SAMPLE PAPER TEST 01 FOR BOARD EXAM 2024

SUBJECT: SOCIAL SCIENCE MAX. MARKS : 80

CLASS : X DURATION : 3 HRS
General Instruction:
1. Question paper comprises five Sections – A, B, C, D and E. There are 37 questions in the
question paper. All questions are compulsory.
2. Section A – From question 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each.
3. Section B – Question no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 2 marks
each. Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.
4. Section C contains Q.25to Q.29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks each.
Answer to each question should not exceed 60 words
5. Section D – Question no. 30 to 33 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each.
Answer to each question should not exceed 120 words.
6. Section-E - Questions no from 34 to 36 are case based questions with three sub questions and
are of 4 marks each
7. Section F – Question no. 37 is map based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37a from History (2
marks) and 37b from Geography (3 marks).
8. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided
in few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions have to be attempted.
9. In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever
necessary.

SECTION – A
Questions 1 to 20 carry 1 mark each.
1. Following image is the personification of Germany commonly associated with the Romantic
and the Revolutions of 1848, Identify its name from among the following options.

Options:
(a) Marianna (b) Philip Viet (c) Germania (d) La ltalia
2. Arrange the following statements in sequential order based on the events that shaped the making
of Germany and Italy.
(i) Victor Emmanuel II was proclaimed King of United Italy
(ii) The Prussian King, William I was proclaimed German Emperor in a ceremony held at
Versailles.
(iii) Ireland was forcibly incorporated into the United Kingdom.
(iv) The Act of Union between England and Scotland that resulted in the formation of the
United Kingdom of Great Britain.
Options:
(a) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i) (b) (iv), (iii), (i), (ii) (c) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) (d) (iii), (iv), (i), (ii)
3. Which of the following statements is correct with reference to sugar industry
Statement (I): India stands second as & world producer of sugar.
Statement (II): The raw material used in this industry is bulky.
Statement (III): This industry is seasonal in nature.
Statement (IV): About sixty per cent sugar mills are concentrated in Rajasthan.
(a) Statement (I) and (II) are right (b) Statement (I), (II) and (III) are right
(c) Statement (III) is right (d) Only statement (IV) is right
4. Intensive subsistence farming is practiced in area of
(a) high population (b) low population (c) deserts (d) thick forests
5. In the unitary form of government
(a) all the power is divided between the centre/union and the state government provincial
government.
(b) all the power is with the few citizens
(c) state government has all the powers
(d) power is concentrated with the central government.

6. What is the meaning of “Jurisdiction’s?

(a) The decision of the judiciary.
(b) The area over which someone has legal authority
(c) The state with extra constitutional powers
(d) The authority of Central government over all subjects.

7. Consider the following statements about power sharing arrangements in Belgium and Sri Lanka
A. In Belgium the Dutch-speaking majority people tried to impose their domination on the
minority French-speaking community
B. In Sri Lanka the policies of government ensured the dominance of the Sinhala speaking
majority
C. The Tamils in Sri Lanka demanded a federal arrangement of power sharing to protect their
culture, language and equality of opportunity in education and jobs.
D. The transformation of Belgium from unitary government to a federal one prevented a
possible division of the country
Which of the following statement(s) is/are true?
(a) A, B, C and D (b) A, B, and D (c) B, C and D (d) C and D
8. A belief that the majority community should be able to rule a country in whichever way it wants
by disregarding the wishes and needs of the minority is regarded as
(a) Power Sharing
(b) Central Government
(c) Majoritarianism
(d) Community Government

9. __________ stress that power-sharing will bring out better outcomes.

(a) Moral reason (b) Political reason (c) Prudential reason (d) Social reason

10. The image of Bharat Mara painted by Abanindranath Tagore presents an image that is
(a) strong, free and ready to fight
(b) heroic and willing to make peace
(c) depressed, weak and quite
(d) calm, composed, divine and spiritual

11. Consider the statements given below and choose the correct answer.
Statement (I): Until the nineteenth century, poverty and hunger were common in Europe.
Statement (II): European cities were crowded and deadly diseases were widespread during
those years.
 (a) Statement (I) is correct and (II) is incorrect
(b) Statement (I) is incorrect and (II) is correct
(c) Both (I) and (II) are incorrect.
(d) Both (I) and (II) arc correct

12. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Read the statements and choose the correct option:
Assertion (A): The Act of Union 1707 led to the formation of the "United Kingdom of Great
Britain".
Reason (R): The British parliament was henceforth dominated by its English members.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

13. According to 2017-2018 data, the share of different sectors in employment (percentage) in India
was
Primary Sector - 44%
Secondary Sector - 25%
Tertiary Sector - 31%
Out of the three sectoes why did the ratio of employment in Primary Sector high? Select the
most suitable option from following:
(a) Workers in the Primary Sector are underemployed
(b) Low job opportunities in Secondary Sector
(c) Efforts of labour are not equivalent in all the sectors
(d) Outsourcing of job opportunities in Secondary Sector
14. It has been noted from the histories of many, now developed countries that at initial stage of
development, ____________ sector was the most important sector of economic activity.
(a) Public (b) Tertiary (c) Secondary (d) Primary
15. Read the statement “what people desire are regular work, better vages and decent price for their
crops or other products that they produce.” What is the common thing noticed in different
desires of people?
(a) People want more income (b) People want more luxuries
(c) People want more working days (d) People want more production.

16. Which of the following statements is correct regarding air pollution? 1

Statement (I): Toxic can be very hazard long-term effects.
Statement (II): Air pollution adversely affects human health, animals, plants, etc.
Statement (III): Bhopal Gas tragedy is associated with Air pollution
Statement (IV): Air pollution can also cause hearing impairment
(a) Statement (I) and (II) are right
(b) Statement (I), (II) and (III) are right
(c) Statement (III) is right
(d) Only Statement (IV) is right

17. Which of the following organisations lays stress on liberalisation of foreign trade and foreign
investment?
(a) International Labour Organisation (b) International Monetary Fund
(c) World Health Organisation (d) World Trade Organisation

18. The existence and authority of each tier of government is ___________ guarantced.
(a) Manually (b) Constitutionally (c) Prime Minister (d) President
19. Match the following items given in Column A with those in Column B. Choose the correct
answer from the options given below:
Column A Column B
(A) A person has no Job in hand and does not earn (i) Disguised unemployment
anything at all
(B) When people are apparently working but all of (ii) Private sector
them made to work less than their potentials.
(C) It aims at increasing the facilities for public (iii) Open unemployment
welfare
(D) It aims at earning maximum profits (iv) Public sector
(a) (A)-(i), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iii), (D)-(iv) (b) (A)-(ii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iv), (D)-(iii)
(c) (A)-(iii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iv), (D)-(iii) (d) (A)-(iv), (B)-(iii), (C)-(ii), (D)-(i)

20. Which age group of children is included for calculating Net Attendance Ratio?
(a) 6-10 (b) 7-11 (c) 5-9 (d) 14-15

SECTION – B
Questions 21 to 24 carry 2 marks each.
21. How do banks mediate between those who have surplus money and those who need money?

22. Why did Metternich describe Mazzini as ‘the most dangerous enemy of our social order?

23. What is the role of ‘Opposition’ in democracy?

OR
Differentiate between ruling and opposition parties

24. What is mineral? Where are these minerals found?

SECTION – C
Questions 25 to 29 carry 3 marks each.
25. Evaluate the role of business classes in the ‘Civil Disobedience Movement'.
OR
How did different groups of people interpret the idea of ‘Swaraj'?

26. ‘Absence of meaningful choice is one of the greatest challenge to political parties.

27. State the role of Reserve Bank of India.

28. What is the importance of pulses in our country? Why are pulses grown as rotation crop? Name
two major pulse producing states of India.

29. Which government body supervises the functioning of formal sources of loans in India? Explain
its functioning.

SECTION – D
Questions 30 to 33 carry 5 marks each.
30. Describe the conditions which led to technological and institutional reforms in the agricultural
sector in India.
OR
State any three characteristics of commercial farming.
31. ‘Democracies do not appear to be very successful in reducing economic inequalities'. Examine
the statement with examples.
OR
“Democracy is seen to be good in principle but felt to be not so good in practice." Support the
statement with an argument.
32. How is foreign trade Inter-connecting the markets in different countries? Explain with
examples.
OR
“Globalisation has been advantageous to both consumers as well producers." Support the
statement with suitable examples

33. Why were the printed books popular even among illiterate people’?
OR
How did new form of popular literature appear in print targeting new audience in the 18th
century? Explain with examples.

