12 Book Back One Mark EM

+2 CHEMISTRY BOOK BACK ONE MARK
QUESTIONS
1.METALLURGY
1. Bauxite has the composition
a) Al2O3 b) Al2O3.nH2O c) Fe2O3.2H2O d) none of these
2. Roasting of sulphide ore gives the gas (A).(A) is a colourless gas. Aqueous solution of (A) is
acidic. The gas (A) is
a)CO2 b) SO3 c) SO2 d) H2S
3. Which one of the following reaction represents calcinations?
a) 2Zn + O2 →2ZnO b) 2ZnS + 3O2 → 2ZnO + 2SO2
c) MgCO3 → MgO + CO2 a) (a) and (c)
4. The metal oxide which cannot be reduced to metal by carbon is
a) PbO b) Al2O3 c) ZnO d) FeO
5. Which of the metal is extracted by Hall-Heroult process?
a) Al b) Ni c) Cu d) Zn
6. Which of the following statements, about the advantage of roasting of sulphide ore before
reduction is not true?
a).,∆Gf0 of sulphide is greater than those for CS2 and H2S
b).∆Gr0 is negative for roasting of sulphide ore to oxide
c).,Roasting of the sulphide to its oxide is thermodynamically feasible.
d).,Carbon and hydrogen are suitable reducing agents for metal sulphides
7. Match items in column -I with the items of column II and assign the correct code.
Column-I Column-II A B C D
A Cyanide process (i) Ultrapure Ge (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(a)
Froth floatation
B (ii) Dressing of ZnS (b) (iii) (iv) (v) (i)
process
Electrolytic (c) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
C (iii) Extraction of Al
reduction
(d) (ii) (iii) (i) (v)
D Zone refining (iv) Extraction of Au
(v) Purification of Ni
8. Wolframite ore is separated from tinstone by the process of

a) Smelting b) Calcination c) Roasting d) Electromagnetic separation
9. Which one of the following is not feasible.
a) Zn(s)+Cu2+ (aq) →Cu(s)+Zn2+(aq) b) Cu(s)+Zn2+(aq) →Zn(s)+Cu2+ (aq)
c) Cu(s)+2Ag+ (aq) →2Ag(s)+Cu2+(aq) d) Fe(s)+Cu2+ (aq) →Cu(s)+Fe2+(aq)
10.. Electrochemical process is used to extract
10
a) Iron b) Lead c) Sodium d) silver
11. Flux is a substance which is used to convert
11.
a) Mineral into silicate b) Infusible impurities to soluble impurities
2 Govt .Hr .Sec .School , Kaniyalampatti, Karur-
Karur-Dt.
c) Soluble impurities to infusible impurities d) All of these
12. Which one of the following ores is best concentrated by froth – floatation method?
12.
a) Magnetite b) Haematite c) Galena d) Cassiterite
13. In the extraction of aluminium from alumina by electrolysis, cryolite is added to
13.
a) Lower the melting point of alumina b) Remove impurities from alumina
c) Decrease the electrical conductivity d) Increase the rate of reduction
14. Zinc is obtained from ZnO by
14.
a) Carbon reduction b) Reduction using silver
c) Electrochemical process d) Acid leaching
15. Extraction of gold and silver involves leaching with cyanide ion. silver is later recovered by
15.
(NEET-2017)
a) Distillation b) Zone refining
c) Displacement with zinc d) liquation
16. Considering Ellingham diagram, which of the following metals can be used to reduce alumina?
16.
a) Fe b) Cu c) Mg d) Zn
17. The following set of reactions are used in refining
17.
523 K 1800 K
Zr( impure) + 2I2 ZrI4 : ZrI4 Zr (pure) + 2I2
a) Liquation b) van Arkel process c) Zone refining d) Mond’s process
18. Which of the following is used for concentrating ore in metallurgy?

18.
a) Leaching b) Roasting c) Froth floatation d) Both (a) and (c)
19. The incorrect statement among the following is
19.
a) Nickel is refined by Mond’s process b) Titanium is refined by Van Arkel’s process
c) Zinc blende is concentrated by froth floatation
d) In the metallurgy of gold, the metal is leached with dilute sodium chloride solution
20. In the electrolytic refining of copper, which one of the following is used as anode?
20.
a) Pure copper b) Impure copper c) Carbon rod d) Platinum electrode
21. Which of the following plot gives Ellingham diagram
21.
a) ∆S.Vs.T b) ∆G0 Vs.T c) ∆G0 Vs 1/T d) ∆G0 Vs T2
22. In the Ellingham diagram, for the formation of carbon monoxide
22.
a) (∆S0/∆T) is negative b) (∆G0/∆T) is positive
c) (∆G0/∆T) is negative
d) initially (∆G0/∆T) is positive, after 7000C (∆G0/∆T)is negative
23. Which of the following reduction is not thermodynamically feasible?
23.
a) Cr2O3 +2Al→Al2O3+2Cr b) Al2O3 +2Cr → Cr2O3 +2Al
c) 3TiO2 +4Al→2Al2O3+3Ti d) none of these
24. Which of the following is not true with respect to Ellingham diagram?
24.
a) Free energy changes follow a straight line. Deviation occurs when there is a phase change.
b) The graph for the formation of CO2 is a straight line almost parallel to free energy axis..
c) Negative slope of CO shows that it becomes more stable with increase in temperature.
d).,Positive slope of metal oxides shows that their stabilities decrease with increase in
.,.,..,.,..,..,.,temperature.
P.Suresh, PG Assistants
Assistants in Chemistry, Govt.Hr.Sec.School,
Govt.Hr.Sec.School, Kaniyalampatti, Karur-
Karur-Dt
Karur-Dt.
2. p – BLOCK ELEMENTS - I
1. An aqueous solution of borax is
a) neutral b) acidic c) basic d) amphoteric
2. Boric acid is an acid because its molecule (NEET)
a) contains replaceable H+ ion b) gives up a proton
c) combines with proton to form water molecule
d) accepts OH- from water, releasing proton.
3. Which among the following is not a borane?
a) B2H6 b) B3H6 c) B4H10 d) none of these
4. Which of the following metals has the largest abundance in the earth’s crust?
a) Aluminium b) calcium c) Magnesium d) sodium
5. In diborane, the number of electrons that accounts for banana bonds is
a) six b) two c) four d) three
6. The element that does not show catenation among the following p-block elements is
a) Carbon b) silicon c) Lead d) germanium
7. Carbon atoms in fullerene with formula C60have
a) Sp3 hybridised b) Sp hybridised
2
c) Sp hybridised d) partially SP2 and partially Sp3 hybridised
8. Oxidation state of carbon in its hydrides
a) +4 b) -4 c) +3 d) +2
9. The basic structural unit of silicates is (NEET)
a) ( SiO3 )2- b) ( SiO4 )2- c) (SiO)- d) ( SiO4 )4-

10.. The repeating unit in silicone is
10
R
a) SiO2 b) Si O c) R O Si O d) R O Si O
R R R
11. Which of these is not a monomer for a high molecular mass silicone polymer?
11.
a) Me3SiCl b) PhSiCl3 c) MeSiCl3 d) Me2SiCl2
2
12. Which of the following
12. is not sp hybridised?
a) Graphite b) graphene c) Fullerene d) dry ice
13. The geometry at which
13. carbon atom in diamond are bonded to each other is
a) Tetrahedral b) hexagonal c) Octahedral d) none of these
14. Which of the following
14. statements is not correct?
a) Beryl is a cyclic silicate b) MgSiO4 is an orthosilicate
c) [SiO4]4-is the basic structural unit of silicates d) Feldspar is not aluminosilicate
Karur-Dt
Karur-Dt.
15. Match items in column - I with the items of column – II and assign the correct code.
15.
Column-I Column-II A B C D
A Borazole 1 B(OH)3 (a) 2 1 4 3
B Boric acid 2 B3N3H6 (b) 1 2 4 3
C Quartz 3 Na2[B4O5(OH)4]8H2O (c) 1 2 4 3
D Borax 4 SiO2 (d) none of these
16. Duralumin is an alloy of
16.
a) Cu,Mn b) Cu,Al,Mg c) Al,Mn d) Al,Cu,Mn,Mg
17. The compound that is used in nuclear reactors as protective shields and control rods is
17.
a) Metal borides b) metal oxides c) Metal carbonates d) metal carbide
18. The stability of +1 oxidation state increases in the sequence
18.
a) Al <Ga<In<Tl b) Tl<In<Ga<Al c) In<Tl<Ga<Al d) Ga<In<Al<Tl
3.p
3.p – BLOCK ELEMENTS-
ELEMENTS-II
1. In which of the following, NH3 is not used?
a) Nessler’s reagent
b) Reagent for the analysis of IV group basic radical
c) Reagent for the analysis of III group basic radical d) Tollen’s reagent
2. Which is true regarding nitrogen?
a) least electronegative element b) has low ionisation enthalpy than oxygen
b) c) d- orbitals available d) ability to form Pπ- Pπ bonds with itself
3. An element belongs to group 15 and 3 rd period of the periodic table, its electronic
configuration would be
a) 1s22s22p4 b) 1s22s22p3 . c) 1s22s22p63s23p2 d) 1s22s22p63s23p3
4. Solid (A) reacts with strong aqueous NaOH liberating a foul smelling gas(B) which
spontaneously burn in air giving smoky rings. A and B are respectively a) P4 (red) and PH3 b)
P4 (white) and PH3 c) S8 and H2 S d) P4 (white) and H2 S
a) P4(red) and.PH3 b) P4(white) and.PH3
c) S8. and.H2S d) P4(white) and.H2S
5. On hydrolysis, PCl3gives
a) H3PO3 b) PH3 c) H3PO4 d) POCl3
6. P4O6 reacts with cold water to give
a) H3PO3 b) H4P2O7 c) HPO3 d) H3PO4
7. The basicity of pyrophosphorous acid ( H4P2O5 )is
a) 4 b) 2 c) 3 d) 5
8. The molarity of given orthophosphoric acid solution is 2M. its normality is
a) 6N b) 4N c) 2N d) none of these
Karur-Dt
Karur-Dt.
9. Assertion : bond dissociation energy of fluorine is greater than chlorine gas
Reason : chlorine has more electronic repulsion than fluorine
a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
d) Both assertion and reason are false.
10. Among the following, which is the strongest oxidizing agent?
10.
a) Cl2 b) F2 c) Br2 d) I2
11. The correct order of the thermal stability of hydrogen halide is
11.
a) HI > HBr > HCl > HF b) HF > HCl > HBr > HI
c) HCl> HF > HBr > HI d) HI > HCl > HF > HBr
12. Which one of the following compounds is not formed?
12.
a) XeOF4 b) XeO3 c) XeF2 d) NeF2
13. Most easily liquefiable gas is
13.
a) Ar b) Ne c) He d) Kr
14. XeF6 on complete hydrolysis produces
14.
a) XeOF4 b) XeO2F2 c) XeO3 d) XeO2
15. Which of the following is strongest acid among all?
15.
a) HI b) HF c) HBr d) HCl
16. Which one of the following orders is correct for the bond dissociation enthalpy of halogen
16.
molecules? (NEET)
a) Br2>I2>F2>Cl2 b) F2>Cl2>Br2 >I2 c) I2>Br2>Cl2>F2 d) Cl2>Br2>F2>I2
17. Among the following the correct order of acidity is (NEET)
17.
a) HClO2<HClO<HClO3<HClO4 b) HClO4<HClO2<HClO<HClO3
c) HClO3<HClO4<HClO2<HClO d) HClO<HClO2 <HClO3<HClO4
18. When copper is heated with conc HNO3 it produces
18.
a) Cu(NO3)2, NO and NO2 b) Cu(NO3)2 and N2O
c) Cu(NO3)2 and NO2 d) Cu(NO3)2 and NO
4. TRANSITION AND INNER TRANSITION ELEMENTS

