Chemistry All Ms p1

UNIVERSITY OF CAMBRIDGE INTERNATIONAL EXAMINATIONS
GCE Ordinary Level
MARK SCHEME for the May/June 2011 question paper

for the guidance of teachers
5070 CHEMISTRY
5070/11 Paper 1 (Multiple Choice), maximum raw mark 40
Mark schemes must be read in conjunction with the question papers and the report on the
examination.
• Cambridge will not enter into discussions or correspondence in connection with these mark schemes.
Cambridge is publishing the mark schemes for the May/June 2011 question papers for most IGCSE,
GCE Advanced Level and Advanced Subsidiary Level syllabuses and some Ordinary Level
syllabuses.
Page 2 Mark Scheme: Teachers’ version Syllabus Paper
GCE O LEVEL – May/June 2011 5070 11
Question Question
Key Key
Number Number
1 D 21 D
2 B 22 C
3 A 23 B
4 C 24 A
5 B 25 C
6 A 26 B
7 D 27 A
8 C 28 C
9 A 29 B
10 B 30 A
11 D 31 C
12 B 32 D
13 C 33 C
14 B 34 B
15 C 35 D
16 B 36 B
17 B 37 D
18 C 38 C
19 C 39 C
20 A 40 B
© University of Cambridge International Examinations 2011

GCE Ordinary Level

5070 CHEMISTRY
examination.
syllabuses.
Question Question
Key Key
Number Number
1 B 21 C
2 D 22 B
3 A 23 C
4 B 24 C
5 D 25 B
6 C 26 A
7 B 27 A
8 A 28 C
9 D 29 C
10 A 30 A
11 B 31 B
12 C 32 D
13 C 33 B
14 C 34 D
15 B 35 C
16 B 36 B
17 C 37 C
18 A 38 C
19 B 39 B
20 D 40 D

Cambridge Assessment International Education
Cambridge Ordinary Level
CHEMISTRY 5070/11
Paper 1 Multiple Choice October/November 2019
MARK SCHEME
Maximum Mark: 40
Published
This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination.
Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.
Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.
Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the October/November 2019 series for most
Cambridge IGCSE™, Cambridge International A and AS Level components and some Cambridge O Level
components.
This document consists of 3 printed pages.
© UCLES 2019 [Turn over

5070/11 Cambridge O Level – Mark Scheme October/November
PUBLISHED 2019
Question Answer Marks
1 C 1
2 B 1
3 D 1
4 C 1
5 C 1
6 B 1
7 C 1
8 A 1
9 B 1
10 A 1
11 D 1
12 C 1
13 D 1
14 B 1
15 A 1
16 B 1
17 C 1
18 D 1
19 B 1
20 C 1
21 B 1
22 A 1
23 C 1
24 B 1
25 C 1
26 A 1
27 A 1
© UCLES 2019 Page 2 of 3

PUBLISHED 2019
28 D 1
29 A 1
30 B 1
31 C 1
32 D 1
33 A 1
34 B 1
35 C 1
36 A 1
37 B 1
38 B 1
39 D 1
40 D 1

CHEMISTRY 5070/12
MARK SCHEME
Maximum Mark: 40
Published
examination.
Teachers.
components.

PUBLISHED 2019
Question Answer Mark
1 C 1
2 D 1
3 D 1
4 C 1
5 B 1
6 B 1
7 C 1
8 B 1
9 B 1
10 A 1
11 C 1
12 A 1
13 D 1
14 D 1
15 B 1
16 B 1
17 C 1
18 D 1
19 D 1
20 C 1
21 B 1
22 C 1
23 B 1
24 D 1
25 C 1
26 A 1
27 A 1
28 C 1

PUBLISHED 2019
Question Answer Mark
29 A 1
30 B 1
31 D 1
32 A 1
33 A 1
34 B 1
35 A 1
36 C 1
37 A 1
38 B 1
39 D 1
40 A 1

CHEMISTRY 5070/11
MARK SCHEME
Maximum Mark: 40
Published
examination.
Teachers.
components.

PUBLISHED 2018
1 C 1
2 C 1
3 A 1
4 B 1
5 B 1
6 B 1
7 D 1
8 C 1
9 A 1
10 C 1
11 D 1
12 C 1
13 B 1
14 A 1
15 C 1
16 A 1
17 A 1
18 D 1
19 B 1
20 B 1
21 C 1
22 D 1
23 C 1
24 A 1
25 D 1
26 A 1
27 C 1
28 C 1

PUBLISHED 2018
29 D 1
30 C 1
31 A 1
32 B 1
33 B 1
34 C 1
35 A 1
36 C 1
37 D 1
38 C 1
39 B 1
40 B 1

CHEMISTRY 5070/12
MARK SCHEME
Maximum Mark: 40
Published
examination.
Teachers.
components.

PUBLISHED 2018
1 C 1
2 B 1
3 A 1
4 B 1
5 D 1
6 B 1
7 A 1
8 A 1
9 A 1
10 D 1
11 C 1
12 C 1
13 B 1
14 A 1
15 C 1
16 A 1
17 B 1
18 D 1
19 A 1
20 B 1
21 C 1
22 A 1
23 D 1
24 D 1
25 B 1
26 A 1
27 C 1
28 D 1

PUBLISHED 2018
29 B 1
30 C 1
31 A 1
32 B 1
33 D 1
34 D 1
35 B 1
36 C 1
37 A 1
38 C 1
39 C 1
40 B 1

CHEMISTRY 5070/11
Paper 1 Multiple Choice May/June 2018
MARK SCHEME
Maximum Mark: 40
Published
examination.
Teachers.
Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the May/June 2018 series for most
Cambridge IGCSE™, Cambridge International A and AS Level and Cambridge Pre-U components, and
some Cambridge O Level components.
IGCSE™ is a registered trademark.

