LKITN235B02,C06,D01-PHASE-IV-ADV-1

FIITJEE PHASE TEST (JEE
Advanced)
PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & MATHEMATICS
PHASE-IV DATE: 26.05.2024 Paper – 1
Batch: LKITN235B02,C06,D01 (2023-25) – (CBSE)
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 228
▪ Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for
this purpose.
▪ You are not allowed to leave the Examination Hall before the end of the test.
INSTRUCTIONS
Caution: Question Paper CODE as given above MUST be correctly marked in the answer
OMR sheet before attempting the paper. Wrong CODE or no CODE will give wrong results.
A. General Instructions
1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2. This question paper contains Three Sections.
3. Section-I is Physics, Section -II is Chemistry and Section -III is Mathematics.
4. Each section is further divided into Two Parts: Part-A & Part-B.
5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be
provided for rough work.
6. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
devices, in any form, are not allowed.
B. Filling of OMR Sheet
1. Ensure matching of OMR sheet with the Question paper before you start marking your answers on
OMR sheet.
2. On the OMR sheet, darken the appropriate bubble with a blue / black ball point pen for each
character of your Enrolment No. and write in ink your Name, Test Centre and other details at the
designated places.
3. OMR sheet contains alphabets, numerals & special characters for marking answers.
C. Marking Scheme For All Sections.

(i) Part-A (1 – 8) contains 8 multiple choice questions which have only one correct answer. Each
question carries +3 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.
Part-A (9 – 14) contains 6 multiple choice questions which have one or more than one correct
answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen.
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen.
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen,
both of which are correct.
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is
a correct option.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.
Part-A (15 – 18) contains 2 Paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 2 Multiple Choice Questions
which have only one correct answer. Each question carries +3 marks for correct answer and –1
mark for wrong answer.
(ii) Part –B (1 – 2), contains 2 Matrix Match Type Questions which have statements given in 2 columns.
Statements in the first column have to be matched with statements in the second column. There may
be One or More Than One Correct choices. Each question carries +8 marks for all correct answer
however for each correct row +2 marks will be awarded. There is no negative marking.
Name of the Candidate :____________________________________________

Batch :____________________ Date of Examination :___________________
Enrolment Number :_______________________________________________
FIITJEE Ltd., FIITJEE Kathauta Chauraha, Vinamra Khand, Gomti Nagar, Lucknow - 226010. Ph: 0522-2724960, 2724961. Web: www.fiitjee.com
FIITJEE Ltd., Mary Gardiner’s Convent School, Sector - G, LDA Colony, Kanpur Road, Aashiana, Lucknow - 226012. Ph: 0522-4114644, 4114645.
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2
LKITN235B02,C06,D01-2325-PH-IV-ADV-1
USEFUL DATA
PHYSICS CHEMISTRY
Acceleration due to gravity : g = 10 m/s2 −1 −1
Gas Constant R = 8.314 J K mol
−34
Planck constant : h = 6.6  10 J − s = 0.0821 Lit atm
−19 −1 −1
Charge of electron : e = 1.6  10 C K mol
Mass of electron : me = 9.1  10
−31
kg
= 1.987  2 Cal
−1 −1
−12 2 2 K mol
Permittivity of free space :  0 = 8.85  10 C /N −m
Avogadro’s Number Na = 6.023  10 23
Density of water :  water 3
= 10 kg / m
3
−34
5 2 Planck’s constant h = 6.625 10 J .s
Atmospheric pressure : Pa = 10 N / m −27
Gas constant : R = 8.314 J = 6.625 10 erg .s
1 Faraday = 96500 coulomb
K −1 mol −1 1 calorie = 4.2 joule
−27
1 amu = 1.66 10 kg
−19
1 eV = 1.6  10 J
Atomic No: H = 1, He = 2, Li = 3, Be = 4, B = 5, C = 6, N = 7, O = 8, F = 9, Ne = 10, Na = 11,
Mg = 12, Si = 14, Al = 13, P = 15, S = 16, Cl = 17, Ar = 18, K = 19, Ca = 20,
Cr = 24, Mn = 25, Fe = 26, Co = 27, Ni = 28, Cu = 29, Zn = 30, As = 33, Br = 35,
Ag = 47, Sn = 50, I = 53, Xe = 54, Ba = 56, Pb = 82, U = 92.
Atomic masses: H = 1, He = 4, Li = 7, Be = 9, B = 11, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, F = 19, Na = 23,