1. Sc (Z=21) is a transition element but Zinc (Z=30) is not because
a) both Sc3+ and Zn2+ ions are colourless and form white compounds.
b) in case of Sc, 3d orbital are partially filled but in Zn these are completely filled
c) last electron as assumed to be added to 4s level in case of zinc
d) both Sc and Zn do not exhibit variable oxidation states
2. Which of the following d block element has half filled penultimate d sub shell as well as half
filled valence sub shell?
a) Cr b) Pd c) Pt d) none of these
3. Among the transition metals of 3d series, the one that has highest negative (M2+/ M ) standard
electrode potential is
a).Ti b) Cu c) Mn d) Zn
Karur-Dt
Karur-Dt.
4. Which one of the following ions has the same number of unpaired electrons as present in V3+?
a) Ti 3+ b) Fe3+ c) Ni2+ d) Cr3+
5. The magnetic moment of Mn2+ ion is
a) 5.92 BM b) 2.80 BM ., c) 8.95 BM d) 3.90 BM
6. The catalytic behaviour of transition metals and their compounds is ascribed mainly due to
a) their magnetic behaviour b) their unfilled d orbitals
c) their ability to adopt variable oxidation states
d) their chemical reactivity
7. The correct order of increasing oxidizing power in the series
a) VO2+< Cr2O72--< MnO4- b) Cr2O72--< VO2+< MnO4-
c) Cr2O72--< MnO4-< VO2+ d) MnO4- < Cr2O72--< VO2+
8. In acid medium, potassium permanganate oxidizes oxalic acid to
a) oxalate b) Carbon dioxide c) acetate d) acetic acid
9. Which of the following statements is not true?

a) on passing H2S, through acidified K2Cr2O7 solution, a milky colour is observed.
b) Na2Cr2O7 is preferred over K2Cr2O7in volumetric analysis
c) K2Cr2O7 solution in acidic medium is orange in colour
d) K2Cr2O7 solution becomes yellow on increasing the pH beyond 7
10. Permanganate ion changes to ________ in acidic medium
10.
a) MnO42- b) Mn2+ c) Mn3+ d) MnO2
11. How many moles of I2 are liberated when 1 mole of potassium dichromate react with
11.
potassium iodide?
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
12. The number of moles of acidified KMnO4 required to oxidize 1 mole of ferrous oxalate(FeC2O4)
12.
is
a) 5 b) 3 c) 0.6 d) 1.5
13. Which one of the following statements related to lanthanons is incorrect?
13.
a) Europium shows +2 oxidation state.
b) The basicity decreases as the ionic radius decreases from Pr to Lu.
c) All the lanthanons are much more reactive than aluminium.
d) Ce4++ solutions are widely used as oxidising agents in volumetric analysis.
14. Which of the following lanthanoid ions is diamagnetic?
14.
a) Eu2+ b) Yb2+ c) Ce2+ d) Sm2+
15. Which of the following oxidation states is most common among the lanthanoids?
15.
a) 4 b) 2 c) 5 d) 3
4+
+
16. Assertion : Ce is used as an oxidizing agent in volumetric analysis.
16.
Reason : Ce4++ has the tendency of attaining +3 oxidation state.
c) Assertion is true but reason is false. d) Both assertion and reason are false.
Karur-Dt
Karur-Dt.
17. The most common oxidation state of actinoids is
17.
a) +2 b) +3 c) +4 d) +6
18. The actinoid elements which show the highest oxidation state of +7 are
18.
a) Np,Pu,Am b) U,Fm,Th c) U,Th,Md d) Es,No,Lr
19. Which one of the following is not correct?
19.
a) La(OH)3 is less basic than Lu(OH)3
b) In lanthanoid series ionic radius of Ln3+ ions decreases
c) La is actually an element of transition metal series rather than lanthanide series
d) Atomic radii of Zr and Hf are same because of lanthanide contraction
5.COORDINATION CHEMISTRY
1. The sum of primary valence and secondary valence of the metal M in the complex
[M(en)2(Ox]Cl is
a) 3 b) 6 c) -3 d) 9
2. An excess of silver nitrate is added to 100ml of a 0.01 M solution of
pentaaquachloridochromium(III) chloride. The number of moles of AgCl precipitated would be
a) 0.02 b) 0.002 c) 0.01 d) 0.2
3. A complex has a molecular formula MSO4Cl.6H2O.The aqueous solution of it gives white
precipitate with Barium chloride solution and no precipitate is obtained when it is treated with
silver nitrate solution. If the secondary valence of the metal is six, which one of the following
correctly represents the complex?
a) [M(H2O)4Cl]SO4.2H2O b) [M(H2O)6]SO4
c) [M(H2O)5Cl]SO4.H2O d) [M(H2O)3Cl]SO4.3H2O
4. Oxidation state of Iron and the charge on the ligand NO in [Fe(H2O)5NO]SO4 are
a) +2 and 0 respectively b) +3 and 0 respectively
c) +3 and -1 respectively d) +1 and -1 respectively
5. As per IUPAC guidelines, the name of the complex [Co(en)2(ONO)Cl]Cl is
a) chlorobisethylenediaminenitritocobalt(III) chloride
b) chloridobis(ethane-1,2-diamine)nitro -ƙ–O cobaltate (III) chloride
c) chloridobis(ethane-1,2-diammine)nitrito -ƙ–O cobalt(II)) chloride
d) chloridobis(ethane-1,2-diammine)nitrito-ƙ–O cobalt(III) chloride
6. IUPAC name of the complex K3[Al(C2O4)3] is
a) potassiumtrioxalatoaluminium(III) b) potassiumtrioxalatoaluminate(II)
c) potassiumtrisoxalatoaluminate(III) d) potassiumtrioxalatoaluminate(III)
7. A magnetic moment of 1.73 BM will be shown by one among the following (NEET)
a) TiCl4 b) [CoCl6]4- c) [Cu(NH3)4]2+ d) [Ni(CN)4]2-
8. Crystal field stabilization energy for high spin d5 octahedral complex is
a) – 0.6 ∆0 b) 0 c) 2(P- ∆0 ) d) 2(P+∆0 )
9. In which of the following coordination entities the magnitude of ∆0 will be maximum?
a) [Co(CN)6]3- b) [Co(C2O4)3]3- c) [Co(H2O)6]3+ d) [Co(NH3)6]3+
10. Which one of the following will give a pair of enantiomorphs?
10.
a) [Cr(NH3)6][Co(CN)6] b) [Co(en)2Cl2 ]Cl
Karur-Dt
Karur-Dt.
c) [Pt(NH3)4][PtCl4] d) [Co(NH3)4Cl2 ]NO2
11. Which type of isomerism is exhibited by [Pt(NH3)2Cl2 ]?
11.
a) Coordination isomerism b) Linkage isomerism
c) Optical isomerism d) Geometrical isomerism
12. How many geometrical isomers are possible for [Pt(Py)(NH3)(Br)(Cl)]?
12.
a) 3 b) 4 c) 0 d) 15
13. Which one of the following pairs represents linkage isomers?
13.
a) [Cu(NH3)4][PtCl4] and [Pt(NH3)4][CuCl4]
b) [Co(NH3)5(NO3)]SO4 and [Co(NH3)5(ONO)]
c) [Co(NH3)4 (NCS)2]Cl and [Co(NH3)4 (SCN)2]Cl
d) both (b) and (c)
14. Which kind of isomerism is possible for a complex [Co(NH3)4Br2]Cl ?
14.
a) geometrical and ionization b) geometrical and optical
c) optical and ionization d) geometrical only
15. Which one of the following complexes is not expected to exhibit isomerism?
15.
a) [Ni(NH3)4(H2O)2]2+ b) [Pt(NH3)2Cl2]
c) [Co(NH3)5SO4]Cl d) [FeCl6]3-
16. A complex in which the oxidation number of the metal is zero is
16.
a) K4[Fe(CN)6] b) [Fe(CN)3(NH3)3]
c) [Fe(CO)5] d) both (b) and (c)
17. Formula of tris(ethane-1,2-diamine)iron II phosphate
17.
a) [Fe(CH3-CH(NH2)2)3](PO4)3 b) [Fe(H2N-CH2-CH2-NH2)3](PO4)
c) [Fe(H2N-CH2-CH2-NH2)3](PO4)2 d) [Fe(H2N-CH2-CH2-NH2)3]3(PO4)2
18. Which of the following is paramagnetic in nature?
18.
a) [Zn(NH3)4]2+ b) [Co(NH3)6]3+ c) [Ni(H2O)6]2+ d)[Ni(CN)4]2-
19. Fac-mer isomerism is shown by
19.
a) [Co(en)3]3+ b) [Co(NH3)4(Cl)2]+ c) [Co(NH3)3(Cl)3] d) [Co(NH3)5Cl]SO4
20. Choose the correct statement.
20.
a) Square planar complexes are more stable than octahedral complexes
b).,The spin only magnetic moment of [Cu(Cl)4]2-- is 1.732 BM and it has square planar
.,.,.,structure.
c) Crystal field splitting energy (∆0) of [FeF6]4-- is higher than the (∆0) of [Fe(CN)6]4--
d) crystal field stabilization energy of [V(H2O)6]2++is higher than the crystal field stabilization of
.,..,[Ti(H2O)6]2++
6. SOLID STATE
1. Graphite and diamond are
a) Covalent and molecular crystals b) ionic and covalent crystals
c) both covalent crystals d) both molecular crystals
2. An ionic compound AxBy crystallizes in fcc type crystal structure with B ions at the centre of
each face and A ion occupying corners of the cube. the correct formula of AxBy is
a) AB b)AB3 c) A3B d) A8B6
3. The ratio of close packed atoms to tetrahedral hole in cubic packing is
a) 1:1 b) 1:2 c) 2:1 d) 1:4
Karur-Dt
Karur-Dt.
4. Solid CO2 is an example of
a) Covalent solid b) metallic solid c) molecular solid d) ionic solid
5. Assertion : monoclinic sulphur is an example of monoclinic crystal system