5070/11 Cambridge O Level – Mark Scheme May/June 2018
PUBLISHED
1 B 1
2 A 1
3 B 1
4 D 1
5 A 1
6 D 1
7 B 1
8 A 1
9 C 1
10 D 1
11 A 1
12 D 1
13 C 1
14 B 1
15 D 1
16 C 1
17 D 1
18 C 1
19 A 1
20 C 1
21 B 1
22 B 1
23 B 1
24 D 1
25 C 1
26 A 1
27 D 1
28 C 1

PUBLISHED
29 A 1
30 D 1
31 D 1
32 A 1
33 C 1
34 A 1
35 B 1
36 D 1
37 D 1
38 B 1
39 A 1
40 C 1

CHEMISTRY 5070/12
MARK SCHEME
Maximum Mark: 40
Published
examination.
Teachers.
Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the May/June 2018 series for most
Cambridge IGCSE™, Cambridge International A and AS Level and Cambridge Pre-U components, and
some Cambridge O Level components.
IGCSE™ is a registered trademark.

PUBLISHED
1 B 1
2 A 1
3 C 1
4 A 1
5 A 1
6 D 1
7 C 1
8 A 1
9 B 1
10 D 1
11 D 1
12 D 1
13 C 1
14 B 1
15 D 1
16 D 1
17 C 1
18 D 1
19 B 1
20 B 1
21 B 1
22 C 1
23 D 1
24 B 1
25 C 1
26 C 1
27 D 1
28 D 1

PUBLISHED
29 A 1
30 B 1
31 C 1
32 A 1
33 A 1
34 A 1
35 D 1
36 A 1
37 B 1
38 C 1
39 A 1
40 C 1

CHEMISTRY 5070/12
MARK SCHEME
Maximum Mark: 40
Published
examination.
Teachers.
Cambridge IGCSE®, Cambridge International A and AS Level components and some Cambridge O Level
components.
® IGCSE is a registered trademark.

PUBLISHED 2017
1 D 1
2 A 1
3 C 1
4 D 1
5 B 1
6 C 1
7 C 1
8 B 1
9 B 1
10 B 1
11 C 1
12 D 1
13 B 1
14 A 1
15 A 1
16 C 1
17 A 1
18 C 1
19 B 1
20 B 1
21 A 1
22 C 1
23 A 1
24 D 1
25 A 1
26 B 1
27 D 1
28 D 1

PUBLISHED 2017
29 C 1
30 A 1
31 D 1
32 D 1
33 B 1
34 A 1
35 B 1
36 C 1
37 A 1
38 C 1
39 C 1
40 D 1

CHEMISTRY 5070/11
MARK SCHEME
Maximum Mark: 40
Published
examination.
Teachers.
components.

PUBLISHED 2017
1 C 1
2 A 1
3 C 1
4 D 1
5 B 1
6 C 1
7 D 1
8 C 1
9 D 1
10 D 1
11 B 1
12 B 1
13 B 1
14 D 1
15 A 1
16 A 1
17 D 1
18 B 1
19 B 1
20 A 1
21 A 1
22 B 1
23 A 1
24 C 1
25 D 1
26 C 1
27 D 1
28 C 1

PUBLISHED 2017
29 C 1
30 D 1
31 D 1
32 D 1
33 B 1
34 C 1
35 C 1
36 D 1
37 C 1
38 D 1
39 C 1
40 A 1

Cambridge International Examinations
CHEMISTRY 5070/12
MARK SCHEME
Maximum Mark: 40
Published
examination.
Teachers.
Cambridge will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.
Cambridge is publishing the mark schemes for the May/June 2017 series for most Cambridge IGCSE®,
Cambridge International A and AS Level and Cambridge Pre-U components, and some Cambridge O Level
components.

PUBLISHED
1 D 1
2 C 1
3 B 1
4 C 1
5 B 1
6 D 1
7 B 1
8 A 1
9 B 1
10 A 1
11 A 1
12 C 1
13 C 1
14 D 1
15 C 1
16 A 1
17 C 1
18 A 1
19 D 1
20 A 1
21 A 1
22 C 1
23 A 1
24 B 1
25 B 1
26 C 1
27 B 1
28 D 1

PUBLISHED
29 A 1
30 D 1
31 B 1
32 B 1
33 B 1
34 C 1
35 C 1
36 B 1
37 B 1
38 B 1
39 D 1
40 C 1

Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education
CHEMISTRY 5070/11
MARK SCHEME
Maximum Mark: 40
Published
examination.
Teachers.
Cambridge International A and AS Level and Cambridge Pre-U components, and some Cambridge O Level
components.

5070/11 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme May/June 2017
PUBLISHED
1 C 1
2 C 1
3 D 1
4 C 1
5 B 1
6 B 1
7 D 1
8 A 1
9 C 1
10 B 1
11 B 1
12 C 1
13 A 1
14 B 1
15 C 1
16 D 1
17 C 1
18 C 1
19 D 1
20 C 1
21 C 1
22 A 1
23 B 1
24 D 1
25 Question discounted 1
26 D 1
27 D 1
28 A 1

5070/11 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme May/June 2017
PUBLISHED
29 D 1
30 A 1
31 C 1
32 B 1
33 A 1
34 D 1
35 A 1
36 A 1
37 C 1
38 C 1
39 D 1
40 D 1

CHEMISTRY 5070/12
MARK SCHEME
Maximum Mark: 40
Published
examination. It shows the basis on which Examiners were instructed to award marks. It does not indicate the
details of the discussions that took place at an Examiners’ meeting before marking began, which would have
considered the acceptability of alternative answers.
Teachers.
Cambridge is publishing the mark schemes for the October/November 2016 series for most
components.
® IGCSE is the registered trademark of Cambridge International Examinations.

