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Passage

In the realm of critical thinking and argumentation, understanding the various types of
fallacies is crucial for dissecting and evaluating arguments. A fallacy is a flaw in reasoning
that weakens an argument. Recognizing these fallacies is essential to maintaining logical
coherence and avoiding persuasive traps. There are several common types of fallacies, each
with distinct characteristics.

Ad hominem, or attacking the person, is a fallacy where one attacks the character of the
individual making the argument rather than addressing the argument itself. This tactic diverts
attention from the actual issue. For example, dismissing a person's viewpoint on climate
change because they are not a scientist is an ad hominem fallacy.

Straw man involves misrepresenting someone's argument to make it easier to attack. This
often involves exaggeration or simplification. For instance, if person A suggests that more
funds should be allocated to public health, and person B responds by arguing that person A
wants to cut all defense spending, person B is committing a straw man fallacy.

Another prevalent fallacy is the appeal to ignorance (argumentum ad ignorantiam), which

asserts that a proposition is true because it has not yet been proven false. This fallacy often
appears in debates where one side claims that their argument must be accepted unless proven
otherwise.

The false dilemma, or false dichotomy, occurs when an argument presents two options as the
only possible choices, ignoring other viable alternatives. This binary thinking limits the scope
of discussion and forces an oversimplified choice. An example would be stating that one
must either fully support government surveillance or completely oppose it, disregarding
nuanced positions.

Begging the question (petitio principii) involves assuming the conclusion within the premise
of the argument, thus avoiding the actual proof. An example of this would be arguing that
stealing is wrong because it is illegal, which assumes the law is inherently moral without
addressing why stealing is wrong.

Finally, the slippery slope fallacy suggests that a minor action will lead to significant and
often catastrophic consequences without sufficient evidence to support such a claim. For
instance, arguing that allowing students to redo their homework once will eventually lead to
academic anarchy is a slippery slope argument.

Questions

1. Which of the following best exemplifies the straw man fallacy?

A. Responding to a proposal for environmental regulations by claiming it would destroy the

economy without addressing the actual merits of the proposal.
B. Arguing that a politician's policy should be rejected because of their personal scandals.
C. Suggesting that if we allow one student to retake a test, soon all students will demand
multiple retakes, leading to chaos.
D. Asserting that a policy is correct simply because it has not been proven wrong.

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2. In the context of fallacies, what does the term "begging the question" most closely
relate to?

A. Presenting a binary choice when more options exist

B. Attacking the character of the individual making the argument
C. Assuming the conclusion within the premises of the argument
D. Claiming a proposition is true because it hasn't been proven false

3. How does the appeal to ignorance fallacy function in an argument?

A. By simplifying an argument to make it easier to attack

B. By suggesting that a minor action will lead to major consequences
C. By asserting that something is true simply because it has not been proven false
D. By presenting two choices as the only possible options

4. What underlying tactic is used in the ad hominem fallacy?

A. Misrepresenting someone's argument to make it easier to refute

B. Presenting a false dichotomy to limit choices
C. Diverting attention from the argument by attacking the individual
D. Assuming the conclusion within the premise

5. What does the false dilemma fallacy involve, and what effect does it have on an
argument?

A. It involves assuming the conclusion within the premises, making the argument circular
and self-affirming.
B. It involves asserting that a proposition is true because it has not been proven false, leading
to unverified claims.
C. It involves presenting two options as the only possible choices, thereby oversimplifying
the argument and ignoring other viable alternatives.
D. It involves suggesting that a minor action will inevitably lead to major and often
catastrophic consequences without sufficient evidence.

Passage

Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s Moscow visit was billed as his first “stand-alone” visit
during this tenure, with officials laying stress on the purely “bilateral” framework. However,
while the visit had strong bilateral components, its impact has been felt globally, with
unprecedented criticism from Kyiv and Washington on its timing and optics. On the bilateral
front, the visit, his first to Russia since 2019, and the first “annual” summit in three years,
resulted in a number of outcomes. There was a reaffirmation of India-Russia ties as well as
Mr. Modi’s obvious personal rapport with Russian President Vladimir Putin. Mr. Modi also
received Russia’s highest civilian award. He praised Mr. Putin’s efforts to strengthen bilateral
ties, that had appeared to be flagging, given the war in Ukraine, and growing Russia-China
ties. In formal talks, the leaders focused on bettering the economic and trade relationship,
which has often been a neglected part of the largely government-to-government engagements,
and announced a bilateral trade target of $100 billion by 2030, which should be easily met
given India’s massive increase in oil imports from Russia specially discounted due to western
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sanctions. Mr. Modi also won an assurance from Mr. Putin that Indian recruits enlisted in the
Russian Army will be allowed to return to India. Unlike in the past, the visit lacked any
announcements of military purchases that have been the mainstay of ties, due partially to
Russian delays in supplies of deals already announced after the invasion of Ukraine and to
also avoid international censure. Mr. Modi’s statement that there was “no solution on the
battlefield” to the conflict, as well as his decision to travel further to Vienna, were seen as
attempts to balance the trip, his first since the conflict began.

