6th Social Science

2. Indus Civilization belonged to ………………..
(a) Old Stone age

6,7,8,9 BOOK BACK QUESTIONS (b) Medieval stone age
(c) New Stone age
(d) Metal age
6TH SOCIAL SCIENCE HISTORY – TERM 1
Answer:
(d) Metal age
UNIT 1 – WHAT IS HISTORY?
3. River valleys are said to be the cradle of
I. Choose the correct answer: civilisation because.
(a) Soil is very fertile
1. What was the step taken by the early man to (b) They experience good climate.
collect his food? (c) They are useful for transportation
(a) Trade (d) Many civilisations flourished on river valleys.
(b) Hunting Answer:
(c) Painting (d) Many civilisations flourished on river valleys.
(d) Rearing of animals
Answer: UNIT 4 – ANCIENT CITIES OF TAMILAGAM
(b) Hunting
I. Choose the correct answer:
UNIT 2 – HUMAN EVOLUTION
1. Which of the following region has a city more than
I. Choose the correct answer: 6500 years old?
(a) Iraq
1. The process of evolution is ________. (b) Indus Valley
(a) direct (c) Tamilagam
(b) indirect (d) Thondaimandalam
(c) gradual Answer:
(d) fast (b) Indus Valley
Answer:
(c) gradual 2. Which one of the following is a Tamil city?
(a) Iraq
2. Tanzania is situated in the continent of (b) Harappa
…………….. (c) Mohenjo – Daro
(a) Asia (d) Kancheepuram
(b) Africa Answer:
(c) America (d) Kancheepuram
(d) Europe
Answer: 3. Which city is not related to the Bay of Bengal?
(b) Africa (a) Poompuhar
(b) Thondi
(c) Korkai
UNIT-3 INDUS CIVILISATION (d) Kancheepuram
Answer:
I. Choose the correct answers: (d) Kancheepuram
1. What metals were know to the people of Indus 4. Water management system of Tamils is known
Civilisation? from …………………
(a) Copper, bronze, silver, gold, but not iron (a) Kallanai
(b) Copper, silver, iron, but not bronze (b) Tanks in Kancheepuram
(c) Copper, gold, iron, but not silver (c) Prakirama Pandyan Tank
(d) Copper, silver, iron, but not gold (d) River Cauvery
Answer: (a) a is correct
(a) Copper, bronze, silver, gold; but not iron (b) b is correct
(c) c is correct
(d) a and b are correct
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Answer: (b) Moon
(d) a and b are correct (c) Mercury
(d) Venus
5. Which is not the oldest city among the following Answer:
ones? (b) Moon
(a) Madurai
(b) Kancheepuram 5. Which of the following planets can float on water?
(c) Poompuhar (a) Jupiter
(d) Chennai (b) Saturn
Answer: (c) Uranus
(d) Chennai (d) Neptune
Answer:
6. Which city is related to keezhadi excavation? (b) Saturn
(a) Madurai
(b) Kancheepuram
(c) Poompuhar UNIT 2 – LAND AND OCEANS
(d) Harappa
Answer: A. Choose the correct answer:
(a) Madurai
1. Which of the following is the smallest ocean on
Earth?
GEOGRAPHY – TERM 1 (a) The Pacific Ocean
(b) The Indian Ocean
(c) The Atlantic Ocean
UNIT 1 – THE UNIVERSE AND SOLAR (d) The Arctic Ocean
SYSTEM Answer:
(d) The Arctic Oceans
B. Choose the best answer:
2. The Malacca Strait connects
1. The movement of the Earth on its axis is called (a) The Pacific and Atlantic Oceans
(a) Revolution (b) The Pacific and Southern Oceans
(b) Seasons (c) The Pacific and Indian Oceans
(c) Rotation (d) The Pacific and Arctic Oceans
(d) Circulation Answer:
Answer: (c) The Pacific and Indian Oceans
(c) Rotation
3. A Which of the following oceans is the busiest
2. The Tropic of Capricorn faces the Sun directly on ocean?
_______ (a) The Pacific Ocean
(a) March 21 (b) The Atlantic Ocean
(b) June 21 (c) The Indian Ocean
(c) September 23 (d) The Arctic Ocean
(d) December 22 Answer:
Answer: (b) The Atlantic Ocean
(d) December 22
4. The frozen continent is ……………
3. The galaxy in which our solar system is found is (a) North America
(a) Andromeda (b) Australia
(b) Magellanic clouds (c)Antarctica
(c) Milky Way (d) Asia
(d) Starburst Answer:
Answer: (c) Antarctica
(c) Milky Way
5. A narrow strip of water that connects two large
4. The only celestial body where man has water bodies
successfully landed _______ (a) A Strait
(a) Mars (b) An Isthmus
2
(c) An Island 6. Onam festival is celebrated in …………….
(d) A Trench (a) Kerala
Answer: (b) Tamil Nadu
(a) A Strait (c) Punjab
(d) Karnataka
Answer:
CIVICS – TERM I (a) Kerala
UNIT 1 – UNDERSTANDING DIVERSITY 7. Mohiniyattara is a classical dance of

(a) Kerala
(b) Tamil Nadu
I. Choose the correct answer
(c) Manipur
(d) Karnataka
1. India consists of _____ States and’_____ Union Answer:
territories. (a) Kerala
(a) 27,9
(b) 29,7
8. ‘Discovery of India’ – a book was written by
(c) 28,7
…………….
(d) 28,9
(a) Rajaji
Answer:
(b) V.O.C
(b) 29, 7
(c) Nethaji
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru
2. India is known as a ……………. Answer:
(a) Continent (d) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Subcontinent
(c) Island
9. The phrase ‘ Unity in Diversity’ was coined by
(d) None of these
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
Answer:
(b) Ambedkar
(b) Subcontinent
(c) Mahathma Gandhi
(d) Rajaji
3. Mawsynram, the land of the highest rainfall is Answer:
located in (a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(a) Manipur
(b) Sikkim
10. V.A. Smith called India as …………….
(c) Nagaland
(a) Great Democracy
(d) Meghalaya
(b) Unique land of diversities
Answer:
(c) Ethnological museum
(d) Meghalaya
(d) Secular nation
Answer:
4. Which one of the following religions is not (c) Ethnological museum
practiced in India?
(a) Sikhism
(b) Islam UNIT 2 – ACHIEVING EQUALITY
(c) Zoroastrianism
(d) Confucianism I. Choose the correct answer:
Answer:
(d) Confucianism 1. Which one of the following is not the reason for
Prejudice?
5. Recognised official languages of India, as per the (a) Socialization
VIIIth Schedule of the Indian Constitution. (b) Economic Benefits
(a) 25 (c) Authoritarian personality
(b) 23 (d) Geography
(c) 22 Answer:
(d) 26 (d) Geography
Answer:
(c) 22 2. Discrimination done on the basis of gender is
referred to as …………….
3
(a) gender discrimination (d) 17(1)
(b) caste discrimination Answer:
(c) religious discrimination (b) 15(1)
(d) inequality
Answer: 9. B.R. Ambedkar was conferred Bharat Ratna in the
(a) gender discrimination year
(a) 1990
3. Gender-based stereotypes are often portrayed in (b) 1989
(a) films (c) 1988
(b) advertisements (d) 1987
(c) TV serials Answer:
(d) All of these (a) 1990
Answer:
(d) AH of these 10. As per the 2011 census the highest literate
district in Tamil Nadu …………….
4. Name the book/s written by A.P.J. Abdul Kalam (a) Namakkal
……………. (b) Salem
(a) India 2020 (c) Kanyakumari
(b) Wings of Fire (d) Sivagangai
(c) Ignited Minds Answer:
(d) All of these (c) Kanyakumari
Answer:
(d) All of these
HISTORY – TERM 2
5. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam was conferred Bharat Ratna in
the year UNIT 1 – VEDIC CULTURE IN NORTH INDIA AND
(a) 1997 MEGALITHIC CULTURE IN SOUTH INDIA
(b) 1996
(c) 1995
(d) 1994
Answer:
(a) 1997 1. Aryans first settled in __________ region
(a) Punjab
(b) Middle Gangetic
6. Viswanathan Anand became India’s first
(c) Kashmir
grandmaster in the year.
(d) Northeast
(a) 1985
Answer:
(b) 1986
(a) Punjab
(c) 1987
(d) 1988
Answer: 2. Aryans came from ……………
(d) 1988 (a) China
(b) North Asia
(c) Central Asia
7. In which sport Ilavazhagi excels
(d) Europe
(a) Chess
Answer:
(b) Wrestling
(c) Central Asia
(c) Carrom
(d) Tennis
Answer: 3. Our National Motto “Sathyameva Jay ate” is taken
(c) Carrom from
(a) Brahmana
(c) Aranyaka
8. Which article of the Constitution says
(b) Veda
discrimination against any citizen on grounds only of
(d) Upanishad
religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of
Answer:
them is not …………….
(d) Upanishad
(a) 14(1)
(b) 15(1)
(c) 16(1)
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4. What was the ratio of land revenue collected I. Choose the correct answer:
during the Vedic Age ……………
(a) 1/3 1. The Kingdom which was most powerful among the
(b) 1/6 four Mahajanapadas
(c) 1/8 (a) Anga
(d) 1/9 (b) Magadha
Answer: (c) Kosala
(b) 1/6 (d) Vajji
Answer:
(b) Magadhaj
UNIT 2 – GREAT THINKERS AND NEW FAITHS
2. Among the following who was the contemporary of
I. Choose the correct answer: Gautama Buddha?
(a) Ajatasatru
1. What is the name of the Buddhist scripture? (b) Bindusara
(a) Angas (c) Padmanabha Nanda
(b) Tripitakas (d) Brihadratha
(c) Tirukkural Answer:
(d) Naladiyar (a) Ajatasatru
Answer:
(b) Tripitakas 3. Which of the following are the sources of the
Mauryan period?
2. Who was the first Tirthankara of Jainism? (a) Artha Sastra
(a) Rishabha (b) Indica
(b) Parsava (c) Mudrarakshasa
(c) Vardhamana (d) All
(d) Buddha Answer:
Answer: (d) All
(a) Rishabha
4. Chandra Gupta Maurya abdicated the thrown and
3. How many Tirthankaras were there in Jainism? went to Sravanbelgola along with Jaina Saint
(a) 23 …………….
(b) 24 (a) Badrabahu
(c) 25 (b) Stulabahu
(d) 26 (c) Parswanatha
Answer: (d) Rushabhanatha
(b) 24 Answer:
(a) Badrabahu
4. Where was the third Buddhist Council convened?
(a) Rajagriha 5. _______was the ambassador of Seleucus Nicator.
(b) Vaishali (a) Ptolemy
(c) Pataliputra (b) Kautilya
(d) Kashmir (c) Xerxes
Answer: (d) Megasthenese
(c) Pataliputra Answer:
(d) Megasthenese
5. Where did Buddha deliver his first sermon?
(a) Lumbini 6. Who was the last emperor of the Mauryan
(b) Saranath Dynasty?
(c) Taxila (a) Chandragupta Maurya
(d) Bodh Gaya (b) Ashoka
Answer: (c) Brihadratha
(b) Saranath (d) Bindusara
Answer:
(c) Brihadratha
UNIT 3 – FROM CHIEFDOMS TO EMPIRES
5
CIVICS – TERM 2 Answer:
(a) Chennai fort Museum
UNIT 1 – NATIONAL SYMBOLS 7. The National Anthem was written by _______

(a) Devandranath Tagpre
I. Choose the correct answer: (c) Rabindranath Tagore
(b) Bharathiyar
1. The National Song Vande Mataram was (d) Balagangadhar Tilak
composed by _______ Answer:
(a) Pingali Venkayya (c) Rabindranath Tagore
(b) Rabindra Nath Tagore
(c) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee 8. The time taken to play the National Anthem is
(d) Gandhiji ……………..
Answer: (a) 50 seconds
(c) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee (b) 52 minutes
(c) 52 seconds
2. Which is the National Anthem of India? (d) 20 seconds
(a) Jana Gana Mana Answer:
(b) Vande Mataram (c) 52 seconds
(c) Amar Sonar Bangla
(d) Neerarum Kaduluduththa 9. “Vande Mataram” was first sung by _______ at the
Answer: 1896 session of the National Congress
(a) Jana Gana Mana (a) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
3. Who wrote the most famous novel Anand Math? (b) Rabindranath Tagore
(a) Akbar (d) Sarojini Naidu
(b) Rabindra Nath Tagore Answer:
(c) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee (b) Rabindranath Tagore
(c) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee 10 ________ hoists the flag on Independence day in
Answer: Delhi.
(c) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee (a) The Prime Minister
(b) The President
4. ________ birthday is celebrated as the (c) Vice President
International Day of non-violence? (d) Any Political leader
(a) Mahatma Gandhi Answer:
(b) Subash Chandra Bose (a) The Prime Minister
(c) Sardar Vallabhai Patel
Answer: UNIT 2 – THE CONSTITUTION OF INDIA
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
5. The color of the Asoka chakra found in our
National flag is _______ 1. Constitution Day is celebrated on
(a) sky blue (a) January 26
(c) blue (b) August 15
(b) navy blue (c) November 26
(d) green (d) December 9
Answer: Answer:
(b) navy blue November 26
6. The first flag ever flown after the Independence is 2. The Constituent Assembly accepted the
stored in …………….. Constitution of India in the year ……………..
(a) Chennai fort Museum (a) 1946
(b) Delhi Museum (b) 1950
(c) Sarnath Museum (c) 1947
(d) Kolkata Museum (d) 1949
6
Answer: (d) Pallavas
(d) 1949 Answer: (c) Kalabhras
3. There are _________ amendments made in the 4. The lowest unit of administration during the
Constitution of India till 2016. Sangam Age was ……………..
(a) 101 (a) Mandalam
(b) 100 (b) Nadu
(c) 78 (c) Ur
(d) 46 (d) Pattinam
Answer: Answer: (c) Ur
(a)101
5. What was the occupation of the inhabitants of the
4. Which of the following is not a fundamental right? Kurinji region?
(a) Right to freedom (a) Plundering
(b) Right to equality (b) Cattle rearing
(c) Right to vote (c) Hunting and gathering
(d) Right to education (d) Agriculture
Answer: Answer: (c) Hunting and gathering
(c) Right to vote
5. An Indian citizen has the right to vote at UNIT 2 – THE POST-MAURYAN INDIA
(a) 14 years
(b) 18 years I. Choose the correct answer:
(c) 16 years
(d) 21 years 1. The last Mauryan emperor was killed by
Answer: (a) Pushyamitra
18 years (b) Agnimitra
(c) Vasudeva
(d) Narayana
6TH HISTORY – TERM 3 Answer: (a) Pushyamitra
2. …………… was the founder of Satavahana