Page 2 Mark Scheme Syllabus Paper
Cambridge O Level – October/November 2016 5070 12
Question Question
Key Key
Number Number
1 B 21 C
2 B 22 D
3 D 23 D
4 C 24 B
5 B 25 D
6 C 26 D
7 A 27 A
8 D 28 C
9 D 29 A
10 A 30 B
11 D 31 C
12 C 32 C
13 B 33 B
14 D 34 B
15 A 35 D
16 C 36 B
17 A 37 C
18 A 38 D
19 D 39 A
20 D 40 C
© UCLES 2016
CHEMISTRY 5070/11
MARK SCHEME
Maximum Mark: 40
Published
Teachers.
components.

Question Question
Key Key
Number Number
1 A 21 C
2 C 22 D
3 A 23 C
4 B 24 A
5 C 25 D
6 A 26 C
7 B 27 B
8 C 28 D
9 C 29 A
10 B 30 C
11 B 31 A
12 A 32 D
13 C 33 B
14 A 34 B
15 D 35 C
16 C 36 D
17 D 37 C
18 C 38 C
19 D 39 C
20 D 40 D
© UCLES 2016
CHEMISTRY 5070/12
MARK SCHEME
Maximum Mark: 40
Published
Teachers.
Cambridge International A and AS Level components and some Cambridge O Level components.

Cambridge O Level – May/June 2016 5070 12
Question Question
Key Key
Number Number
1 D 21 A
2 C 22 B
3 C 23 C
4 C 24 D
5 B 25 A
6 C 26 D
7 B 27 B
8 C 28 C
9 A 29 C
10 A 30 B
11 B 31 A
12 C 32 C
13 D 33 C
14 A 34 A
15 B 35 B
16 D 36 A
17 A 37 C
18 D 38 A
19 B 39 B
20 D 40 A
© Cambridge International Examinations 2016

CHEMISTRY 5070/11
MARK SCHEME
Maximum Mark: 40
Published
Teachers.
Cambridge International A and AS Level components and some Cambridge O Level components.

Cambridge O Level – May/June 2016 5070 11
Question Question
Key Key
Number Number
1 A 21 A
2 B 22 C
3 B 23 B
4 D 24 B
5 C 25 B
6 B 26 D
7 B 27 C
8 A 28 D
9 C 29 D
10 D 30 C
11 D 31 B
12 A 32 C
13 C 33 D
14 B 34 D
15 A 35 C
16 C 36 A
17 B 37 D
18 A 38 C
19 C 39 D
20 B 40 C

CAMBRIDGE INTERNATIONAL EXAMINATIONS
MARK SCHEME for the October/November 2015 series
5070 CHEMISTRY
Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner
Report for Teachers.
Cambridge IGCSE®, Cambridge International A and AS Level components and some
Cambridge O Level components.

Question Question
Key Key
Number Number
1 B 21 B
2 B 22 A
3 B 23 C
4 D 24 B
5 C 25 A
6 D 26 B
7 C 27 C
8 D 28 B
9 D 29 D
10 B 30 B
11 D 31 C
12 C 32 A
13 C 33 C
14 B 34 D
15 A 35 D
16 A 36 C
17 A 37 D
18 A 38 A
19 D 39 C
20 B 40 C
b

5070 CHEMISTRY

Question Question
Key Key
Number Number
1 C 21 C
2 B 22 C
3 A 23 D
4 C 24 B
5 C 25 A
6 B 26 C
7 D 27 C
8 B 28 D
9 D 29 C
10 D 30 C
11 B 31 A
12 A 32 B
13 B 33 C
14 B 34 D
15 A 35 A
16 B 36 A
17 B 37 C
18 A 38 C
19 B 39 B
20 A 40 D

MARK SCHEME for the May/June 2015 series
5070 CHEMISTRY
Cambridge is publishing the mark schemes for the May/June 2015 series for most
Cambridge O Level components

Cambridge O LEVEL – May/June 2015 5070 11
Question Question
Key Key
Number Number
1 B 21 B
2 B 22 D
3 C 23 D
4 C 24 B
5 D 25 C
6 C 26 D
7 B 27 A
8 A 28 A
9 A 29 D
10 D 30 A
11 D 31 C
12 B 32 B
13 A 33 B
14 C 34 C
15 D 35 B
16 A 36 B
17 B 37 C
18 D 38 D
19 C 39 A
20 C 40 C

5070 CHEMISTRY
Cambridge is publishing the mark schemes for the May/June 2015 series for most

Cambridge O LEVEL – May/June 2015 5070 12
Question Question
Key Key
Number Number
1 B 21 B
2 C 22 A
3 D 23 B
4 D 24 D
5 A 25 A
6 B 26 A
7 A 27 B
8 C 28 B
9 C 29 A
10 A 30 B
11 B 31 D
12 D 32 C
13 B 33 B
14 D 34 C
15 B 35 B
16 C 36 B
17 C 37 D
18 B 38 C
19 A 39 D
20 D 40 D

5070 CHEMISTRY
Cambridge is publishing the mark schemes for the October/November 2014 series for
most Cambridge IGCSE®, Cambridge International A and AS Level components and some

Cambridge O LEVEL – October/November 2014 5070 11
Question Question
Key Key
Number Number
1 B 21 A
2 C 22 A
3 C 23 A
4 C 24 D
5 B 25 B
6 B 26 C
7 D 27 B
8 D 28 B
9 A 29 D
10 C 30 B
11 A 31 D
12 B 32 A
13 A 33 C
14 A 34 B
15 D 35 D
16 A 36 C
17 D 37 A
18 D 38 D
19 A 39 D
20 A 40 B

5070 CHEMISTRY
Cambridge is publishing the mark schemes for the October/November 2014 series for
most Cambridge IGCSE®, Cambridge International A and AS Level components and some

Cambridge O LEVEL – October/November 2014 5070 12
Question Question
Key Key
Number Number
1 D 21 B
2 D 22 D
3 A 23 B
4 A 24 D
5 C 25 B
6 D 26 B
7 D 27 C
8 D 28 D
9 C 29 A
10 D 30 A
11 C 31 B
12 D 32 C
13 D 33 D
14 C 34 D
15 C 35 C
16 B 36 B
17 B 37 D
18 B 38 B
19 C 39 C
20 D 40 D