In an increasingly polarised world, this was easier said than done, especially as Mr. Modi’s
visit happened even as Ukraine was hit by a devastating missile attack. There were also
NATO, western alliance leaders and Ukraine President Volodymyr Zelenskyy converging in
Washington for a summit that was aimed, albeit unsuccessfully, at showing Russia’s isolation.
It is another matter that the stance reeks of hypocrisy, as the NATO countries have failed to
show similar concerns over the killing of innocents in Gaza due to Israel’s relentless
bombardment. The U.S. State Department and Ukraine have been openly critical of Mr.
Modi’s visit, and New Delhi’s task will be to limit the damage in ties with the U.S. and
Europe. In the long term, India will have to assert its interests and convince the West that it is
futile to force India to choose, or to push a country known for its independent stance, to
become a camp follower in this conflict.

Questions

6. Considering the global reactions, what underlying complexities does the passage
suggest about balancing diplomatic relations during Modi's visit to Moscow?

A. The visit was timed perfectly to avoid any criticism from international communities,
particularly Kyiv and Washington.
B. The visit highlighted the challenge of maintaining a neutral stance amidst polarized global
opinions, especially given the concurrent missile attack on Ukraine and the Western summit.
C. Modi’s trip was primarily focused on military agreements, avoiding any economic or trade
discussions to prevent global backlash.
D. The passage suggests that balancing diplomatic relations was straightforward given India's
established independent stance.

7. In the context of the passage, what does Modi's receipt of Russia’s highest civilian
award symbolize in terms of India-Russia relations and broader geopolitical dynamics?

A. It indicates a deterioration in India-Russia ties and signifies a move towards isolation from
the West.
B. It is a purely ceremonial gesture with no real impact on bilateral or global politics.
C. It symbolizes strong bilateral ties and attempts to reinforce a partnership despite global
tensions, indicating a complex web of geopolitical interests.
D. It highlights India's shift away from its independent stance towards becoming an ally in
the Russia-China axis.

8. Analyze the implications of Modi’s statement that there is “no solution on the
battlefield” within the broader context of his Moscow visit.

A. The statement was intended to support Russia's military actions in Ukraine.

B. The statement was meant to indicate India’s support for a military resolution to global

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conflicts.
C. The statement aims to portray India's stance for a peaceful resolution to the conflict,
reflecting an attempt to balance relations without fully aligning with either side.
D. The statement was a criticism of NATO's involvement in the Ukraine conflict, advocating
for complete non-intervention.

9. What can be inferred about the significance of the $100 billion trade target by 2030
set during Modi's visit?

A. It is an ambitious but unrealistic target considering the current economic relations and
global sanctions.
B. It signifies a strategic move to strengthen economic ties, potentially mitigating the effects
of global geopolitical pressures and sanctions.
C. It is primarily aimed at reducing India's dependency on Western economies by shifting
focus towards the Russia-China axis.
D. It reflects a minor adjustment in trade policies without significant long-term implications
for India-Russia relations.

10. How does the passage portray NATO’s stance and its perceived hypocrisy in relation
to Modi’s visit to Moscow and the situation in Gaza?

A. The passage portrays NATO’s stance as consistent and justified, emphasizing their
balanced approach to global conflicts.
B. The passage highlights NATO's selective concern, criticizing its focus on Ukraine while
ignoring similar issues in Gaza, thus revealing perceived hypocrisy.
C. The passage suggests that NATO's criticism of Modi's visit is based on strong moral
grounds, reflecting their unwavering stance on international law.
D. The passage remains neutral, simply presenting NATO's stance without delving into the
nuances of geopolitical hypocrisy.

Passage

In the run-up to the anticipated Jammu and Kashmir assembly election, the Union
government has extended the scope of the lieutenant governor’s administrative powers by
setting up new rules for the second time through an executive notification, triggering uproar
in the Union territory.The notification, issued by the Ministry of Home Affairs on Friday, July
12, states that President Droupadi Murmu has issued the “Union Territory of Jammu and
Kashmir (Second Amendment) Government Business Transaction Rules, 2024” under which
three rules that came into force after the former state split into two Union Territories have
been amended. Under the new rules, the Lieutenant Governor will effectively have the final
say on the functioning of the All India Service cadre, the Jammu and Kashmir Police, and the
senior bureaucracy of the Union Territory. The new rules have also placed the
“Anti-Corruption Bureau”, the Directorate of Public Prosecutions, prisons, and the Jammu
and Kashmir Forensic Science Laboratory under the LG’s control. Earlier, some of these
functions required the concurrence of J&K’s finance department. This is the second time that
the Bharatiya Janata Party-led union government has amended the business rules of J&K
through an executive notification. Section 55 of the J&K Reorganisation Act, 2019 empowers
the LG to make new rules with the “aid and advice of Council of Ministers”.