UNIT 1 – SOCIETY AND CULTURE IN dynasty.
ANCIENT TAMIZHAGAM: THE SANGAM (a) Simuka
AGE (b) Satakarani
(c) Kanha
I. Choose the correct answer: (d) Sivasvati
Answer: (a) Simuka
1. Pattini cult in Tamil Nadu was introduced by
(a) Pandyan Neducheliyan 3. was the greatest of all the Kushana emperors.
(b) Cheran Senguttuvan (a) Kanishka
(c) Ilango Adigal (c) Kadphises II
(d) Mudathirumaran (b) Kadphises I
Answer: (b) Cheran Senguttovanj (d) Pan-Chiang
Answer: (a) Kanishka
2. Which dynasty was not in power during the
Sangam Age? 4. The Kantara School of Sanskrit flourished in the
(a) Pandyas …………… during 2nd century BC.
(b) Cholas (a) Deccan
(c) Pallavas (b) north-west India
(d) Cheras (c) Punjab
Answer: (c) Pallavas (d) Gangetic Valley
Answer: (b) north-west India
3. The rule of Pandyas was followed by
(a) Satavahanas 5. Sakas ruled over Gandhara region
(b) Cholas (a) Sirkap
(c) Kalabhras (b) Taxila
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(c) Mathura (d) Parameshvaravarma
(d) Purushpura Answer: (b) Nandivarma II
Answer: (a) Sirkap
2. Which of the following titles were the titles of
Mahendra Varma I?
UNIT 3 – THE AGE OF EMPIRES: GUPTAS (a) Mattavilasa
AND VARDHANAS (b) Vichitra Chitta
(c) Gunabara
I. Choose the correct answer: (d) all the three
Answer: (d) all the three
1. ________ was founder or Gupta dynasty.
(a) Chandragupta I 3. Which of the following inscriptions describes the
(b) Sri Gupta victories of Pulakesin II?
(c) Vishnu Gopa (a) Aihole
(d) Vishnugupta (b) Saranath
Answer: (b) Sri Gupta (c) Sanchi
(d) Junagath
2. Prayog prashasti was composed by ……………… Answer: (a) Aihole
(a) Kalidasa
(b) Amarasimha
(c) Harisena 6TH GEOGRAPHY – TERM 3
(d) Dhanvantri
Answer: (c) Harisena
UNIT 1 – ASIA AND EUROPE
3. I’he monolithic iron pillar of Chandragupta is at
I. Choose the best answer:
________
(a) Mehrauli
(b) Bhitari 1. Which is not the western margin of Asia?
(c) Gadhva (a) Black Sea
(d) Mathura (b) Mediterranean Sea
Answer: (a) Mehrauli (c) Red Sea
(d) Arabian Sea
Answer: (d) Arabian Sea
4. ……………… was the first Indian to explain the
process of surgery.
(a) Charaka 2. The Intermontane …………… plateau is found
(b) Sushruta between Elbruz and Zagros.
(c) Dhanvantri (a) Tibet
(d) Agnivasa (b) Iran
Answer: (b) Sushruta (c) Deccan
(d) The Yunnan
Answer: (b) Iran
5. ________ was the Gauda ruler of Bengal.
(a) Sasanka
(b) Maitraka 3. Equatorial climate :
(c) Rajavardhana
(d) Pulikesin 11 1. Uniform throughout the year.
Answer: (a) Sasanka 2. The average/ mean rainfall is 200 mm.
3. The average temperature is 10°C. Of the
statements given above,
UNIT 4 – SOUTH INDIAN KINGDOMS
(a) i alone is correct
I. Choose the correct answer: (b) ii and iii are correct
(c) i and iii are correct
1. Who among the following built the (d) i and ii are correct
VaikundaPerumai temple? Answer: (a) i alone is correct
(a) Narasimhavarma II
(b) Nandivarma II 4. Match list I correctly with list II and select your
(c) Dantivarman answer from the codes given below.
8
10. Which country in Europe has a very low density
of population?
(a) Iceland
(b) The Netherlands
(c) Poland
(d) Switzerland
Answer: (a) Iceland
UNIT 2 – GLOBE
II. Choose the best answer:
1. The shape of the Earth is _______.

Answer: (a) 2, 3, 4, 1 (a) Square
(b) Rectangle
5. India is the leading producer of …………… (c) Geoid
(a) Zinc (d) Circle
(b) Mica Answer: (c) Geoid
(c) Manganese
(d) Coal 2. The North Pole is ……………..
Answer: (b) Mica (a) 90° N Latitude
(b) 90° S latitude
6. The natural boundary between Spain and France (c) 90° W Longitude
is _________ (d) 90° E longitude
(a) The Alps Answer: (a) 90° N Latitude
(b) The Pyrenees
(c) The Carpathian 3. The area found between 0° and 180° E lines of
(d) The Caucasus longitude is called _______.
Answer: (b) The Pyrenees (a) Southern Hemisphere
(b) Western Hemisphere
7. The western and north – western Europe enjoys (c) Northern Hemisphere
mild and humid climate. Choose the correct option: (d) Eastern Hemisphere
(a) These regions are found near the equator Answer: (d) Eastern Hemisphere
(b) It is influenced by the North Atlantic Drift
(c) It is surrounded by mountains 4. The 23 1/2° N line of latitude is called ……………..
(d) All of the above (a) Tropic of Capricorn
Answer: (b) It is influenced by the North Atlantic (b) Tropic of Cancer
Drift (c) Arctic Circle
(d) Antarctic Circle
8. Which of the following statements is incorrect? Answer: (b) Tropic of Cancer
(a) Europe produces electricity from hydel power
(b) All the rivers of Europe originate in the Alps 5. 180° line of longitude is _______.
(c) Most of the rivers in Europe are used for inland (a) Equator
navigation (b) International Date Line
(d) The rivers of Europe are perennial in nature (c) Prime Meridian
Answer: (d) The rivers of Europe are perennial in (d) North Pole
nature Answer: (b) International Date Line
9. Choose the incorrect pair. 6. The Sun is found overhead the Greenwich
(a) The Meseta – Spain Meridian at ……………..
(b) The Jura – France (a) 12 midnight
(c) The Pennines – Italy (b) 12 noon
(d) The Black Forest – Germany (c) 1 p.m.
Answer: (c) The Pennines – Italy (d) 11 a.m.
Answer: (b) 12 noon
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7. A day has _____. (a) September 15
(a) 1240 minutes (b) October 15
(b) 1340 minutes (c) November 15
(c) 1440 minutes (d) December 15
(d) 1140 minutes Answer:
Answer: (c) 1440 minutes (a) September 15
8. Which of the following lines of longitude is 4. Who has the right to work in a direct Democracy?
considered for the Indian Standard Time? (a) Men
(a) 82 1/2° E (b) Women
(b) 82 1/2° W (c) Representatives
(c) 81 1/2° WE d) All eligible voters
(d) 81 1/2° W Answer:
Answer: (a) 82 1/2° E (d) All eligible voters
9. The total number of lines of latitude are ________

(a) 171 UNIT 2 – LOCAL BODIES – RURAL AND
(b) 161 URBAN
(c) 181
(d) 191 I. Choose the correct answer:
Answer: (c) 181
1. _________ is set up with several village
10. The total number of lines of longitude are panchayats.
…………… (a) Panchayat Union
(a) 370 (b) District Panchayat
(b) 380 (c) Taluk
(c) 360 (d) Revenue village
(d) 390 Answer:
Answer: (c) 360 (a) Panchayat Union
2. ……………… is National Panchayat Raj Day.

6TH CIVICS – TERM III (a) January 24
(b) July 24
(c) November 24
UNIT 1 – DEMOCRACY (d) April 24
Answer:
I. Choose the correct answer: (d) April 24
1. Early man settled near________and practiced 3. The oldest urban local body in India is _________
agriculture. (a) Delhi
(a) plains (b) Chennai
(b) bank of rivers (c) Kolkata
(c) mountains (d) Mumbai
(d) hills Answer:
Answer: (b) Chennai
(b) bank of rivers
4. The district has the highest number of Panchayat
2. The birthplace of democracy is ……………….. Unions.
(a) China (a) Vellore
(b) America (b) Thiruvallore
(c) Greece (c) Villupuram
(d) Rome (d) Kanchipuram
Answer: Answer:
(c) Greece (c) Villupuram
3. ________ is celebrated as International 5. The head of a corporation is called a_________
Democracy Day. (a) Mayor
10
(b) Commissioner Answer:
(c) ChairPerson (d) Ibn Battuta
(d) President
Answer:
(a) Mayor UNIT 2 – EMERGENCE OF NEW KINGDOMS
IN NORTH INDIA
7TH STD SOCIAL SCIENCE I. Choose the correct answer:

GUIDE – TERM 1 HISTORY – TERM I 1. Who wrote Prithivirajraso?
(a) Kalhana
(b) Vishakadatta
UNIT 1 – SOURCES OF MEDIEVAL INDIA (c) Rajasekara
(d) Chand Bardai
I. Choose the correct answer: Answer:
(d) Chand Bardai
1 …….are the writings engraved on solid surfaces
such as rocks, stones, temple wails, and metals. 2. Who was the first prominent ruler of Pratiharas?
(a) Chronicles (a) Bhoja I
(b) Travelogues (b) Naga Bhatta I
(c) Coins (c) Jayapala
(d) Inscriptions (d) Chandradeva
Answer: Answer:
(d) Inscriptions (b) Naga Bhatta 1
2………..was the land gifted to temples. 3. Ghazni was a small principality in

(a) Vellanvagai (a) Mongolia
(b) Shalabhoga (b) Turkey
(c) Brahmadeya (c) Persia
(d) Devadana (d) Afghanistan
Answer: Answer:
(d) Devadana (d) Afghanistan
3. __________ period was known as the period of 4. What was the most important cause of the
devotional literature. invasion of Mahmud of Ghazni?
(a) Chola (a) To destroy idolatry
(b) Pandya (b) To plunder the wealth of India
(c) Rajput (c) To spread Islam in India
(d) Vijayanagara (d) To establish a Muslim state in India
Answer: Answer:
(a) Chola (b) To plunder the wealth of India
4. __________ provides information about the first

Sultan of Delhi. UNIT 3 – EMERGENCE OF NEW KINGDOMS
(a) Ain-i-Akbari IN SOUTH INDIA: LATER CHOLAS AND
(b) Taj-ul-Ma’asir PANDYAS
(c) Tuzk-i-Jahangiri
(d) Tarikh-i-Frishta I. Choose the correct answer:
Answer:
(b) Taj-ul-Ma’asir 1. Who revived the later Chola dynasty?
(a) Vijayalaya
5. __________ an Arab-born Morocco scholar, (b) Rajaraja I
traveled from Morocco to India. (c) Rajendra I
(a) Marco Polo (d) Athirajendra
(b) A1 Beruni Answer:
(c) Domingo Paes (a) Vijayalaya
(d) Ibn Battuta
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2. Who among the following Pandya rulers is known 2. Qutb-ud-in shifted his capital to Delhi from
for ending the Kalabhra rule? ______.
(a) Kadunkon (a) Lahore
(b) ViraPandyan (b) Poona
(c) Kun Pandyan (c) Daulatabad
(d) Varaguna (d) Agra
Answer: Answer:
(a) Kadunkon (a) Lahore
3. Which of the following was the lowest unit of Chola 3. __________completed the construction of the
administration? Qutb-Minar.
(a) Mandalam (a) Razia
(b) Nadu (b) Qutb-ud-din -Aibak
(c) Kurram (c) Iltutmish
(d) Ur (d) Balban
Answer: Answer:
(d) Ur (c) Iltutmish
4. Who was the last ruler Vijayalaya line of Chola 4. _______laid the foundation of the city
dynasty? Tughluqabad near Delhi.
(a) Veera Rajendra (a) Muhammad-bin -Tughluq
(b) Rajadhiraja (b) Firoz shah Tughluq
(c) AthiRajendra (c) Jalal -ud-din
(d) Rajaraja II (d) Ghiyas -ud-din
Answer: Answer:
(c) AthiRajendra (d) Ghiyas -ud-din
5. An example of Chola architecture can be seen at

______ GEOGRAPHY – TERM 1
(a) Kannayiram
(b) Uraiyur UNIT 1 – INTERIOR OF THE EARTH
(c) Kanchipuram
(d) Thanjavur
Answer:
(d) Thanjavur
1. Nife is made up of …………..
a) Nickel and ferrous
6. To which of the following, Marco Polo went in the
b) Silica and aluminum
last decade of the 13th century in India?
c) Silica and magnesium
(a) Chola mandalam
d) Iron and magnesium
(b) Pandya country
Answer: a) Nickel and ferrous
(c) Kongu region
(d) Malainadu
Answer: 2. Earthquakes and volcanic eruptions occur near
(b) Pandya country the edges of ……………..
a) Mountain
b) Plains
UNIT 4 – THE DELHI SULTANATE c) Plates
d) Plateaus
I. Choose the correct answers Answer: c) Plates
1. ______ laid the foundation of ‘ Mamluk’ dynasty. 3. The magnitude of an earthquake is measured by
(a) Mohammad Ghori ……………..
(b) Jalal-ud-din a) Seismograph
(c) Qutb-ud-dinAibak b) Richter scale
(d) Iltutmish c) Ammeter
Answer: d) Rotameter
(c) Qutb-ud-din Aibak Answer: b) Richter scale
12
4. The narrow pipe through which magma flows out d) Brazil
is called a ……………….. Answer: c) China
a) Vent
b) Crater 5. Landform which is not associated with wave
c) Focus erosion
d) Caldera a) Cliffs
Answer: a) Vent b) Sea arch
c) Stacks
5. ………….. Volcano is known as a lighthouse of the d) Beaches
Mediterranean Sea. Answer: d) Beaches
a) Stromboli
b) Krokota
c) Fujiyana UNIT 3 – POPULATION AND SETTLEMENT
d) Kilinanjaro
Answer: a) Stromboli I. Choose the correct answer:
6. ………………. belt is known as the “Ring of Fire”. 1. Caucasoid race is also known as
a) Circum – Pacific race……………………………..
b) Mid – Atlantic a) European
c) Mid – Continental b) Negroid
d) Antarctic c) Mangoloid
Answer: a) Circum – Pacific d) Australoid
Answer: a) European
UNIT 2 – LANDFORMS 2. …………………………Race is Known as Asian –

American Race.
I. Choose the correct answer: a) Caucasoid
b) Negroid
1. …………………… is a deposition of river c) Mongoloid
sediments along the foot-hills. d) Australoid
a) Plung pool Answer: c) Mongoloid
b) Alluvial fan
c) Floodplain 3. World Population day…………………………
d) Delta a) September 1
Answer: b) Alluvial fan b) June 11
c) July 11
2. Courtallam falls is located across the d) December 2
………………………….river. Answer: c) July 11
a) Cauvery
b) Pennar 4. Rural settlements are located
c) Chittar near…………………………
d) Vaigai a) Water bodies
Answer: c) Chittar b) Hilly areas
c) coastal areas
3. The landform created by glacial deposition is d) desert areas
………….. Answer: a) Water bodies
a) Cirque
b) Arete 5. Arrange the following in terms of size.
c) Moraine 1) City 2) Megalopolis 3) Metropolis 4) Conurbation
d) Tam lake a) 4, 1, 3,2
Answer: c) Moraine b) 1, 3, 4, 2
c) 2, 1,3,4
4. Large deposits of loess are found in ………….. d) 3, 1,2,4
a) the USA Answer: b) 1, 3, 4, 2
b) India
c) China
CIVICS – TERM 1 UNIT 1 – EQUALITY
13
I. Choose the correct answer: 1. What is meant by the Bi-party system?
(a) Two parties run the government.
1. Which one of the following does not come under (b) Two members run a party.
Equality? (c) Two major political parties contest the election.
(a) Nondiscrimination on the basis of birth, caste, (d) None of these.
religion, race, colour, or gender. Answer:
(b) Right to contest in the election. (a) Two parties run the government
(c) All are treated equally in the eyes of law.
(d) Showing inequality between rich and poor. 2. Which system of government does India have?
Answer: (a) Single-party system
(d) Showing inequality between rich and poor. (b) Bl-party system
(c) Multi-party system
2. Which one of the following comes under political (d) None of these
Equality? Answer:
(a) Right to petition the government and criticize (c) Multi-party system
public policy.
(b) Removal of inequality based on race, colour, sex, 3. Recognition of a political party is accorded by
and caste. _____.
(c) All are equal before the law. (a) The Election commission
(d) Prevention of concentration of wealth in the (b) The President
hands of the law. (c) The supreme court
Answer: (d) A committee
(a) Right to petition the government and criticize Answer:
public policy. (a) The Election commission
3. In India, the right to vote is given to all citizens at 4. Political parties are generally formed on the basis
the age of ________ Of
(a) 21 (a) Religious principles
(b) 18 (b) Common interest
(c) 25 (c) Economic principles
(d) 31 (d) caste
Answer: Answer:
(b) 18 (b) Common interest
4. Inequality created by man on the basis of caste, 5. Single-party system is found in

money, religion etc is called as (a) India
(a) Natural inequality (b) US.A
(b) Manmade inequality (c) France
(c) Economic inequality (d) China
(d) Gender inequality Answer:
Answer: (d) China
(b) Manmade inequality
5. In Switzerland, the right to vote is given to women ECONOMICS – TERM 1

in the year
(a) 1981 UNIT 1 – PRODUCTION
(b) 1971
(c) 1991
(d) 1961
Answer:
(b) 1971 1. Production refers to
(a) destruction of utility
(b) creation of utilities
UNIT 2 – POLITICAL PARTIES (c) exchange value
(d) none of these
Answer:
I. CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER: (b) creation of utilities
14
2. Utilities are in the nature of Answer:
(a) form utility (b) Horse
(b) time utility
(c) place utility 3. Who was the last ruler of the Sangama Dynasty?
(d) all of these (a) Rama Raya
Answer: (b) Tirumaladeva Raya
(d) all of these (c) Devaraya II
(d) Virupaksha Raya II
3. ______is carried out by extractive industries. Answer:
(a) Secondary production (d) Virupaksha Raya II
(b) Primary production
(c) Tertiary production 4. Who ended the Sultanate in Madurai?
(d) Service Production (a) SaluvaNarasimha
Answer : (b) Devarayall
(b) primary production (c) Kumara Kampana
(d) Tirumaladeva Raya
4. Primary factors are Answer:
(a) land, capital (c) Kumara Kampana
(b) capital, labor
(c) land, labor 5. Name the Bahmani King who was a linguist and a
(d) none of these poet.
Answer: (a) Ala-ud-din Hasan Shah
(c) land, labor (b) Muhammad I
(c) Sultan Firoz
5. The entrepreneur is also called (d) Mujahid
(a) exchanger Answer:
(b) Agent (c) Sultan Firoz
(c) organizer
(d) communicator
Answer: UNIT 2 – THE MUGHAL EMPIRE
(c) organizer
HISTORY – TERM 2 1. Who introduced the Persian style of architecture in