GCE Ordinary Level
5070 CHEMISTRY
Cambridge is publishing the mark schemes for the May/June 2014 series for most IGCSE, GCE
Advanced Level and Advanced Subsidiary Level components and some Ordinary Level components.
Question Question
Key Key
Number Number
1 B 21 D
2 D 22 C
3 B 23 C
4 B 24 A
5 B 25 B
6 C 26 A
7 A 27 B
8 D 28 B
9 D 29 C
10 B 30 B
11 B 31 A
12 D 32 A
13 A 33 A
14 C 34 D
15 A 35 A
16 D 36 B
17 A 37 A
18 D 38 C
19 B 39 B
20 D 40 D

GCE Ordinary Level
5070 CHEMISTRY
Question Question
Key Key
Number Number
1 D 21 C
2 B 22 D
3 A 23 C
4 B 24 B
5 D 25 A
6 A 26 D
7 A 27 B
8 B 28 C
9 B 29 C
10 D 30 C
11 B 31 A
12 B 32 B
13 B 33 B
14 C 34 A
15 D 35 B
16 D 36 D
17 C 37 D
18 B 38 B
19 C 39 A
20 B 40 C

GCE Ordinary Level
5070 CHEMISTRY
5070/11 (Multiple Choice), maximum raw mark 40
Cambridge is publishing the mark schemes for the October/November 2013 series for most IGCSE,
GCE Advanced Level and Advanced Subsidiary Level components and some Ordinary Level
components.
GCE O LEVEL – October/November 2013 5070 11
Question Question
Key Key
Number Number
1 B 21 C
2 A 22 A
3 B 23 B
4 C 24 D
5 B 25 C
6 D 26 C
7 C 27 D
8 B 28 D
9 B 29 D
10 D 30 A
Question
11 D 31
Removed
12 C 32 A
13 A 33 C
14 A 34 C
15 D 35 A
16 D 36 A
17 B 37 D
18 B 38 A
19 C 39 D
20 C 40 C

GCE Ordinary Level
5070 CHEMISTRY
components.
Question Question
Key Key
Number Number
1 D 21 C
Question
2 C 22
Removed
3 D 23 A
4 C 24 D
5 B 25 A
6 D 26 C
7 A 27 B
8 B 28 D
9 A 29 C
10 B 30 A
11 A 31 D
12 B 32 A
13 B 33 A
14 A 34 A
15 D 35 B
16 B 36 A
17 C 37 C
18 C 38 A
19 C 39 C
20 D 40 C

GCE Ordinary Level
5070 CHEMISTRY
Question Question
Key Key
Number Number
1 B 21 C
2 B 22 C
3 C 23 B
4 B 24 A
5 A 25 D
6 C 26 B
7 C 27 B
8 C 28 A
9 B 29 C
10 D 30 B
11 B 31 D
12 D 32 B
13 D 33 B
14 A 34 B
15 C 35 A
16 C 36 D
17 D 37 C
18 B 38 A
19 A 39 B
20 B 40 A

GCE Ordinary Level
5070 CHEMISTRY
Question Question
Key Key
Number Number
1 A 21 D
2 D 22 B
3 A 23 B
4 A 24 C
5 B 25 B
6 C 26 B
7 D 27 D
8 C 28 D
9 A 29 D
10 B 30 B
11 C 31 B
12 B 32 A
13 C 33 B
14 D 34 D
15 C 35 C
16 D 36 A
17 B 37 A
18 C 38 A
19 C 39 B
20 A 40 B

GCE Ordinary Level
5070 CHEMISTRY
components.
Question Question
Key Key
Number Number
1 C 21 D
2 B 22 C
3 B 23 A
4 D 24 D
5 B 25 A
6 A 26 B
7 B 27 D
8 B 28 A
9 B 29 C
10 D 30 D
11 C 31 C
12 C 32 B
13 B 33 C
14 C 34 D
15 A 35 B
16 B 36 C
17 C 37 C
18 B 38 C
19 A 39 A
20 D 40 A

GCE Ordinary Level
5070 CHEMISTRY
components.
Question Question
Key Key
Number Number
1 A 21 B
2 C 22 A
3 B 23 C
4 B 24 D
5 A 25 C
6 B 26 C
7 D 27 A
8 C 28 D
9 A 29 D
10 A 30 B
11 A 31 A
12 B 32 D
13 D 33 B
14 B 34 D
15 B 35 D
16 C 36 C
17 B 37 C
18 B 38 C
19 D 39 B
20 D 40 C

GCE Ordinary Level

5070 CHEMISTRY
examination.
syllabuses.
Question Question
Key Key
Number Number
1 A 21 A
2 A 22 C
3 D 23 D
4 B 24 B
5 B 25 D
6 A 26 C
7 D 27 C
8 B 28 B
9 C 29 B
10 B 30 C
11 D 31 C
12 D 32 C
13 A 33 C
14 A 34 A
15 B 35 D
16 A 36 D
17 C 37 A
18 B 38 C
19 D 39 B
20 C 40 B

GCE Ordinary Level

5070 CHEMISTRY
examination.
syllabuses.
Question Question
Key Key
Number Number
1 C 21 A
2 B 22 B
3 D 23 B
4 A 24 C
5 C 25 C
6 D 26 C
7 D 27 D
8 D 28 C
9 A 29 B
10 B 30 C
11 D 31 A
12 D 32 D
13 D 33 B
14 C 34 C
15 A 35 B
16 B 36 A
17 D 37 C
18 A 38 A
19 A 39 C
20 A 40 C