SECTION – E (Case Study Based Questions)

Questions 34 to 36 carry 4 marks each.
34. Case Study – 2
Read the given extract and answer following questions.
Primitive subsistence agriculture is practised on small patches of land with the help of primitive
tools like hoe, dao and digging sticks, and family/community labour. This type of farming
depends upon monsoon, natural fertility of the soil and suitability of other environmental
conditions to the crops grown.
(a) What is the other name of primitive subsistence farming? [1]
(b) Why is it called so? [2]
(c) What is it called in the Northern States of India? [1]

35. Case Study – 3

Read the source given below and answer the question that follows:
The Constitution originally provided for a two-tier system of government, the Union
Government or what we call the Central Government, representing the Union of India and the
State governments. Later, a third tier of federalism was added in the form of Panchayats and
Municipalities. As in any federation, these different tiers enjoy separate jurisdiction. The
Constitution clearly provided a threefold distribution of legislative powers between the Union
Government and the State Governments.
(a) What arc Municipalities? [1]
(b) Define Jurisdiction. [1]
(c) Name two subjects each of Union List, State List and Concurrent List. [2]

36. Case Study – 1

Read the given extract and answer following questions
Mahatma Gandhi found in salt a powerful symbol that could unite the nation, On 31 January
1930, he sent a letter to Viceroy Irwin stating eleven demands. Some of these were of general
interest; others were specific demands of different classes, from industrialists to peasants. The
idea
was to make the demands wide-ranging, so that all classes within Indian society could identify
with them and everyone could be brought together in a united campaign. the most stirring of
all was the demand to abolish the salt tax.
Mahatma Gandhi's letter was, in a way, an ultimatum
(a) Why the Congress launched the Civil Disobedience Movement? [1]
(b) Mahatma Gandhi's letter was, in a way, an ultimatum. What does ‘ultimatum’ referred to?
[1]
(c) Write some demands which were in the letter of Mahatma Gandhi to Victory Irwin? [2]

SECTION – F (Map Skill Questions) – 2 + 3 = 5

37. (a) On the given outline map of India, locate and Iabel the following with suitable symbols:
(i) Place associated with Peasant Satyagraha
(ii) Indian National Congress session of 1927
(b) Four features (A), (B), (C) and (D) are marked on the same given outline political map of
India. Identify any THREE features with the help of the following information and write their
names on the lines marked near them.
(A) International Airport in West Bengal
(B) Iron ore Mines in Chhattisgarh
(C) Thermal Power Plant
(D) Sea Port
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 SAMPLE PAPER TEST 01 FOR BOARD EXAM 2024
(ANSWERS)

SUBJECT: SOCIAL SCIENCE MAX. MARKS : 80

CLASS : X DURATION : 3 HRS
General Instruction:
1. Question paper comprises five Sections – A, B, C, D and E. There are 37 questions in the
question paper. All questions are compulsory.
2. Section A – From question 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each.
3. Section B – Question no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 2 marks
each. Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.
4. Section C contains Q.25to Q.29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks each.
Answer to each question should not exceed 60 words
5. Section D – Question no. 30 to 33 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each.
Answer to each question should not exceed 120 words.
6. Section-E - Questions no from 34 to 36 are case based questions with three sub questions and
are of 4 marks each
7. Section F – Question no. 37 is map based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37a from History (2
marks) and 37b from Geography (3 marks).
8. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided
in few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions have to be attempted.
9. In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever
necessary.

SECTION – A
Questions 1 to 20 carry 1 mark each.
1. Following image is the personification of Germany commonly associated with the Romantic
and the Revolutions of 1848, Identify its name from among the following options.