Reason: for a monoclinic system, a≠b≠c and α = Y = 90 0 β ≠ 90 0
c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
d) Both assertion and reason are false.
6. In calcium fluoride, having the flurite structure the coordination number of Ca2+ion and F- Ion
are (NEET)
a) 4 and 2 b) 6 and 6 c) 8 and 4 d) 4 and 8
7. The number of unit cells in 8 gm of an element X ( atomic mass 40) which crystallizes in bcc
pattern is (NA is the Avogadro number)
a) 6.023x1023 b) 6.023x1022 c) 60.23x1023 d) [6.023x1023/8x40]
8. In a solid atom M occupies ccp lattice and (⅓)) of tetrahedral voids are occupied by atom N.
find the formula of solid formed by M and N.
a) MN b) M3N c) MN3 d) M3N2
+ - -10 -10
9. The ionic radii of A and B are 0.98X10 m and 1.81.X10 m . the coordination number of
each ion in AB is
a) 8 b) 2 c) 6 d) 4
10. CsCl has bcc arrangement, its unit cell edge length is 400pm, its inter atomic distance is
10.
 3
a) 400pm b) 800pm c) 3 x 100 pm
d)   x 400pm
 2 
11. A solid compound XY has NaCl structure. if the radius of the cation is 100pm , the radius of
11.
the anion will be
 100   0.732   0.414 
a)   b)   c) 100 x 0.414 d)  
 0.414   100   100 
12. The vacant space in bcc lattice unit cell is
12.
a) 48% b) 23% c) 32% d) 26%
13. The radius of an atom is 300pm, if it crystallizes in a face centered cubic lattice, the length of
13.
the edge of the unit cell is
a) 488.5pm b) 848.5pm c) 884.5pm d) 484.5pm
14. The fraction of total volume occupied by the atoms in a simple cubic is
14.
 π  π π  π 
a)   b)   c)   d)  
4 2 6 4 3 2 
15.. The yellow colour in NaCl crystal is due to
15
a) excitation of electrons in F centers b) reflection of light from Cl- ion on the surface
c) refraction of light from Na+ ion d) all of the above
16. If ‘a’ stands for the edge length of the cubic system; sc , bcc, and fcc. Then the ratio of radii
16.
of spheres in these systems will be respectively
Karur-Dt
Karur-Dt.
1 3 2 
a)  a : a: a
2 
b) ( 1a : 3a : 2a )
2 2
1 3 1  1 1 
c)  a : a: a d)  2 a : 3a : a
2 4 2 2   2 
17. If ‘a’ is the length of the side of the cube, the distance between the body centered atom and
17.
one corner atom in the cube will be
 2   4   3  3
a)  a b)  a c)   a d)   a
 3  3  4   2 
18. Potassium has a bcc structure with nearest neighbor distance 4.52 A0 . its atomic weight is 39.
18.
its density will be
a) 915 kg m-3 b) 2142 kg m-3 c) 452 kg m-3 d) 390 kg m-3
19. Schottky defect in a crystal is observed when
19.
a) unequal number of anions and cations are missing from the lattice
b) equal number of cations and anions are missing from the lattice
c) an ion leaves its normal site and occupies an interstitial site
d) no ion is missing from its lattice.
20. The cation leaves its normal position in the crystal and moves to some interstitial position, the
20.
defect in the crystal is known as
a) Schottky defect b) F center c) Frenkel defect d) non-stoichiometric
21. Assertion: due to Frenkel defect, density of the crystalline solid decreases.
21.
Reason: in Frenkel defect cation and anion leaves the crystal.
c) Assertion is true but reason is false. d) Both assertion and reason are false
22. The crystal with a metal deficiency defect is
22.
a) NaCl b) FeO c) ZnO d) KCl
23. A two dimensional solid pattern formed by two different atoms X and Y is shown below. The
23.
black and white squares represent atoms X and Y respectively. the simplest formula for the
compound based on the unit cell from the pattern is
a) XY8 b) X4Y9
c) XY2 d) XY4
Karur-Dt
Karur-Dt.
7.CHEMICAL KINETICS
1. For a first order reaction A → B the rate constant is x min−1 . If the initial concentration of
A is 0.01M , the concentration of A after one hour is given by the expression.
a) 0.01e-x b) 1X 10-2 (1- e -60x ) c) (1X 10-2 )e -60x d) none of these
2. A zero order reaction X →Product, with an initial concentration 0.02M has a half life of 10
min. if one starts with concentration 0.04M, then the half life is
a) 10 s b) 5 min
c) 20 min d) cannot be predicted using the given information
3. Among the following graphs showing variation of rate constant with temperature (T) for a
reaction, the one that exhibits Arrhenius behavior over the entire temperature range is
a) b) c) d) both (b) and (c)
.,.,......................................................... .................................................................................
Ink logk Ink
1/T 1/T 1/T

4. For a first order reaction A → p roduct with initial concentration x mol L−1 , has a half
x
life period of 2.5 hours. For the same reaction with initial concentration   mol L-1 the half
2
life is
 2.5 
a) (2.5X2)hours b)   hours c) 2.5 hours
 2 
d) Without knowing the rate constant, t1/2 cannot be determined from the given data
-dt [ NH 3 ] d [N2 ]
5. For the reaction, 2NH3 → N2 + 3H2 , if = k1 [ NH 3 ] , = k2 [ NH 3 ] ,
dt dt
d [H 2 ]
= k3 [ NH 3 ] then the relation between K1 , K2 and K3
dt
a) k1=k2=k3 b) k1=3k2=2k3 c) 1.5k1=3k2=k3 d) 2k1=k2=3k3
6. The decomposition of phosphine (PH3) on tungsten at low pressure is a first order reaction. It
is because the (NEET)
a) rate is proportional to the surface coverage
b) rate is inversely proportional to the surface coverage
c) rate is independent of the surface coverage
d) rate of decomposition is slow
7. For a reaction Rate = K [acetone]3/2 then unit of rate constant and rate of reaction
respectively is
a) (mol L-1 s-1), (mol-1/2 L1/2 s-1) b) (mol-1/2 L1/2 s-1), (mol L-1 s-1)
1/2 1/2 -1 -1 -1
c) (mol L s ), (mol L s ) d) (mol L s-1), (mol 1/2 L1/2 s)
8. The addition of a catalyst during a chemical reaction alters which of the following quantities?
(NEET)
Karur-Dt
Karur-Dt.
a) Enthalpy b) Activation energy c) Entropy d) Internal energy
9. Consider the following statements :
(i) increase in concentration of the reactant increases the rate of a zero order reaction.
(ii) rate constant k is equal to collision frequency A if Ea = 0
(iii) rate constant k is equal to collision frequency A if Ea =
(iv) a plot of ln ln (k) vs T is a straight line.
(v) a plot of ln ln (k) vs (1/T ) is a straight line with a positive slope.
Correct statements are
a) (ii) only b) (ii) and (iv) c) (ii) and (v) d) (i), (ii) and (v)
10. In a reversible reaction, the enthalpy change and the activation energy in the forward
10.
direction are respectively –x kJ mol-1 and y kJ mol-1 . Therefore,the enery of activation in the
backward direction is
a) (y-x)kJmol-1 b) (x+y)Jmol-1 c) (x-y)kJmol-1 d) (x+y) X103 Jmol-1
11. What is the activation energy for a reaction if its rate doubles when the temperature is raised
11.
from 200K to 400K? (R=8.314 JK-1 mol-1 )
a) 234.65 kJ mol-1 b) 434.65 kJ mol-1 c) 2.305 kJ mol-1 d) 334.65J mol-1
12.
12. ; This reaction follows first order kinetics. The rate constant at
particular temperature is 2.303X10-2 hour-1 . The initial concentration of cyclopropane is 0.25 M.
What will be the concentration of cyclopropane after 1806 minutes? (log2=0.3010)
a) 0.125 M b) 0.215 M c) 0.25X2.303M d) 0.05 M
-1
13. For a first order reaction, the rate constant is 0.6909 min .the time taken for 75% conversion
13.
in minutes is
3 2 3 3 2 4
a)   log2 b)   log2 c)   log   d)   log  
2 3 2 4 3 3
14. In a first order reaction x → y; if k is the rate constant and the initial concentration of the
14.
reactant x is 0.1M, then, the half life is
 log2   0.693   ln2 
a)   b)   c)   d) none of these
 k   (0.1)k   k 
15.. Predict the rate law of the following reaction based on the data given below 2A + B → C+3D
15
Reaction [A] [B] Initial rate