GCE Ordinary Level
MARK SCHEME for the October/November 2011 question paper

5070 CHEMISTRY
examination.
Cambridge is publishing the mark schemes for the October/November 2011 question papers for most
IGCSE, GCE Advanced Level and Advanced Subsidiary Level syllabuses and some Ordinary Level
syllabuses.
Question Question
Key Key
Number Number
1 C 21 A
2 B 22 D
3 B 23 C
4 D 24 B
5 C 25 D
6 D 26 C
7 B 27 C
8 D 28 C
9 D 29 A
10 C 30 B
11 D 31 A
12 A 32 A
13 C 33 C
14 A 34 B
15 A 35 B
16 C 36 D
17 D 37 C
18 D 38 A
19 C 39 B
20 C 40 B

GCE Ordinary Level

5070 CHEMISTRY
examination.
Cambridge is publishing the mark schemes for the October/November 2011 question papers for most
IGCSE, GCE Advanced Level and Advanced Subsidiary Level syllabuses and some Ordinary Level
syllabuses.
Question Question
Key Key
Number Number
1 B 21 C
2 B 22 D
3 C 23 C
4 D 24 C
5 B 25 B
6 D 26 C
7 C 27 D
8 C 28 A
9 D 29 C
10 D 30 B
11 A 31 C
12 D 32 A
13 C 33 A
14 A 34 A
15 A 35 C
16 C 36 B
17 D 37 D
18 D 38 B
19 C 39 B
20 A 40 B

GCE Ordinary Level

5070 CHEMISTRY
examination.
syllabuses.
Question Question
Key Key
Number Number
1 D 21 D
2 B 22 C
3 A 23 B
4 C 24 A
5 B 25 C
6 A 26 B
7 D 27 A
8 C 28 C
9 A 29 B
10 B 30 A
11 D 31 C
12 B 32 D
13 C 33 C
14 B 34 B
15 C 35 D
16 B 36 B
17 B 37 D
18 C 38 C
19 C 39 C
20 A 40 B

GCE Ordinary Level

5070 CHEMISTRY
examination.
• CIE will not enter into discussions or correspondence in connection with these mark schemes.
CIE is publishing the mark schemes for the October/November 2010 question papers for most IGCSE,
syllabuses.
Question Question
Key Key
Number Number
1 A 21 B
2 C 22 B
3 C 23 B
4 B 24 C
5 B 25 B
6 B 26 C
7 A 27 A
8 C 28 D
9 A 29 A
10 C 30 A
11 C 31 B
12 C 32 C
13 D 33 A
14 C 34 D
15 B 35 C
16 A 36 C
17 B 37 B
18 D 38 D
19 D 39 D
20 A 40 C
© UCLES 2010
GCE Ordinary Level

5070 CHEMISTRY
examination.
syllabuses.
Question Question
Key Key
Number Number
1 B 21 A
2 A 22 C
3 B 23 B
4 C 24 B
5 B 25 B
6 C 26 C
7 A 27 D
8 C 28 A
9 C 29 A
10 A 30 B
11 C 31 C
12 D 32 A
13 C 33 D
14 A 34 B
15 C 35 A
16 B 36 C
17 D 37 C
18 B 38 C
19 B 39 D
20 D 40 D
© UCLES 2010
GCE Ordinary Level

5070 CHEMISTRY
examination.
CIE is publishing the mark schemes for the May/June 2010 question papers for most IGCSE, GCE
Advanced Level and Advanced Subsidiary Level syllabuses and some Ordinary Level syllabuses.
Question Question
Key Key
Number Number
1 C 21 D
2 B 22 B
3 D 23 D
4 B 24 A
5 C 25 D
6 B 26 D
7 A 27 D
8 C 28 A
9 A 29 B
10 D 30 D
11 A 31 D
12 C 32 B
13 D 33 D
14 C 34 B
15 D 35 C
16 A 36 C
17 B 37 C
18 D 38 B
19 B 39 D
20 C 40 B
© UCLES 2010
GCE Ordinary Level

5070 CHEMISTRY
examination.
Question Question
Key Key
Number Number
1 B 21 B
2 B 22 C
3 C 23 D
4 D 24 D
5 C 25 D
6 A 26 D
7 C 27 A
8 B 28 D
9 D 29 B
10 A 30 D
11 A 31 B
12 C 32 A
13 D 33 B
14 A 34 D
15 D 35 C
16 C 36 B
17 B 37 C
18 B 38 C
19 D 39 D
20 D 40 B
© UCLES 2010
GCE Ordinary Level

5070 CHEMISTRY
examination.
syllabuses.
Question Question
Key Key
Number Number
1 B 21 B
2 A 22 B
3 B 23 C
4 B 24 B
5 D 25 D
6 A 26 C
7 A 27 B
8 C 28 C
9 D 29 B
10 C 30 D
11 A 31 B
12 A 32 C
13 D 33 B
14 D 34 B
15 C 35 B
16 D 36 C
17 A 37 C
18 A 38 C
19 B 39 A
20 C 40 D
© UCLES 2009
GCE Ordinary Level