Mg = 24, Si = 28, Al = 27, P = 31, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, K = 39, Ca = 40, Cr = 52,
Mn = 55, Fe = 56, Co= 59, Ni = 58.7, Cu = 63.5, Zn = 65.4, As = 75, Br = 80,
Ag = 108, Sn = 118.7, I = 127, Xe = 131, Ba = 137, Pb = 207, U = 238.
3
Section – I (Physics)
PART – A
(Single Correct Choice Type)
This part contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. A heavy uniform rope hangs vertically from the ceiling, with its lower end free. A disturbance on
the rope traveling upward from the lower end has a velocity v at a distance x from the lower end -
1
(A) v (B) vx
x
1
(C) v x (D) v
x
2. Figure shows the VT diagram for Helium gas in a cyclic process. Equation of state for process AB
is VT = constant. Equation of state process BC is TV2 = constant. The ratio of maximum to
minimum temperature is 4. The ratio of maximum to minimum pressure will be -
V B
2V
V A C
T 2T 4T T
(A) 2 (B) 4
(C) 6 (D) 8
3. Three rods made of same material and having the same cross 900C
section have been joined as shown in the figure. Each rod is of
the same length. The left and right ends are kept at 00C and 00C
900C respectively. The temperature of the junction of the three
rods will be
900C
(A) 450C (B) 600C
(C) 300C (D) 200C
4. The velocities of three molecules A, B and C of a gas are 1, 3, 5 ms−1. The value of their rms
velocity will be
(A) 1.73 ms-1 (B) 2 ms-1
(C) 4 ms-1 (D) 9 ms-1
5. The ends of the stretched string of length L are fixed at x = 0 and x = L. In one experiment the
x
displacement of wire is Y1 = A sin cos t and energy E1 and in another experiment its
L
2x
displacement is Y2 = A sin sin 2t and energy E2. Then
L
(A) E2 = E1 (B) E2 = 2E1
(C) E2 = 4E1 (D) E2 = 16E1
4
6. A steel wire of diameter 2 mm is just stretched between two fixed points at a temperature 20°C.
What will be the tension in the wire when its temperature falls to 10°C ? Coefficient of linear
expansion of steel is 10–5 per °C and its Young’s modulus is 2 × 1011 N/m2 :
(A) 62.8 N (B) 31.4 N
(C) 6.28 N (D) 3.14 N
7. Equations of a stationary and a traveling waves are as follows y 1 = a sinkx cost and
y2 = a sin(t – kx). The phase difference between two points x1 = /3k and x2 = 3/2k are 1 and 2
respectively for the two waves. The ratio 1/2 is
(A) 1 (B) 5/6
(C) 3/4 (D) 6/7
8. A heavy but uniform rope of length L is suspended from a ceiling. A particle is

dropped from ceiling. At the same instant, the bottom end is given a jerk. Find
velocity of wave pulse at an instant when particle and pulse are at same level.
gL gL
(A) (B)
2 5
gL gL
(C) (D)
3 4
PART – A
(Multi Correct Choice Type)
of which ONE OR MORE may be correct.
9. A clock with a metallic pendulum gains 6 sec each day when the temperature is 20oC and loses 12
sec each day when the temperature is 40oC.
80
(A) The clock will keep correct time at a temperature of C
3
100
(B) The clock will keep correct time at a temperature of C
3
(C) The coefficient of linear expansion of metal is 1.2 x 10-5 per oC
(D) The coefficient of linear expansion of metal is 2.1 x 10-5 per oC
6
10. A wave pulse in a horizontal string is represented by a function y ( x,t ) =
2 + ( x − 3t )
2
(c. g .s system) then