Options:
(a) Marianna (b) Philip Viet (c) Germania (d) La ltalia
Ans: (c) Germania

2. Arrange the following statements in sequential order based on the events that shaped the making
of Germany and Italy.
(i) Victor Emmanuel II was proclaimed King of United Italy
(ii) The Prussian King, William I was proclaimed German Emperor in a ceremony held at
Versailles.
(iii) Ireland was forcibly incorporated into the United Kingdom.
(iv) The Act of Union between England and Scotland that resulted in the formation of the
United Kingdom of Great Britain.
 Options:
(a) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i) (b) (iv), (iii), (i), (ii)
(c) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) (d) (iii), (iv), (i), (ii)
Ans: (b) (iv), (iii), (i), (ii)

3. Which of the following statements is correct with reference to sugar industry

Statement (I): India stands second as & world producer of sugar.
Statement (II): The raw material used in this industry is bulky.
Statement (III): This industry is seasonal in nature.
Statement (IV): About sixty per cent sugar mills are concentrated in Rajasthan.
(a) Statement (I) and (II) are right (b) Statement (I), (II) and (III) are right
(c) Statement (III) is right (d) Only statement (IV) is right
Ans: (b) Statement (I), (II) and (III) are right
4. Intensive subsistence farming is practiced in area of
(a) high population (b) low population (c) deserts (d) thick forests
Ans: (a) high population
5. In the unitary form of government
(a) all the power is divided between the centre/union and the state government provincial
government.
(b) all the power is with the few citizens
(c) state government has all the powers
(d) power is concentrated with the central government.
Ans: (d) power is concentrated with the central government.

6. What is the meaning of “Jurisdiction’s?

(a) The decision of the judiciary.
(b) The area over which someone has legal authority
(c) The state with extra constitutional powers
(d) The authority of Central government over all subjects.
Ans: (b) The area over which someone has legal authority

7. Consider the following statements about power sharing arrangements in Belgium and Sri Lanka
A. In Belgium the Dutch-speaking majority people tried to impose their domination on the
minority French-speaking community
B. In Sri Lanka the policies of government ensured the dominance of the Sinhala speaking
majority
C. The Tamils in Sri Lanka demanded a federal arrangement of power sharing to protect their
culture, language and equality of opportunity in education and jobs.
D. The transformation of Belgium from unitary government to a federal one prevented a
possible division of the country
Which of the following statement(s) is/are true?
(a) A, B, C and D (b) A, B, and D (c) B, C and D (d) C and D
Ans: (c) B, C and D

8. A belief that the majority community should be able to rule a country in whichever way it wants
by disregarding the wishes and needs of the minority is regarded as
(a) Power Sharing
(b) Central Government
(c) Majoritarianism
(d) Community Government
Ans: (c) Majoritarianism

9. __________ stress that power-sharing will bring out better outcomes.

(a) Moral reason (b) Political reason (c) Prudential reason (d) Social reason
Ans: (c) Prudential reason
10. The image of Bharat Mara painted by Abanindranath Tagore presents an image that is
(a) strong, free and ready to fight
(b) heroic and willing to make peace
(c) depressed, weak and quite
(d) calm, composed, divine and spiritual
Ans: (d) calm, composed, divine and spiritual

11. Consider the statements given below and choose the correct answer.
Statement (I): Until the nineteenth century, poverty and hunger were common in Europe.
Statement (II): European cities were crowded and deadly diseases were widespread during
those years.
(a) Statement (I) is correct and (II) is incorrect
(b) Statement (I) is incorrect and (II) is correct
(c) Both (I) and (II) are incorrect.
(d) Both (I) and (II) arc correct
Ans: (d) Both (I) and (II) are correct

12. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Read the statements and choose the correct option:
Assertion (A): The Act of Union 1707 led to the formation of the "United Kingdom of Great
Britain".
Reason (R): The British parliament was henceforth dominated by its English members.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Ans: (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

13. According to 2017-2018 data, the share of different sectors in employment (percentage) in India
was
Primary Sector - 44%
Secondary Sector - 25%
Tertiary Sector - 31%
Out of the three sectoes why did the ratio of employment in Primary Sector high? Select the
most suitable option from following:
(a) Workers in the Primary Sector are underemployed
(b) Low job opportunities in Secondary Sector
(c) Efforts of labour are not equivalent in all the sectors
(d) Outsourcing of job opportunities in Secondary Sector
Ans: (a) Workers in the Primary Sector are underemployed
14. It has been noted from the histories of many, now developed countries that at initial stage of
development, ____________ sector was the most important sector of economic activity.
(a) Public (b) Tertiary (c) Secondary (d) Primary
Ans: (d) Primary
15. Read the statement “what people desire are regular work, better vages and decent price for their
crops or other products that they produce.” What is the common thing noticed in different
desires of people?
(a) People want more income (b) People want more luxuries
(c) People want more working days (d) People want more production.
Ans: (a) People want more income.

