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Kambal Danga,Udhampur

JKSSB FINANCE SUB INSPECTOR TEST SECTIONAL TEST 03/04/2022

Time Allowed: 30 minutes Maximum Marks: 200

1. A current of 0.5 A is drawn by a filament of an electric bulb for 20 min. The amount of electric [4]
charge that flows through the circuit is

a) 300 C b) 600 C

c) 10 C d) 1 C
2. The brightness of a star depends on its [4]

a) size and temperature b) size, temperature and mass

c) size and distance from the earth d) size, temperature and distance from
the earth
3. Van de Graaff generator is used for [4]

a) generating electric field b) accelerating charged particles

c) generating high frequency voltage d) generating large currents

4. Light waves are [4]

a) electromechanical waves b) electromagnetic waves

c) magnetooptical waves d) electrooptical waves

5. One feels heavier in a lift when the lift [4]

a) is moving up steadily b) descends freely

c) is going down steadily d) just begins to go up

6. The main power supply in India is at 220 V, whereas that in the US is at 110 V. Which one [4]
among the following statements in this regard is correct?

a) 110 V works better at higher b) 110 V is safer but more expensive to

latitudes maintain

c) 110 V is safer and cheaper to d) 110 V leads to lower power loss

maintain.
7. Mass of a particular amount of substance [4]
i. is the amount of matter present in it.
ii. does not vary from place to place.
iii. changes with change in gravitational force.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below

a) Both ii and iii b) Both i and ii

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 c) Only i d) i, ii and iii

8. If speed of light in air is 3 × 108 m/s, then the speed of light in glass (with refractive index 1.5) [4]
would be

a) 4.5 × 108 m/s b) 3 × 108 m/s

c) 1.5 × 108 m/s d) 2 × 108 m/s

9. Kerosene oil rises in a wick of lantern because of [4]

a) capillary action in the wick b) buoyancy of air

c) gravitation pull of the wick d) diffusion of the oil through the wick
10. When a solid is heated, it turns directly into a gas. This process is called [4]

a) Evaporation b) Diffusion

c) Condensation d) Sublimation
11. The symbol of the element tungsten is [4]

a) Ta b) W

c) Tl d) Tc
12. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists. [4]

List I (Element) List II (Use)

A. Li 1. Time keeper in atomic clocks

B. Na 2. Batteries

C. K 3. Transfer of nerve impulses

D. Cs 4. Control of the water content in the blood

a) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4 b) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1

c) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4 d) A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1

13. Which one among the following is used in making gunpowder? [4]

a) Potassium nitrate b) Calcium sulphate

c) Sodium stearate d) Magnesium sulphate

14. Which one among the following is not a mixture? [4]

a) Brass b) Steel

c) Graphite d) Glass
15. Which of the following pairs represents isoelectronic ions? [4]

a) K+, Mg2+ b) Na+, K+

c) Ca2+, S2- d) Mg2+, Ca2+

16. Which among the following is correct regarding 20Ne, 23Na+, 19F- and 24 Mg2+? [4]

a) All of these b) They are isoelectronic with each

other

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 c) They are isomers of each other d) They are isotopes of each other
17. Density of water is [4]

a) minimum at 0°C b) minimum at -4°C

c) maximum at 0°C d) maximum at 4°C

18. Which of the following is watergas? [4]

a) Mixture of carbondioxide and water b) Mixture of carbon monoxide and

vapour nitrogen

c) Mixture of carbon monoxide and d) Mixture of carbon monoxide and

water vapour hydrogen
19. The mass number of an atom is determined by [4]

a) adding the number of neutrons and b) adding the number of neutrons and
number of protons number of electrons

c) adding the number of protons and d) the number of protons only

number of electrons
20. Which one of the following statements is correct? [4]

a) The atomic number of an element is b) J.J. Thomson suggested that the

the same as the number of protons nucleus of an atom contains protons
in the nucleus of its atom

c) Rutherford’s α-particle scattering d) The mass number of an atom is

experiment led to the discovery of equal to the number of electrons in
the electron its shells
21. Which of the following is not an example of eukaryotic organisms? [4]

a) Bacteria b) Yeast

c) Human d) Plants
22. Consider the following layers of the atmosphere. [4]
i. Troposphere
ii. Stratosphere
iii. Mesosphere
iv. Thermosphere
Which one among the following is the correct sequence of the layers with increasing altitude
from the earth's surface?

a) i, ii, iii, iv b) ii, i, iii, iv

c) iv, ii, iii, i d) iii, ii, i, iv

23. Consider the following diseases. [4]
i. Cholera
ii. Tuberculosis
iii. Filaria
iv. Typhoid

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 Which of the above diseases are caused by bacteria?