(A) wave is propagating along ‘+x’ axis (B) amplitude of the wave is 4 cm
(C) velocity of the wave is 3 cm/sec (D) amplitude of wave is 6 cm
11. For an ideal gas

(A) the change in internal energy in a constant pressure process from temperature T1 and T2 is
equal to nCV ( T2 − T1 ) , where CV is the molar heat capacity at constant volume and n the
number of moles of the gas.
(B) the change in internal energy of the gas and the work done by the gas are equal in
magnitude in an adiabatic process
(C) the internal energy does not change in an isothermal process
(D) no heat is added or removed in an adiabatic process
12. Cv and Cp denote the molar specific heat capacities of a gas at constant volume and constant
pressure respectively. Then
(A) CP – CV is larger for a diatomic ideal gas than for a monatomic ideal gas
(B) CP + CV is larger for a diatomic ideal gas than for a monatomic ideal gas
(C) CP /CV is larger for a diatomic ideal gas than for a monatomic ideal gas
(D) CP .CV is larger for a diatomic ideal gas than for a monatomic ideal gas
5
13. A transverse wave is travelling along a stretched string from y

right to left. The figure shown represents the shape of the
string (snap shot) at a given instant. At this instant. wave motion
(A) The particles at A, B and H have upward velocity. C D
B
(B) The particles at D, E and F have downward velocity. A x
E
(C) The particles at C, E and G have zero velocity F H
(D) The particles at A and E have maximum speed G
14. Two points on string are observed as a travelling wave passes them. The points are at
x1 = 0 and x2 = 1 m, the transverse motions of two points are found to be as follows
 
y1 = A sin ( 3t ) and y 2 = A sin  3t + 
 8
t is in seconds and y is metres mark correct options.
(A) Frequency of wave is 3 Hz (B) Frequency of wave is 1.5 Hz
(C) Wavelength of wave can be 16 m (D) Wavelength of wave can be 16/15 m
PART – A
(Comprehension Type)
This part contains 2 Paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, there are 2 Multiple Choice Questions.
Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
Comprehension 1:
 50 
The equation of a longitudinal wave is given as y = 10−2 sin 2 1000t + x  (All. SI units)
 17 
15. At t=0, change in pressure is maximum at x = …… m

(A) 0.34 (B) 0.255
(C) 0.085 (D) All of these
16. If density of the gas is 10−3 kg / m3 , find the pressure amplitude.

(A) 200.62 N/m2 (B) 421.24 N/m2
(C) 100.26 N/m2 (D) 21.36 N/m2
Comprehension 2:
a
The volume of n moles of an ideal gas with degree of freedom f is varied according to the law V =
T
where a is a constant.
17. The amount of heat received by the gas in this process if the gas temperature is increased by T is
f  f 
(A) n  − 1 RT (B) n  + 1 RT
2  2 
f 
(C) n  f + 2 RT (D) n  + 2 RT
2 
18. The molar specific heat of the gas at constant pressure is

f  f 
(A)  + 1 R (B)  + 2R
2  2 
5 f 
(C) R (D)  − 2R
2 2 
6
PART – B
(Matrix Match Type)
This part contains 2 questions. Each question has two columns. For each statement in Column I, there
may be ONE or MORE THAN ONE correct choice(s) in Column II.
1. A monatomic ideal gas is expanding as per the process given in Column – I. Match it with the
parameters given in Column – II:
Column – I Column – II
1
(A) P V = constant (p) Coefficient of volume expansion =−
T
T 3
(B) = constant (q) Coefficient of volume expansion =
P T
3 R
(C)
P 2 V = constant (r) Molar heat capacity, C=
2
1 9
(D) −
(s) Molar heat capacity, C = R
T V 3
= constant 2
2. A standing wave, formed in an organ pipe aligned along the x-axis, is given by (displacement) y =
(5 × 10−6m) sin (4x) cos (1320t), where x is in metre and t is in seconds:
(A) Change in pressure is maximum (p) x = 1/4 m
(B) Change in pressure is minimum (q) x = 1/2 m
(C) Maximum amplitude of vibration (r) x=1m
(D) Minimum amplitude of vibration (s) x = 1/8 m
(t) x = 3/8 m
7
Section – II (Chemistry)
PART – A
1. Which of the following bromides is the major product of the reaction shown below, assuming that
there are no carbocation rearrangement?
+ HBr ⎯⎯
→ C13H17Br
(1 equivalent)
Br Br
(A) (B) (C) Br (D)