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“Provided also that in respect of matters connected with posting and transfer of
Administrative Secretaries and cadre posts of All India Services officers, proposal shall be
submitted to the Lieutenant Governor by the Administrative Secretary, General
Administration Department through the Chief Secretary,” the notification said. “No proposal
which requires previous concurrence of the Finance Department with regard to ‘Police’,
‘Public Order’, ‘All India Service’ and ‘Anti-Corruption Bureau to exercise the discretion of
the Lieutenant Governor under the Act shall be concurred or rejected unless it has been
placed before the Lieutenant Governor through the Chief Secretary,” it said.The notification,
which has been issued under section 55 of Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019 (34
of 2019) read with the proclamation dated October 31, 2019 under section 73, said that the
appointment of J&K’s advocate-general and other law officers will also require the LG’s
approval.

“Any proposal regarding grant or refusal of prosecution sanction or filing of appeal shall be
placed before the Lieutenant Governor through the Chief Secretary by the Department of
Law, Justice and Parliamentary Affairs,” it said.The notification has been issued nearly five
months after the Union home ministry said that President Murmu has amended Rule 50 of the
Transaction of Business of J&K, 2019. Issued on February 24 this year, the new rules were
named the ‘Transaction of Business of the Government of Union Territory of Jammu and
Kashmir (Amendment) Rules, 2024’.Clause b of sub-rule 2 of Rule 50, which called on the
LG to “make a prior reference” to the home ministry in the matter of the appointment of the
Chief Secretary and Director General of J&K Police was amended to require the centre’s nod
in the appointment of J&K’s home secretary as well.After Jammu and Kashmir was
bifurcated into two Union territories on August 5, 9, and the J&K Reorganisation Act, 2019
became operational, more than 900 central laws have become applicable to the union territory
while some laws of the erstwhile state continue to remain operational.Under section 96 of the
J&K Reorganisation Act, 2019, the Union government can adapt new laws or modify existing
laws in Jammu and Kashmir through repeal or amendment order. Before 2019, the extension
of central laws to Jammu and Kashmir required the consent of the J&K assembly and the
government. Some legal experts believe that the Union government’s maneuvers in Jammu
and Kashmir undermine the country’s federal structure and also raise difficult questions about
the centre’s constitutional relationship with the states and union territories. The latest
development triggered a political uproar with former chief minister of Jammu and Kashmir
Omar Abdullah taking to X to express his anguish.“Another indication that elections are
around the corner in J&K. This is why a firm commitment laying out the timeline of
restoration of full, undiluted statehood for J&K is a prerequisite for these elections. The
people deserve better than a powerless, rubber stamp CM who will have to beg the LG to get
his/her peon appointed,” he tweeted.

Questions

11. How do the recent changes to the Jammu and Kashmir business transaction rules reflect
on the federal structure of India as implied by the passage?

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A. They strengthen the federal structure by granting more autonomy to the local
administration.

B. They centralize power, potentially undermining the principles of federalism by increasing

the Lieutenant Governor’s control over administrative functions.

C. They have no significant impact on the federal structure as the changes are merely
procedural.

D. They decentralize authority by involving multiple stakeholders in decision-making

processes.

12. What can be inferred about the Union government’s strategy in relation to Jammu and
Kashmir’s political climate from the amendments mentioned in the passage?

A. The government is aiming to streamline administrative efficiency by reducing bureaucratic

delays.

B. The government seeks to assert greater control over Jammu and Kashmir in anticipation of
upcoming elections.

C. The amendments are designed to foster better cooperation between the local and central
administrations.

D. The strategy is to gradually transfer more power to locally elected officials to promote
autonomy.

13. Which aspect of the passage best illustrates the tension between central authority and
regional autonomy in Jammu and Kashmir?

A. The amendment requiring the centre’s nod in the appointment of J&K’s home secretary.

B. The increased control of the Lieutenant Governor over the Anti-Corruption Bureau.

C. The need for the Lieutenant Governor to seek the advice of the Council of Ministers.

D. The application of over 900 central laws to the Union territory.

14. What is the significance of Omar Abdullah’s reaction to the recent notification, based on
the passage?

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A. It highlights widespread approval of the new rules among local leaders.

B. It underscores a demand for a clear timeline for the restoration of statehood to Jammu and
Kashmir.

C. It indicates a shift in support towards the central government’s policies.

D. It suggests a focus on economic reforms rather than political autonomy.

15. Considering the historical context provided in the passage, what might be a long-term
implication of the Union government’s amendments to the administrative rules in Jammu and
Kashmir?