number (min) (min) (Ms-1 )
1 0.1 0.1 x
2 0.2 0.1 2x
3 0.1 0.2 4x
4 0.2 0.2 8x
a) rate = k[A]2[B] b) rate = k [A] [B]2 c) rate = k [A][B] d) rate = k [A]1/2[B] 3/2
16. Assertion: rate of reaction doubles when the concentration of the reactant is doubles if it is a
16.
first order reaction. Reason: rate constant also doubles
Karur-Dt
Karur-Dt.
c) Assertion is true but reason is false. d) Both assertion and reason are false.
-2 -1
17. The rate constant of a reaction is 5.8 X 10 s . The order of the reaction is
17.
a) First order b) zero order c) Second order d) Third order
18. For the reaction N2O5 (g) →2NO2(g) + ½ O2 (g), the value of rate of disappearance of N2O5is
18.
given as 6.5X 10-2 molL-1 s-1. The rate of formation of NO2 and O2 is givenrespectively as
a) (3.25 X 10-2 mol L-1 s-1) and (1.3 X 10-2 mol L-1 s-1)
b) (1.3 X 10-2 mol L-1 s-1) and (3.25 X 10-2 mol L-1 s-1)
c) (1.3 X 10-11 mol L-1 s-1) and (3.25 X 10-2 mol L-1 s-1) d) None of these
19. During the decomposition of H2O2 to give dioxygen, 48 g O2 is formed per minute at certain
19.
point of time. The rate of formation of water at this point is
a)0.75 mol min-1 b) 1.5 mol min-1 c) 2.25 mol min-1 d) 3.0 mol min-1
20. If the initial concentration of the reactant is doubled, the time for half reaction is also
20.
doubled. Then the order of the reaction is
a) Zero b) one c) Fraction d) none
21. In a homogeneous reaction A → B+C+D, the initial pressure was P0 and after time t it was
21.
P.expression for rate constant in terms of P0, Pand t will
 2.303   2Po   2.303   2Po 
a) k=   log   b) k=   log  
 t   3Po - P   t   Po - P 
 2.303   3Po - P   2.303   2Po 

c) k=   log   d) k=   log  
 t   2Po   t   3Po - 2P 
22. If 75% of a first order reaction was completed in 60 minutes , 50% of the same reaction
22.
under the same conditions would be completed in
a) 20 minutes b) 30 minutes c) 35 minutes d) 75 minutes
23. The half life period of a radioactive element is 140 days. After 560 days , 1 g of element will
23.
be reduced to
1 1 1  1 
a)   g b)   g c)   g d)   g
2 4 8  16 
24. The correct difference between first and second order reactions is that (NEET)
24.
a) A first order reaction can be catalysed; a second order reaction cannot be catalysed.
b).,The half life of a first order reaction does not depend on [A0]; the half life of a second
.,.,.,.order reaction does depend on [A0].
c) The rate of a first order reaction does not depend on reactant concentrations; the rate of
.,.,.,.a second order reaction does depend on reactant concentrations.
d) The rate of a first order reaction does depend on reactant concentrations; the rate of a
.,..,.,second order reaction does not depend on reactant concentrations.
 1 
25. After 2 hours, a radioactive substance becomes   th of original amount. Then the half life
25.
 16 
( in min) is
a) 60 minutes b) 120 minutes c) 30 minutes d) 15 minutes
Karur-Dt
Karur-Dt.
8.IONIC EQUILIBRIUM
1. Concentration of the Ag+ ions in a saturated solution of Ag2C2O4 is 2.24 X 10-4 molL-1
solubility product of Ag2C2O4 is (NEET – 2017)
a) 2.42 X 10-8mol3 L-3 b) 2.66 X 10-12mol3 L-3
c) 4.5 X 10-11mol3 L-3 d) 5.619X 10-12mol3 L-3
2. Following solutions were prepared by mixing different volumes of NaOH of HCl different
concentrations. (NEET – 2018)
M M M M
i.…60 ml HCl + 40 ml NaOH ii. 55 ml HCl + 45 ml NaOH
10 10 10 10
M M M M
iii. 75 ml HCl + 25 ml NaOH iv. 100 ml HCl + 100 ml NaOH
5 5 10 10
pH of which one of them will be equal to 1?
a) iv b) i c) ii d) iii
3. The solubility of BaSO4 in water is 2.42 X 10-3 gL-1 at 298K. The value of its solubility
product (Ksp) will be (NEET -2018). ((BaSO4 Given molar mass of =233g mol-1 )
a) 1.08 X 10-14mol2 L-2 b) 1.08 X 10-12mol2 L-2
c) 1.08 X 10-10mol2 L-2 d) 1.08 X 10-8mol2 L-2
4. pH of a saturated solution of Ca(OH)2 is 9. The Solubility product (Ksp) of Ca(OH)2
a) 0.5 X 10-15 b) 0.25 X 10-10 c) 0.125 X 10-15 d) 0.5 X 10-10
5. Conjugate base for Bronsted acids H2O and HF are
a) OH- and H2FH+ respectively b) H3O+ and F- respectively
c) OH- and F- respectively d) H3O+ and H2F+ respectively
6. Which will make basic buffer?
a) 50 mL of 0.1M NaOH + 25mL of 0.1M CH3COOH
b) 100 mL of 0.1M CH3COOH + 100mL of 0.1M NH4OH
c) 100 mL of 0.1M HCl + 200mL of 0.1M NH4OH
U) 100 mL of 0.1M HCl + 100mL of 0.1M NaOH
7. Which of the following fluro compounds is most likely to behave as a Lewis base?
a) BF3 b) PF3 c) CF4 d) SiF4
8. Which of these is not likely to act as Lewis base?
a) BF3 b) PF3 c) CO d) F-
9. The aqueous solutions of sodium formate, anilinium chloride and potassium cyanide are
Respectively
a) acidic, acidic, basic b) basic, acidic, basic
c) basic, neutral, basic d) none of these
Karur-Dt
Karur-Dt.
10.. The percentage of pyridine (C5H5N) that forms pyridinium ion (C5H5NH) in a 0.10M aqueous
10
pyridine solution (Kb for C5H5N = 1.7 X 10-9 ) is
a) 0.006% b) 0.013% c) 0.77% d) 1.6%
11. Equal volumes of three acid solutions of pH 1,2 and 3 are mixed in a vessel. What will be the
11.
H+ ion concentration in the mixture?
a) 3.7 X 10-2 b) 10-6 c) 0.111 d) none of these
12. The solubility of AgCl(s) with solubility product 1.6 X 10-10 in 0.1M NaCl solution would be
12.
a) 1.26 X 10-5 M b) 1.6 X 10-9 M c) 1.6 X 10-11 M d) Zero
13. If the solubility product of lead iodide is 3.2 X 10-8, its solubility will be
13.
a) 2 X 10-3M b) 4 X 10-4 M c) 1.6 X 10-5M d) 1.8 X 10-5M
14. MY and NY3 , are insoluble salts and have the same Ksp values of 6.2 X 10-13 at room
14.
temperature. Which statement would be true with regard to MY and NY ?
a) The salts MY and NY3 are more soluble in 0.5M KY than in pure water
b) The addition of the salt of KY to the suspension of MY and NY3 will have no effect on
..,.,.,.,.,.,.,.,.,their solubility’s
c) The molar solubilities of MY and NY3 in water are identical
d) The molar solubility of MY in water is less than that of NY3
15. What is the pH of the resulting solution when equal volumes of 0.1M NaOH and 0.01MHCl
15.
are mixed?
a) 2.0 b) 3 c) 7.0 d) 12.65
16. The dissociation constant of a weak acid is 1 X 10-3 . In order to prepare a buffer solution
16.
with a pH=4, the [Acid]/[Salt]
a) 4:3 b) 3:4 c) 10:1 d) 1:10
17. The pH of 10-5M KOH solution will be
17.
a) 9 b) 5 c) 19 d) none of these
-
18. H2PO4 the conjugate base of
18.
a) PO43-- b) P2O5 c) H3PO4 d) HPO42--
19. Which of the following can act as Lowry – Bronsted acid as well as base?
19.
a) HCl b) SO42-- c) HPO42-- d) Br-
20. The pH of an aqueous solution is Zero. The solution is
20.
a) slightly acidic b) strongly acidic c) neutral d) basic
21.. The hydrogen ion concentration of a buffer solution consisting of a weak acid and its salts is
21
given by
Ka [acid]
a) H +  = b) H +  = Ka [salt]
[salt ]
Ka [salt]
c) H +  = Ka [acid] d) H +  =
[acid]
Karur-Dt
Karur-Dt.
22. Which of the following relation is correct for degree of hydrolysis of ammonium acetate?
22.
Kh Ka Kw K a .K b
a) h = b) h = c) h = d) h =
C Kb K a .K b Kw
23. Dissociation constant of NH4OH is 1.8X10-5 the hydrolysis constant of NH4Cl would be
23.
a) 1.8 X 10-19 b) 5.55X 10-10 c) 5.55 X 10-5 d) 1.80 X 10-5
9. ELECTRO CHEMISTRY
1. The number of electrons that have a total charge of 9650 coulombs is
a) 6.22 X 1023 b) 6.022 X 1024 c) 6.022 X 1022 d) 6.022 X 10-34
2. Consider the following half cell reactions:
+ - + + -
Mn2 + 2e Mn, E0=-1.18V Mn2 Mn3 +e E0=-1.51V
The E0 for the reaction 3Mn2++ Mn + 2Mn3++, and the possibility of the forward reaction are
.,.,..,..,.,respectively.
a) 2.69V and spontaneous b) -2.69 and non spontaneous
c) 0.33V and Spontaneous d) 4.18V and non spontaneous
3. The button cell used in watches function as follows
Zn(s) + Ag2O(s) + H2O (l) 2Ag (s) + Zn2++ (aq) +2OH- (aq) E0 =0.76V half cell
-
.,.,.,.,.,.,potentials .are Ag2O(s)+H2O (l) 2e 2Ag (s)+ 2OH- (aq) E0 =0.34V The cell potential
.,..,.,..,,will Be
a) 0.84V b) 1.34V c) 1.10V d) 0.42V
4. The molar conductivity of a 0.5 mol dm-3 solution of AgNO3 with electrolytic conductivity of
5.76 X10-3 S cm-1 at 298 K is
a) 2.88 Scm2mol-1 b) 11.52 Scm2mol-1 c) 0.086 Scm2mol-1 d) 28.8 Scm2mol-1
5.
Electrolyte KCl KNO3 HCl NaOAC NaCl
^- 149.9 145 426.2 91 126.5