India?
(a) Humayun
UNIT 1 – VIJAYANAGAR AND BAHMANI (b) Babur
KINGDOMS (c) Jahangir
(d) Akbar
Answer:
I. CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER:
(b) Babur
1. Who was the greatest ruler of the Sangama
2. In which battle did Akbar defeat Rana Pratap?
Dynasty?
(a) Panipat
(a) Bukka
(b) Chausa
(b) Devaraya II
(c) Haldighati
(c) Harihara II
(d) Kanauj
(d) Krishna’Devaraya
Answer:
Answer:
(c) Haldighati
(b) Devaraya II
3. Whose palace in Delhi was destroyed by Sher
2. Which was the most common animal depicted on
Shah?
the pillars of the Vijayanagara style?
(a) Babur
(a) Elephant
(b) Humayun
(b) Horse
(c) Ibrahim Lodi
(c) Cow
(d) Alam Khan
(d) Deer
15
Answer: Answer:
(b) Humayun (c) Infantry
4. Who introduced Mansabdari system? 5. Who proclaimed wars and freed Malwa and
(a) Sher Sha Gujarat from Mughal domination?
(b) Akbar (a) Balaji Vishwanath
(c) Jahangir (b) Bajirao
(d) Shah Jahan (c) Balaji Bajirao
Answer: (d) Shahu
(b) Akbar Answer:
(b) Bajirao
5. Who was the revenue minister of Akbar?
(a) Birbal
(b) Raja Bhagwan Das GEOGRAPHY – TERM 2 UNIT 1
(c) RajaTodarmal – RESOURCES
(d) Raja Man Singh
Answer: I. Choose the correct answer:
(b)Raja Todarmal
1. Which one of the following is a renewable
resource?
UNIT 3 – RISE OF MARATHAS AND (a) Gold
PESHWAS (b) Iron
(c) Petrol
I. Choose the correct answer: (d) solar energy
Answer:
1. Who was the teacher and guardian of Shivaji? (d) solar energy
(a) Dadaji Kondadev
(b) Kavi Kalash 2. Where is the largest solar power project situated in
(c) Jijabai India?
(d) Ramdasl (a) Kamuthi
Answer: (b) Aralvaimozhi
(a) Dadaji Kondadev (c) Muppandal
(d) Neyveli
2. How was the Prime Minister of Maratha kings Answer:
known? (a) Kamuthi
(a) Deshmukh
(b) Peshwa 3. Which is one of the first metals known and used
(c) Panditrao by man?
(d) Patil (a) Iron
Answer: (b) Copper
(b) Peshwa (c) Gold
(d) Silver
3. Name the family priest of Shambhuji who Answer:
influenced him in his day-to-day administration. (b) Copper
(a) Shahu
(b) Anaji Datta 4. _______ is one of the indispensable minerals
(c) Dadaji Kondadev used in the electrical and electronics Industry.
(d) Kavi Kalash (a) Limestone
Answer: (b) Mica
(d) Kavi Kalash (c) Manganese
(d) Silver
4. What was the backbone of Shivaji’s army in the Answer:
beginning? (b) Mica
(a) Artillery
(b) Cavalry 5. Electricity produced from coal is called ________.
(c) Infantry (a) Thermal Power
(d) Elephantry (b) Nuclear power
16
(c) Solar power I. Choose the correct answer:
(d) Hydel power
Answer: 1. What is the minimum age for becoming a member
(a) Thermal Power of the State Legislative Council?
(a) 18 years
(b) 21 years
UNIT 2 – TOURISM (c) 25 years
(d) 30 years
I. Choose the correct answer: Answer:
(d) 30 years
1. The oldest type of tourism is _____.
(a) Religious 2. How many states does India have?
(b) Historical (a) 26
(c) Adventure (b) 27
(d) Recreational (c) 28
Answer: (d) 29
(a) Religious Answer:
(d) 29
2. In which state is the Kaziranga national park
located? 3. The word State government refers to _______.
(a) Rajasthan (a) Government departments in the states
(b) West Bengal (b) Legislative Assembly
(c) Assam (c) both a and b
(d) Gujarat (d) none of the above
Answer: Answer:
(c) Assam (c) both a and b
3. Which one of the following is not a beach in India? 4. The overall head of the government in the state is
(a) Goa the _________.
(b) Cochin (a) President
(c) Kovalam (b) Prime Minister
(d) Miami (c) Governor
Answer: (d) Chief Minister
(d) Miami Answer:
(b)Prime Minister
4. Which of the following is not a bird sanctuary in
India? 5. Who appoints the Chief Minister and other
(a) Nal Sarovar in Gujarat Ministers?
(b) Koonthakulam in Tamil Nadu (a) President
(c) Bharatpur in Rajasthan (b) Prime Minister
(d) Kanha in Madhya Pradesh (c) Governor
Answer: (d) Election Commissioner
(d) Kanha in Madhya Pradesh Answer:
(c) Governor
5. In which district courtallam waterfalls is located?
(a) Dharmapuri 6. Who becomes the Chief Minister?
(b) Tirunelveli (a) Leader of the Majority party
(c) Namakkal (b) Leader of the opposition party
(d) Theni (e) Both
Answer: (d) None
(b) Tirunelveli Answer:
(a) Leader of the Majority party
CIVICS – TERM 2
7. What are the three branches of the state
government?
UNIT 1 – STATE GOVERNMENT (a) Mayor, governor, MLA
(b) Panchayat, municipality, corporation
17
(c) Village, City, State I. Choose the correct answer:
(d) Legislative, executive, and judiciary
Answer: 1. Which of the following composed songs on
(d) Legislative, executive, and judiciary Krishna putting himself in the place of Mother
Yashoda?
(a) Poigaiazhwar
UNIT 2 – MEDIA AND DEMOCRACY (b) Periyazhwar
(c) Nammazhwar
I. Choose the correct answer: (d) Andal
Answer: (b) Periyazhwar
1. Which one of the following comes under print
media? 2. Who preached the Advaita philosophy?
(a) Radio (a) Ramanujar
(b) Television (b) Ramananda
(c) Newspaper (c) Nammazhwar
(d) Internet (d) Adi Shankara
Answer: Answer: (d) Adi Shankara
(c) Newspaper
3. Who spread the Bhakthi ideology in northern India
2. Which one of the following is the broadcast and made it a mass movement?
media? (a) Vallabhacharya
(a) Magazines (b) Ramanujar
(b) Journals (c) Ramananda
(c) Newspaper (d) Surdas
(d) Radio Answer: (c) Ramananda
Answer:
(d) Radio 4. Who made Chishti order popular in India?
(a) Moinuddin Chishti
3. Which invention has brought the world closure? (b) Suhrawardi
(a) Typewriter (c) Amir Khusru
(b) Television (d) Nizamuddin Auliya
(c) Telex Answer: (a) Moinuddin Chishti
(d) None of these
Answer: 5. Who is considered their first guru by the Sikhs?
(b) Television (a) Lehna
(b) Guru Amir Singh
4. What is mass media? (c) GuruNanak
(a) Radio (d) Guru Gobind Singh
(b) Television Answer: (c) GuruNanak
(c) Both a & b
(d) None of these
Answer : UNIT 2 – ART AND ARCHITECTURE OF
(c) Both a & b TAMIL NADU
5. Why is it necessary for media to be independent? I. Choose the correct answer:

(a) to earn money
(b) to encourage the company 1. Which is the oldest structural temple in south
(c) to write the balanced report India?
(d) none of these (a) Shore Temple
Answer: (b) Mandagapattu
(c) to write a balanced report (c) Kailasanatha Temple
(d) Vaikuntha Perumal Temple
Answer: (a) Shore Temple
HISTORY – TERM 3
2. In which year were the Mamallapuram monuments
UNIT 1 – NEW RELIGIOUS IDEAS AND and temples notified as a UNESCO World Heritage
MOVEMENTS site?
18
(a) 1964 4. Where are the Rock beds found with no head-
(b) 1994 rests?
(c) 1974 (a) Vellore
(d) 1984 (b) Kanchipuram
Answer: (d) 1984 (c) Sittanavasal
(d) Madurai
3. What was the special feature of the architecture of Answer: (a) Vellore
the early Chola period?
(a) bas-reliefs 5. Who is believed to have built the Kazhugumalai
(b) vimanas Rock-Cut Temple?
(c) corridors (a) Mahendra Varman
(d) gopurams (b) Parantaka Nedunchadayan
Answer: (b) vimanas (c) Parantaka Veera Narayana Pandyan
(d) Harihara II
4. Where is the Azhakiya Nambi Temple situated? Answer: (b) Parantaka Nedunchadayan
(a) Tirukkurungudi
(b) Madurai
(c) Tirunelveli UNIT 1 – EXPLORING CONTINENTS –
(d) Srivilliputhur NORTH AMERICA AND SOUTH AMERICA
Answer: (a) Tirukkurungudi
5. Who built the Vaikuntha Perumal Temple?
(a) Mahendravarman 1. The ______ separates North America from Asia
(b) Narasimhavarman (a) Bering Strait
(c) Rajasimha (b) Palk Straits
(d) Rajarajall (c) Malacca Strait
Answer: (b) Narasimhavarman (d) Gibraltar straits
Answer: (a) Bering Strait
UNIT 3 – JAINISM, BUDDHISM, AND AJIVIKA 2. __________ is known as the “sugar bowl of the
PHILOSOPHY IN TAMIL NADU world”
(a) Mexico
I. Choose the correct answer: (b) USA
(c) Canada
1. Where was the first Jain Council held to codify the (d) Cuba
Jaina canon? Answer: (d) Cuba
(a) Pataliputra
(b) Vallabhi 3. __________ are the longest rivers in North
(c) Mathura America
(d) Kanchipuram (a) The Mississippi and Missouri rivers
Answer: (a) Pataliputra (b) The Mackenzieriver
(c) The St. Lawrence river
2. In which language was Agama sutras written? (d) The Colorado river
(a) Ardha-Magadhi Prakrit Answer: (a) The Mississippi and Missouri rivers
(b) Hindi
(c) Sanskrit 4. __________ is the longest mountain chain in the
(d) Pali world.
Answer: (a) Ardha-Magadhi Prakrit (a) The Andes
(b) TheRockies
3. Which of the following was patronized by the (c) The Himalayas
Kalabhras? (d) The Alps
(a) Buddhism Answer: (a) The Andes
(b) Jainism
(c) Ajivikas 5. __________ basin gets rainfall every day because
(d) Hinduism of its equatorial location
Answer: (b) Jainism (a) The Mackenzie
(b) The Orinoco
19
(c) The Amazon 3. A sudden movement (or) trembling of the earth’s
(d) The Parana crust is called an _________
Answer: (c) The Amazon (a) Tsunami
(b) Earthquake
(c) Fire
UNIT 2 – MAP READING (d) Cyclone
Answer: (b) Earthquake
4. A sudden overflow of water in a large amount
1. The science of map making is called caused due to heavy rainfall is called _________
___________ (a) Flood
(a) Geography (b) Cyclone
(b) Cartography (c) Drought
(c) Physiography (d) Seasons
(d) Physical Geography Answer: (a) Flood
Answer: (b) Cartography
5. Road accidents can be avoided by permitting the
2. North, South, East, and West are four directions persons who have is _________ allowed to drive
called as vehicle
(a) Cardinal (a) Ration card
(b) Geographical (b) License
(c) Latitudinal (c) permission
(d) Angels (d) Documents
Answer: (a) Cardinal Answer: (b) License
3. Cultural maps are those which shows the

___________features CIVICS – TERM 3
(a) Natural
(b) Man-made
(c) Artificial UNIT 1 – WOMEN EMPOWERMENT
(d) Environmental
Answer: (b) Man-made I. Choose the correct answer:
1. Which of the following is NOT a consequence of