A. Enhanced stability and growth due to streamlined administrative processes.

B. Increased tension and potential unrest due to perceived undermining of regional autonomy.

C. Improved relations between local and central governments through better coordination.

D. A gradual shift towards full statehood with increased local governance powers.

Passage

Excerpt from "Paradise Lost" by John Milton

Of man's first disobedience, and the fruit Of that forbidden tree whose mortal taste Brought
death into the World, and all our woe, With loss of Eden, till one greater Man Restore us, and
regain the blissful seat, Sing Heav'nly Muse, that on the secret top Of Oreb, or of Sinai, didst
inspire That shepherd who first taught the chosen seed, In the beginning how the heav'ns and
earth Rose out of Chaos: Or if Sion hill Delight thee more, and Siloa's brook that flow'd Fast
by the Oracle of God; I thence Invoke thy aid to my advent'rous song, That with no middle
flight intends to soar Above th' Aonian mount, while it pursues Things unattempted yet in
prose or rhyme. And chiefly, thou O Spirit, that dost prefer Before all temples th' upright
heart and pure, Instruct me, for thou know'st; thou from the first Wast present, and, with
mighty wings outspread, Dovelike sat'st brooding on the vast Abyss And mad'st it pregnant:
What in me is dark Illumine, what is low raise and support; That, to the height of this great
argument, I may assert Eternal Providence, And justify the ways of God to men.

Questions

16. What primary theme is introduced in the opening lines of the passage?

A. The eternal struggle between good and evil.

B. The creation of the heavens and the earth.
C. Man's first act of disobedience and its consequences.
D. The adventures of the heavenly muse.

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17. What does the phrase "justify the ways of God to men" imply about the author's
intention?

A. To criticize the actions of God.

B. To explain and defend the reasons behind God's actions.
C. To question the existence of God.
D. To highlight the superiority of human understanding over divine actions.

18. How does the author describe the Muse's inspiration in the passage?

A. As a fleeting and temporary influence.

B. As a direct and powerful source of creative energy.
C. As a confusing and dark force.
D. As a minor and unimportant element.

19. What is the significance of the invocation to the Muse in the context of the poem?

A. It serves as a humble request for assistance in writing the poem.

B. It symbolizes the author's rejection of divine inspiration.
C. It represents the author's desire to create a purely fictional story.
D. It demonstrates the author's reliance on historical facts and data.

20. Identify the tone of the passage.

A. Casual and conversational.

B. Humble and reverent.
C. Critical and skeptical.
D. Light-hearted and humorous.

Passage

Nicotinamide mononucleotide (NMN) has garnered significant attention as a promising

anti-aging health product. It is a precursor to nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD+), a
vital coenzyme found in every cell of the body that plays a crucial role in energy metabolism
and maintaining proper cell function. NAD+ levels decline with age, which has been
associated with various age-related diseases and metabolic decline. Supplementing with
NMN is believed to boost NAD+ levels, thereby potentially slowing down or even reversing
aspects of the aging process.

Research on NMN has shown promising results in animal studies. For instance, mice treated
with NMN demonstrated improved mitochondrial function, enhanced physical activity, and
increased insulin sensitivity. These findings have led to a surge in NMN supplements
marketed as anti-aging solutions. Advocates claim that NMN can increase longevity, improve
cardiovascular health, enhance cognitive function, and boost overall energy levels.

However, the enthusiasm surrounding NMN is tempered by ongoing debates about its safety
and efficacy in humans. While animal studies are encouraging, human clinical trials are still
in their infancy. Critics argue that there is insufficient evidence to conclusively prove that
NMN is safe for long-term use in humans. Potential side effects and the optimal dosage for
maximum benefit without adverse effects remain unclear.

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Regulatory bodies have also raised concerns. The U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
has not yet approved NMN as a dietary supplement, citing the need for more comprehensive
studies. Furthermore, the lack of standardization in the production of NMN supplements
leads to variability in product quality and potency, raising additional safety concerns.

Despite these issues, the market for NMN supplements continues to grow, fueled by
consumer demand and the desire for anti-aging solutions. Companies promoting NMN
products emphasize their potential benefits, often downplaying the uncertainties and risks
involved. As with any emerging health product, it is crucial for consumers to approach NMN
with a balanced perspective, considering both its potential promises and the associated safety
concerns.

Questions

21. How does the passage describe the current state of NMN research and its
implications for consumers?

A. NMN research is conclusive and fully endorsed by scientific communities, making it a

risk-free option for anti-aging.
B. NMN research is promising but still in preliminary stages, indicating that consumers
should be cautious about potential long-term effects and unverified claims.
C. NMN research has been largely discredited, and consumers are advised to avoid the
product entirely.
D. NMN research has no significant findings, making it neither beneficial nor harmful for
consumers.

22. What does the passage imply about the marketing strategies of companies selling
NMN supplements?

A. Companies are transparent about both the benefits and risks of NMN supplements.
B. Companies emphasize the scientific uncertainties and potential risks more than the
benefits.
C. Companies focus on the potential benefits while often downplaying the risks and
uncertainties.
D. Companies refuse to market NMN supplements until all scientific concerns are addressed.