2 -1
(Scm mol )
Calculate Ʌ0HOAC using appropriate molar conductances of the electrolytes listed above at infinite
dilution in water at 250C .
a) 517.2 b) 552.7 c) 390.7 d) 217.5
6. Faradays constant is defined as
a) charge carried by 1 electron b) charge carried by one mole of electrons
c) charge required to deposit one mole of substance
d) charge carried by 6.22 X 1010 electrons.
7. How many faradays of electricity are required for the following reaction to occur ?
- +
MnO4 Mn2
a) 5F b) 3F c) 1F d) 7F
Karur-Dt
Karur-Dt.
8. A current strength of 3.86 A was passed through molten Calcium oxide for 41minutes and 40
seconds. The mass of Calcium in grams deposited at the cathode is (atomic mass of Ca is 40
g/mol and 1F = 96500C).
a) 4 b) 2 c) 8 d) 6
9. During electrolysis of molten sodium chloride, the time required to produce 0.1mole of chlorine
gas using a current of 3A is
a) 55 minutes b) 107.2 minutes c) 220 minutes d) 330 minutes
10. The number of electrons delivered at the cathode during electrolysis by a current of 1A in
60 seconds is (charge of electron =1.6 X 10-19 C)
a) 6.22 X 1023 b) 6.022 X 1020 c) 3.75 X 1020 d) 7.48X 1023
11. Which of the following electrolytic solution has the least specific conductance
a) 2N b) 0.002N c) 0.02N d) 0.2N
12. While charging lead storage battery
a) PbSO4 on cathode is reduced to Pb b) PbSO4 on anode is oxidised to PbO2
c) PbSO4 on anode is reduced to Pb d) PbSO4 on cathode is oxidised to Pb
13. Among the following cells

I) Leclanche cell II) Nickel – Cadmium cell III) Lead storage battery IV) Mercury cell
Primary cells are
a) I and IV b) I and III c) III and IV d) II and III
14. Zinc can be coated on iron to produce galvanized iron but the reverse is not possible. It is
because
a) Zinc is lighter than iron b) Zinc has lower melting point than iron
c) Zinc has lower negative electrode potential than iron
d) Zinc has higher negative electrode potential than iron
15. Assertion : pure iron when heated in dry air is converted with a layer of rust.
Reason : Rust has the composition Fe3O4
a) if both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
b) if both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
c) assertion is true but reason is false d) both assertion and reason are false.
16. In H2-O2 cell the reaction occurs at cathode is
- -
a) O2(g) +2H2O (l) +4e 4OH (aq)
+ -
b) H (aq) + OH (aq) H2O(l)
c) 2H2(g) + O2(g) 2H2O(g)
+ -
d) H + e ½ H2
17. The equivalent conductance of M/36 solution of a weak monobasic acid is 6.mhocm2equiv-1 and
at infinite dilution is 400 mhocm2equiv-1. The dissociation constant of this acid is
a) 1.25 X 10-6 b) 6.25 X 10-6 c) 1.25 X 10-4 d) 6.25 X 10-5
Karur-Dt
Karur-Dt.
18. A conductivity cell has been calibrated with a 0.01M, 1:1 electrolytic solution (specific
conductance (ĸ=1.25X10-3 Scm-1) in the cell and the measured resistance was 800 Ω at 250 C.
The cell constant is,
a) 10-1 cm-1 b) 101 cm-1 c) 1 cm-1 d) 5.7 X 10-12
19. Conductivity of a saturated solution of a sparingly soluble salt AB (1:1 electrolyte) at 298K is
1.85 X 10-5 S m-1. Solubility product of the salt AB at 298K (Ʌm0 )AB =14 X 10-3 S m2 mol-1.
a) 5.7 X 10-12 b) 1.32 X 10-12 c) 7.5 X 10-12 d) 1.74 X 10-12
20. In the electrochemical cell: Zn|ZnSO4(0.01M)||CuSO4(1.0M)|Cu, the emf of this Daniel cell is
E1. When the concentration of ZnSO4 is changed to 1.0 M and that CuSO4 changed to 0.01M,
the emf changes to E2. From the above, which one is the relationship between E1 and E2?
a) E1 < E2 b) E1 > E2 c) E1 ≥ E2 d) E1 = E2
21. Consider the change in oxidation state of Bromine corresponding to different emf values
as shown in the diagram below
- 1.82V - 1.5V 1.595V 1.0652V -

BrO 4 BrO 3 HBrO Br2 Br
Then the species undergoing disproportionation is
a) Br2 b) BrO-4 c) BrO-3 d) HBrO
22. For the cell reaction
2Fe3++(aq) + 2I- (aq) 2Fe2++(aq) + I2 (aq) E0 cell =0.24V at 298K. The standard Gibbs
0
energy (∆G ) of the cell reactions is :
a) -46.32 KJ mol-1 b) -23.16 KJ mol-1 c) 46.32 KJ mol-1 d) 23.16 KJ mol-1
23. A certain current liberated 0.504 gm of hydrogen in 2 hours. How many grams of copper can
be liberated by the same current flowing for the same time through copper sulphate solution
a) 31.75 b) 15.8 c) 7.5 d) 63.5
24. A gas X at 1 atm is bubbled through a solution containing a mixture of 1MY- and 1MZ- at
250C . If the reduction potential of Z>Y>X, then
a) Y will oxidize X and not Z b) Y will oxidize Z and not X
d) Y will oxidize both X and Z d) Y will reduce both X and Z
25. Cell equation : A + 2B- A2++ + 2B; A2++ + 2e- A E0 = +0.34V and log10K = 15.6
at 300K for cell reactions find E0 for B+ + e- B (AIIMS – 2018)
a) 0.80 b) 1.26 c) -0.54 d) -10.94
10. SURFACE CHEMISTRY
1. For Freundlich isotherm a graph of Log X/m is plotted against log p. The slope of the line
and its y – axis intercept respectively corresponds to
a) 1/n , k b) log 1/n , k c) 1/n , log k d) log1/n , log k
2. Which of the following is incorrect for physisorption?
a) reversible b) increases with increase in temperature
c) low heat of adsorption d) increases with increase in surface area
3. Which one of the following characteristics are associated with adsorption? (NEET)
a) ∆G and ∆H are negative but ∆S is positive b) ∆G and ∆S are negative but ∆H is positive
Karur-Dt
Karur-Dt.
c) ∆G is negative but ∆H and ∆S are positive d) ∆G, ∆H and ∆S all are negative.
4. Fog is colloidal solution of
a) solid in gas b) gas in gas c) liquid in gas d) gas in liquid
3+ +
5. Assertion : Coagulation power of Al is more than Na .
Reason : greater the valency of the flocculating ion added, greater is its power to cause
precipitation
6. Statement : To stop bleeding from an injury, ferric chloride can be applied. Which comment
about the statement is justified?
a) It is not true, ferric chloride is a poison.
b) It is true, Fe3++ ions coagulate blood which is a negatively charged sol
c) It is not true; ferric chloride is ionic and gets into the blood stream.
d) It is true, coagulation takes place because of formation of negatively charged sol with Cl-
7. Hair cream is
a) gel b) emulsion c) solid sol d) sol.
8. Which one of the following is correctly matched?
a) Emulsion - Smoke
b) Gel - butter
c) foam - Mist
d) whipped cream - sol
9. The most effective electrolyte for the coagulation of As2S3 Sol is

a) NaCl b) Ba(NO3)2 c) K3[Fe(CN)6] d) Al2(SO4)3
10. Which one of the is not a surfactant?

10.
a) CH3–(CH2)15–N+–(CH3)2–CH2Br b) CH3–(CH2)15–NH2
c) CH3– (CH2)16–CH2–OSO2- Na+ d) OHC–(CH2)14–CH2–COO- Na+
11. The phenomenon observed when a beam of light is passed through a colloidal solution is
11.
a) Cataphoresis b) Electrophoresis c) Coagulation d) Tyndall effect
12. In an electrical field, the particles of a colloidal system move towards cathode. The coagulation
12.
of the same sol is studied using (i) K2SO4 (ii) Na3PO4 (iii)K4[Fe(CN)6] and (iv) NaCl Their
coagulating power should be
a) II > I > IV > III b) III > II > I > IV
c) I > II > III > IV d) none of these
Karur-Dt
Karur-Dt.
13. Collodion is a 4% solution of which one of the following compounds in alcohol – ether
13.
mixture?
a) Nitroglycerine b) Cellulose acetate c) Glycoldinitrate d) Nitrocellulose
14. Which one of the following is an example for homogeneous catalysis?