UNIT 3 – NATURAL HAZARDS – gender inequality?
UNDERSTANDING OF DISASTER (a) Poor maternal health
MANAGEMENT IN PRACTICE (b) Greater insecurity for men
(c) The spread of HIV/AIDS
I. Choose the correct answer: (d) Lower literacy rates for women
Answer: (b) Greater insecurity for men
1. _________ is an event that causes enormous
physical damage to property, loss of life, and change 2. Gender equality is an issue that is relevant to
in the environment. (a) Girls and women; its a women’s issue
(a) Hazard (b) All societies, women and men alike
(b) Disaster (c) Third-world countries only
(c) Recovery (d) Developed Countries only
(d) Mitigation Answer: (b) All societies, women and men alike
Answer: (a) and (b)
3. Which of the following strategies will help women
2. Activities that reduce the effects of a disaster become more socially and economically
(a) Preparation empowered?
(b) Response (a) Women working together to challenge
(c) Mitigation discrimination
(d) Recovery (b) More income sources for women
Answer: (c) Mitigation (c) Improved access to education
(d) All of the above
Answer: (d) All of the above
20
4. Why are girls more likely than boys to miss out on (d) Alteration
secondary education in the developing world? Answer: (b) Adulteration
(a) Because of high school fees, only boys are sent
to school
(b) Girls are expected to help out at home UNIT 3 – ROAD SAFETY
(c) Child Marriage restricts girl’s mobility and freedom
(d) All of the above I. Choose the correct answer:
Answer: (b) Girls are expected to help out at
home 1. Road safety is meant for
(a) Passersby
(b) drivers
UNIT 2 – MARKET AND CONSUMER (c) public
PROTECTION (d) all who use roads
Answer: (d) all who use roads
2. Road accidents affect a country’s
1. In which case a consumer cannot complain (a) improvement
against the manufacturer for a defective product? (b) life
(a) Date of expiry unspecified (c) finance
(b) Price of the commodity (d) all the above
(c) Batch number of the commodity Answer: (d) all the above
(d) Address of the manufacturer
Answer: (c) Batch number of the commodity 3. Permit refers to
(a) permission for driving
2. Consumers face various problems from the (b) permission for carrying goods
producer’s end due to (c) certificate for drivers
(a) Unfair trade practices (d) registration of vehicles
(b) Wide range of goods Answer: (a) permission for driving
(c) Standard quality goods
(d) Volume of production 4. Raksha safe drive is a device useful for
Answer: (a) Unfair trade practices (a) pedestrians
(b) motorists
3. Consumers must be provided with adequate (c) car drivers
information about a product to make (d) passengers
(a) Investment in production Answer: (c) car drivers
(b) Decision in the sale of goods
(c) Credit purchase of goods 5. Road safety week celebration was first imitated in
(d) Decision in the purchase of goods India in the year
Answer: (d) Decision in the purchase goods (a) 1947
(b) 1989
4. The system of consumer courts at the national, (c) 1990
state, and district levels, looking into consumers’ (d) 2019
grievances against unfair trade practices of Answer: (b) 1989
businessmen and providing necessary
compensation, is called
(a) Three-tier system ECONOMICS – TERM 3
(b) One-tier system
(c) Two-tier system
UNIT 1 – TAX AND ITS IMPORTANCE
(d) Four-tier system
Answer: (a) Three-tier system
5. Mixing other extraneous material of inferior quality
1. Taxes are ______ payment.
with superior quality material is called
(a) Voluntary
(a) Purification
(b) Compulsory
(b) Adulteration
(c) a & b
(c) Refinement
(d) None of the above
Answer: (b) Compulsory
21
2. Minimum possible amount that should be spent on Answer:
the collection of taxes is (b) Portugal
(a) canon of equality
(b) canon of certainty 3. In 1453 Constantinople was captured by
(c) canon of economy ……………
(d) canon of convenience (a) The French
Answer: (c) canon of economy (b) The Turks
(c) The Dutch
3. This taxation is the very opposite of progressive (d) The British
taxation. Answer:
(a) degressive (b) The Turks
(b) proportional
(c) regressive 4. Sir William Hawkins belonged to …………….
(d) none (a) Portugal
Answer: (c) regressive (b) Spain
(c) England
4. Income tax is a (d) France
(a) direct tax Answer:
(b) indirect tax (c) England
(c) a &b
(d) degressive tax 5. The first fort constructed by the British in India was
Answer: (a) direct tax ……………
(a) Fort St. William
5. Which tax is raised on the provision of service. (b) Fort St.George
(a) wealth (c) Agra fort
(b) corporate (d) Fort St. David
(c) wealth Answer:
(d) service (b) Fort St.George
Answer: (d) service
6. Who among the following Europeans were the last
to come India as traders?
8TH HISTORY BOOK BACK (a) The British
(b) The French
ANSWERS (c) The Danish
(d) The Portuguese
Answer:
UNIT 1 – ADVENT OF THE (b) The French
EUROPEANS 7. Tranqueber on the Tamilnadu coast was a trade
centre of the ……………
I. Choose the correct answer (a) The Portuguese
(b) The British
1. Who laid the foundation of Portuguese power in (c) The French
India? (d) The Danish
(a) Vasco da Gama Answer:
(b) Bartholomew Diaz (d) The Danish
(c) Alfonso de Albuquerque
(d) Almeida
Answer: UNIT 2 – FROM TRADE TO
(c) Alfonso de Albuquerque
TERRITORY
2. Which of the following European Nation was the
foremost attempt to discover a sea route to India? I. Choose the correct answer
(a) Dutch
(b) Portugal 1. The ruler of Bengal in 1757 was ……………
(c) France (a) Shuja – ud – daulah
(d) Britain (b) Siraj – ud – daulah
22
(c) Mirkasim 8. Who signed the Treaty of Bassein with the British?
(d) Tippu Sultan (a) Bajirao II
Answer: (b) DaulatraoScindia
(b) Siraj – ud – daulah (c) SambhajiBhonsle
(d) SayyajiraoGaekwad
2. The Battle of Plassey was fought in ……………… Answer:
(a) 1757 (a) Bajirao II
(b) 1764
(c) 1765 9. Who was the last Peshwa of the Maratha empire?
(d) 1775 (a) BalajiVishwanath
Answer: (b) BajiRao II
(a) 1757 (c) BalajiBajiRao
(d) BajiRao
3. Which among the following treaty was signed after Answer:
Battle of Buxar? (d) BajiRao
(a) Treaty of Allahabad
(b) Treaty of Carnatic 10. Who was the first Indian state to join the
(c) Treaty of Alinagar subsidiary Alliance?
(d) Treaty of Paris (a) Oudh
Answer: (b) Hyderabad
(a) Treaty of Allahabad] (c) Udaipur
(d) Gwalior
4. The Treaty of Pondichery brought the …………….. Answer:
Carnatic war to an end . (b) Hyderabad
(a) First
(b) Second
(c) Third UNIT 3 – RURAL LIFE AND
(d) None
Answer: SOCIETY
(b) Second
5. When did Hyder Ali crown on the throne of
Mysore? 1. Which system was called by different names like
(a) 1756 Jagirdari, Malguzari and Biswedari etc.?
(b) 1761 (a) Mahalwari
(c) 1763 (b) Ryotwari
(d) 1764 (c) Zamindari
Answer: (d) None of these
(b) 1761 Answer:
(d) None of these
6. Treaty of Mangalore was signed between
…………….. 2. Under which Governor General did the permanent
(a) The French and Tippu Sultan settlement implemented in Bengal.
(b) Hyder Ali and Zamorin of Calicut (a) Lord Hastings
(c) The British and Tippu Sultan (b) Lord Cornwallis
(d) Tippu Sultan and Marathas (c) Lord Wellesley
Answer: (d) Lord Minto
(c) The British and Tippu Sultan Answer:
(b) Lord Cornwallis
7. Who was the British Governor-General during the
Third Anglo – Mysore War? 3. What was the Mahal in the Mahalwari system?
(a) Robert Clive (a) House
(b) Warren Hastings (b) Town
(c) Lord Cornwallis (c) Village
(d) Lord Wellesley (d) Palace
Answer: Answer:
(c) Lord Cornwallis (c) Village
23
4. In which region was the Mahalwari system 2. Which of the following Palayakkarar of Tamil Nadu
imposed? was the pioneer against the English rule –
(a) Maharashtra (a) Pulitevan
(b) Madras (b) Yusuf Khan
(c) Bengal (c) Kattabomman
(d) Punjab (d) Marudhu brothers
Answer: Answer:
(d) Punjab (a) Pulitevan
5. Who among the following Governors introduced 3. Colin Jackson was the collector of –
Mahalwari system? (a) Madurai
(a) Lord Hastings (b) Tirunelveli
(b) Lord Cornwallis (c) Ramanathapuram
(c) Lord Wellesley (d) Tuticorin
(d) Lord William Bentinck Answer:
Answer: (c) Ramanathapuram
(d) Lord William Bentinck
4. Veera Pandiya Kattabomman was hanged at the
6. In which region was the Ryotwari system not fort of –
introduced by the British? (a) Panchalamkurichi
(a) Bombay (b) Sivagangai
(b) Madras (c) Tiruppathur
(c) Bengal (d) Kayathar
(d) None of these Answer:
Answer: (d) Kayathar
(c) Bengal
5. Velu Nachiyar was a queen of –
7. The Indigo revolt was led by whom? (a) Nagalapuram
(a) Mahatma Gandhi (b) Sivagiri
(b) Keshab Chandra Roy (c) Sivagangai
(c) Digambar Biswas and Bishnu Biswas (d) Virapachi
(d) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel Answer:
Answer: (c) Sivagangai
(c) Digambar Biswas and Bishnu Biswas
6. Tiruchirapalli proclamation was issued by –
8. The Bardoli Satyagraha was led by whom? (a) Marudhu Pandiyars
(a) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel (b) Krishnappa Nayak
(b) Mahatma Gandhi (c) Velu Nachiyar
(c) DigambarBiswas (d) Dheeran Chinnamalai
(d) Keshab Chandra Roy Answer:
Answer: (a) Marudhu Pandiyars
(a) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
7. Which of the following place was associated with
Dheeran chinnamalai –
UNIT 4 – PEOPLE’S REVOLT (a) Dindigul
(b) Nagalapuram
I. Choose the correct answer (c) Pudukottai
(d) Odanilai
1. The Palayakkarar system was instituted in – Answer:
(a) 1519 (d) Odanilai
(b) 1520
(c) 1529 8. Rani Lakshmi Bai led the revolt at –
(d) 1530 (a) Central India
Answer: (b) Kanpur
(c) 1529 (c) Delhi
(d) Bareilly
24
Answer: (a) Charter Act of 1813
(a) Central India (b) Charter Act of 1833
(c) Charter Act of 1853
(d) Charter Act of 1858
UNIT 5 – EDUCATIONAL Answer:
(a) Charter Act of 1813
DEVELOPMENT IN INDIA
7. Which of the following Commission recommended
I. Choose the correct answer to constitute the University Grants Commission?
(a) Sergeant Report, 1944
1. The word ‘Veda’ is derived from ……… (b) Radhakrishnan Commission, 1948
(a) Sanskrit (c) Kothari Commission, 1964
(b) Latin (d) National Education Policy, 1968
(c) Prakrit Answer:
(d) Pauli (b) Radhakrishnan Commission, 1948
Answer:
(a) Sanskrit 8. In which year the New Education Policy was
introduced in India?
2. Which of the following was an important center for (a) 1992
the learning in the ancient period? (b) 2009
(a) Gurukula (c) 1986
(b) Viharas (d) 1968
(c) Pauli Answer:
(d) All of these (c) 1986
Answer:
(a) Gurukula
UNIT 6 – DEVELOPMENT OF
3. Nalanda, the oldest university in India was located
in – INDUSTRIES IN INDIA
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Maharashtra I. Choose the correct answer
(c) Bihar
(d) Punjab 1. Which of the following activities of the people will
Answer: not come under handy craft?
(c) Bihar (a) Carving statues out of stone
(b) Making bangles with glass
4. When did the UNESCO declare Takshashila as (c) Weaving silk sarees
world heritage site? (d) Smelting of iron
(a) 1970 Answer:
(b) 1975 (d) Smelting of Iron
(c) 1980
(d) 1985 2. The oldest industry in India was ……….. industry.
Answer: (a) Textile
(c) 1980 (b) Steel
(c) Electrical
5. Which European country were the first to start (d) Fertilizers
Modern System of Education in India? Answer:
(a) British (a) Textile
(b) Danish
(c) French 3. The woolen and leather factories became
(d) Portuguese prominent in …………
Answer: (a) Bombay
(d) Portuguese (b) Ahmadabad
(c) Kanpur
6. Which of the following Charter Act made a (d) Decca
provision for an annual grant one lakhs Rupees for Answer:
the promotion of Education in India? (c) Kanpur
25
4. What was the aim of the first Three Five year 5. Fort St. George was constructed by the British in –
Plans of India? (a) Bombay
(a) To control population growth (b) Cuddalore
(b) To reduce the illiteracy rate (c) Madras
(c) To built a strong industrial base (d) Calcutta
(d) To empower the women Answer:
Answer: (c) Madras
(c) To built a strong industrial base
6. Which of the following port was the East India
5. What was not the reason for the decline of Indian Company’s principal settlement until 1774?
Industries? (a) Fort St. William
(a) Loss of royal patronage (b) Fort St David
(b) Competition of machine-made goods (c) Fort St. George
(c) Industrial policy of India (d) None of these
(d) Trading policy of British Answer:
Answer: (c) Fort St. George
(c) Industrial policy of India
UNIT 8 – STATUS OF WOMEN IN

UNIT 7 – URBAN CHANGES INDIA THROUGH THE AGES
DURING THE BRITISH PERIOD
1. …………… society is constantly changing with
1. Ancient towns are – additions, assimilation and omissions from within and
(a) Harappa and Mohenjodaro outside.
(b) Delhi and Hyderabad (a) Human
(c) Bombay and Culcutta (b) Animal
(d) None of the above (c) Forest
Answer: (d) Nature
(a) Harappa and Mohenjodaro Answer:
(a) Human
2. Coastal towns developed by the British were –
(a) Surat 2. The First woman doctor in India was
(b) Goa (a) Dharmambal
(c) Bombay (b) Muthulakshmi Ammaiyar
(d) All of these (c) Moovalur Ramamirdham
Answer: (d) Panditha Ramabai
(d) All of these Answer:
(b) Muthulakshmi Ammaiyar
3. A new trend of urbanisation began in the latter half
of 19th century as a result of – 3. The practice of sat was abolished in.
(a) Opening of Suez Canal (a) 1827
(b) Introduction of steam navigation (b) 1828
(c) Construction of railways (c) 1829
(d) All the above (d) 1830
Answer: Answer:
(d) All the above (c) 1829
4. The British arrived India for. 4. B.M Malabar was a

(a) for trading (a) teacher
(b) for preaching their religion (b) doctor
(c) for working (c) lawyer
(d) for ruling (d) journalist
Answer: Answer:
(a) for trading (d) journalist
26
5. Which of the following was/were the reform 2. World soil day is observed on –
movement(s)? (a) 15th August
(a) Brahma Samaj (b) 12th January
(b) Prarthana Samaj (c) 15th October
(c) Arya Samaj (d) 5th December
(d) all the above Answer: (d) 5th December
Answer:
(d) all the above 3. Fossils are found in –
(a) Sedimentary rocks
6. The Bethune school was founded in by J.E.D. (b) Igneous rocks
Bethune. (c) Metamorphic rocks
(a) 1848 (d) Plutonic rocks
(b) 1849 Answer: (a) Sedimentary rocks
(c) 1850
(d) 1851 4. The first layer of soil is called as –
Answer: (a) Regur
(b) 1849 (b) Regolith
(c) Unweathered rock
7. Which commission recommended to start primary (d) Partially weathered rock
schools for girls in 1882? Answer: (b) Regolith
(a) Wood’s
(b) Welly 5. Ideal soil for growing cotton is –
(c) Hunter (a) Red soil
(d) Muddiness (b) Black soil
Answer: (c) Alluvial soil
(c) Hunter (d) Mountain soil
Answer: (b) Black soil
8. Sara’s child Marriage Bill fixing the minimum
marriageable age for girls at. 6. The major component of soil is –
(a) 11 (a) Rocks
(b) 12 (b) Gas
(c) 13 (C) Water
(d) 14 (d) Minerals
Answer: Answer: (d) Minerals
(d) 14
7. Which one of the following is the most widespread
most and productive category of soil –
8TH GEOGRAPHY BOOK BACK (a) Alluvial soil
ANSWERS (b) Black soil
(c) Red soil
(d) Mountain soil
Answer: (a) Alluvial soil
UNIT 1 – ROCK AND SOIL
UNIT 2 – WEATHER AND CLIMATE
I. CHOOSE THE CORRECT
ANSWER:
1. Earth’s atmosphere contains about ……………
1. Which of the following is known as the sphere of percentage of nitrogen and oxygen.
rocks – (a) 78% and 21%
(a) Atmosphere (b) 22% and 1%
(b) Biosphere (c) 21% and 0.97%
(c) Lithosphere (d) 10% and 20%
(d) Hydrosphere Answer: (a) 78% and 21%
Answer: (c) Lithosphere
27
2. …………… is generally defined as the average 4. Which one the following represents places with
conditions of the weather of a place or a region. equal amount of rainfall
(a) Earth (a) Isotherm
(b) Atmosphere (b) Isohel
(c) Climate (c) Isobar
(d) sun (d) Isohyets
Answer: (c) climate Answer: (d) Isohyets
3. The earth receives energy from ……………. 5. ………….. is used to measure the humidity.
(a) Current (a) Anemometer
(b) Electro magnetic radiation (b) Barometer
(c) Waves (c) Hygrometer
(d) Heat (d) Thermometer
Answer: (b) Electro magnetic radiation Answer: (c) hygrometer
4. Which one the following represents places with

equal amount of rainfall UNIT 4 – MIGRATION AND
(a) Isotherm
(b) Isohel URBANISATION
(c) Isobar
(d) Isohyets
Answer: (d) Isohyets I. CHOOSE THE CORRECT
ANSWER:
5. ………….. is used to measure the humidity.
(a) Anemometer
(b) Barometer 1. People move from …………… to ……………
(c) Hygrometer mainly in search of better jobs.
(d) Thermometer (a) Rural to Urban
Answer: (c) hygrometer (b) Urban to Rural
(c) Hills to plains
(d) Plains to hills
UNIT 2 – WEATHER AND CLIMATE Answer: (a) Rural to Urban
I. Choose the correct answer: 2. A person moves from his own country to another
country is known as ……………
1. Earth’s atmosphere contains about …………… (a) Immigrant
percentage of nitrogen and oxygen. (b) Refugee
(a) 78% and 21% (c) Emigrant
(b) 22% and 1% (d) Asylum seeker
(c) 21% and 0.97% Answer: (c) Emigrant
(d) 10% and 20%
Answer: (a) 78% and 21% 3. The migration in search of fertile agricultural land
is …………… migration.
2. …………… is generally defined as the average (a) Rural to Rural
conditions of the weather of a place or a region. (b) Rural to Urban
(a) Earth (c) Urban to Rural
(b) Atmosphere (d) Urban to Urban
(c) Climate Answer: (a) Rural to Rural
(d) sun
Answer: (c) climate 4. War is one of the …………… causes of human
migration.
3. The earth receives energy from ……………. (a) Demographic
(a) Current (b) Socio – Cultural
(b) Electro magnetic radiation (c) Political
(c) Waves (d) Economic
(d) Heat Answer: (c) Political
Answer: (b) Electro magnetic radiation
28
5. The main reason for the development of
urbanization in pre – historic period was ……………
UNIT 6 – INDUSTRIES
(a) Production of food grains
(b) Domestication of cattle
(c) Fishing I. CHOOSE THE CORRECT
(d) hunting ANSWER:
Answer: (b) Domestication of cattle
1. Silk weaving and house hold industries come
under the category of ……………
UNIT 5 – HAZARDS (a) Small scale industry
(b) Large scale industry
(c) Marine based industry
I. CHOOSE THE CORRECT (d) Capital intensive industry
ANSWER: Answer: (a) Small scale industry
2. On the basis of ownership the industry can be

1. ……………. percentage of nitrogen is present in
divided into ………….. types.
the air.
(a) 2
(a) 78.09%
(b) 3
(b) 74.08%
(c) 4
(c) 80.07%
(d) 5
(d) 76.63%
Answer: (c)4
Answer: (a) 78.09%
3. Amul dairy industry is best example of …………..
2. Tsunami in Indian Ocean took place in the s ear
sector.
…………….
(a) Private Sector
(a) 1990
(b) Public Sector
(b) 2004
(c) Co-operative Sector
(c) 2005
(d) Joint Sector
(d) 2008
Answer: (c) Co-operative sector
Answer: (b) 2004
4. Iron and Steel and Cement Industries are the
3. The word tsunami is derived from …………….
examples of ………….. industries.
language.
(a) Agro based
(a) Hindi
(b) Mineral based
(b) French
(c) Forest based
(c) Japanese
(d) Marine based
(d) German
Answer: (b) Mineral based
Answer: (c) Japanese
5. Tertiary activity is divided into ………….. types
4. The example of surface water is –
(a) 4
(a) Artesian well
(b) 3
(b) Groundwater
(c) 2
(c) Subsurface water
(d) 5
(d) Lake
Answer: (c) 2
Answer: (d) Lake
5. Event that occurs due to the failure of monsoons.