23. What underlying assumption about consumer behavior is suggested by the growing
market for NMN supplements?

A. Consumers are fully aware of the scientific evidence and make well-informed decisions.
B. Consumers prioritize immediate benefits and promises over potential risks and scientific
uncertainties.
C. Consumers are largely indifferent to new health products and show little interest in
anti-aging solutions.
D. Consumers rely solely on regulatory approvals when choosing health supplements.

24. How does the passage characterize the balance consumers should strike when
considering NMN supplements?

A. Consumers should rely entirely on the positive animal study results without regard for
human trial data.
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B. Consumers should dismiss the potential benefits and focus solely on the regulatory
concerns.
C. Consumers should consider both the potential benefits and the associated safety concerns
before deciding.
D. Consumers should wait for unanimous scientific consensus before trying NMN
supplements.

25. What is the tone of the passage regarding NMN supplements?

A. Alarmist and sensational

B. Optimistic and promotional
C. Cautious and balanced
D. Dismissive and skeptical

Answers and Explanations

1. Which of the following best exemplifies the straw man fallacy?

Answer: A. Responding to a proposal for environmental regulations by claiming it

would destroy the economy without addressing the actual merits of the proposal.

Explanation:

● A. Responding to a proposal for environmental regulations by claiming it would

destroy the economy without addressing the actual merits of the proposal.
Correct, this misrepresents the argument to make it easier to attack.
● B. Arguing that a politician's policy should be rejected because of their personal
scandals. Incorrect, this is an ad hominem fallacy.
● C. Suggesting that if we allow one student to retake a test, soon all students will
demand multiple retakes, leading to chaos. Incorrect, this is a slippery slope fallacy.
● D. Asserting that a policy is correct simply because it has not been proven wrong.
Incorrect, this is an appeal to ignorance.

2. In the context of fallacies, what does the term "begging the question" most closely
relate to?

Answer: C. Assuming the conclusion within the premises of the argument

Explanation:

● A. Presenting a binary choice when more options exist Incorrect, this describes a
false dilemma.
● B. Attacking the character of the individual making the argument Incorrect, this
describes an ad hominem fallacy.
● C. Assuming the conclusion within the premises of the argument Correct, begging
the question involves circular reasoning where the conclusion is assumed in the
premise.

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● D. Claiming a proposition is true because it hasn't been proven false Incorrect,

this describes an appeal to ignorance.

3. How does the appeal to ignorance fallacy function in an argument?

Answer: C. By asserting that something is true simply because it has not been proven
false

Explanation:

● A. By simplifying an argument to make it easier to attack Incorrect, this describes

a straw man fallacy.
● B. By suggesting that a minor action will lead to major consequences Incorrect,
this describes a slippery slope fallacy.
● C. By asserting that something is true simply because it has not been proven false
Correct, the appeal to ignorance assumes a claim is true if it has not been disproven.
● D. By presenting two choices as the only possible options Incorrect, this describes a
false dilemma.

4. What underlying tactic is used in the ad hominem fallacy?

Answer: C. Diverting attention from the argument by attacking the individual

Explanation:

● A. Misrepresenting someone's argument to make it easier to refute Incorrect, this

describes a straw man fallacy.
● B. Presenting a false dichotomy to limit choices Incorrect, this describes a false
dilemma.
● C. Diverting attention from the argument by attacking the individual Correct, ad
hominem focuses on attacking the person rather than the argument.
● D. Assuming the conclusion within the premise Incorrect, this describes begging
the question.

5. What does the false dilemma fallacy involve, and what effect does it have on an
argument?

Answer: C. It involves presenting two options as the only possible choices, thereby
oversimplifying the argument and ignoring other viable alternatives.

Explanation:

● A. It involves assuming the conclusion within the premises, making the argument
circular and self-affirming. Incorrect, this describes begging the question.
● B. It involves asserting that a proposition is true because it has not been proven
false, leading to unverified claims. Incorrect, this describes an appeal to ignorance.
● C. It involves presenting two options as the only possible choices, thereby
oversimplifying the argument and ignoring other viable alternatives. Correct,
false dilemma limits the argument to two choices, ignoring other possibilities.

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● D. It involves suggesting that a minor action will inevitably lead to major and
often catastrophic consequences without sufficient evidence. Incorrect, this
describes a slippery slope fallacy.

6. Considering the global reactions, what underlying complexities does the passage
suggest about balancing diplomatic relations during Modi's visit to Moscow?

Answer: B. The visit highlighted the challenge of maintaining a neutral stance amidst
polarized global opinions, especially given the concurrent missile attack on Ukraine and
the Western summit.