Br
O
NH
2. + NO2+ ⎯⎯
→
Major product of this reaction by single SE( reaction):

O O
NH
(A) (B) NH
NO 2
NO 2
O O
NO 2
(C) (D)
O2N NH O2 N NH
3. Reaction of trans-2-phenyl-1-bromocyclohexane with alcoholic KOH produces:

(A) 1-phenylcyclohexene (B) 3-phenylcyclohexene
(C) 4-phenylcyclohexene (D) 2-phenylcyclohexene
4. H
NaNH2
⎯⎯⎯
Br2
CCl4
→ X ⎯⎯⎯→
excess
Y ⎯⎯⎯⎯→
H2
Pd/BaSO4
Z
H
The product ‘Z’ is:
H H
H
H
(A) (B) (C) (D)
H H
8
5. The boiling point of neopentane will be more than that of:

(A) Isopentane (B) n-Pentane
(C) Butane (D) n-Hexane
6.
NO 2 CH3
Liq/NH3 Liq/NH3 Liq/NH3

X ; Y ; Z
Na/EtOH Na/EtOH Na/EtOH
The formed products Z, Y, X are respectively.
CH3 NO 2 NO 2 CH3
(A) , , (B) , ,
NHOH CH3 NH 2 CH3
(C) , , (D) , ,
7. A hydrocarbon K adds one mole of hydrogen in presence of platinum catalyst to form n-hexane.
When K is oxidised vigorously with KMnO4 a single carboxylic acid is isolated and no gas
evolved. The correct statement about ‘K’ is
(A) it is a chiral compound
(B) It has two stereoisomers
(C) It has free rotation about all C − C bonds
(D) It contains eight carbon
8. Which of the following carbonium ion is most stable?
(A) CH 3CH 2CH 2CH 2 (B) CH 3CH 2CH 2CHCH 3

CH3 CH3
(C) CH 3 - C - CH 2 (D) H3 C - C
CH3 C2H5
PART – A
9. Hydroboration oxidation and acid catalyzed hydration will yield the same product in case of:
CH3 CH3
(A) (B) (C) CH2=CH2 (D) CH3−CH=CH−CH3
CH3
9
10. Which shows aromatic character?
(A) (B) (C) (D) N H
11. Which of the following will give same product with HBr in presence or absence of peroxide?
(A) Cyclohexene
(B) 1-Methylcyclohexene
(C) 1,2-dimethylcyclohexene
(D) 1-butene
12. Bromination can take place at
1
2 ⎯⎯⎯
NBS
→
4 3
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
13. Which of the following statements is/ are correct?

(A) Bridgehead halides are inert towards both SN1 and SN2 reactions
(B) The first step in both SN1 and E1 reactions are the same
(C) SN2 reactions proceed with total retention of configuration
(D) E2 eliminations use solvent of low polarity and high concentration of a strong base
14. COOH
Br2
HOOCCH(Br) CH(Br) COOH
HOOC CCl4 (X)
P
Br2
HOOCCH(Br) CH(Br) COOH
HOOC COOH CCl4 (Y)
Q
The correct statements with respect to the above pair of reactions are that.
(A) The reactions are stereospeciefic
(B) (X) is erythro and (Y) is Threo isomer
(C) (X) is threo and (Y) is erythro isomer
(D) each of (P) and (Q) gives mixture of (X) and (Y)
PART – A
Comprehension 1:
When a monosubstituted benzene undergoes an electrophilic substitutions the position taken up
by the incoming group and rate of the reaction are determined by the substituent already present
on the benzene ring. On this basis various substituents can be divided into three categories.
(1) O, P directing and activating
(2) m-directing and deactivating
(3) O, P-directing and deactivating
10
15. Identify (A)