3. In respect of the Mediterranean climate, consider
(a) Condensation
the following statements and choose the correct
(b) Drought
answer.
(c) Evaporation
(1) The average rainfall is 15 cm
(d) Precipitation
(2) The summers are hot and dry; winters are rainy.
Answer: (b) Drought
(3) Winters are cool and dry; Summers are hot and
wet
(4) Citrus fruits are grown
(a) 1 is correct
(b) 2 and 4 are correct
29
(c) 3 and 4 are correct 5. Actual distribution of population can be
(d) All are correct represented by-
Answer: (b) 2 and 4 are correct (a) lines
(b) Shades
4. The range which separates the west and east (c) Dots
flowing rivers in Australia is (d) Contours
(a) Great Dividing Range Answer:
(b) Himalayan range (b) Shades
(c) Flinders range
(d) Mac Donnell range
Answer: (a) Great Dividing Range 8TH CIVICS BOOK BACK
5. Kalgoorile is famous for …………….. mining.
ANSWERS
(a) Diamond
(b) Platinum
(c) Silver UNIT 1 – HOW THE STATE
(d) Gold GOVERNMENT WORKS
Answer: (d) Gold
UNIT 8 – MAP READING I. CHOOSE THE CORRECT

ANSWER:
1. The Governor of a state is appointed by –
1. The subject which deals with map making process (a) President
is- (b) Vice President
(a) Demography (c) Prime Minister
(b) Cartography (d) Chief Minister
(c) Physiography Answer: (a) President
(d) Topography
Answer: 2. The State Council Minsters is headed by –
(b) Cartography (a) The Governor
(b) Chief Minister
2. A map that shows the physical features of an area (c) Speaker
is called. (d) Home Minister
(a) Cadastral map Answer: (b) Chief Minister
(b) Relief map
(c) Climatic map 3. Who can summon and prorogue the sessions of
(d) Resource map the State legislature?
Answer: (a) Home Minister
(b) Relief map (b) President
(c) Speaker
3. Shallow water bodies are represented by color. (d) The Governor
(a) Yellow Answer: (d) The Governor
(b) Brown
(c) Light blue 4. Who does not participate in the appointment of the
(d) Dark blue High Court Judge?
Answer: (a) Governor
(c) Light blue (b) Chief Minister
(c) Chief Justice of the High Court
4. The maps which are known as plans are- (d) President of India
(a) Cadastral maps Answer: (c) Chief Justice of the High Court
(b) Topographical maps
(c) Isoline maps 5. The age of retirement of the Judges of the High
(d) Transport maps Court is –
Answer: (a) 62
(a) Cadastral maps (b) 64
30
(c) 65 2. India is a land of ………..
(d) 58 (a) multi – religious faith
Answer: (a) 62 (b) multi – cultural beliefs
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) None of these
UNIT 2 – CITIZENS AND Answer: (c) Both (a) & (b)
CITIZENSHIP 3. The Preamble of the Constitution was amended in
…………..
(a) 1951
I. CHOOSE THE CORRECT (b) 1976
ANSWER: (c) 1974
(d) 1967
Answer: (b) 1976
1. Which of the following is not a condition for
becoming the citizen of India? 4. Which one of the following describes India as a
(a) Birth secular state?
(b) Acquiring property (a) Fundamental Rights
(c) Descent (b) Fundamental Duty
(d) Naturalization (c) Directive Principles of State Policy
Answer: (b) acquiring property (d) Preamble of the Constitution
Answer: (d) Preamble of the Constitution
2. ……………. of the Constitution of India deals with
the Citizenship. 5. Right to freedom of religion is related to –
(a) Part II (a) Judiciary
(b) Part II Article 5 – 11 (b) Parliament
(c) Part II Article 5 – 6 (c) Directive principles of State Policy
(d) Part I Article 5 – 11 (d) Fundamental rights
Answer: (b) Part II Article 5 – 11 Answer: (d) Fundamental rights
3. Who is called the first citizen of India? 6. According to Article 28, which type of education is
(a) The Prime Minister restricted in state aided educational institutions?
(b) The President (a) Religious instruction
(c) The Chief Minister (b) Moral education
(d) The Chief Justice of India (c) Physical education
Answer: (b) The President (d) None above these
Answer: (a) Religious instruction
UNIT 3 – UNDERSTANDING 7. The country will be considered as a secular
SECULARISM country, if it ………….
(a) gives importance to a particular religion
(b) bans religious instructions in the state – aided
I. CHOOSE THE CORRECT educational institutions.
(c) does not give importance to a particular religion
ANSWER: (d) bans the propagation of any religious belief.
Answer:(b) bans religious instructions in the
1. Secularism means state – aided educational institutions.
(a) State is against to all religions
(b) State accepts only one religion
(c) An attitude of tolerance and peaceful co- UNIT 4 – HUMAN RIGHTS AND
existence on the part of citizen belonging any religion UNO
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) An attitude of tolerance and peaceful co-
existence on the part of citizen belonging any
religion 1. After the Second World War ……………. has
taken several measures to protect the human rights.
31
(a) UNO Answer:
(b) Supreme Court (c) Any person appointed by the president.
(c) International Court of Justice
(d) None 8. How many articles does the Universal Declaration
Answer: of Human Rights contain?
(a) UNO (a) 20
(b) 30
2. In 1995 women from all over the world gathered at (c) 40
…………….. (d) 50
(a) Beijing Answer:
(b) New York (b) 30
(c) Delhi
(d) None 9. What is the tenure of the Chairperson of the
Answer: National Human Rights Commission?
(a) Beijing (a) 5 years or upto 62 years of age
(b) 5 years or upto 65 years of age
3. The National Human Rights Commission was (c) 6 years or upto 65 years of age
constituted in ……………… (d) 5 years or upto 70 years of age
(a) 1990 Answer:
(b) 1993 (d) 5 years or upto 70 years of age
(c) 1978
(d) 1979 10. Where is the headquarters of the National
Answer: Human Rights Commission?
(b) 1993 (a) Delhi
(b) Mumbai
4. The UNO declared 1979 as the International year (c) Ahmedabad
of …………….. (d) Kolkata
(a) Girl Child Answer:
(b) Children (a) Delhi
(c) Women
(d) None
Answer: UNIT 5 – ROAD SAFETY RULES
(c) Women
AND REGULATIONS
5. When is Human Rights Day observed?
(a) 9th December I. Choose the correct answer:
(b) 10th December
(c) 11th December 1. At a red light
(d) 12th December (a) You can keep going if the path looks clear.
Answer: (b) You must stop and wait for it turn green.
(b) 10th December (c) Quickly you can reply your friend’s text message.
(d) You can attend call.
6. Which one is known as modern International Answer:
Magna Carta of Human rights? (b) You must stop and wait for it turn green.
(a) UDHRC
(b) NHRC 2. Pedestrians can cross the road only ……………
(c) SHRC (a) at anywhere
(d) International year for women (b) near the signals
Answer: (c) at Zebra crossing
(a) UDHRC (d) none
Answer:
7. Who can be appointed as the chairperson of the (c) at Zebra crossing
National Human Rights Commission?
(a) Retired judge of high court 3. Road Safety Week is celebrated in the month of
(b) Any retired Chief Justice of the Supreme Court. …………… every year.
(c) Any person appointed by the president. (a) December
(d) Retired Chief Judge of any court. (b) January
32
(c) March side
(d) May (b) no preference need be given
Answer: (c) allow free passage by drawing to the side of the
(b) January road
(d) drive behind the ambulance with great Speed
4. For emergency, call …………… for ambulance Answer:
service. (c) allow free passage by drawing to the side of the
(a) 108 road
(b) 100
(c) 106
(d) 101 UNIT 6 – DEFENCE & FOREIGN
Answer:
(a) 108 POLICY
5. What are the causes for the road accidents? I. Choose the best answer:
(a) Over Speeding
(b) Drunken Driving 1. The Supreme Commander of the Armed forces is
(c) Distraction to Drivers our-
(d) All of these (a) President
Answer: (b) Prime Minister
(d) All of these (c) Governor
(d) Chief Minister
6. The first category of traffic signs is …………… Answer:
(a) Mandatory Signs (a) President
(b) Cautionary Signs
(c) Informatory Signs 2. The primary mission of Indian Army is to ensure-
(d) None of these (a) National Security
Answer: (b) National Unity
(a) Mandatory Signs (c) Defending the nation from external aggression
(d) All the above
7. ‘Setu Bharatam’, a program was launched in Answer:
…………… (d) All the above
(a) 2014
(b) 2015 3. The Army day is-
(c) 2016 (a) 15th January
(d) 2017 (b) 1st February
Answer: (c) 10th March
(c) 2016 (d) 7th October
Answer:
8. Expand ABS: (a) 15th January
(a) Anti Brake start
(b) Annual Base System 4. Assam Rifles is under the control of-
(c) Anti – locking Brake System (a) Ministry of Defence
(d) None of these (b)National Security Advisor
Answer: (c) PMO
(c) Anti – locking Brake System (d) Ministry of Home Affairs
Answer:
9. Overtaking when approaching a bend is – (d) Ministry of Home Affairs
(a) permissible
(b) not permissible 5. Indian Coast Guard was established in-
(c) permissible with care (a) 1976
(d) our wish (b) 1977
Answer: (c) 1978
(b) not permissible (d) 1979
Answer:
10. When the ambulance is approaching – (c) 1978
(a) allow passage if there are no vehicles from front
33
6. India’s foreign policy is based on several 5. The System of Public Interest Litigation has been
principles. One of which is- introduced in India by-
(a) Satyameva Jayate (a) Supreme Court
(b) Panchasheel (b) Parliament
(c) both of these (c) Political parties
(d) None of these (d) Constitutional amendments
Answer: Answer:
(b) Panchasheel (a) Supreme Court
7. Which of the following islands belonged to India? 6. How many courts are there in apex level in India?
(a) Andaman and Maldives (a) One
(b) Andaman and Lakshadweep Island (b) Two
(c) Sri Lanka and Maldives (c) Three
(d) Maldives and Lakshadweep Island (d) Four
Answer: Ans:
(b) Andaman and Lakshadweep Island (a) One
7. Supreme court is located at-