16. Which of the following statements is correct regarding air pollution? 1

Statement (I): Toxic can be very hazard long-term effects.
 Statement (II): Air pollution adversely affects human health, animals, plants, etc.
Statement (III): Bhopal Gas tragedy is associated with Air pollution
Statement (IV): Air pollution can also cause hearing impairment
(a) Statement (I) and (II) are right
(b) Statement (I), (II) and (III) are right
(c) Statement (III) is right
(d) Only Statement (IV) is right
Ans: (b) Statement (I), (II) and (III) are right

17. Which of the following organisations lays stress on liberalisation of foreign trade and foreign
investment?
(a) International Labour Organisation (b) International Monetary Fund
(c) World Health Organisation (d) World Trade Organisation
Ans: (d) World Trade Organisation

18. The existence and authority of each tier of government is ___________ guarantced.
(a) Manually (b) Constitutionally (c) Prime Minister (d) President
Ans: (b) Constitutionally

19. Match the following items given in Column A with those in Column B. Choose the correct
answer from the options given below:
Column A Column B
(A) A person has no Job in hand and does not earn (i) Disguised unemployment
anything at all
(B) When people are apparently working but all of (ii) Private sector
them made to work less than their potentials.
(C) It aims at increasing the facilities for public (iii) Open unemployment
welfare
(D) It aims at earning maximum profits (iv) Public sector
(a) (A)-(i), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iii), (D)-(iv) (b) (A)-(ii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iv), (D)-(iii)
(c) (A)-(iii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iv), (D)-(iii) (d) (A)-(iv), (B)-(iii), (C)-(ii), (D)-(i)
Ans: (c) (A)-(iii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iv), (D)-(iii)

20. Which age group of children is included for calculating Net Attendance Ratio?
(a) 6-10 (b) 7-11 (c) 5-9 (d) 14-15
Ans: (d) 14-15

SECTION – B
Questions 21 to 24 carry 2 marks each.
21. How do banks mediate between those who have surplus money and those who need money?
Ans: People with surplus money deposit their money in the bank. Banks keep small portion
(15%) of such deposits as cash for themselves to pay the depositors on demand. The rest of the
deposited money is used to extend loans to those who need money. The banks offer interest to
those people who deposit their surplus money with them and charge an interest from those who
take loan from them. In this way, banks mediate between them.

22. Why did Metternich describe Mazzini as ‘the most dangerous enemy of our social order?
Ans: Metternich described Mazzini as ‘the most dangerous enemy of our social order’ because
of Mazzini’s relentless opposition to monarchy, his vision of democratic republics, and his
revolutionary ideas that led the formation of underground secret societies.

23. What is the role of ‘Opposition’ in democracy?

Ans: The various roles of the opposition parties in a democracy are listed as follows:
(a) It acts like a watchdog of democracy. It keeps a check on the role of the government and
restricts them from misusing the power.
 (b) It provides to the people alternative policies and criticises government for its failures or
wrong policies.
(c) The opposition is always a viable alternative to the ruling government.
OR
Differentiate between ruling and opposition parties
Ans:
Ruling Party Opposition Party
It is a political party or coalition wins They are the other parties of the Parliament
majority of seats in an election. and Legislative assembly.
Ruling parties make policies and manage The position party and shows that the rights
the governance of a region. and liberties of the people are not curtailed by
They work for public welfare. the government by questioning on the work of
ruling party.

24. What is mineral? Where are these minerals found?

Ans: Mineral is a homogenous, naturally occurring substance with a definable internal structure.
Minerals are usually found in “ores”.