H3C OH
Br2/Fe
CH 2 CH 3 (A) (major)
H3C OH Br H3C OH
(A) CH CH 3 (B)
CH 2 CH 3
Br
H3C OH
H3C OH
(C) CH 2 CH 3 (D)
CH 2 CH 3
Br
16. O (i) AlCl3 [X] is

+ + [X]
(ii) H2O/H
O
O O
(A) C (CH 2)3 COOH (B) O C (CH 2)2 COOH
O O O
O
(C) (D)
CH3
Comprehension 2:
Stability of carbocation, alkyl free radical and alkene can be explained on the basis of hyper conjugation,
inductive effect etc.
17. Which of the following alkene is most stable?

HC CH3
2
(A) (B) (CH3)2C = C(CH3)2
CH3
H3C CH3
(C) (CH3)2 C = CH – CH2CH3 (D)
H H3C
18. Which of the following carbocation is most stable?

+
+ CH CH3
(A) H3C CH2 (B)
+ +
(C) (CH3)2CH (D) CH3
11
PART – B
(Matrix Match Type)
1. Match the following:

Column – I (Alcohol) Column – II
(Dehydration Product, acidic conditions, H+)
CH3
OH
(A) (p)
CH3
OH
(B) (q)
(C) (r)
OH
CH3 OH CH 3
(D) (s)
H3C
2. Match the compounds mentioned in Column-I with their properties mentioned in Column - II.
(A) CH3CH2CH = CH2 Forms 1o and 2o bromides when treated
(p)
with NBS in presence of light
(B) CH3CH = CHCH2CH3 Forms more than one addition product with
(q) HBr
(Do not consider stereoisomers)
(C) CH2 = CH – CH2 – CH = CHCH3 CO2 gas is evolved upon oxidation with hot
(r)
acidified KMnO4 solution
(D) CH3CH = CHCH3 Ozonolysis of the compound forms
(s)
CH3CHO as the only or one of the products.
12
Section – III (Mathematics)

PART – A
1
The largest term in the expansion of ( 3 + 2x )
50
1. where x = is
5
(A) 5th (B) 6th
(C) 8th (D) 9th
2. Let n1 and n2 be any two three digit numbers total number of pairs of n1 and n2 so that n1 and n2
can be added with out carrying is equal to;
(A) 36 . 552 (B) 45 . 552
(C) 553 (D) none of these
3. Number of ways in which 6 persons can be seated around a table so that two particular persons
are never seated together is equal to
(A) 144 (B) 72
(C) 36 (D) 240
4. The sum of the series 20C0 + 20C1 + 20C2 + ……… + 20C10 is

(A) 220 (B) 219
1 20 1 20
(C) 219 + C10 (D) 219 – C10
2 2
1
The largest term in the expansion of ( 3 + 2x )
50
5. where x = is
5
(A) 5th (B) 6th
(C) 8th (D) 9th
6. Number of ways in which 6 persons can be seated around a table so that two particular persons
are never seated together is equal to
(A) 144 (B) 72
(C) 36 (D) 240
7. The values of x and y, when x + y = 2 / 3 and cos x + cos y = 3 / 2 , are respectively

   
(A) 2n + and − 2n, n  Z (B) 2n + and − 2n, n  Z
3 3 6 2
   
(C) n + and − n, n  Z (D) n + and − 2n, n  Z
6 2 3 3
8. ( )
The number of solution of the equation sin ex = 5x + 5− x is
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) infinitely many
13
PART – A
9. If 2050! is divisible by 17n, then n can be