Explanation:

● A. The visit was timed perfectly to avoid any criticism from international
communities, particularly Kyiv and Washington. Incorrect, the passage indicates
significant criticism.
● B. The visit highlighted the challenge of maintaining a neutral stance amidst
polarized global opinions, especially given the concurrent missile attack on
Ukraine and the Western summit. Correct, balancing diplomatic relations was
complex due to the polarized context.
● C. Modi’s trip was primarily focused on military agreements, avoiding any
economic or trade discussions to prevent global backlash. Incorrect, the trip
focused on economic and trade discussions, not military agreements.
● D. The passage suggests that balancing diplomatic relations was straightforward
given India's established independent stance. Incorrect, the passage indicates the
complexity of maintaining neutrality.

7. In the context of the passage, what does Modi's receipt of Russia’s highest civilian
award symbolize in terms of India-Russia relations and broader geopolitical dynamics?

Answer: C. It symbolizes strong bilateral ties and attempts to reinforce a partnership

despite global tensions, indicating a complex web of geopolitical interests.

Explanation:

● A. It indicates a deterioration in India-Russia ties and signifies a move towards

isolation from the West. Incorrect, the award signifies strong bilateral ties.
● B. It is a purely ceremonial gesture with no real impact on bilateral or global
politics. Incorrect, the award has symbolic significance for bilateral and global
politics.
● C. It symbolizes strong bilateral ties and attempts to reinforce a partnership
despite global tensions, indicating a complex web of geopolitical interests.
Correct, the award highlights strong ties and geopolitical complexity.
● D. It highlights India's shift away from its independent stance towards becoming
an ally in the Russia-China axis. Incorrect, the passage suggests maintaining an
independent stance.

8. Analyze the implications of Modi’s statement that there is “no solution on the
battlefield” within the broader context of his Moscow visit.

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Answer: C. The statement aims to portray India's stance for a peaceful resolution to the
conflict, reflecting an attempt to balance relations without fully aligning with either
side.

Explanation:

● A. The statement was intended to support Russia's military actions in Ukraine.

Incorrect, the statement advocates for non-military solutions.
● B. The statement was meant to indicate India’s support for a military resolution
to global conflicts. Incorrect, the statement advocates against battlefield
solutions.
● C. The statement aims to portray India's stance for a peaceful resolution to the
conflict, reflecting an attempt to balance relations without fully aligning with
either side. Correct, the statement aims for a balanced, peaceful resolution.
● D. The statement was a criticism of NATO's involvement in the Ukraine conflict,
advocating for complete non-intervention. Incorrect, the statement does not
directly criticize NATO but advocates for peace.

9. What can be inferred about the significance of the $100 billion trade target by 2030
set during Modi's visit?

Answer: B. It signifies a strategic move to strengthen economic ties, potentially

mitigating the effects of global geopolitical pressures and sanctions.

Explanation:

● A. It is an ambitious but unrealistic target considering the current economic

relations and global sanctions. Incorrect, the passage suggests the target is
achievable given increased oil imports.
● B. It signifies a strategic move to strengthen economic ties, potentially mitigating
the effects of global geopolitical pressures and sanctions. Correct, the target aims
to strengthen ties amidst global pressures.
● C. It is primarily aimed at reducing India's dependency on Western economies
by shifting focus towards the Russia-China axis. Incorrect, the passage does not
suggest a shift away from Western economies.
● D. It reflects a minor adjustment in trade policies without significant long-term
implications for India-Russia relations. Incorrect, the target has significant
implications for strengthening ties.

10. How does the passage portray NATO’s stance and its perceived hypocrisy in relation
to Modi’s visit to Moscow and the situation in Gaza?

Answer: B. The passage highlights NATO's selective concern, criticizing its focus on
Ukraine while ignoring similar issues in Gaza, thus revealing perceived hypocrisy.

Explanation:

● A. The passage portrays NATO’s stance as consistent and justified, emphasizing

their balanced approach to global conflicts. Incorrect, the passage highlights
perceived hypocrisy.

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● B. The passage highlights NATO's selective concern, criticizing its focus on

Ukraine while ignoring similar issues in Gaza, thus revealing perceived
hypocrisy. Correct, the passage criticizes NATO’s selective concern.
● C. The passage suggests that NATO's criticism of Modi's visit is based on strong
moral grounds, reflecting their unwavering stance on international law.
Incorrect, the passage criticizes NATO’s selective concern.
● D. The passage remains neutral, simply presenting NATO's stance without
delving into the nuances of geopolitical hypocrisy. Incorrect, the passage
criticizes NATO’s hypocrisy.

11. How do the recent changes to the Jammu and Kashmir business transaction rules
reflect on the federal structure of India as implied by the passage?

Answer: B. They centralize power, potentially undermining the principles of federalism

by increasing the Lieutenant Governor’s control over administrative functions.