SECTION – C
Questions 25 to 29 carry 3 marks each.
25. Evaluate the role of business classes in the ‘Civil Disobedience Movement'.
Ans: Following was the role of business classes in the ‘Civil Disobedience Movement’-
(a) The business classes supported the Civil Disobedience Movement when it was first
launched. For them, swaraj meant an end to the oppressive policies of the colonialists.
(b) They all reacted against colonial policies that restricted business activities as they wanted to
expand their business.
(c) They gave financial assistance and refuse to buy or sell imported goods.
OR
How did different groups of people interpret the idea of ‘Swaraj'?
Ans: Different groups of people interpret idea of ‘Swaraj’ differently are as follows:
(a) Plantation workers took it as the freedom to visit their native places and freedom of
movement in and out of plantations. They believed that everyone would be given land in their
own villages.
(b) The different groups of people had their own idea of Swaraj. For example, for the middle
class-Swaraj meant the spread of education and a share in the administration of the country.
(c) For the farmers, it meant reduction in land revenue and rent.
(d) Tribals wanted to get back their traditional rights over forests. They wanted to use forests for
animal rearing, fruits collection, firewood collection and shifting cultivation. (any three)

26. ‘Absence of meaningful choice is one of the greatest challenge to political parties.
Ans: Absence of a meaningful choice:
(a) In the present political scenario, there is no ideological difference among the political
parties, so they do not provide a meaningful choice to voters.
(b) Those voters, who really want a change in the government and its policies, never get any
positive option. For instance, in India, where we have multiparty system, the differences
between the parties over the economic matters have reduced.
(c) Also, people cannot even elect different leaders because the same set of leaders keep shifting
from one party to another.

27. State the role of Reserve Bank of India.

Ans: Reserve Bank of India performs following roles:
(a) In India, the Reserve Bank of India issues currency notes on behalf of the Central
Government.
(b) The RBI supervises the functioning of formal sources of loans.
(c) The RBI monitors the functioning of banks.
 (d) The RBI sees that the banks give loans not just to profit-making businesses but also to small
cultivators.

28. What is the importance of pulses in our country? Why are pulses grown as rotation crop? Name
two major pulse producing states of India.
Ans: India is the largest producer and consumer of pulses in the world. They are the main source
of protein in a vegetarian diet.
Pulses need less moisture and survive in dry climate. Pulses are leguminous crops and all the
crops, except arhar, help in restoring soil fertility by fixing nitrogen from the air. Since they
make the soil fertile, they are grown in rotation with other crops.
Major pulses producing states in India are Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan and Uttar
Pradesh.

29. Which government body supervises the functioning of formal sources of loans in India? Explain
its functioning.
Ans: Reserve Bank of India supervises the functioning of formal sources of loans in India. The
RBI plays the following rule:
(a) It issues currency notes on behalf of the Central Government.
(b) It issues guidelines for fixing rate of interest on deposits and lending by banks.
(c) It ensures that banks should maintain minimum cash balance out of the deposits they receive.
(d) It ensures that the banks should give loans not only to profit making businesses but also to
poor people and small traders.
(e) Periodically, the banks have to submit a report to the RBI on how much they are lending, to
whom and at what interest rate.

SECTION – D
Questions 30 to 33 carry 5 marks each.
30. Describe the conditions which led to technological and institutional reforms in the agricultural
sector in India.
Ans: (a) Agriculture has been in practised in India for thousands of years.
(b) Continued uses of land without well-matched techno-institutional reforms lead to slow down
of the pace of agricultural development.
(c) In spite of development in irrigation most of the farmers in large parts of the country still
depend upon monsoon and natural fertility of soil.
(d) Our population grew at faster rate than agriculture production.
(e) More than 60 per cent of India’s population depends on agriculture.
OR
State any three characteristics of commercial farming.
Ans: Commercial farming has following characteristics:
(a) Farmer use higher doses of modern inputs, e.g. high yielding variety (HYV) seeds, chemical
fertilisers, insecticides and pesticides.
(b) Farmers obtain higher productivity from land due to high doses of inputs.
(c) The degree of commercialisation of agriculture varies from one region to another. For
example, rice is a commercial crop in Haryana and Punjab, but in Odisha, it is a subsistence
crop.
(d) Plantation is also a type of commercial farming. (any three)