(A) 125 (B) 126
(C) 127 (D) 128
n
 1 
10. The terms in the expansion of  x + 4  (n  1, n  N) , are arranged in descending powers of x.
 2 x
If the coefficients of first three terms form an arithmetic progression, then
(A) number of terms with integer powers of x is 3
(B) total number of terms in above expansion is 10
(C) coefficient of term independent of x is 256
35
(D) coefficient of middle term in above expansion is
8
11. If m and n are +ve integers more than or equal to 2, m > n, then (mn)! is divisible by
(A) (m!)n (B) (n!)m
(C) ( m+n)! (D) (m - n) !
50
 Cr ( x − 4 )
33 50 50 − r
12. The coefficient of x in the expansion of 3r is
r =0
(B) − C33
50 50
(A) C33
(C) − C17
50 50
(D) C17
13. The value of C1 + n+1C2 + n+2C3 + .......... + n+m−1Cm is equal to

n
m+ n m+ n
(A) Cn − 1 (B) Cm−1
m+1 m+ 2 m+ n −1 m+ n
(C)
m
C1 + C2 + C3 + ........ + Cn (D) Cm − 1
14. The square of any odd number is of the form :

(A) 8n + 1 (B) 6n + 1
(C) 4n + 1 (D) 2n + 1
PART – A
Comprehension 1:
If m,n,r are positive integers and if r < m, r < n, then m Cr +mCr-1.nC1 +m Cr −2. n C2 + ..... +n Cr = coefficient
of x r in (1 + x ) (1 + x ) =m+n Cr
m n
15. The value of r for which 30

Cr .20 C0 +30 Cr −1.20 C1 + .....30 C0 .20 Cr is maximum is:
(A) 10 (B) 15
(C) 20 (D) 25
14
If (1 + x ) = C0 + C1x + C2 x2 + ....Cn xn , where n is odd, then the value of

n
16.
C02 − C12 + C22 − C32 + ..... ( −1) Cn2 is
n
(A) 0 (B) 2n Cn
(C) ( −1) 2nCn
n
(D) −2nCn−1
Comprehension 2:
The integers a,b, and c are selected from 3n consecutive integers {1,2,3,….3n} then in how many ways
can these integers be selected, such that,
17. Their sum is divisible by 3 is
(A)
n
2
(
3n2 − 3n + 2 ) (B)
n
2
3n2 + 3n + 2 ( )
(C)
n
2
(
3n2 + n + 2 ) (D)
n
2
2n2 + 3n − 2 ( )
18. (a 2
)
− b2 is divisible by 3
n ( n − 1) n ( n + 1)
(A) n2 + (B) n2 +
2 2
3n (n − 1) 3n (n + 1)
(C) n2 + (D) n2 +
2 2
PART – B
(Matrix Match Type)
1. Match the following statements

100
(A) The hundred’s digit of 3 is (p) 3
(B) The positive integer just greater that 1.0011000 is (q) 0
(C) The remainder left out when 82n − 622n+1 is divided by 9 is (r) 6
If the coefficients of ( 2r + 4 ) th and (r − 2) th terms in the expansion of
(D) (s) 2
(1 + x )
18
are equal, then value of r is
2. Consider the letter of the word “MATHEMATICS”. Set of repeating letters = {M, A, T}. Set of non-
repeating letters = {H, E, I, C, S}. Match the number of words formed in Column II with condition given
in Column I.
The number of words taken all letters at a time, such that
(A) (p) 28.7!
at least one repeating letters is at odd position is
(11)!
(B) The number of words formed in which no vowel is together (q)
( 2!)
3
The number of words formed taking all letters at a time

(C) such that in each word both M’s are together and both T’s (r) 210(7!)
are together but both A’s are not together is
The number of words formed taking all letters at a time 4! 7!
(D) such that relative order of vowels and consonants does not (s)
( 2!)
3
charge is
15
FIITJEE PHASE TEST