5070 CHEMISTRY
examination.
Question Question
Key Key
Number Number
1 B 21 B
2 D 22 A
3 B 23 D
4 C 24 D
5 B 25 B
6 D 26 C
7 A 27 D
8 A 28 A
9 A 29 D
10 B 30 A
11 D 31 A
12 C 32 D
13 D 33 B
14 D 34 B
15 C 35 B
16 B 36 A
17 B 37 C
18 A 38 C
19 D 39 B
20 D 40 A
© UCLES 2009
GCE Ordinary Level
5070 CHEMISTRY
examination.
syllabuses.
Question Question
Key Key
Number Number
1 C 21 C
2 B 22 B
3 B 23 D
4 B 24 B
5 D 25 A
6 C 26 C
7 A 27 D
8 B 28 D
9 A 29 A
10 B 30 B
11 A 31 A
12 D 32 B
13 C 33 C
14 D 34 A
15 D 35 B
16 C 36 D
17 B 37 A
18 D 38 A
19 B 39 D
20 D 40 C
© UCLES 2008
GCE Ordinary Level
5070 CHEMISTRY
examination.
Question Question
Key Key
Number Number
1 D 21 D
2 B 22 D
3 A 23 D
4 B 24 D
5 B 25 A
6 A 26 C
7 B 27 C
8 C 28 D
9 D 29 D
10 C 30 C
11 D 31 C
12 C 32 D
13 D 33 C
14 D 34 C
15 A 35 D
16 B 36 B
17 B 37 B
18 C 38 B
19 D 39 A
20 C 40 A
© UCLES 2008
GCE Ordinary Level
5070 CHEMISTRY
examination.
syllabuses.
Question Question
Key Key
Number Number
1 D 21 B
2 D 22 B
3 D 23 A
4 B 24 B
5 A 25 B
6 A 26 D
7 B 27 B
8 C 28 A
9 C 29 C
10 C 30 D
11 A 31 A
12 D 32 C
13 B 33 B
14 A 34 C
15 A 35 B
16 B 36 B
17 C 37 C
18 A 38 C
19 C 39 C
20 D 40 D
© UCLES 2007
GCE Ordinary Level
5070 CHEMISTRY
examination.
Question Question
Key Key
Number Number
1 B 21 D
2 B 22 B
3 C 23 D
4 C 24 D
5 D 25 B
6 A 26 B
7 C 27 C
8 B 28 B
9 A 29 C
10 A 30 B
11 A 31 C
12 C 32 B
13 D 33 C
14 B 34 B
15 A 35 D
16 C 36 C
17 D 37 D
18 A 38 A
19 C 39 A
20 A 40 D
© UCLES 2007
GCE Ordinary Level
5070 CHEMISTRY
This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and students, to indicate the requirements of the
examination. It shows the basis on which Examiners were instructed to award marks. It does not
indicate the details of the discussions that took place at an Examiners’ meeting before marking began.
All Examiners are instructed that alternative correct answers and unexpected approaches in
candidates’ scripts must be given marks that fairly reflect the relevant knowledge and skills
demonstrated.
examination.
The grade thresholds for various grades are published in the report on the examination for most
IGCSE, GCE Advanced Level and Advanced Subsidiary Level syllabuses.
syllabuses.
GCE O LEVEL - OCT/NOV 2006 5070 01
Question Question
Key Key
Number Number
1 D 21 C
2 C 22 B
3 C 23 C
4 C 24 B
5 B 25 A
6 A 26 D
7 B 27 A
8 B 28 C
9 D 29 D
10 C 30 A
11 B 31 D
12 B 32 B
13 B 33 B
14 B 34 A
15 D 35 B
16 B 36 D
17 A 37 C
18 C 38 B
19 A 39 D
20 A 40 A
© UCLES 2006
GCE O Level
5070 CHEMISTRY
5070/01 Paper 1 – Multiple Choice maximum raw mark 40
examination. It shows the basis on which Examiners were initially instructed to award marks.
Mark schemes must be read in conjunction with the question papers and the Report on the
Examination.
• CIE will not enter into discussion or correspondence in connection with these mark schemes.
CIE is publishing the mark schemes for the May/June 2006 question papers for most IGCSE and
syllabuses.
GCE O Level – May/June 2006 5070 01
Question Question
Key Key
Number Number
1 A 21 A
2 C 22 C
3 B 23 D
4 A 24 B
5 A 25 B
6 C 26 B
7 B 27 B
8 D 28 A
9 D 29 B
10 D 30 A
11 D 31 D
12 D 32 C
13 C 33 D
14 D 34 C
15 D 35 B
16 B 36 C
17 B 37 C
18 D 38 C
19 A 39 B
20 D 40 D

General Certificate of Education O Level
MARK SCHEME for the November 2005 question paper
5070 CHEMISTRY
5070/01 Paper 1 (Multiple Choice), maximum mark 40
Examination.
CIE is publishing the mark schemes for the November 2005 question papers for most IGCSE and
syllabuses’.
O LEVEL – NOVEMBER 2005 5070 1
Question Question
Key Key
Number Number
1 A 21 C
2 C 22 B
3 B 23 C
4 A 24 D
5 A 25 D
6 C 26 D
7 D 27 A
8 D 28 D
9 C 29 A
10 C 30 D
11 A 31 C
12 A 32 B
13 A 33 D
14 A 34 D
15 C 35 B
16 C 36 B
17 C 37 A
18 C 38 D
19 B 39 A
20 A 40 C

MARK SCHEME for the June 2005 question paper
5070 CHEMISTRY
Examination.
CIE is publishing the mark schemes for the June 2005 question papers for most IGCSE and GCE
Advanced Level and Advanced Subsidiary Level syllabuses and some Ordinary Level syllabuses’.
JUNE 2005
GCE O Level
MARK SCHEME
MAXIMUM MARK: 40
SYLLABUS/COMPONENT: 5070/01
CHEMISTRY
Paper 1 (Multiple Choice)
O LEVEL – JUNE 2005 5070 1
Question Question
Key Key
Number Number
1 D 21 D
2 A 22 A
3 C 23 C
4 D 24 A
5 B 25 A
6 A 26 D
7 B 27 A
8 A 28 C
9 B 29 C
10 D 30 D
11 D 31 B
12 D 32 D
13 B 33 C
14 A 34 B
15 D 35 D
16 B 36 C
17 D 37 A
18 A 38 B
19 A 39 D
20 A 40 A

MARK SCHEME for the November 2004 question paper
5070 CHEMISTRY
examination. It shows the basis on which Examiners were initially instructed to award marks. It does
not indicate the details of the discussions that took place at an Examiners’ meeting before marking
began. Any substantial changes to the mark scheme that arose from these discussions will be
recorded in the published Report on the Examination.
demonstrated.
Examination.
CIE is publishing the mark schemes for the November 2004 question papers for most IGCSE and
GCE Advanced Level syllabuses.
NOVEMBER 2004
GCE O Level
MARK SCHEME
MAXIMUM MARK: 40
CHEMISTRY
O LEVEL – NOVEMBER 2004 5070 1
Question Question
Key Key
Number Number
1 D 21 B
2 C 22 C
3 B 23 D
4 A 24 A
5 C 25 C
6 C 26 B
7 C 27 D
8 D 28 A
9 D 29 A
10 A 30 A
11 A 31 B
12 A 32 A
13 C 33 A
14 C 34 A
15 A 35 C
16 B 36 D
17 D 37 C
18 C 38 A
19 D 39 C
20 C 40 B