31. ‘Democracies do not appear to be very successful in reducing economic inequalities'. Examine
the statement with examples.
Ans: ‘Democracies are based on political equality but they are not appearing to be very
successful in reducing economic inequalities’. The following points analyse the statement.
(a) A small number of ultra-rich people enjoy a highly disproportionate share of wealth and
incomes. Their share in the total income of the country has been increasing.
(b) Poor people lead a frugal life and they have very little to depend upon. Their incomes have
been declining and they find it difficult to meet their basic needs of life.
 (c) According to a recent report, India is the second most unequal country in the world with 54
percent wealth controlled by millionaires.
(d) The poor constitute a large population of voters. No party wants to lose their votes but they
do not seem very interested in addressing the question of poverty.
(e) People in several poor countries are dependent on rich countries for food with Bangladesh
being the worst with half of its population living in poverty.
OR
“Democracy is seen to be good in principle but felt to be not so good in practice." Support the
statement with an argument.
Ans: Democracy is seen to be good in principle but felt not to be so good in practice. The
following points will justify the statement.
(a) In a democracy, people expect to have their needs and expectations fulfilled but because
every country has a diverse culture and regions, it is not possible to look after everyone’s needs.
(b) Even though democracy is not simply rule by majority opinion, there are instances where the
minority opinions is not taken into account for a general view.
(c) If there is corruption, then people lose faith in the government and then do not feel the need
to vote which is not healthy for the country because democracy is a people’s own government.
(d) Regular elections may lead to change in the ruling party, which causes political and
economic instability.
(e) If people are not wise in choosing their representatives then even though there is room to
correct mistakes, the country will suffer and so will the people.

32. How is foreign trade Inter-connecting the markets in different countries? Explain with
examples.
Ans: Following points show that the opening up of foreign trade has integrated the markets
across the countries.
(a) Trade has been the main channel for connecting countries since time immemorial through
exports and imports.
(b) It leads to expansion of local markets as it creates an opportunity for the producers to reach
beyond the domestic markets. Producers can sell their products not only in markets located
within the country but can also compete in markets located in other countries of the world.
(c) Allows better choice for the consumers because of the expansion of trade. Consumers get
more variety and quality goods at cheaper rates. Similarly, for the buyers, import of goods
produced in another country is one way of expanding the choice of goods beyond what is
domestically produced. In other words, goods travel from one market to another and thus
increase choice of the consumers.
(d) Prices tend to decrease with the expansion of market. The prices of similar goods in the two
markets tend to be equal so as to survive in the market and expand sales.
(e) Trade promotes the competition both within as well as outside the nation. Producers of
different countries now closely compete against each other even though they are separated by
thousands of miles.
Foreign trade is the most important component of globalization. Foreign trade has played a very
important role in stimulating the process of globalization.
OR
“Globalisation has been advantageous to both consumers as well producers." Support the
statement with suitable examples
Ans: Advantages of Globalisation for consumers are as follows:
(a) For buyers import of goods produced in another country has expanded the choice of goods.
(b) Better quality of products are available for consumption due to competition.
(c) It has reduced the cost of goods and services considerably as prices of similar goods in the
two markets tend to cheap and become equal.
Advantages of globalisation to producers are as follows:
(a) They now have access to international markets for their products. Foreign trade creates an
opportunity for the producers to reach beyond the domestic market.
 (b) Producer can sell their produce not only in markets located within the country but can also
compete in markets located in other countries of the world. They have easier access to foreign
investment to enhance their production.
(c) Collaboration with MNCs has added up their performance and profits.

33. Why were the printed books popular even among illiterate people’?
Ans: The printed books were popular even among the illiterate people because of the following
reasons:
(a) Very cheap small books brought to markets in 19th century towns allowed poor people
travelling, to buy them. Public libraries, set up in early 20th century, expanded the access to
books.
(b) From the late 19th century, many social reformers like Jyotiba Phule (a Maratha reform
pioneer) wrote about injustices of the caste system in their books (Gulamgiri, 1871). In 20th
century, B.R. Ambedkar and E.V. Ramaswamy Naicker wrote powerfully on caste and their
books were read by people all over India.
(c) Workers in factories were too overworked and lacked education to write much about their
experiences. A Kanpur millworker wrote and published Chhote Aur Bade Ka Sawal in 1938 to
show links between caste and class exploitation. Poems of Sudarshan Chakr were published as
Sacchi Kavitayen.
(d) Libraries were set up in Bangalore cotton mills and in Bombay. It was done to bring literacy
and to propagate the message of nationalism. The printed books made the poor crazy about
reading.
(e) Social reformers sponsored and encouraged people to access these libraries to bring literacy.
OR
How did new form of popular literature appear in print targeting new audience in the 18th
century? Explain with examples.
Ans: The new form of popular literature target new audience in the 18th century in the
following ways.
(a) In the 17th and 18th centuries literacy rate went up in most European countries, because
churches set up schools in villages. In some parts literacy was 60 to 70 per cent.
(b) People wanted to read books and printers produced books in large number. New forms of
literature appeared in public. The publishers employed peddlers to sell books. Penny chapbooks
were started in England. In France there were Biliotheque Bleue, which were low priced books.
(c) People believed that books were the means to spread knowledge. The press gave information
on current affairs and entertainment, about wars and trade.
(d) Scientists like Issac Newton could influence a large circle of people.
(e) The writings of Thomas Paine, Voltaire and Jean Jacques Rousseau were widely read. Their
idea of reason and rationality was popular among the people.