a) i, iii and iv b) i and iii

c) ii and iv d) i, ii and iv
24. Carbon and energy requirements of autotrophic organisms are fulfilled by [4]

a) glycogenesis b) gluconeogenesis

c) photosynthesis d) external sources

25. What is breakbone fever most commonly known as? [4]

a) Dengue b) Yellow fever

c) Rhinitis d) Typhoid
26. Which of the following is not a micronutrient for a plant? [4]

a) Molybdenum b) Iron

c) Magnesium d) Manganese
27. Perspiration cools the body because [4]

a) water has a high specific heat b) the presence of water on the skin is
cooling

c) evaporation requires latent heat d) water is a poor conductor of heat

28. In blood, platelets are required for [4]

a) initiating degradatibn of urea b) initiating blood clotting

c) transporting carbon dioxide d) transporting oxygen

29. Which one of the following cell organelles is absent in animal cell? [4]

a) Cell wall b) Endoplasmic reticulum

c) Mitochondria d) Cell membrane

30. Who among the following founded the Rajahmundri Social Reform Association in 1878 in [4]
support of widow remarriage?

a) Pandita Ramabai b) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar

c) Vishanshastri Pandit d) Veerasalingam Pantulu

31. The Salt Satyagraha called by Mahatma Gandhi saw the [4]
i. violation of salt laws along coastal Indian.
ii. participation of women.
iii. upward swing when it came to the working class joining in.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

a) (i) and (ii) b) (i) and (iii)

c) All of these d) Only (ii)

32. During the Civil Disobedience Movement, tribals in Chotanagpur [4]
i. gave up opium consumption
ii. wore Khadi

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 iii. gave up drinking liquor and eating meat
Select the correct answer using the codes given below

a) (ii) and (iii) b) (i), (ii) and (iii)

c) Only (i) d) (i) and (iii)

33. Which one of the following statements about Khilafat Movement is not correct? [4]

a) The Khilafat Movement demanded b) Indian Muslim leaders used Khilafat

that the Khalifat must retain control as a symbol that could unite the
over Muslim holy places. Indian Muslim community.

c) The radical trend in the Khilafat
Movement was represented by
younger leaders like Muhammad Ali,
Shaukat Ali and Maulana Azad.
34. The Permanent Settlement of 1793 introduced
d) The Delhi conference of the Central
Khilafat Committee in 1920 decided
to launch a massive Non-cooperation
Movement.
[4]

a) peasant rights b) bourgeois property rights in land to

Zamindars

c) rights for women to have property d) shipping rights for the English East
rights India Company
35. Which one among the following statements about Civil Disobedience Movement is correct? [4]

a) It started with Gandhiji’s march to b) There were no violent incidents

Champaran during the movement

c) The British Government was quite d) Under Gandhi-Irwin Agreement, the

soft towards the movement from the Congress agreed to give up Civil
beginning Disobedience Movement
36. ....... it has reduced us politically to serfdom. It has sapped the foundations of our culture....... [4]
it has degraded us spiritually. This was Mahatma Gandhi complaining of the ill-effect on
Indians of which action/policy of the colonial government?

a) Salt tax b) Inadequate Franchise

c) Rowlatt Act d) Press Act

37. The Begums of Oudh were tyrannised for the exaction of money by: [4]

a) Clive b) Wellesley

c) Cornwallis d) Warren Hastings

38. Match the following [4]

List I (Peasant Movements) List II (Regions)

A. Mappila outbreak 1. Maharashtra

B. Ramosi peasant force 2. Bengal

C. Kuka revolt 3. Malabar

D. Pabna revolt 4. Punjab

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 a) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3 b) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2

c) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2 d) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3

39. The Simon Commission visited India in the year: [4]

a) 1942 b) 1932

c) 1928 d) 1922
40. The International Date Line is represented by: [4]

a) 100° Meridian b) 180° Meridian

c) 90° Meridian d) 0° Meridian

41. Which one of the following is the largest planet ? [4]

a) Uranus b) Venus

c) Jupiter d) Saturn
42. The first oil refinery in India was set up at: [4]

a) Vishakhapatnam b) Diboi

c) Barauni d) Bombay
43. Hirakud Dam is built across the river: [4]

a) Bargi b) Krishna

c) Ramganga d) Mahanadi
44. Which one of the following is igneous rock? [4]

a) Limestone b) Slate

c) Marble d) Granite
45. The Earth rotates on its axis at an inclination of [4]
∘ ∘
a) 21 12 b) 23 12
∘
c) 22 12 d) 20∘

46. In Thar region, the shifting sand dunes are locally known as [4]

a) Dhaya b) Dhrian

c) Dhoros d) Daurs
47. About ...... of the earth surface is covered by water. [4]

a) 55% b) 60%

c) 70% d) 79%
48. Who among the following cricket players has not died while playing a match? [4]

a) Raman Lamba b) Phillip Hughes

c) Wasim Raja d) Vijay Hazare

49. Anthony De Mello Trophy is associated with test cricket series played between [4]

a) Australia and India b) England and Australia

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 c) England and India d) South Africa and India
50. ‘Jallikattu’ is a Bull-taming event, celebrated in which state? [4]

a) Andhra Pradesh b) Karnataka

c) Tamil Nadu d) Odisha

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