UNIT 7 – THE JUDICIARY (a) Chandigarh
(b) Bombay
I. Choose the best answer: (c) Calcutta
(d) New Delhi
1. The highest and final judicial tribunal of India is- Answer:
(a) President (d) New Delhi
(b) Parliament
(c) Supreme Court 8. FIR means-
(d) Prime Minister (a) First Information Report
Answer: (b) First information Result
(c) Supreme Court (c) First Incident Report
(d) None of these
2. Judicial system provides a mechanism for Answer:
resolving disputes between- (a) First Information Report
(a) Citizen
(b) Citizen and the government 9. The court that hear criminal cases are called-
(c) Two State governments (a) District court
(d) all the above (b) Sessions court
Answer: (c) Family court
(d) all the above (d) Revenue court
Answer:
3. Dispute between States of India comes to the (b) Sessions court
Supreme Court under-
(a) Original jurisdiction
(b) Appellate jurisdiction 8TH ECONOMICS BOOK BACK
(c) Advisory jurisdiction ANSWERS
(d) none of these
Answer:
(a) Original jurisdiction
UNIT 1 – MONEY, SAVINGS AND
4. Which of the following state/ Union territories have INVESTMENTS
a common High Court?
(a) Punjab and Jammu Kashmir I. Choose the correct answer
(b) Assam and Bengal
(c) Panjab, Haryana and Chandigarh
1. Which metals were used for metallic money?
(d) Uttar Pradesh and Bihar
(a) Gold
Answer:
(b) Silver
(c) Panjab, Haryana and Chandigarh
(c) Bronze
34
(d) All the above (b) 1958
Answer: (c) 1966
(d) All the above (d) 1956
Answer:
2. Who introduced the paper money? (d) 1956
(a) British
(b) Turkish 2. Mixed economy is the mixture of merits of both
(c) The Mugual Empire …………
(d) Mauryas (a) Capitalism
Answer: (b) Socialism
(a) British (c) a & b are correct
(d) A & B are incorrect
3. The value of money is Answer:
(a) Internal value of money (c) a & b are correct
(b) External value of money
(c) Both a & b 3. ………… is governed by a company law and
(d) None of these controlled by the Government as principal major
Answer: share holders.
(c) Both a & b (a) Private Sector
(b) Joint Sector
4. Which is the Bank Money? (c) Public Sector
(a) Cheque (d) None of these
(b) Draft Answer:
(c) Credit and Debit cards (b) Joint Sector
(d) All the above
Answer: 4. Steel Authority of India Ltd (SAIL) is a …………
(a) Cheque Industry.
(a) Miniratna Industry
5. Pick out the incorrect one: (b) Maharatna Industry
Investment can be made in different vehicle. (c) Navaratna Industry
(a) Stock (d) None of these
(b) Bonds Answer:
(c) Mutual fund (b) Maharatna Industry
(d) Pay tax
Answer: 5. Public sector is on ………… motive.
(d) Pay tax (a) Profit Motive
(b) Service Motive
6. Who is responsible for the collection and (c) Speculative Motive
publication of monetary and financial information? (d) None of these
(a) Finance commission Answer:
(b) Finance Ministry (b) Service
(c) Reserve Bank of India
(d) Auditor and Comptroller General of India
Answer:
(c) Reserve Bank of India
9TH HISTORY BOOK BACK
ANSWERS
UNIT 2 – PUBLIC AND PRIVATE
SECTORS UNIT 1 – EVOLUTION OF
HUMANS AND SOCIETY –
PREHISTORIC PERIOD
1. The public sector in India owes its origin in the
………… Industrial policy resolution of the I. Choose the correct answer:
Government of India.
(a) 1957
35
1. ____________ is genetically closest to humans 7. (i) The Neolithic people used polished stone axes
(a) Gorilla called Celts
(b) Chimpanzee (ii) Evidence of Neolithic village is found at
(c) Orang-utan Payyampalli in Chennai district
(d) Great Apes (iii) The cultural period that succeeded the Neolithic
Answer: is called the Bronze Age
(b) Chimpanzee (iv) The period that witnessed domestication of
animals and cultivation of crops is called the
2. The period called____________ marks the Mesolithic
beginning of agriculture and animal domestication. (a) (i) is correct
(a) Paleolithic (b) (ii) is correct
(b) Mesolithic (c) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) Neolithic (d) (iv) is correct
(d) Megalithic Answer:
Answer: (a) (i) is correct
(c) Neolithic
8. Assertion (A): Many of the Mesolithic sites are
3. Direct ancestor of modern man was founds nearby rivers and tanks.
____________ Reason (R): Irrigation management developed
(a) Homo habilis during the Mesolithic period.
(b) Homo erectus (a) A and R are correct and R explains A
(c) Homo sapiens (b) A and R are correct but R doesn’t explain A
(d) Neanderthal man (c) A is correct but R is incorrect ‘
Answer: (d) A and R both are incorrect
(c) Homo sapiens Answer:
(d) A and R both are incorrect
4. ____________ refers to the area covering Egypt,
Israel-Palestine and Iraq.
(a) Great Rift Valley UNIT 2 – ANCIENT
(b) Fertile Crescent
(c) Solo river
CIVILISATIONS
(d) Neander Valley
Answer: I. Choose the correct answer
(b) Fertile Crescent
1. The earliest signs to denote words through
5. Sir Robert Bruce Foote, a geologist from England pictures
first discovered the____________ tools at (a) Logographic
Pallavaram near Chennai. (b) Pictographic
(a) Stone Age (c) Ideographic
(b) Paleolithic (d) Stratigraphic
(c) Mesolithic Answer:
(d) Neolithic (b) Pictographic
Answer:
(b) Paleolithic 2. The preservation process of dead body in ancient
Egypt
6. (i) The period before the introduction of writing is (a) Sarcophagus
called pre-history. (b) Hyksos
(ii) The pre-historic people developed language, (c) Mummification
made beautiful paintings and artifacts. (d) Polytheism
(iii) The pre-historic societies are treated as literate. Answer:
(iv) The pre-historic period is called ancient. (c) Mummification
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (i) and (ii) are correct 3. The Sumerian system of writing
(c) (i) and (iv) are correct (a) Pictographic
(d) (ii) and (iii) are correct (b) Hieroglyphic
Answer: (c) Sonogram
(c) (i) and (iv) are correct (d) Cuneiform
36
Answer: (c) Sumerians – Akkadians – Babylonians –
(d) Cuneiform Assyrians
4. The Harappans did not have the knowledge of 9. Assertion (A): Assyrians of Mesopotamian
(a) Gold and Elephant civilisation were contemporaries of Indus civilisation.
(b) Horse and Iron Reason(R): The Documents of an Assyrian ruler
(c) Sheep and Silver refer to the ships from Meluha
(d) Ox and Platinum (a) A and R are correct and A explains R
Answer: (b) A and R are correct but A doesn’t explain R
(b) Horse and Iron (c) A is incorrect but R is correct
(d) Both A and R are incorrect
5. The Bronze image suggestive of the use of lost- Answer:
wax process known to the Indus people. (a) A and R are correct and A explains R
(a) Jar
(b) Priest king
(c) Dancing girl UNIT 3 – EARLY TAMIL SOCIETY
(d) Bird
Answer:
AND CULTURE
(c) Dancing girl
6. (i) The oldest civilisation in Mesopotamia belonged
to the Akkadians. 1. The name of the script used in the Sangam Age.
(ii) The Chinese developed the Hieroglyphic system. (a) English
(iii) The Euphrates and Tigris drain into the Mannar (b) Devanagari
Gulf. (c) Tamil-Brahmi
(iv) Hammurabi, the king of Babylon was a great law (d) Granta
maker. Answer:
(a) (i) is correct (c) Tamil-Brahmi
(b) (i) and (ii) are correct
(c) (iii) is correct 2. The Sri Lankan chronicle composed in the Pali
(d) (iv) is correct language mentioning about merchants and horse
Answer: traders from Tamil Nadu
(d) (iv) is correct (a) Deepa vamsa
(b) Arthasastra
7. (i) Yangtze River is known as Sorrow of China. (c) Mahavamsa
(ii) Wu-Ti constructed the Great Wall of China. (d) Indica
(iii) Chinese invented gun powder. Answer:
(iv) According to traditions Mencius was the founder (c) Mahavamsa
of Taoism.
(a) (i) is correct 3. The notable Chola king credited with bringing
(b) (ii) is correct forest lands under the plough and developing
(c) (iii) is correct irrigational facilities
(d) (iii) and (iv) are correct (a) Karikalan
Answer: (b) Rajarajan I
(c) (iii) is correct (c) Kulothungan
(d) Rajendran I
8. What is the correct chronological order of four Answer:
civilisations of Mesopotamia (a) Karikalan
(a) Sumerians – Assyrians – Akkadians –
Babylonians 4. The inscription that mentions the Cheras
(b) Babylonians – Sumerians – Assyrians – (a) Pugalur
Akkadians (b) Gimar
(c) Sumerians – Akkadians – Babylonians – (c) Pulimankombai
Assyrians (d) Madurai
(d) Babylonians – Assyrians – Akkadians – Answer:
Sumerians (a) Pugalur
Answer:
37
5. The famous Venetian traveller who described (a) Dhananandha
Kayal as a great and noble city (b) Chandragupta
(a) Vasco da gama (c) Bimbisara
(b) Alberuni (d) Shishunaga
(c) Marco Polo Answer:
(d) Megasthenes (c) Bimbisara
Answer:
(c) Marco Polo 3. Northern India extended from the Kabul Valley in
the north to the Godavari in the south witnessed the
6. (i) Coins as a medium of exchange were rise of Sixteen States.
introduced for the first time in the Sangam Age. (a) Mahajanapadas
(ii) Prakrit was the language used by the common (b) Gana-sanghas
people in Northern India during the Mauryan period. (b) Dravida
(iii) Vienna Papyrus, a Roman document, mentions (d) Dakshinapatha
trade related to Muziri. Answer:
(iv) The concept of Thinai is presented in the Tamil (a) Mahajanapadas
grammar work of Pathupaattu.
(a) (i) is correct 4. Tri-Ratna are the three principles taught by
(b) (ii) is correct (a) Buddha
(c) (i) and (ii) is correct (b) Mahavira
(d) (iii) and (iv) is correct (c) Lao-tze
Answer: (d) Confucius
(c) (i) and (ii) is correct Answer:
(b) Mahavira
7. (i) Pathitrupathu speaks about the Pandya kings
and their territory. 5. The account which throws light on Mauryan polity
(ii) The Akanaanuru describes the trading activities at and society
Kaveripoompattinum. (a) Marco Polo
(iii) The Chola Emblem was the tiger and they issued (b) Fahien
square copper coins with images of a tiger. (c) Megasthanes
(iv) Neythal is a sandy desert region. (d) Seleucus
(a) (i) is correct Answer:
(b) (ii) and (iii) is correct (c) Megasthanes
(c) (iii) is correct
(d) (iv) is correct 6. (i) Under the Magadha king the mahamatriyas
Answer: functioned as secretaries to the ministers.
(c) (iii) is correct (ii) Accounts of Megasthanes titled Indica is a useful
record about Mauryan polity and society.
(iii) Nanda’s attempt to build an imperial structure
UNIT 4 – INTELLECTUAL was cut short by Ashoka who founded the Mauryan
AWAKENING AND SOCIO- kingdom.
(iv) According to tradition, towards the end of his life
POLITICAL CHANGES Chandragupta become an ardent follower of
Buddhism.
I. Choose the correct answer (a) (i) is correct (b) (ii) is correct
(c) (i) and (ii) is correct
(d) (iii) and (iv) is correct
1. Identify the founder of a new sect who exemplified
Answer:
simplicity and self-denial.
(c) (i) and (ii) is correct
(a) Buddha
(b) Lao-tze
(c) Confucius
(d) Zoroaster
UNIT 5 – THE CLASSICAL
Answer: WORLD
(a) Buddha
2. The Magadha king influenced by the teachings of
Mahavira
38
1. ________ is the Greek city-state which resisted 2. _______ means great name-lord.
the Persians to the end. (a) Daimyo
(a) Acropolis (b) Shogun
(b) Sparta (c) Fujiwara
(c) Athens (d) Tokugawa
(d) Rome Answer:
Answer: (a) Daimyo
(c) Athens
3. The Arab General who conquered Spain
2. The other name for Greeks was ______ was__________
(a) Hellenists (a) Tariq
(b) Hellenes (b) Alaric
(c) Phoenicians (c) Saladin
(d) Spartans (d) Mohammad the Conqueror
Answer: Answer:
(b) Hellenes (a) Tariq
3. The founder of Han dynasty was 4. Harun-al-Rashid was the able emperor of
(a) Wu Ti ____________.
(b) Hung Chao (a) Abbasid dynasty
(c) Liu pang (b) umayyad dynasty
(d) Mangu Khan (c) Sassanid dynasty
Answer: (d) Mongol dynast
(c) Liu pang Answer:
(a) Abbasid dynasty
4._______was the Roman Governor responsible for
the crucifixion of Jesus. 5. feudalism centred around _________
(a) Innocent (a) vassalage
(b) Hildebrand (b) slavery
(c) Leo II (c) serfdom
(d) Pontius Pilate (d) land
Answer: Answer:
(d) Pontius Pilate (a) vassalage
5. The Peloponnesian War was fought between

______ and _____ UNIT 7 – STATE AND SOCIETY IN
(a) Greeks and Persians
(b) Plebians and Participants MEDIEVAL INDIA
(c) Spartans and Athenians
(d) Greeks and Roman I, Choose the correct answer:
Answer:
(c) Spartans and Athenians 1. _______ was the second stronghold of Ala-ud-din
Khalji’s expanding Kingdom.
(a) Dauladabad
UNIT 6 – THE MIDDLE AGES (b) Delhi
(c) Madurai
I. Choose the correct answer: (d) Bidar
Answer:
(a)Dauladabad
1. _______ was the old religion of Japan.
(a) Shinto
(b) Confucianism 2. The Deccan Sultanates were conquered by
(c) Taoism _______
(d) Animism (a) Ala-ud-din Khilji
Answer: (b) Ala-ud-in Bhaman- shah
(a) Shinto (c) Aurangzeb
(d) Malik Kafur
39
Answer: (c) john Calvin
(c) Aurangzeb (d) Thomas More
Answer:
3. The establishment of ______ empire changed the (a) Martin Luther
administrative and institutional structure of south
India. 5. Who wrote the book Institutes of Christian
(a) Bahmani Religion?
(b) Vijayanagar (a) Martin Luther
(c) Mughal (b) Zwingli
(d) Nayak (c) John Calvin
Answer: (d) Cervantes
(b) Vijayanagar Answer:
(c) John Calvin
4. Krishnadeva Raya was a contemporary of
____________ 6. Which sailor was the first to cross the Equator?
(a) Babur (a) Henry, the Navigator
(b) Humayun (b) Lopo Gonzalves
(c) Akbar (c) Bartholomew Diaz
(d) Shershah (d) Christopher Columbus
Answer: Answer:
(a) Babur (b) Lopo Gonzalves
7. _________ named the sea as Pacific Ocean as it

UNIT 8 – THE BEGINNING OF was very calm.
(a) Columbus
THE MODERN AGE (b) Amerigo Vespucci
(c) Ferdinand Magellan
I. Choose the correct answer: (d) Vasco-da-gama
Answer:
1. Who among the following is known as the Father (c) Ferdinand Magellan
of Humanism?
(a) Leonardo da Vinci 8. The continent of America was named after ______
(b) Francisco Petrarch (a) Amerigo
(c) Erasmus (b) Vespucci
(d) Thomas More (c) Vaco da Gama
Answer: (d) Hermando Cortez
(b) Francisco Petrarch Answer:
(a) Amerigo
2. The School of Athens was painted by ______
(a) Raphael Sanzio 9. ______ was the headquarters of the Portuguese
(b) Michelangelo possession in the East.
(c) Albrecht Durer (a) Manila
(d) Leaonard da Vinci (b) Bombay
Answer: (c) Pondicherry
(a) Raphael Sanzio (d) Goa
Answer:
3. William Harvey discovered ______ (d) Goa
(a) Heliocentric theory
(b) Geocentric theory 10. Which among the following plants were
(c) Gravitational force introduced from America to Europe?
(d) Circulation of blood (a) Sugarcane
Answer: (b) Sweet Potato
(d) Circulation of blood (c) Rice
(d) Wheat
4. Who wrote the 95 Theses’? Answer:
(a) Martin Luther (b) Sweet Potato
(b) Zwingli
40
UNIT 9 – THE AGE OF Answer:
(d) Valmy
REVOLUTIONS
7. Candide was written by ___________
I. Choose the correct answer: (a) Voltaire
(b) Rousseau
1. The first British colony in America was (c) Montesquieu
__________ (d) Danton
(a) New York Answer:
(b) Philadelphia (a) Voltaire
(c) Jamestown
(d) Amsterdam 8. The moderate liberals who wanted to retain Louis
Answer: XVI as a limited monarchy were called ______
(c) Jamestown (a) Girondins
(b) Jacobins
2. The pioneer of French Revolution who fought on (c) Emigres
the side of Washington against the British was _____ (d) Royalists
(a) Mirabeau Answer:
(b) Lafayette (a) Girondins
(c) Napoleon
(d) Danton 9. American War of Independence was ended with
Answer: the Peace of Paris in the year _______
(b) Lafayette (a) 1776
(b) 1779
3. Lafayette, Thomas Jefferson and Mirabeau wrote (c) 1781
the __________ (d) 1783
a) Declaration of Independence Answer:
b) Declaration of Pilnitz (d) 1783
c) Declaration of Rights of Man and Citizen
d) Human Rights Charter 10. Thomas Paine’s famous pamphlet was
Answer: ___________
(c) Declaration of Rights of Man and Citizen (a) Common Sense
(b) Rights of man
4. The defeat of British at _____ paved the way for (c) Bill of Rights
the friendship between France and America. (d) Aboltions of Slavery
(a) Trenton Answer:
(b) Saratoga (a) Common Sense
(c) Pennsylvania
(d) New York
Answer: UNIT 10 – INDUSTRIAL
(b) Saratoga REVOLUTION
5. ___________ was the symbol of “Royal
Despotism” in France.
(a) Versailles Palace
(b) Prison of Bastille 1. Who established the first steam boat service?
(c) Paris Commune (a) Arkwright
(d) Estates General (b) Samuel Crompton
Answer: (c) Robert Fulton
(a) Versailles Palace (d) James Watt
Answer:
(c) Robert Fulton
6. The forces of Austria and Prussia were defeated
by the French Revolutionary forces at ___________
(a) Vema 2. Why was Manchester considered ideal for
(b) Versailles (a) availability of land
(c) Pilnitz (b) Rich human resources
(d) Valmy (c) ubetter living condition
41
(d) Cool climate (a) Rolling Mill
Answer: (b) Cotton Gin
(d) Cool climate (c) Spinning Mule
(d) Spinning Jenny
3. Who invented the sewing machine? Answer:
(a) Elias Howe (b) Cotton Gin
(b) Eli – Whitiney
(c) Samuel Crompton 10. Which of the following was used as fuel in olden
(d) Humphrey days to smelt iron?
Answer: (a) Coke
(a) Elias Howe (b) Charcoal
(c) Firewood
4. Which family introduced steam engine in France? (d) Paper
(a) de Wendel Answer:
(b) de Hindal (b) Charcoal
(c) de Arman
(d) de Renault
Answer: UNIT 11 – COLONIALISM IN ASIA
(a) de Wendel
AND AFRICA
5. Who called Slater, the father of American
Industrial Revolution? I. Choose the correct answer:
(a) F.D. Roosevelt
(b) Andrew Jackson 1. __________ was brought to the attention of the
(c) Winston Churchill East India Company by Francis Light.
(d) Woodrow Wilson (a) Spice islands
Answer: (b) Java island
(b) Andrew Jackson (c) Penang island
(d) Malacca
6. Which of the following is observed to Answer:
commemorate the Hay Market Massacre? (c) Penang island
(a) Independence Day
(b) Farmers Day 2. In 1896__________ states were formed into
(c) Labour Day Federated Malay States
(d) Martyrs Day (a) Four
Answer: (b) Five
(c) Labour Day (c) Three
(d) Six
7. Where was Zollverein Customs Union formed? Answer:
(a) England (a) Four
(b) Germany
(c) France 3. __________ was the only part of Indo-China
(d) America which was directly under French Control.
Answer: (a) Annam
(b) Germany (b) Tong king
(c) Cambodia
8. Who produced the first batch of automobiles in (d) Cochin-China
France? Answer:
(a) Louis Renault (d) Cochin-China
(b) Armand Peugeot
(c) Thomas Alva Edison 4. The Discovery of gold in the__________ led to a
(d) McAdam large number of British miners settled in and around
Answer: Johannesburg.
(b) Armand Peugeot (a) Transvaal
(b) Orange Free State
9. What was the invention that removed seeds from (c) Cape Colony
cotton? (d) Rhodesia
42
Answer: 3. Magma is found in the ___________
(a) Transvaal (a) crust
(b) mantle
5. __________ became the first European power to (c) core
establish trade with India. (d) none of the above
(a) Portuguese Answer: (b) mantle
(b) French
(c) Danes 4. Diastrophism is connected to ___________
(d) Dutch (a) volcanism
Answer: (b) earthquakes
a) Portuguese (c) tectonics
(d) fold/fault
6. Ethiopia defeated Italy at the battle of __________ Answer: (d) fold/fault
(a) Adowa
(b) Dahomey 5. The movement of tectonic plates is induced by
(c) Tonking ___________
(d) Transvaal (a) hydel
Answer: (b) thermal
(a) Adowa (c) wave
(d) tidal
7. Indentured labour system was a form of Answer: (b) thermal
__________
(a) contract labour system 6. In the ancient period, Gondwanaland moved
(b) slavery towards ___________
(c) debt bondage (a) north
(d) serfdom (b) south
Answer: (c) east
(c) debt bondage (d) west
Answer: (a) north
9TH GEOGRAPHY BOOK BACK 7. Many million years ago, India was a part of the
supercontinent.
ANSWERS (a) Gondwana
(b) Laurasia
(c) Panthalasa
UNIT 1 – LITHOSPHERE – I (d) Pangea.
ENDOGENETIC PROCESSES Answer: (a) Gondwana
8. The movement of plates that creates stress and