SECTION – E (Case Study Based Questions)

Questions 34 to 36 carry 4 marks each.
34. Case Study – 2
Read the given extract and answer following questions.
Primitive subsistence agriculture is practised on small patches of land with the help of primitive
tools like hoe, dao and digging sticks, and family/community labour. This type of farming
depends upon monsoon, natural fertility of the soil and suitability of other environmental
conditions to the crops grown.
(a) What is the other name of primitive subsistence farming? [1]
(b) Why is it called so? [2]
(c) What is it called in the Northern States of India? [1]
Ans: (a) The other name of primitive subsistence farming is ‘slash & burn’ cultivation.
(b) 1t is called ‘Slash & burn’ cultivation because in this type of agriculture farmers clear a
patch of land and produce cereals and other food crops to sustain their family. When the soil
fertility decreases, the farmers shift and clear a fresh patch of land for cultivation, hence, it is
also called ‘Shifting Cultivation’. This type of shifting allows nature to replenish the fertility of
 the soil through natural processes. Land productivity in this type of agriculture is low as the
farmer does not use fertilisers or other modern inputs. It is also known as ‘Jhumming’ in North-
Eastern parts of India.
(c) Jhumming

35. Case Study – 3

Read the source given below and answer the question that follows:
The Constitution originally provided for a two-tier system of government, the Union
Government or what we call the Central Government, representing the Union of India and the
State governments. Later, a third tier of federalism was added in the form of Panchayats and
Municipalities. As in any federation, these different tiers enjoy separate jurisdiction. The
Constitution clearly provided a threefold distribution of legislative powers between the Union
Government and the State Governments.
(a) What arc Municipalities? [1]
(b) Define Jurisdiction. [1]
(c) Name two subjects each of Union List, State List and Concurrent List. [2]
Ans: (a) A local government body in towns is called municipality.
(b) Jurisdiction refers to the official power of an official, government body, nation or court to
make legal decisions within their preview.
(c) Union List—foreign affairs and banking.
State List—Police and agriculture.
Concurrent List-Forest and Education.

36. Case Study – 1

Read the given extract and answer following questions
Mahatma Gandhi found in salt a powerful symbol that could unite the nation, On 31 January
1930, he sent a letter to Viceroy Irwin stating eleven demands. Some of these were of general
interest; others were specific demands of different classes, from industrialists to peasants. The
idea
was to make the demands wide-ranging, so that all classes within Indian society could identify
with them and everyone could be brought together in a united campaign. the most stirring of
all was the demand to abolish the salt tax.
Mahatma Gandhi's letter was, in a way, an ultimatum
(a) Why the Congress launched the Civil Disobedience Movement? [1]
(b) Mahatma Gandhi's letter was, in a way, an ultimatum. What does ‘ultimatum’ referred to?
[1]
(c) Write some demands which were in the letter of Mahatma Gandhi to Victory Irwin? [2]
Ans: (a) Irwin was unwilling to negotiate the demand laid by Gandhiji.
(b) It referred to launch of nationwide movement.
(c) Some of these demands were general interest; others were specific demands of different
classes, from industrialists to peasants.

SECTION – F (Map Skill Questions) – 2 + 3 = 5

37. (a) On the given outline map of India, locate and Iabel the following with suitable symbols:
(i) Place associated with Peasant Satyagraha
(ii) Indian National Congress session of 1927
(b) Four features (A), (B), (C) and (D) are marked on the same given outline political map of
India. Identify any THREE features with the help of the following information and write their
names on the lines marked near them.
(A) International Airport in West Bengal
(B) Iron ore Mines in Chhattisgarh
(C) Thermal Power Plant
(D) Sea Port
Ans:
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