14.
a) manufacture of ammonia by Haber’s process
b) manufacture of sulphuric acid by contact process
c) hydrogenation of oil d) Hydrolysis of sucrose in presence of dil HCl
15.. Match the following
15
i) High density A B C D
A) V2O5
polyethylene (a) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
B) Ziegler – Natta ii) PAN
(b) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
C) Peroxide iii) NH3 (c) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
D) Finely divided Fe iv) H2SO4 (d) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
16. The coagulation values in millimoles per litre of the electrolytes used for the coagulation of
16.
As2S3 are given below
I) NaCl=52 II) BaCl2 = 0.69 III) MgSO4 = 0.22 The correct order of their coagulating
.,.,.,.,.,.,power is
a) III > II > I b) I > II > III c) I > III > II d) II > III > I
17. Adsorption of a gas on solid metal surface is spontaneous and exothermic, then
17.
a) ∆H increases b) ∆S increases c) ∆G increases d) ∆S decreases
18. If x is the amount of adsorbate and m is the amount of adsorbent, which of the following
18.
relations is not related to adsorption process?
a) x /m = f(P) at constant T b) x /m = f(T) at constant P
c) P = f(T) at constant x /m d) x/ m = PT
19. On which of the following properties does the coagulating power of an ion depend ?
19.
(NEET – 2018)
a) Both magnitude and sign of the charge on the ion.
b) Size of the ion alone
c) The magnitude of the charge on the ion alone
d) The sign of charge on the ion alone.
20. Match the following
20.
A) Pure nitrogen - i) Chlorine A B C D
B) Haber process - ii) Sulphuric acid (a) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
C) Contact process - iii) Ammonia ( b) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
iv) sodium azide (c) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(or) (d) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
D) Deacons Process -
Barium azide
Karur-Dt
Karur-Dt.
11.HYDROXY COMPOUNDS AND ETHERS
1. An alcohol (x) gives blue colour in Victormeyer’s test and 3.7g of X when treated with metallic
sodium liberates 560 mL of hydrogen at 273 K and 1 atm pressure what will be the possible
structure of X?
a) CH3–CH(OH)CH2–CH3 b) CH3–CH(OH)–CH3
c) CH3–C(OH)(CH3)2 d) CH3–CH2–CH(OH)–CH2–CH3
2. Which of the following compounds on reaction with methyl magnesium bromide will give
tertiary alcohol.
a) benzaldehyde b) propanoic acid c) methyl propanoate d) acetaldehyde
i) BF3 / THF
3. X . The ʻXʼ is
-
ii) H2O2 / OH
OH
CH2 CH2 CH CH2 CH2
a) H3C CH2 CH2 b) H3C CH2 CH2 CH3
OH
CH2 CH2
c) H2C CH2 CH2 d) None of these
OH OH
HOCl
4.. In the reaction sequence, Ethene A X ethan -1,2-diol . A and X respectively are
a) Chloroethane and NaOH b) ethanol and H2SO4
c) 2 – chloroethan -1-ol and NaHCO3 d) ethanol and H2O
5. Which one of the following is the strongest acid
a) 2 - nitrophenol b) 4 – chlorophenol
c) 4 – nitrophenol d) 3 – nitrophenol
6. CH2-OH on treatment with Con H2SO4, predominately gives
a) CH2 b) CH3 c) CH3 d) CH3
7. Carbolic acid is
a) Phenol b) Picric acid c) benzoic acid d) phenylacetic acid
8. Which one of the following will react with phenol to give salicyladehyde after hydrolysis.
a) Dichloro methane b) trichloroethane c) trichloro methane d) CO2
9. (CH3)3–C–CH(OH)–CH3 Con H2SO4 X (major product)

a) (CH3)3–C–CH=CH2 b) (CH3)2C=C(CH3)2
Karur-Dt
Karur-Dt.
c) CH2=C(CH3)–CH2–CH3 d) CH2=C(CH3)–CH2–CH2–CH3
CH3
10. The correct IUPAC name of the compound, H3C–CH–CH–CH–CH2–OH
10.
Cl CH3
a) 4–chloro–2,3–dimethyl pentan–1-ol b) 2,3–dimethyl–4-chloropentan -1-ol
c) 2,3,4–trimethyl–4- chlorobutan -1-ol d) 4–chloro–2,3,4–trimethyl pentan–1-ol
11. Assertion : Phenol is more acidic than ethanol

Reason: Phenoxide ion is resonance stabilized
a) both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
b) both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
PCl5 alc KOH H2SO4 /H2O

12. In the reaction Ethanol X Y 298K
Z. The ‘Z’ is
a) ethane b) ethoxyethane c) ethylbisulphite d) ethanol
CH3
NaH CH3-I
13. OH ONa O The reaction
Can be classified as
a) dehydration b) Williamson alcoholsynthesis
c) Williamson ether synthesis d) dehydrogenation of alcohol
14. Isopropylbenzene on air oxidation in the presence of dilute acid gives

a) C6H5COOH b) C6H5COCH3 c) C6H5CO C6H5 d) C6H5OH
15. Assertion : Phenol is more reactive than benzene towards electrophilic substitution reaction
Reason : In the case of phenol, the intermediate arenium ion is more stabilized by
.,.,..,.,.,..,.,.,..,resonance.
16. HO–CH2CH2–OH on heating with periodic acid gives

a) methanoic acid b) Glyoxal c) methanal d) CO2
17. Which of the following compound can be used as artifreeze in automobile radiators?
a) methanol b) ethanol c) Neopentyl alcohol d) ethan -1, 2-diol
18. OH O
i) NaOH
CH2
OH ii) CH2I2 O
The reactions is an example of
a) Wurtz reaction b) cyclic reaction c) Williamson reaction d) Kolbe reactions
Karur-Dt
Karur-Dt.
19. One mole of an organic compound (A) with the formula C3H8O reacts completely with two
moles of HI to form X and Y. When Y is boiled with aqueous alkali it forms Z. Z answers the
iodoform test. The compound (A) is
a) propan – 2-ol b) propan -1-ol c) ethoxy ethane d) methoxy ehane
20. Among the following ethers which one will produce methyl alcohol on treatment with hot HI?
a) (H3C)3C–O–CH3 b) (CH3)2–CH–CH2–O–CH3
c) CH3–(CH2)3–O–CH3 d) CH3–CH2–CH–O–CH3
CH3
21. Williamson synthesis of preparing dimethyl ether is
a) SN1 reactions b) SN2 reaction
c) electrophilic addition d) electrophilic substitution
22. On reacting with neutral ferric chloride, phenol gives

a) red colour b) violet colour c) dark green colour d) no colouration.
12.CARBONYL COMPOUNDS AND CARBOXYLIC ACIDS

1. The correct structure of the product ‘A’ formed in the reaction (NEET)
O
H2 ( gas, 1atm )
A
Pd/C , ethanol
OH O OH OH
a) b) c) d)
2. The formation of cyanohydrin from acetone is an example of

a) nucleophilic substitution b) electrophilic substitution
c) electrophilic addition d) Nucleophilic addition
3. Reaction of acetone with one of the following reagents involves nucleophilic addition followed
by elimination of water. The reagent is
a) Grignard reagent b) Sn / HCl
c) hydrazine in presence of slightly acidic solution d) hydrocyanic acid
4. In the following reaction,
H2SO4
HC CH X Product ‘X’ will not give
HgSO4
a) Tollen’s test b) Victor meyer test c) Iodoform test d) Fehling solution test
i)O3 NH3
5. CH2=CH2 X Y . ‘Y’ is
ii)Zn/H2O
a) Formaldelyde b) di acetone ammonia
Karur-Dt
Karur-Dt.
c) hexamethylene tetraamine d) oxime
6. Predict the product Z in the following series of reactions
Ethanoic acid PCl5 X C6H6 Y i)CH3MgBr Z
Anhydrous AlCl3 +
ii)H3O
a) (CH3)2C(OH)C6H5 b) CH3CH(OH)C6H5
c) CH3CH(OH)CH2-CH3 d) CH2-OH
7. Assertion : 2,2 – dimethyl propanoic acid does not give HVZ reaction.
Reason : 2,2, dimethyl propanoic acid does not have α- hydrogen atom
8. Which of the following represents the correct order of acidity in the given compounds
a) F-CH2COOH > CH3COOH > Br-CH2COOH > Cl-CH2COOH
b) F-CH2COOH > Cl-CH2COOH > Br-CH2COOH > CH3COOH
c) CH3COOH > Cl-CH2COOH > F-CH2COOH > Br-CH2COOH
d) Cl-CH2COOH > CH3COOH > Br-CH2COOH > l-CH2COOH
i)NH3 NaOBr NaNO2/HCl
9. Benzoic acid A A B C “ C ” is
ii) ∆
a) anilinium chloride b) O – nitro aniline
c) benzene diazonium chloride d) m – nitro benzoic acid
10. Ethanoic acid
10. P/Br 2 2–bromoethanoic acid. This reaction is called
a) Finkelstein reaction b) Haloform reaction
c) Hell–Volhard–Zelinsky reaction d) none of these
+
KCN H3O PCl5
11. CH3Br
11. (A) (B) (C) Product (C) is
a) acetylchloride b) chloro acetic acid
c) α-chlorocyano ethanoic acid d) none of these
12. Which one of the following reduces tollens reagent

