat land with no variations in its relief. It is not true. These vast plains also
have diverse relief features. According to the variations in relief features, the Northern
plains can be divided into four regions. The rivers, after descending from the mountains,
deposit pebbles in a narrow belt of about 8 to 16 km in width lying parallel to the slopes of
the Shiwaliks. It is known as bhabar. All the streams disappear in this bhabar belt. South of
this belt, the streams and rivers re- emerge and create a wet, swampy and marshy region
known as terai. This was a thickly forested region full of wildlife. The forests have been
cleared to create agricultural land and to settle migrants from Pakistan after partition.
Dudhwa National Park is in this region. The largest part of the northern plain is formed of
older alluvium. They lie about the flood Plains of the rivers and present a terrace like
feature. This part is known as bhangar. Soil in this region contains calcareous deposits
locally known as kankar. The newer deposits of the flood Plains are called khadar. They are
renewed almost every year and so are fertile, thus ideal for intensive agriculture.
Q.53- The Ganga Plain extends between which two rivers?
(A) Jhelum and Satluj
(B) Ganga and Yamuna
(C) Ghaggar and Teesta
(D) Gomati and Krishna

Q.54- What is the myth about the Northern Plains?

(A) Rough land with lot of variations in its relief.
(B) Flat land with slight variations in its relief.
(C) Rough land with no variations in its relief.
(D) Flat land with no variations in its relief

Q.55 _____________ is a belt of pebbles extending from 8-16 km in width.

(A) Bhabar
(B) Bhangar
(C) Terai
(D) Khadar

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Q.56- The Northern Plains have been formed by the interplay of the three major river
systems, with their tributaries:
(A) The Ganga, the Yamuna and the Krishna
(B) The Ganga, the Yamuna and the Brahmaputra
(C) The Indus, the Ganga and the Brahmaputra
(D) The Ganga, the Yamuna and the Indus

Q57. Which region is called tarai?

(A) khadar region.
(B) Bhangar region.
(C) Region south to bhabar.
(D) Region north to bhabar.

Q. 58 The forest in terai region has been cleared to create-

(A) Agricultural land
(B) To settle migrants from Pakistan after partition.
(C) Both A and B
(D) Only B

P.T.O

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 Section D
(Attempt both the Map based questions)
Q59- HISTORY MAP QUESTION

On the given outline map of France, identify the port city which was associated with the
“Triangular Trade”.

A. Nantes
B. Bordeaux
C. Paris
D. Marseilles

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Q.60 (GEOGRAPHY MAP QUESTION)

On the given outline map of India, identify the location with the help of specified
Information.
‘A’ is marked as a plateau. Identify it from the following options.
A. Malwa Plateau
B. Deccan Plateau
C. Chhota Nagpur Plateau
D. Shilong Plateau

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