Explanation:

● A. They strengthen the federal structure by granting more autonomy to the local
administration. Incorrect, the changes increase central control.
● B. They centralize power, potentially undermining the principles of federalism
by increasing the Lieutenant Governor’s control over administrative functions.
Correct, the passage implies that centralization of power undermines federalism.
● C. They have no significant impact on the federal structure as the changes are
merely procedural. Incorrect, the changes have significant implications for
federalism.
● D. They decentralize authority by involving multiple stakeholders in
decision-making processes. Incorrect, the changes centralize authority with the
LG.

12. What can be inferred about the Union government’s strategy in relation to Jammu
and Kashmir’s political climate from the amendments mentioned in the passage?

Answer: B. The government seeks to assert greater control over Jammu and Kashmir in
anticipation of upcoming elections.

Explanation:

● A. The government is aiming to streamline administrative efficiency by reducing

bureaucratic delays. Incorrect, the focus is on control, not efficiency.
● B. The government seeks to assert greater control over Jammu and Kashmir in
anticipation of upcoming elections. Correct, the passage suggests increased
control ahead of elections.
● C. The amendments are designed to foster better cooperation between the local
and central administrations. Incorrect, the passage indicates central control, not
cooperation.
● D. The strategy is to gradually transfer more power to locally elected officials to
promote autonomy. Incorrect, the strategy increases central control, not local
autonomy.

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13. Which aspect of the passage best illustrates the tension between central authority
and regional autonomy in Jammu and Kashmir?

Answer: A. The amendment requiring the centre’s nod in the appointment of J&K’s
home secretary.

Explanation:

● A. The amendment requiring the centre’s nod in the appointment of J&K’s home
secretary. Correct, this requirement highlights central control over regional
appointments.
● B. The increased control of the Lieutenant Governor over the Anti-Corruption
Bureau. Incorrect, while significant, the home secretary appointment more
directly shows tension.
● C. The need for the Lieutenant Governor to seek the advice of the Council of
Ministers. Incorrect, this is procedural and less about direct control.
● D. The application of over 900 central laws to the Union territory. Incorrect, this
is broader context; the home secretary appointment is a specific instance.

14. What is the significance of Omar Abdullah’s reaction to the recent notification,
based on the passage?

Answer: B. It underscores a demand for a clear timeline for the restoration of statehood
to Jammu and Kashmir.

Explanation:

● A. It highlights widespread approval of the new rules among local leaders.

Incorrect, Abdullah’s reaction is critical.
● B. It underscores a demand for a clear timeline for the restoration of statehood
to Jammu and Kashmir. Correct, Abdullah calls for a timeline for statehood.
● C. It indicates a shift in support towards the central government’s policies.
Incorrect, Abdullah is critical of the central government’s policies.
● D. It suggests a focus on economic reforms rather than political autonomy.
Incorrect, the focus is on political autonomy and statehood.

15. Considering the historical context provided in the passage, what might be a
long-term implication of the Union government’s amendments to the administrative
rules in Jammu and Kashmir?

Answer: B. Increased tension and potential unrest due to perceived undermining of

regional autonomy.

Explanation:

● A. Enhanced stability and growth due to streamlined administrative processes.

Incorrect, the passage suggests tension over autonomy.
● B. Increased tension and potential unrest due to perceived undermining of
regional autonomy. Correct, the passage implies that centralization may lead to
unrest.

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● C. Improved relations between local and central governments through better

coordination. Incorrect, the passage suggests increased tension, not improved
relations.
● D. A gradual shift towards full statehood with increased local governance
powers. Incorrect, the passage suggests centralization, not a shift towards
statehood.

16. What primary theme is introduced in the opening lines of the passage?

Answer: C. Man's first act of disobedience and its consequences.

Explanation:

● A. The eternal struggle between good and evil. Incorrect, while this is a theme in
the poem, the opening lines specifically introduce man's disobedience.
● B. The creation of the heavens and the earth. Incorrect, this is mentioned but not
the primary theme of the opening lines.
● C. Man's first act of disobedience and its consequences. Correct, the passage
discusses man's disobedience and the resulting loss of Eden.
● D. The adventures of the heavenly muse. Incorrect, the muse is invoked for
assistance, but this is not the primary theme.

17. What does the phrase "justify the ways of God to men" imply about the author's
intention?

Answer: B. To explain and defend the reasons behind God's actions.

Explanation:

● A. To criticize the actions of God. Incorrect, the author intends to defend God's
actions.
● B. To explain and defend the reasons behind God's actions. Correct, the phrase
implies a defense of divine actions.
● C. To question the existence of God. Incorrect, the existence of God is not
questioned.
● D. To highlight the superiority of human understanding over divine actions.
Incorrect, the author seeks to justify God's ways, not elevate human
understanding above them.

18. How does the author describe the Muse's inspiration in the passage?

Answer: B. As a direct and powerful source of creative energy.