12.
a) formic acid b) acetic acid c) benzophenone d) none of these
i)Mg,ether H3O+
13.
13. Br A B ‘B’ is
ii) CO2
COOH COOH
a) b)
O
c) d) C
Karur-Dt
Karur-Dt.
.O
14.
14. The IUPAC Name of
OH
a) but – 3- enoicacid b) but – 1- ene-4-oicacid
c) but – 2- ene-1-oic acid d) but -3-ene-1-oicacid
O
N2H4
C Identify the product formed in the reaction
C2H5ONa
15.
15.
CH3
O
C
a) b) N c) O-C2H5 d)
16. , In which case chiral carbon is not generated by reaction with HCN
16.
.O OH .O .O
a) b) c) d)
Ph Ph
O OH
17. Assertion : p – N, N – dimethyl aminobenzaldehyde undergoes benzoin condensation
17.
Reason : The aldehydic (-CHO) group is meta directing
18. Which one of the following reaction is an example of disproportionation reaction
18.
a) Aldol condensation b) cannizaro reaction
c) Benzoin condensation d) none of these
19. Which one of the following undergoes reaction with 50% sodium hydroxide solution to
19.
give the corresponding alcohol and acid
a) Phenylmethanal b) ethanal c) ethanol d) methanol
20. The reagent used to distinguish between acetaldehyde and benzaldehyde is
20.
a) Tollens reagent b) Fehling’s solution
c) 2,4 – dinitrophenyl hydrazine d) semicarbazide
21. Phenyl methanal is reacted with concentrated NaOH to give two products X and Y. X reacts
21.
with metallic sodium to liberate hydrogen X and Y are
a) sodiumbenzoate and phenol b) Sodium benzoate and phenyl methanol
c) phenyl methanol and sodium benzoate d) none of these
Karur-Dt
Karur-Dt.
22. In which of the following reactions new carbon – carbon bond is not formed?
22.
a) Aldol condensation b) Friedel craft reaction
c) Kolbe’s reaction d) Wolf kishner reduction
23. An alkene “A” on reaction with O3 and Zn –H2O gives propanone and ethanol in equimolar
23.
ratio. Addition of HCl to alkene “A” gives “B” as the major product. The structure of product
.,.,..,.,.,.,“B” is
CH3 CH2Cl
a) Cl-CH2-CH2-CH-CH3 b) H3C-CH2-CH-CH3
CH3 CH3
c) H3C-CH2-C-CH3 d) H3C-CH2-CH-Cl
Cl
24. Carboxylic acids have higher boiling points than aldehydes, ketones and even alcohols of
24.
comparable molecular mass. It is due to their (NEET)
a) more extensive association of carboxylic acid via van der Waals force of attraction
b) formation of carboxylate ion
c) formation of intramolecular H-bonding d) formation of intermolecular H – bonding
13. ORGANIC NITROGEN COMPOUNDS

1. Which of the following reagent can be used to convert nitrobenzene to aniline
a) Sn/HCI b)Zn-Hg/NaOH c) LiAIH4 d) All of these
2. The method by which aniline cannot be prepared is
a) degradation of benzamide with Br2/NaOH
b) potassium salt of phthalimide treated with chlorobenzene followed by hydrolysis with
aqueous NaOH solution.
c) reduction of Nitrobenzene with LiAIH4
d) reduction of Nitrobenzene by Sn/HCl .
3. Which one of the following will not undergo Hofmann bromamide reaction
a) CH3CONHCH3 b) CH3CH2CONH2 c) CH3CONH2 d) C6H5CONH2
4. Assertion : Acetamide on reaction with KOH and bromine gives acetic acid
Reason : Bromine catalyses hydrolysis of acetamide.
5. CH3CH2Br aq NaOH A KMnO4/H+ B NH3 C Br2/NaOH D. ʻDʼ is
a) bromomethane b) α -bromo sodium acetate

c) methanamine d) acetamide
6. Which one of the following nitro compounds does not react with nitrous acid
a) CH3-CH2-CH2-NO2 b) (CH3)2-CH-CH2NO2
Karur-Dt
Karur-Dt.
c) (CH3)3C-NO2 d) CH3-C-CH-NO2
.,O CH3
7. Aniline + benzoylchloride NaOH C6H5-NH-CO-C6H5 this reaction is known as
a) Friedel – crafts reaction b) HVZ reaction
c) Schotten – Baumann reaction d) none of these
8. The product formed by the reaction an aldehyde with a primary amine (NEET)
a) carboxylic acid b) aromatic acid c) schiff ’s base d) ketone
9. Which of the following reaction is not correct.
HNO2
a) CH3CH2NH2 CH3CH2OH + N2
b) (CH3)2 N NaNO2 / HCl (CH3)2N N=NCl
Br2/NaOH
c) CH3CONH2 CH3NH2 d) none of these
10. When aniline reacts with acetic anhydride the product formed is
10.
a) o – aminoacetophenone b) m-aminoacetophenone
c) p – aminoacetophenone d) acetanilide
11.. The order of basic strength for methyl substituted amines in aqueous solution is
11
a) N(CH3)3 >N(CH3)2H >N(CH3)H2 >NH3 b) N(CH3)H2 >N(CH3)2H >N(CH3)3 >NH3
c) NH3 >N(CH3)H2 >N(CH3)2H >N(CH3)3 d) N(CH3)2H >N(CH3)H2 >N(CH3)3 >NH3
NO2 .NO2
12.
12. A ʻAʼ is
Br Br
N=N-Cl
a) H3PO2 Z[\] H2O b) H+/ H2O c) HgSO4/ H2SO4 d) Cu2Cl2
Fe/HCl H2O
13. C6H5NO2
13. A NaNO2/HCl B C ʻCʼ is
273K 283K
a) C6H5-OH b) C6H5-CH2OH c) C6H5-CHO d) C6H5-NH2

14. Nitrobenzene on reaction with Con HNO3/H2SO4 at 80-100˚C forms which one of the
14.
.,following products?
a) 1,4 – dinitrobenzene b) 2,4,6 – tirnitrobenzene
c) 1,2 – dinitrobenzene d) 1,3 – dinitrobenzene
15. C5H13N reacts with HNO2 to give an optically active compound – The compound is
15.
a) pentan – 1- amine b) pentan – 2- amine
c) N,N – dimethylpropan -2-amine d) diethyl methyl amine
16. Secondary nitro alkanes react with nitrous acid to form
16.
a) red solution b) blue solution c) green solution d) yellow solution
17. Which of the following amines does not undergo acetylation?
17.
a) t – butylamine b) ethylamine c) diethylamine d) triethylamine
18. Which one of the following is most basic?
18.
a) 2,4 – dichloroaniline b) 2,4 – dimethyl aniline
Karur-Dt
Karur-Dt.
c) 2,4 – dinitroaniline d) 2,4 – dibromoaniline
N
19.
19. O O When is reduced with Sn/HCl the pair of compound formed are
a) Ethanol, hydroxylamine hydrochloride b) Ethanol, ammonium hydroxide
c) Ethanol, NH2OH d) C3H5NH2 , H2O
CH3
20. CH3 N C CH2 CH3 IUPAC name for the amine

20.
CH3.C2H5
a) 3 – Bimethylamino – 3 – methyl pentane
b) 3 (N,N – Triethyl) – 3- amino pentane
c) 3 – N,N – trimethyl pentanamine
d) N,N – dimethyl – 3- methyl - pentan - 3 amine
21.
21. C≡N +
H 3O
+ CH3MgBr P Product ‘P’ in the above reaction is
OCH3
a) CH2-OH b) CO-CH3 c) CHO d) COOH
OCH3 OCH3 OCH3 OCH3
22. Ammonium salt of benzoic acid is heated strongly with P2O5and the product so formed
22.
is reduced and then treated with NaNO2/HCl at low temperature. The final compound
,..,.,.,.,.,.formed is
a) Benzene diazonium chloride b) Benzyl alcohol
c) Phenol d) Nitrosobenzene
23. Identify X in the sequence given below.

23.
NH2
CHCl3 (Y) HCl (X) + methanoic acid
KOH 300K
Cl
a) H2N Cl b) C≡N Cl
c) N≡C Cl d) CH3-NH Cl
24. Among the following, the reaction that proceeds through an electrophilic substitution, is :
24.
Cl Cl
- Cu2Cl2
a) N2+Cl Cl +N2 b) +Cl2 UV light Cl Cl
Cl Cl
c ) +Cl AlCl3 Cl+HCl
Karur-Dt
Karur-Dt.
d) CH2OH+HCl CH2Cl + H2O
COOH
25. The major product of the following reaction
25. + NH3 Strong heating
.,O COOH
COOH COOH NH2
a) b) NH c) d)
CONH2 NH2 NH2
O
14.BIO MOLECULES
1. Which one of the following rotates the plane polarized light towards left?
(NEET Phase – II)
a) D(+) Glucose (b) L(+) Glucose (c) D(-) Fructose d) D(+) Galactose
2. The correct corresponding order of names of four aldoses with configuration given below
Respectively is, (NEET Phase – I)
CHO CHO CHO CHO
H C OH HO C H HO C H H C OH
H C OH H C OH HO C H HO C H
CH2OH CH2OH CH2OH CH2OH
a) L-Erythrose, L-Threose, L-Erythrose, D-Threose

b) D-Threose,D-Erythrose, L-Threose, L-Erythrose,
c) L-Erythrose, L-Threose, D-Erythrose, D-Threose
d) D-Erythrose, D-Threose, L-Erythrose, L-Threose
3. Which one given below is a non-reducing sugar? (NEET Phase – I)

a) Glucose b) Sucrose c) maltose d) Lactose.
(Hydrolysis)
4. Glucose (HCN)
Product Product ( HI+Heat)
A , the compound A is
a) Heptanoic acid b) 2-Iodohexane c) Heptane d) Heptanol
5. Assertion: A solution of sucrose in water is dextrorotatory. But on hydrolysis in the presence of

.,..,.,.,.,.,..,.,,little hydrochloric acid, it becomes levorotatory. (AIIMS)
Reason : Sucrose hydrolysis gives equal amounts of glucose and fructose. As a result of this
.,.,.,.,.,.,.,.,,.,change in sign of rotation is observed.
a) If both accretion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
c) If assertion is true but reason is false. d) if both assertion and reason are false.
Karur-Dt
Karur-Dt.
6. The central dogma of molecular genetics states that the genetic information flows from (NEET
Phase – II)
a) Amino acids Protein DNA
b) DNA Carbohydrates Proteins
c) DNA RNA Proteins
d) DNA RNA Carbohydrates
7. In a protein, various amino acids linked together by (NEET Phase – I)
a) Peptide bond b) Dative bond c) α - Glycosidic bond d) β - Glycosidic bond
8. Among the following the achiral amino acid is (AIIMS)
a) 2-ethylalanine b) 2-methylglycine c) 2-hydroxymethylserine d) Tryptophan
9. The correct statement regarding RNA and DNA respectively is (NEET Phase – I)
a) The sugar component in RNA is an arabinos and the sugar component in DNA is ribose
b)..The sugar component in RNA is 2’-deoxyribose and the sugar component in DNA is
.,.,.,arabinose
c) The sugar component in RNA is an arabinose and the sugar component in DNA is
.,.,.,2’-deoxyribose
d) The sugar component in RNA is ribose and the sugar component in DNA is 2’-deoxyribose
10. In aqueous solution of amino acids mostly exists in,
10.
-
a) NH2-CH(R)-COOH b) NH2-CH(R)-COO
+ + -
c) H3N -CH(R)-COOH d) H3N -CH(R)-COO
11. Which one of the following is not produced by body?