GCE O Level
MARK SCHEME for the June 2004 question papers
5070 CHEMISTRY
5070/02 Paper 2 (Theory 1), maximum raw mark 75
5070/03 Paper 3 (Practical 1), maximum raw mark 40
5070/04 Paper 4 (Theory 2 (A2 Core)), maximum raw mark 60
These mark schemes are published as an aid to teachers and students, to indicate the
requirements of the examination. They show the basis on which Examiners were initially
instructed to award marks. They do not indicate the details of the discussions that took place
at an Examiners’ meeting before marking began. Any substantial changes to the mark
scheme that arose from these discussions will be recorded in the published Report on the
Examination.
demonstrated.
Examination.
• CIE will not enter into discussion or correspondence in connection with these mark
schemes.
CIE is publishing the mark schemes for the June 2004 question papers for most IGCSE and
GCE Advanced Level syllabuses.
June 2004
GCE O LEVEL
MARK SCHEME
MAXIMUM MARK: 40
CHEMISTRY
CHEMISTRY – JUNE 2004 5070 1
Question Question
Key Key
Number Number
1 B 21 A
2 B 22 B
3 B 23 D
4 B 24 D
5 D 25 C
6 B 26 B
7 D 27 D
8 B 28 B
9 A 29 D
10 C 30 B
11 B 31 A
12 D 32 A
13 C 33 B
14 B 34 C
15 C 35 C
16 D 36 C
17 D 37 D
18 B 38 C
19 A 39 C
20 C 40 A
Total = 40

June 2004
GCE O LEVEL
MARK SCHEME
MAXIMUM MARK: 75
CHEMISTRY
Paper 2 (Theory 1)
KEY
a semi colon ; indicates a separation of marking points
an oblique line / indicates alternative wording or acceptable alternative
R means reject
A means accept
AW means 'alternative wording'
underlined with a accept this word only, no alternative word is

straight line acceptable
D represents quality mark(s) awarded for diagrams, as

indicated on the Mark Scheme
L represents mark(s) awarded for labels on diagrams,

as indicated on the Mark Scheme
Q represents quality of expression and is used for marks

awarded on free-response questions
Section A Maximum 45 marks
A.1 four names at {1} each penalise correct formulae once only
(a) methane
(b) potassium nitrate
(c) potassium nitrate or lead(II) nitrate allow just lead nitrate
(d) phosphorus oxide or sulphur dioxide
__________________________________________________________________
total [4]

A.2
(a) first line K 39 p =19, e = 19, n = 20 {1}

second line K 40 p =19, e = 19, n = 21 {1}
{2}
…………………………………………………………………………………………..
(b) any two from:
floats melts silvery ball runs around lilac flame

{2}
…………………………………………………………………………………………
(c)
(i) 0.195/39 = 0.005 mol K hence
mol OH– = 0.005 {1}
(ii) mol H+ = 0.010 {1}
(iii) ionic equation {1}
H+ + OH– → H2O
ignore any state symbols
(iv) pH is 1 to 4 {1}
because an excess of HCl present {1}
or an extra 0.005 mol acid present
{4} on Q. paper, but {5}
…………………………………………………………………………………………
(d) potassium ion has 2. 8. 8 and +1 charge {1}
oxide ion has 2. 8 and – 2 charge {1}
{2}
__________________________________________________________________
total [12]
___________________________________________________________________

A.3
(a) marks only for the reasons for the choice of poly(propene)
if any other polymer chosen, {0} for the section
useable temp. is above 100 °C {1}

insoluble in oil {1}
{2}
………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) polythene used for cling film plastic bags etc. {1}
{1}
……………………………………………………………………………………….
(c) any two problems from
non-biodegradable litter filling landfill sites

burning gives toxic gases
{2}
…………………………………………………………………………………………
(d) structure of poly(propene)
correct repeat unit {1}

shows continuation {1}
{2}
……………………………………………………………………………………………
(e)
(i) ester linkage {1}
(ii) fats lipids {1}

{2}
…………………………………………………………………………………………..
(f) nylon structure {1}
allow protein or nylon 6

{1}
__________________________________________________________________
total [10]

A.4
(a)
(i) equation {1}
N2 + O2 → 2 NO
(ii) more collisions per unit volume {1}

or more crowded molecules
(ii) faster molecules {1}

hence more frequent collisions {1}
{4}
…………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) incomplete combustion {1}

{1}
………………………………………………………………………………………….
(c)
(i) equation {1}
2 NO + 2 CO º 2 CO2 + N2
ignore state symbols
(ii) powder has a large surface area {1}

hence faster reaction {1}
{3}
…………………………………………………………………………………………
__________________________________________________________________
total [8]

A.5
(a)
(i) copper is below hydrogen in the activity series
or Cu2+ gains electrons
or Cu2+ is reduced more easily than H+ {1}
(ii) oxidation is electron loss

or oxidation state of oxygen increases (1}
(iii) equation {1}
Cu → Cu2+ + 2 e–
{3}
…………………………………………………………………………………………..
(b)
(i) in solid ions cannot move {1}
in melt ions can move {1}
(ii) cathode Pb2+ + 2 e– → 2 Pb {1}

anode 2 Br– → Br2 {1}
allow {1} if equations reversed
{4}
__________________________________________________________________
total [7]

A.6
(a) covalent {1}

………………………………………………………………………………………….
(b)
(i) both are giant structures or macromolecules {1}
many strong bonds to break {1}
(ii) graphite has fewer strong bonds to break {1}