tension in the rocks causing them to stretch and
I. CHOOSE THE BEST ANSWER cracks result in ___________
(a) fold
1. ___________ is the rigid outer layer of the Earth. (b) fault
(a) Core (c) mountain
(b) Mantle (d) earthquake
(c) Crust Answer: (b) fault
(d) Inner core
Answer: (c) Crust 9. ___________ refers to a bowl-shaped depression
found at the top of the volcano.
2. layer is made up of liquid iron __________ (a) Crater
(a) Inner core (b) Vent
(b) Outer core (c) Chamber
(c) Mantle (d) Volcanic cone
(d) Crust Answer: (a) Crater
Answer: (b) Outer core
10. The point of origin of an Earthquake is called the
___________
43
(a) epicentre (a) Loess
(b) focus (b) Barchans
(c) seismic wave (c) Hamada
(d) magnitude (d) Ripples
Answer: (b) focus Answer: (a) Loess
7. Stacks are formed by __________.

UNIT 2 – LITHOSPHERE – I (a) Wave erosion
(b) River erosion
ENDOGENETIC PROCESSES (c) Glacial erosion
(d) Wind deposion
Answer: (a) Wave erosion
8. ______ erosion is responsible for the formation of

I. CHOOSE THE BEST ANSWER: cirque
(a) wind
1. The disintegration or decomposition of rocks is (b) glacial
generally called as ___________ (c) river
(a) weathering (d) underground water
(b) erosion Answer: (b) glacial
(c) transportation
(d) deposition 9. Which one of the following is a second-order
Answer: (a) weathering landform?
(a) Asia
2. The process of the levelling up of land by means (b) Deccan Plateau
of natural agents. (c) Kulu valley
(a) aggradation (d) Marina Beach.
(b) degradation Answer: (b) Deccan Plateau
(c) gradation
(d) none
Answer: (c) gradation UNIT 3 – ATMOSPHERE
3. _______ is seen in the lower course of the river.
(a) Rapids I. CHOOSE THE BEST ANSWER.
(b) Alluvial fan
(c) Delta 1. …………… is the most important gas for the
(d) Gorges survival of living
Answer: (c) Delta (a) Helium
(b) carbon-di-oxide
4. Karst topography is formed due to the action of (c) oxygen
_________ (d) methane
(a) Glacier Answer: (c) oxygen
(b) Wind
(c) Sea waves 2. The lowest layer of the atmosphere is ……………
(d) Ground Water (a) Troposphere
Answer: (d) Ground Water (b) Stratosphere
(c) Exosphere
5. Which one of the following is not a depositional (d) Mesosphere
feature of a glacier? Answer: (a) Troposphere
(a) cirque
(b) Moraines 3. …………. reflects radio waves.
(c) Drumlins (a) Exosphere
(d) Eskers (b) Ionosphere
Answer: (a) cirque (c) Mesosphere
(d) Stratosphere
6. Deposits of fine silt blown by wind is called as Answer: (c) Mesosphere
___________
44
4. The average global surface temperature is (d) snow
……………. Answer: (c) cyclones
(a) 12°c
(b) 13°c 12. The vertical movement of air is called ……………
(c) 14°c (a) Wind
(d) 15°c (b) storm
Answer: (b) 13°c (c) Air current
(d) drift
5. The process of change of state of water from Answer: (c) Air current
gaseous to liquid state is called ……………..
(a) Precipitation
(b) evaporation UNIT 4 – HYDROSPHERE
(c) transpiration
(d) condensation
Answer: (d) condensation I. CHOOSE THE CORRECT
6. The …………… is the chief energy source of the ANSWER.
Earth.
(a) Sun 1. The Sunda Trench lies in the ……………… ocean.
(b) Moon (a) Atlantic
(c) Stars (b) Pacific
(d) clouds (c) Indian
Answer: (a) Sun (d) Antarctic
Answer: (c) Indian
7. All types of clouds are found in the ……………….
(a) Troposphere 2. The temperature of the ocean waters generally
(b) Ionosphere ……………. at greater depth.
(c) Mesosphere. (a) increases
(d) Exosphere (b) decreases
Answer: (a) Troposphere (c) remains constant
8. …………….. clouds are called ‘Sheep clouds’. Answer: (b) decreases
(a) Alto-cumulus
(b) Alto-Stratus 3. Ocean currents are produced due to
(c) Nimbostratus ………………….
(d) Cirrocumulus (a) due to rotation of earth
Answer: (a) Alto-cumulus (b) due to variation in temperature
(c) due to earth’s movement
9. The Monsoons are …………… (d) all the above
(a) Prevailing winds Answer: (d) all the above
(b) Periodic winds
(c) local winds 4. Consider the following statements.
(d) none of the above 1. Most of the fishing grounds occur in areas where
Answer: (b) Periodic winds the continental shelf is wide.
2. Fishing is well developed in warm tropical waters.
10. Dew in the form of ice crystals is called …………. 3. Mixing of warm and cold currents facilitates plant
(a) frost nutrients for fish.
(b) fog 4. Inland fishing became significant in India.
(c) mist (a) 1 and 2 are correct
(d) sleet (b) 1 and 3 are correct
Answer: (d) sleet (c) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(d) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
11. ……………. is called the eye of the storm. Answer: (b) 1 and 3 are correct
(a) Pressure
(b) wind 5. The oceanic ridge comes into existence due to
(c) cyclones ……………….
(a) convergence of tectonic plates
45
(b) divergence of tectonic plates 2. This is the smallest unit of biosphere.
(c) lateral movements of plates (a) Ecosystems
(d) stearing of plates (b) Biome
Answer: (b) divergence of tectonic plates (c) Environment
6. Which of the following indicates the correct Answer: (a) Ecosystems
sequence of the topography beneath the surface of
the sea? 3. Nutrients are recycled in the atmosphere with the
(a) Continental shelf-Continental slope-Sea plain- help of certain micro organisms, referred to as
Sea trench. (a) Producers
(b) Continental slope-Continental shelf-Sea plain- (b) Decomposers
Sea trench. (c) Consumers
(c) Sea plain-Continental slope-Continental shelf-Sea (d) None of the above
trench. Answer: (b) Decomposers
(d) Continental slope-Sea plain-Continental shelf-
Sea trench. 4. To which climatic conditions are Xerophytic plants
Answer: specifically adapted to?
(a) Continental shelf-Continental slope-Sea plain- (a) Saline and sandy
Sea trench. (b) Limited moisture availability
(c) Cold temperature
7. Which of the following is not correctly matched? (d) Humid
(a) Gulf Stream—Pacific Ocean Answer: (a) Saline and sandy
(b) Labrador current—North Atlantic Ocean
(c) Canary current—Mediterranean sea 5. Why is the usage of rainforest biomes for large-
(d) Mozambique current—Indian Ocehn. scale agriculture unsustainable?
Answer: (a) because it is too wet
(a) Gulf Stream—Pacific Ocean; (c) Canary current— (b) because the temperature is too warm
Mediterranean sea (c) because the soil is too thin
(d) because the soil is poor
8. The amount of plankton to be found in the ocean Answer: (b) because the temperature is too warm
is determined by
1. Depth of the water
2. Ocean currents UNIT 6 – MAN AND
3. Temperature and Salinity
4. Length of day and night ENVIRONMENT
(a) 1 and 2 are correct
(b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(c) 1, 3 and 4 are correct I. CHOOSE THE CORRECT
(d) All are correct
Answer: (b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
ANSWER.
1. All external influences and factors that affect the
UNIT 5 – BIOSPHERE growth and development of living organisms is
………
(a) Environment
II. CHOOSE THE CORRECT (b) Ecosystem
(c) Biotic factors
ANSWER. (d) Abiotic factors.
Answer: (a) Environment
1. The coldest biome on Earth is ……….
(a) Tundra 2. The ‘World Population Day’ is observed on every
(b) Taiga year.
(c) Desert (a) August 11th
(d) Oceans (b) September 11th
Answer: (a) Tundra (c) July 11th
(d) January 11th
Answer: (c) July 11th
46
3. The statistical study of human population is
(a) Demography
UNIT 7 – MAPPING SKILLS
(b) Morphology
(c) Etymology
(d) Seismography I. CHOOSE THE CORRECT
Answer: (a) Demography ANSWER.
4. The extraction of valuable minerals and other
1. The new phase in topographical surveying in the
geological minerals from the mines, is …..
20th century is ……
(a) Fishing
(a) toposheets
(b) Lumbering
(b) aerial photography
(c) Mining
(c) maps
(d) Agriculture
(d) satellite imagery
Answer: (c) Mining
Answer: (d) satellite imagery
5. The Secondary sector of the economy produces
2. …… indicates the purpose or theme of the map.
…… from raw materials.
(a) Title
(a) Semi finished goods
(b) Scale
(b) Finished goods
(c) Direction
(c) Economic goods
(d) Legend
(d) raw materials
Answer: (a) Title
Answer: (b) Finished goods
3. Standard symbols that are used in maps to convey
6. Gradual increase of the earth’s temperature by the
a definite meaning are called ………
Green house gases in the atmosphere is called …….
(a) conventional signs and symbols
(a) Acid rain
(b) coordinates
(b) thermal pollution
(c) grid references
(c) Global warming
(d) directions
(d) Deforestation
Answer: (a) conventional signs and symbols
Answer: (c) Global warming
4. Which one of the following maps show us a very
II. Consider the given statements and choose the
large area with less details?
right option given below.
(a) Large scale
(b) Thematic
7. Assertion (A): Ozone layer in the stratosphere is (c) Physical
considered as a protective shield. (d) Small scale
Reason (R): It prevents the UV radiation from Answer: (d) Small scale
reaching the earth’s surface.
(a) A and R are correct and A explains R
5. GPS consists of a constellation of ………
(b) A and R are correct, but A does not explain R
satellites.
(c) A is incorrect but R is correct
(a) 7
(d) Both A and R are incorrect
(b) 24
Answer: (a) A and R are correct and A explains R
(c) 3.2
(d) 64
8. Assertion (A): In tertiary activities, instead of Answer: (b) 24
producing goods by themselves, they are in the
process of production.
Reason (R): People in Tertiary activities are purely
eco-friendly.
(a) Both A and R are incorrect
(b) A and R are correct, but A does not explain R
(c) A is correct and R is incorrect.
(d) A and R are correct and A explains R.
Answer: (c) A is correct and R is incorrect.
47
UNIT 8 – DISASTER 9TH CIVICS BOOK BACK
MANAGEMENT: RESPONDING ANSWERS
TO DISASTERS
UNIT 1 – FORMS OF
I. CHOOSE THE BEST ANSWER. GOVERNMENT AND
DEMOCRACY
1. One among the following is not the first responder
in case of a disaster.
(a) police officers
(b) firefighters I. CHOOSE THE CORRECT
(c) Insurance agents ANSWER.
(d) emergency medical technicians
Answer: (c) Insurance agents
1. A system of government in which one person
reigns supreme, usually a king or queen, is called
2. ‘Drop, Cover, Hold’ is a mock drill a vowal for ……. ……..
(a) Fire (a) autocracy
(b) Earthquake (b) monarchy
(c) Tsunami (c) democracy
(d) Riot (d) republic
Answer: (b) Earthquake Answer: (b) monarchy
3. When you happen to see fire break out you will 2. A system of government by one person with
make a call to …… absolute power.
(a) 114 (a) Aristocracy
(b) 112 (b) Theocracy
(c) 115 (c) Democracy
(d) 118 (d) Autocracy
Answer: (b) 112 Answer: (d) Autocracy
4. Which of the following statements is untrue? 3. When a country is governed by a few privileged,
(a) ‘Stop, Drop, Roll’ is for fire. the form of government is called ……
(b) ‘Drop, Cover, Hold’ is for an earthquake. (a) Aristocracy
(c) ‘If sea water recedes back, run to higher places’ (b) Parliamentary
is for flood. (c) Democracy
(d) ‘If gunshots are heard, drop to the ground and (d) Republic
cover the head with hand’ is for riot. Answer: (a) Aristocracy
Answer: (d) ‘If gunshots are heard, drop to the
ground and cover the head with hand’ is for riot.
4. Former Soviet Union is an example for ……
(a) aristocracy
5. Which of the following statements belongs to (b) theocracy
responding to earthquake? (c) oligarchy
(a) Avoid any place where police or security forces (d) republic
action is in progress. Answer: (c) oligarchy
(b) Know the height of your street above sea level
and the distance of your street from the coast.
5. Select the odd one ……
(c) Stay away from glass, windows, outside doors
(a) India
and walls, and anything that could fall.
(b) USA
(d) Before opening a door, feel it with the back of
(c) France
your hand.
(d) Vatican
Answer: (c) Stay away from glass, windows,
Answer: (d) Vatican
outside doors and walls, and anything that could
fall.
6. Abraham Lincoln was the President of the
(a) USA
48
(b) UK 14. Assertion (A): Direct democracy is practised in
(c) USSR Switzerland.
(d) India Reason (R): People directly participates in decision
Answer: (a) USA making.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)
7. Kudavolai system was followed by ………. (b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) does not
(a) Gheras explain (A)
(b) Pandyas (c) (A) is correct and (R) is false
(c) Cholas (d) (A) is false and (R) is true
(d) Kalabhras Answer: (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
Answer: (c) Cholas explains (A)
8. Direct Democracy in olden times existed ……… 15. Assertion (A): India has parliamentary form of
(a) In the republics of ancient India democracy.
(b) Among the USA Reason (R): Indian parliament comprises two
(c) In the city-state of ancient Athens houses.
(d) Among the UK (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)
Answer: (c) In the city-state of ancient Athens (b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) does not
explain (A)
9. In which country has democracy originated? . (c) (A) is correct and (R) is false
(a) India (d) (A) is false and (R) is true
(b) Switzerland Answer: (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
(c) USA explains (A)
(d) Athens
Answer: (d) Athens 16. The meaning of Franchise is ………
(a) Right to elect
10. From which language was the term “Democracy” (b) Right to vote for the poor
derived? (c) Right to vote
(a) Greek (d) Right to vote for the rich
(b) Latin Answer: (c) Right to vote
(c) Persian
(d) Arabic 17. The grant of universal franchise creates
Answer: (a) Greek ………….
(a) Social equality
11. In democracy the final authority rests with ……… (b) Economic equality
(a) The Parliament (c) Political equality
(b) The People (d) Legal equality
(c) The council of Ministers Answer: (c) Political equality
(d) The President
Answer: (b) The People 18. Prime Minister of India is appointed by …….
(a) Lok Sabha
12. Which one of the country has Presidential form of (b) Rajya Sabha
government? (c) Speaker
(a) India (d) President
(b) Britain Answer: (d) President
(c) Canada
(d) USA 19. The President of India can nominate ……….
Answer: (d) USA (a) 12 members to Lok Sabha
(b) 2 members of Rajya Sabha
13. The largest democratic country in the world is (c) 12 members to Rajya Sabha
…….. (d) 14 members of Rajya Sabha
(a) Canada Answer: (c) 12 members to Rajya Sabha
(b) India
(c) USA 20. The First general elections after independence in
(d) China India were held in …………
Answer: (b) India (a) 1948
(b) 1952
49
(c) 1957 Reason (R): To ensure free and fair elections in the
(d) 1947 country.
Answer: (b) 1952 (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) does not
explain (A)
UNIT 2 – ELECTION, POLITICAL (c) (A) is correct and (R) is false
(d) (A) is false and (R) is true
PARTIES, AND PRESSURE Answer: (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
GROUPS explains (A)
7. NOT A was introduced in the year ………..