11.
a) DNA b) Enzymes c) Harmones d) Vitamins
12. The number of sp2 and sp3 hybridised carbon in fructose are respectively
12.
a) 1 and 4 b) 4 and 2 c) 5 and 1 d) 1 and 5
13. Vitamin B2 is also known as
13.
a) Riboflavin b) Thiamine c) Nicotinamide d) Pyridoxine
14. The pyrimidine bases present in DNA are
14.
a) Cytosine and Adenine b) Cytosine and Guanine
c) Cytosine and Thiamine d) Cytosine and Uracil
15. Among the following L-serine is
15.
NH2 . O pka 6.04 ..O
pka 12.10
a) b) NH
H2N NH OH OH
pka 9.00 pka 2.03 pka 1.70
NH2 HN NH2
pka 9.09
O OH . O
c) d)
HO OH OH
pka 2.13 pka 8.96 pka 2.20
pka 9.05
NH2 NH2
Karur-Dt
Karur-Dt.
16. The secondary structure of a protein refers to
16.
a) fixed configuration of the polypeptide backbone b) hydrophobic interaction
c) sequence of α-amino acids d) α-helical backbone.
17. Which of the following vitamins is water soluble?
17.
a) Vitamin E b) Vitamin K c) Vitamin A d) Vitamin B
18. Complete hydrolysis of cellulose gives
18.
a) L-Glucose b) D-Fructose c) D-Ribose d) D-Glucose
19. Which of the following statement is not correct?
19.
a) Ovalbumin is a simple food reserve in egg-white
b) Blood proteins thrombin and fibrinogen are involved in blood clotting
c) Denaturation makes protein more active
d) Insulin maintains the sugar level of in the human body.
20. Glucose is an aldose. Which one of the following reactions is not expected with glucose?
20.
a) It does not form oxime b) It does not react with Grignard reagent
c) It does not form osazones d) It does not reduce tollens reagent
21. If one strand of the DNA has the sequence ‘ATGCTTGA’, then the sequence of
21.
complementary strand would be
a) TACGAACT b) TCCGAACT c) TACGTACT d) TACGRAGT
22. Insulin, a hormone chemically is
22.
a) Fat b) Steroid c) Protein d) Carbohydrates
23. α -D (+) Glucose and β-D (+) glucose are
23.
a) Epimers b) Anomers
c) Enantiomers d) Conformational isomers
24. Which of the following are epimers
24.
a) D(+)-Glucose and D(+)-Galactose (b) D(+)-Glucose and D(+)-Mannose
c) Neither (a) nor (b) (d) Both (a) and (b)
25. Which of the following amino acids are achiral?
25.
a) Alanine b) Leucine c) Proline d) Glycine
15.CHEMISTRY IN EVERYDAY LIFE

1. Which of the following is an analgesic?
a) Streptomycin b) Chloromycetin c) Asprin d) Penicillin
2. Antiseptics and disinfectants either kill or prevent growth of microorganisms. Identify which of
the following statement is not true.
a) dilute solutions of boric acid and hydrogen peroxide are strong antiseptics.
b) Disinfectants harm the living tissues.
c) A 0.2% solution of phenol is an antiseptic while 1% solution acts as a disinfectant.
d) Chlorine and iodine are used as strong disinfectants.
3. Drugs that bind to the receptor site and inhibit its natural function are called
a) antagonists b) agonists c) enzymes d) molecular targets
Karur-Dt
Karur-Dt.
4. Aspirin is a/an
a) acetylsalicylic acid b) benzoyl salicylic acid
c) chlorobenzoic acid d) anthranilic acid
5. Which one of the following structures represents nylon 6,6 polymer?
a) b)
NH2 CH3 6,6 NH2 NH2 6,6
O H
c) d) C N
2 C N (CH2)6
H2N CI H3C HOOC 6 O H n
6. Natural rubber has

a) alternate cis- and trans-configuration b) random cis- and trans-configuration
c) all cis-configuration d) all trans-configuration
7. Nylon is an example of
a) polyamide b) polythene c) polyester d) poly saccharide
8. Terylene is an example of
a) Polyamide b) polythene c) polyester d) polysaccharide
9. Which is the monomer of neoprene in the following?

a) CH2-C-CH=CH2 b) CH2-CH-C≡CH c) CH2=CH-CH=CH2 d) CH2=C-CH=CH2
CI CH3
10. Which one of the following is a bio-degradable polymer?

10.
a) HDPE b) PVC c) Nylon 6 d) PHBV
11. Non stick cook wares generally have a coating of a polymer, whose monomer is
11.
a) ethane b) prop-2-enenitrile
c) chloroethene d) 1,1,2,2-tetrafluoroethane
12. Assertion: 2-methyl-1,3-butadiene is the monomer of natural rubber

12.
Reason: Natural rubber is formed through anionic addition polymerisation.
a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
c) assertion is true but reason is false. d) both assertion and reason are false.
Karur-Dt
Karur-Dt.
13. Which of the following is a co-polymer?
13.
a) Orlon b) PVC c) Teflon d) PHBV
14. The polymer used in making blankets (artificial wool) is

14.
a) polystyrene b) PAN c) polyester d) polythene
15. Regarding cross-linked or network polymers, which of the following statement is incorrect?
15.
(NEET)
a) Examples are Bakelite and melamine
b) They are formed from bi and tri-functional monomers
c) They contain covalent bonds between various linear polymer chains
d) They contain strong covalent bonds in their polymer chain
*****_`a] bc _d[e fgh*****
Karur-Dt

12 Book Back One Mark EM

Uploaded by

Document Information

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

12 Book Back One Mark EM

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

+2 CHEMISTRY BOOK BACK ONE MARK

8. Wolframite ore is separated from tinstone by the process of

18. Which of the following is used for concentrating ore in metallurgy?

a) ( SiO3 )2- b) ( SiO4 )2- c) (SiO)- d) ( SiO4 )4-

a) Beryl is a cyclic silicate b) MgSiO4 is an orthosilicate

c) [SiO4]4-is the basic structural unit of silicates d) Feldspar is not aluminosilicate

4. TRANSITION AND INNER TRANSITION ELEMENTS

9. Which of the following statements is not true?

5. Assertion : monoclinic sulphur is an example of monoclinic crystal system

c) an ion leaves its normal site and occupies an interstitial site

d) no ion is missing from its lattice.

Ink logk Ink

1/T 1/T 1/T

Reaction [A] [B] Initial rate

 2.303   3Po - P   2.303   2Po 

Electrolyte KCl KNO3 HCl NaOAC NaCl

^- 149.9 145 426.2 91 126.5

c) PbSO4 on anode is reduced to Pb d) PbSO4 on cathode is oxidised to Pb

13. Among the following cells

- 1.82V - 1.5V 1.595V 1.0652V -

9. The most effective electrolyte for the coagulation of As2S3 Sol is

10. Which one of the is not a surfactant?

14. Which one of the following is an example for homogeneous catalysis?

6. CH2-OH on treatment with Con H2SO4, predominately gives

a) CH2 b) CH3 c) CH3 d) CH3

9. (CH3)3–C–CH(OH)–CH3 Con H2SO4 X (major product)

11. Assertion : Phenol is more acidic than ethanol

PCl5 alc KOH H2SO4 /H2O

14. Isopropylbenzene on air oxidation in the presence of dilute acid gives

16. HO–CH2CH2–OH on heating with periodic acid gives

22. On reacting with neutral ferric chloride, phenol gives

12.CARBONYL COMPOUNDS AND CARBOXYLIC ACIDS

2. The formation of cyanohydrin from acetone is an example of

12. Which one of the following reduces tollens reagent

13. ORGANIC NITROGEN COMPOUNDS

5. CH3CH2Br aq NaOH A KMnO4/H+ B NH3 C Br2/NaOH D. ʻDʼ is

a) bromomethane b) α -bromo sodium acetate

a) C6H5-OH b) C6H5-CH2OH c) C6H5-CHO d) C6H5-NH2

20. CH3 N C CH2 CH3 IUPAC name for the amine

OCH3 OCH3 OCH3 OCH3

23. Identify X in the sequence given below.

d) CH2OH+HCl CH2Cl + H2O

CH2OH CH2OH CH2OH CH2OH

a) L-Erythrose, L-Threose, L-Erythrose, D-Threose

3. Which one given below is a non-reducing sugar? (NEET Phase – I)

5. Assertion: A solution of sucrose in water is dextrorotatory. But on hydrolysis in the presence of

11. Which one of the following is not produced by body?

15.CHEMISTRY IN EVERYDAY LIFE

NH2 CH3 6,6 NH2 NH2 6,6

6. Natural rubber has

9. Which is the monomer of neoprene in the following?

10. Which one of the following is a bio-degradable polymer?

12. Assertion: 2-methyl-1,3-butadiene is the monomer of natural rubber

14. The polymer used in making blankets (artificial wool) is

*****_`a] bc _d[e fgh*****

You might also like

_`a] bc _d[e fgh