Batch: LKITN235B02,C06,D01 (2023-25)
JEE ADVANCED, 2025
PHASE – IV PAPER – I
ANSWERS
(DATE: 26.05.2024)
Physics
PART – A
1. C 2. D 3. B 4. A
5. C 6. A 7. D 8. C
9. AD 10. AC 11. ABCD 12. BD
13. ABD 14. BCD 15. A 16. D
17. A 18. A
PART – B
1. (A) – (p, r); (B) – (p, r); (C) – (q, s); (D) – (q, s)
2. (A) – (p, q, r); (B) – (s, t); (C) – (s, t); (D) – (p, q, r)
Chemistry
PART – A
1. D 2. C 3. B 4. B
5. C 6. A 7. B 8. D
9. BCD 10. BD 11. AC 12. CD
13. ABD 14. AB 15. C 16. A
17. B 18. B
PART – B
1. (A) – (q); (B) – (r); (C) – (s); (D) – (p)
2. (A) – (p, q, r); (B) – (p, q, s); (C) – (p, q, r, s); (D) – (s)
Mathematics
PART – A
1. B 2. B 3. B 4. C
5. B 6. B 7. B 8. A
9. ABC 10. AD 11. ABCD 12. BC
13. ACD 14. ACD 15. D 16. A
17. A 18. C
PART – B
1. (A) – (q); (B) – (p); (C) – (s); (D) – (r)

2. (A) – (q); (B) – (r); (C) – (p); (D) – (s)

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FIITJEE PHASE TEST (JEE

Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 228

C. Marking Scheme For All Sections.

Name of the Candidate :____________________________________________

Atomic masses: H = 1, He = 4, Li = 7, Be = 9, B = 11, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, F = 19, Na = 23,

8. A heavy but uniform rope of length L is suspended from a ceiling. A particle is

(c. g .s system) then

11. For an ideal gas

13. A transverse wave is travelling along a stretched string from y

15. At t=0, change in pressure is maximum at x = …… m

16. If density of the gas is 10−3 kg / m3 , find the pressure amplitude.

18. The molar specific heat of the gas at constant pressure is

(A) (B) (C) Br (D)

Major product of this reaction by single SE( reaction):

3. Reaction of trans-2-phenyl-1-bromocyclohexane with alcoholic KOH produces:

5. The boiling point of neopentane will be more than that of:

Liq/NH3 Liq/NH3 Liq/NH3

The formed products Z, Y, X are respectively.

NHOH CH3 NH 2 CH3

8. Which of the following carbonium ion is most stable?

(A) CH 3CH 2CH 2CH 2 (B) CH 3CH 2CH 2CHCH 3

10. Which shows aromatic character?

(A) (B) (C) (D) N H

12. Bromination can take place at

13. Which of the following statements is/ are correct?

15. Identify (A)

16. O (i) AlCl3 [X] is

(A) C (CH 2)3 COOH (B) O C (CH 2)2 COOH

17. Which of the following alkene is most stable?

18. Which of the following carbocation is most stable?

1. Match the following:

Section – III (Mathematics)

4. The sum of the series 20C0 + 20C1 + 20C2 + ……… + 20C10 is

7. The values of x and y, when x + y = 2 / 3 and cos x + cos y = 3 / 2 , are respectively

9. If 2050! is divisible by 17n, then n can be

13. The value of C1 + n+1C2 + n+2C3 + .......... + n+m−1Cm is equal to

14. The square of any odd number is of the form :

15. The value of r for which 30

If (1 + x ) = C0 + C1x + C2 x2 + ....Cn xn , where n is odd, then the value of

1. Match the following statements

(B) The positive integer just greater that 1.0011000 is (q) 0

The number of words formed taking all letters at a time

FIITJEE PHASE TEST

1. (A) – (q); (B) – (p); (C) – (s); (D) – (r)

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