I. CHOOSE THE CORRECT (a) 2012
(b) 2013
ANSWER. (c) 2014
(d) 2015
1. India has adapted the electoral system followed in Answer: (c) 2014
the
(a) USA 8. The term pressure groups originated in …….
(b) United Kingdom (a) USA
(c) Canada (b) UK
(d) Russia (c) USSR
Answer: (b) United Kingdom (d) India
Answer: (a) USA
2. The Election Commission of India is a/an
(a) Independent body 9. Assertion (A): A large number of pressure groups
(b) Statutory body exist in India.
(c) Private body Reason (R): Pressure Groups are not developed in
(d) Public corporation India to the same extent as in the USA.
Answer: (a) Independent body (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)
3. Which Article of the Constitution provides for an explain (A)
Election Commission? (c) (A) is correct and (R) is false
(a) Article 280 (d) (A) is false and (R) is true
(b) Article 315 Answer: (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
(c) Article 324 explains (A)
(d) Article 325
Answer: (c) Article 324
UNIT 3 – HUMAN RIGHTS
4. Which part of the constitution of India says about
the election commission?
(a) Part III I. CHOOSE THE CORRECT
(b) Part XV
(c) Part XX
ANSWER.
(d) Part XXII
Answer: (b) Part XV 1. ‘Apartheid’ was followed by
(a) South Sudan
5. Who accords recognition to various political (b) South Africa
parties as national or regional parties? (c) Nigeria
(a) The President (d) Egypt
(b) The Election Commission Answer: (b) South Africa
(c) The Parliament
(d) The President in consultation with the Election 2. …….. right exercises in the formation and
Commission administration of a government.
Answer: (b) The Election Commission (a) Social
(b) Economic
6. Assertion (A): Indian Constitution provides for an (c) Political
independent Election Commission
50
(d) Cultural (c) A is correct but R is false
Answer: (c) Political (d) A is false but R is correct
Answer: (a) both A and R are correct and R
3. A 10 year old boy is working in a shop. Which right explains A
can you use to recover him?
(a) Right to equality 9. According to the UNO a child is a person who has
(b) Right to freedom not completed the age of …….. years.
(c) Right against child labour exploitation (a) 12
(d) Right to freedom of Religion (b) 14
Answer: (c) Right against child labour (c) 16
exploitation (d) 18
Answer: (d) 18
4. Which one of the following rights has increased
the influence of the people over bureaucracy? 10. Kailash Satyarthi and Malala have been awarded
(a) Right to equality Nobel Prize for
(b) Right to information (a) Literature
(c) Right to education (b) Peace
(d) Right to freedom (c) Physics
Answer: (b) Right to information (d) Economics
Answer: (b) Peace
5. What is the time limit to get the information from
RTI Act 2005?
(a) 20 days UNIT 4 – FORMS OF
(b) 25 days
(c) 30 days GOVERNMENT-NO CHOOSE
(d) 35 days
Answer: (c) 30 days
UNIT 5 – LOCAL SELF
6. …….. right was removed from the fundamental
Rights by the 44th Amendment.
GOVERNMENT
(a) Right to own (or) sell property
(b) Right to freedom of religion
(c) Child labour and right against exploitation I. CHOOSE THE CORRECT
(d) None of the above ANSWER.
Answer: (c) Child labour and right against
exploitation
1. Which committee was appointed by the planning
commission in 1985?
7. Which of the following statements are true? (a) Balwant Rai Mehta
(i) The state Human Rights commission was (b) Ashok Mehta
established in 1993. (c) G V K Rao
(ii) It has the power of a civil count. (d) L M Singhvi
(iii) It’s power extend beyond the state. Answer: (c) G V K Rao
(iv) It can also recommend compensation to victims.
(a) (i) and (ii) are true
2. The Uthiramerur stone inscription show evidences
(b) (i) and (iii) are true
of prevalent local self government during the period
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) are true
in Tamil Nadu.
(d) (i), (ii) and (iv) are true
(a) Chola
Answer: (d) (i), (ii) and (iv) are true
(b) Chera
(c) Pandiya
8. Consider the following statements. (d) Pallava
Assertions (A): Rights and duties are the two sides of Answer: (a) Chola
the same coin.
Reason (R): We have a right to freedom of religions.
3. The 73rd and 74th constitutional Amendment Acts,
We have to promote harmony and the spirit of the
were enacted during the year in ………
people of other religions.
(a) 1992
(a) both A and R are correct and R explains A
(b) 1995
(b) both A and R are correct but R does not explain A
(c) 1997
51
(d) 1990 5. The …… income is also called per capita income.
Answer: (a) 1992 (a) average
(b) total
4. ……. act as the inspector of Village Panchayat. (c) people
(a) Commissioner (d) monthly
(b) District Collector Answer:
(c) Councilors (a) average
(d) Mayor
Answer: (b) District Collector 6. Which one of the following country is not a G-8
country?
(a) Japan
UNIT 6 – ROAD SAFETY-NO CHOOSE
(b) Canada
(c) Russia
9TH ECONOMICS BOOK BACK ANSWERS UNIT 1 (d) India
– UNDERSTANDING DEVELOPMENTPERSPECTIVES, Answer:
MEASUREMENT AND SUSTAINABILITY (d) India
I. Choose the correct answer. 7. Which one of the following country is not a
member of SAARC?
1. Assertion (A): Development increases the quality (a) India
of life. (b) Pakistan
Reason (R): People will have higher incomes, better (c) China
education, better health and nutrition, less poverty. . (d) Bhutan
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A) Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) does not (c) China
explain (A)
(c) (A) is correct and (R) is false 8. Assertion (A) : The Net Product (NNP) is
(d) (A) is false and (R) is true considered as a true measure of national output.
Answer: Reason (R): It is also known as national income.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A) (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)
2. The term‘Human resources’ refers to …… explain (A)
(a) investment on poor people (c) (A) is correct and (R) is false
(b) expenditure on agriculture (d) (A) is false and (R) is true
(c) investment on assests Answer:
(d) collective abilities of people (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)
Answer:
(d) collective abilities of people 9. Assertion (A): Human resource is necessary for
the progress of any country.
3. For comparing development between countries, Reason (R): Investment in education and health of
their …… is considered to be one of the people can result in a high rate of returns in the
most important attributes. future for a country.
(a) growth (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)
(b) income (b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) does not
(c) expenditure explain (A)
(d) savings (c) (A) is correct and (R) is false
Answer: (d) (A) is false and (R) is true
(b) income Answer:
4. ……. is considered a true measure of national
income. 10. The Human Development Index (HDI) does not
(a) GNP take into account the following dimension in its
(b) GDP calculation.
(c) NNP (a) Gender
(d) NDP (b) Health
Answer: (c) Education
(c) NNP (d) Income
52
Answer: 17. Thermal plant emits large quantity of ……, which
(a) Gender pollutes the environment.
(a) Oxygen
11. Among the following states which state have the (b) Nitrogen
literacy rate (2011) higher than national average? (c) Carbon
(a) Andhra Pradesh (d) Carbon dioxide
(b) Uttar Pradesh Answer:
(c) Tamil Nadu (d) Carbon dioxide
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Tamil Nadu UNIT 2 – EMPLOYMENT IN INDIA
12. Sex-ratio means …..
AND TAMIL NADU
(a) the ratio between adult-male and adult female in
a population I. Choose the correct answer.
(b) the ratio between female and male in a
population 1. We take age group …….. years for computation of
(c) the relationship between male of female the workforce.
(d) the number of females per thousand males (a) 12 – 60
Answer: (b) 15 – 60
(b) the ratio between female and male in a (c) 21 – 65
population (d) 5 – 14
Answer:
13. Inter-generational equality is ensured under the (b) 15 – 60
process of
(a) Industrial progress 2. Which is the correct sequence of various sectors
(b) Economic development in GDP of India in the descending order?
(c) Sustainable development (a) Primary sector, Secondary sector, Tertiary sector
(d) Economic growth (b) Primary sector, Tertiary sector, Secondary sector
Answer: (c) Tertiary sector, Secondary sector, Primary sector
(b) Economic development (d) Secondary sector, Tertiary sector, Primary sector
Answer:
14. Find the odd one. (a) Primary sector, Secondary sector, Tertiary sector
(a) Solar energy
(b) Wind energy 3. Which one of the following sectors is the largest
(c) Paper employer in India?
(d) Natural gas (a) Primary Sector
Answer: (b) Secondary Sector
(c) Paper (c) Tertiary Sector
(d) Public sector
15. ……….. is the state with highest installed solar Answer:
capacity in India. (a) Primary Sector
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) West Bengal 4. Which one of the following is not in Primary
(c) Kerala Sector?
(d) Andhra Pradesh (a) Agriculture
Answer: (b) Manufacturing
(a) Tamil Nadu (c) Mining
(d) Fishery
16. ……. resources are those which will get Answer:
exhausted after years of use. (b) Manufacturing
(a) Natural
(b) Renewable 5. Which one of the following is not in the Secondary
(c) Non-Renewable Sector?
(d) New (a) Construction
Answer: (b) Manufacturing
(c) Non-Renewable (c) Small Scale Industry
53
(d) Forestry (c) Unorganised sector
Answer: (d) Private sector
(d) Forestry Answer:
(b) Organised sector
6. Tertiary Sector include/s …..
(a) Transport 12. Find the odd one.
(b) Insurance (a) Banking
(c) Banking (b) Railways
(d) All of these (c) Insurance
Answer: (d) Small Scale Industry
(d) All of these Answer:
(b) Railways
7. Match the List I with List II using the codes given
below: 13. The sectors are classified into Public and Private
sectors on the basis of …
(a) number of workers employed
(b) nature of economic activity
(c) ownership of enterprises
(d) employment conditions
Answer:
(c) ownership of enterprises
Answer: 14. Assertion (A): The unorganised sector of the
(b) 4, 3, 2, 1 economy characterised by the household
manufacturing activity and small-scale industry.
8. Which sector is not included in the occupational Reason (R): Jobs here are low paid and often not
pattern? regular
(a) Primary sector (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)
(b) Secondary sector (b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) does not
(c) Tertiary sector explain (A)
(d) Private sector (c) (A) is correct and (R) is false
Answer: (d) (A) is false and (R) is true
(d) Private sector Answer:
9. Which Delhi Sultan of medieval India formed
‘Employment Bureau’ to solve the un-employment 15. People who employ workers and pay rewards for
problem? their work is termed as ……
(a) Muhamad Bin Tugluq (a) employee
(b) Allauddin Khilji (b) employer
(c) Feroz Shah Tugluq (c) labour
(d) Balban (d) caretaker
Answer: Answer:
(c) Feroz Shah Tugluq (b) employer
10. …….. sector is registered and follows 16. ……. continues to be the largest employer in
government rules. Tamil Nadu.
(a) Agriculture (a) Agriculture
(b) Organised (b) Manufacturing
(c) Unorganised (c) Banking
(d) Private (d) Small Scale Industry
Answer: Answer:
(b) Organised (a) Agriculture
11. ……. sector provides j.ob security and higher

wages UNIT 3 – MONEY AND CREDIT
(a) Public sector
(b) Organised sector
I. Choose the correct answer.
54
1. Certain metals like ….. (gold/iron) were used as a (b) September – November
medium of exchange in ancient times. (c) October – December
2. The Head Quarters of the RBI is at ….. (Chennai / (d) November – January
Mumbai). Answer:
3. International trade is carried on in terms of …… (c) October – December
(US Dollars / Pounds).
4. The currency of Japan is ……. (Yen/Yuan)
Answers: UNIT 5 – MIGRATION
1. gold
2. Mumbai I. Choose the correct answer.
3. US Dollars
4. Yen 1. According to 2011 census, the total population of
India was
(a) 121 crore
UNIT 4 – TAMILNADU (b) 221 crore
AGRICULTURE (c) 102 crore
(d) 100 crore
Answer:
(a) 121 crore
1. Irrigated land surface out of cultivable land is
2 ……… has recorded the maximum number of out
(a) 27%
migrants.
(b) 57%
(a) Ramanathapuram
(c) 28%
(b) Coimbatore
(d) 49%
(c) Chennai
Answer:
(d) Vellore
(b) 57%
Answer:
(c) Chennai
2. Out of the following which is not a food crop?
(a) Bajra
3. During 2015, …….. illiterates were migrants from
(b) Ragi
Tamil Nadu.
(c) Maize
(a) 7%
(d) Coconut
(b) 175%
Answer:
(c) 23%
(d) Coconut
(d) 9%
Answer:
3. The productivity of paddy during the year 2014- (a) 7%
2015
(a) 3,039 kg
4. The poorer sections of the population people
(b) 4,429 kg
migrate for ……….
(c) 2,775 kg
(a) Survival strategy
(d) 3,519 kg
(b) Improve their living standards
Answer:
(c) Service
(b) 4429 kilogram
(d) Getting experience
Answer:
4. Both agricultural productivity and food productivity (a) Survival strategy
has ……..
(a) decreased
(b) not stable
(c) remained stable
(d) increased
Answer:
(d) Increased
5. The North-East monsoon period in Tamilnadu

………
(a) August – October
55

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2. Indus Civilization belonged to ………………..

(a) Old Stone age

UNIT 1 – UNDERSTANDING DIVERSITY 7. Mohiniyattara is a classical dance of

UNIT 1 – NATIONAL SYMBOLS 7. The National Anthem was written by _______

2. …………… was the founder of Satavahana

II. Choose the best answer:

1. The shape of the Earth is _______.

9. The total number of lines of latitude are ________

2. ……………… is National Panchayat Raj Day.

7TH STD SOCIAL SCIENCE I. Choose the correct answer:

2………..was the land gifted to temples. 3. Ghazni was a small principality in

4. __________ provides information about the first

5. An example of Chola architecture can be seen at

UNIT 2 – LANDFORMS 2. …………………………Race is Known as Asian –

4. Inequality created by man on the basis of caste, 5. Single-party system is found in

5. In Switzerland, the right to vote is given to women ECONOMICS – TERM 1

HISTORY – TERM 2 1. Who introduced the Persian style of architecture in

5. Why is it necessary for media to be independent? I. Choose the correct answer:

3. Cultural maps are those which shows the

1. Which of the following is NOT a consequence of

UNIT 8 – STATUS OF WOMEN IN

4. The British arrived India for. 4. B.M Malabar was a

4. Which one the following represents places with

2. On the basis of ownership the industry can be

5. Event that occurs due to the failure of monsoons.

UNIT 8 – MAP READING I. CHOOSE THE CORRECT

7. Supreme court is located at-

5. The Peloponnesian War was fought between

7. _________ named the sea as Pacific Ocean as it

8. The movement of plates that creates stress and

7. Stacks are formed by __________.

8. ______ erosion is responsible for the formation of

7. NOT A was introduced in the year ………..

11. ……. sector provides j.ob security and higher

5. The North-East monsoon period in Tamilnadu

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