Explanation:

● A. As a fleeting and temporary influence. Incorrect, the inspiration is described

as powerful and significant.
● B. As a direct and powerful source of creative energy. Correct, the Muse's
inspiration is depicted as mighty and enlightening.
● C. As a confusing and dark force. Incorrect, the inspiration is described
positively.
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● D. As a minor and unimportant element. Incorrect, the Muse's role is significant.

19. What is the significance of the invocation to the Muse in the context of the poem?

Answer: A. It serves as a humble request for assistance in writing the poem.

Explanation:

● A. It serves as a humble request for assistance in writing the poem. Correct, the
author asks the Muse for help in composing the poem.
● B. It symbolizes the author's rejection of divine inspiration. Incorrect, the author
is seeking divine inspiration.
● C. It represents the author's desire to create a purely fictional story. Incorrect,
the author seeks to explore profound truths.
● D. It demonstrates the author's reliance on historical facts and data. Incorrect,
the invocation is for creative and spiritual guidance.

20. Identify the tone of the passage.

Answer: B. Humble and reverent.

Explanation:

● A. Casual and conversational. Incorrect, the tone is formal and respectful.

● B. Humble and reverent. Correct, the author humbly requests divine inspiration
and guidance.
● C. Critical and skeptical. Incorrect, the author is not critical or skeptical but
respectful.
● D. Light-hearted and humorous. Incorrect, the tone is serious and respectful.

21. How does the passage describe the current state of NMN research and its
implications for consumers?

Answer: B. NMN research is promising but still in preliminary stages, indicating that
consumers should be cautious about potential long-term effects and unverified claims.

Explanation:

● A. NMN research is conclusive and fully endorsed by scientific communities,

making it a risk-free option for anti-aging. Incorrect, the research is not
conclusive.
● B. NMN research is promising but still in preliminary stages, indicating that
consumers should be cautious about potential long-term effects and unverified
claims. Correct, the passage describes NMN research as promising but in early
stages.
● C. NMN research has been largely discredited, and consumers are advised to
avoid the product entirely. Incorrect, the research has not been discredited, just
not fully verified.
● D. NMN research has no significant findings, making it neither beneficial nor
harmful for consumers. Incorrect, there are promising findings, but they are
preliminary.
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22. What does the passage imply about the marketing strategies of companies selling
NMN supplements?

Answer: C. Companies focus on the potential benefits while often downplaying the risks
and uncertainties.

Explanation:

● A. Companies are transparent about both the benefits and risks of NMN
supplements. Incorrect, the passage implies that risks are downplayed.
● B. Companies emphasize the scientific uncertainties and potential risks more
than the benefits. Incorrect, the passage suggests the opposite.
● C. Companies focus on the potential benefits while often downplaying the risks
and uncertainties. Correct, the passage describes this marketing strategy.
● D. Companies refuse to market NMN supplements until all scientific concerns
are addressed. Incorrect, companies continue to market despite uncertainties.

23. What underlying assumption about consumer behavior is suggested by the growing
market for NMN supplements?

Answer: B. Consumers prioritize immediate benefits and promises over potential risks
and scientific uncertainties.

Explanation:

● A. Consumers are fully aware of the scientific evidence and make well-informed
decisions. Incorrect, the passage suggests consumers may not fully consider the
risks.
● B. Consumers prioritize immediate benefits and promises over potential risks
and scientific uncertainties. Correct, the growing market despite uncertainties
suggests this behavior.
● C. Consumers are largely indifferent to new health products and show little
interest in anti-aging solutions. Incorrect, the passage describes a strong interest
in anti-aging products.
● D. Consumers rely solely on regulatory approvals when choosing health
supplements. Incorrect, the passage suggests consumers are buying NMN despite
lack of regulatory approval.

24. How does the passage characterize the balance consumers should strike when
considering NMN supplements?

Answer: C. Consumers should consider both the potential benefits and the associated
safety concerns before deciding.

Explanation:

● A. Consumers should rely entirely on the positive animal study results without
regard for human trial data. Incorrect, the passage advises a balanced view
considering all data.

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● B. Consumers should dismiss the potential benefits and focus solely on the
regulatory concerns. Incorrect, the passage suggests considering both benefits
and risks.
● C. Consumers should consider both the potential benefits and the associated
safety concerns before deciding. Correct, this balanced approach is
recommended.
● D. Consumers should wait for unanimous scientific consensus before trying
NMN supplements. Incorrect, the passage does not suggest waiting for
unanimous consensus.

25. What is the tone of the passage regarding NMN supplements?

Answer: C. Cautious and balanced

Explanation:

● A. Alarmist and sensational Incorrect, the passage is not alarmist.

● B. Optimistic and promotional Incorrect, the passage discusses both potential
benefits and risks.
● C. Cautious and balanced Correct, the passage presents a balanced view with
caution.
● D. Dismissive and skeptical Incorrect, the passage does not dismiss NMN but
presents a balanced view.

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