{3}
…………………………………………………………………………………………..
(c) graphite conducts, diamond does not {1}

delocalised electrons in graphite {1}
{2}
…………………………………………………………………………………………..
__________________________________________________________________
total [6]
___________________________________________________________________
Section A. score any 45 from 46

Section B
B.7
(a) bond formation is exothermic {1}

bond breaking is endothermic {1}
more energy released than absorbed {1}
{3}
…………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) diagram shows:
labelled reactant above labelled product. {1}

activation energy correctly labelled {1}
enthalpy change correctly labelled {1}
{3}
…………………………………………………………………………………………..
(c) note that units are not required

in (ii) & (iii) some working required to score both
(i) finish at 35 ± 1 {1}
(ii) mols of O 2 is 60/24000 {1}

= 0.00250 {1}
(iii) mols of H2O2 = 2x0.0025 = 0.0050 {1}

conc. of H2O2 = 20x0.0050 = 0.10 {1}
{5}
___________________________________________________________________
score any [10] from [11]

B.8
(a)
(i) equation {1}
2 NiS + 3 O2 → 2 NiO + 2 SO2
(ii) (59 + 32) kg NiS forms (32 + 32) kg SO2 {1}

182 kg NiS forms 182x64/91 = 128 kg SO2 {1}
{3}
…………………………………………………………………………………………..
(b) it is covalent {1}

because low b.p. {1}
shows small forces present {1}
{3}
…………………………………………………………………………………………..
(c) compound and problem both needed {1}

e.g.
SO2 causes acid rain or an effect of acid rain
CO2 causes greenhouse effect or an effect of warming
CO is toxic
{1}
…………………………………………………………………………………………
(d) used in hydrogenation of alkenes {1}

{1}
………………………………………………………………………………………….
(e) Ni + Zn(NO3)2 no reaction {1}

Ni + Cu(NO3)2 soln changes blue to green
and/or pink solid {1}
an equation {1}
Zn + Ni2+ → Zn2+ + Ni
Zn + Cu2+ → Zn2+ + Cu
Ni + Cu2+ → Ni2+ + Cu
{3}
___________________________________________________________________

B.9
(a) equation {1}
C12H26 → C2H4 + C10H22 et.al.

{1}
…………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) ethene diagram {1}

{1}
………………………………………………………………………………………….
(c) mols C = 0.72/12 = 0.06 all three

mols H = 0.18/1 = 0.18 needed
mols O = 0.96/16 = 0.06 for {1}
formula is C6H18O6 {1}

hence empirical is CH3O {1}
{3}
…………………………………………………………………………………………
(d) react with steam {1}
using phosphoric acid {1}

and one of 300 ° to 600 °C; 60 to 80 atmos. {1}
just heat, pressure, catalyst scores {1} only

{3}
…………………………………………………………………………………………
(e)
(i) colour changes from orange to blue/green {1}
structure of ethanoic acid {1}
allow full structure

or condensed versions e.g. CH3CO2H; CH3COOH
(ii) product structure {1}
(CO2H)2 or (CHO)2
or HOCH2.CO2H
{3}
___________________________________________________________________

B.10
(a) no mark for Fe3O4 alone
% Fe’s are Fe2O3 122/160 = 70.0 {1}

Fe3O4 168/232 = 74.4 {1}
FeCO3 56/126 = 48.2 {1}
{3}
…………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) four equations plus four statements at {1} each

allow statements using oxidation states
C + O2 → CO2
C oxidised and O2 reduced
C + CO2 → 2 CO
C oxidised and CO2 reduced
Fe2O3 + 3 CO → 2 Fe + 3 CO2
Fe2O3 reduced and CO oxidised
Fe2O3 + 3 C → 2 Fe + 3 CO
Fe2O3 reduced and C oxidised
{4}
…………………………………………………………………………………………
(c) metals have +ve ions in sea of electrons {1}

ions can slide around {1}
{2}
…………………………………………………………………………………………
(d) low carbon gives softer/more malleable steel {1}

carbon disrupts the packing {1}
{2}
___________________________________________________________________

June 2004
GCE O LEVEL
MARK SCHEME
MAXIMUM MARK: 40
CHEMISTRY
Paper 3 (Practical 1)

1 Maximum 20 marks
(a) 3 marks for each reading within 1°C of the Supervisor’s value. (12)
1 mark for each reading within 2°C of the Supervisor’s value.
Any subtraction error (-1), but give the ‘accuracy’ mark on the corrected
value.
(b) 1 mark for plotting all the points correctly, tolerance one small square. (4)
Give one mark for two straight lines that intersect, provided that the first
two points are used for one of the lines and the second two points for the
second line.
Give 1 mark for each straight line which has been extrapolated so that it
passes through the ‘origin’.
Curves score zero
(c) Highest temperature from the graph. This must be from the point of (1)
intersection of the two straight lines.
(d) Corresponding values for the volume of P and Q (both correct). (1)
Candidates who fail to score in (c) can score in (d), provided the values
correspond to the temperature given in (c).
(e) Concentration of sodium hydroxide in Q. (2)

Method (1) answer (1)
Candidates who give the incorrect volumes in (d) can score

consequentially.
There are no marks for the correct evaluation of an incorrect expression,

answers are required correct to two significant figures.
Candidates with the correct answer but no working score (1).

Solution S (copper sulphate + ammonia)

Test 1 Blue ppt (1)
Ppt turns brown or black (1)
Gas turns litmus blue (1)
Ammonia produced (1)
allow solid, suspension, powder but not substance, particles, deposit, residue,
sediment, gelatinous, insoluble for precipitate
Test 2 blue ppt [ppt (1) colour (1)] (2)
soluble in excess acid (1)

blue solution (1)
allow colourless or pale green or blue
Test 3 White ppt [ppt (1) colour (1)] (2)
Insoluble in acid (1)

Dark blue solution becomes paler or colourless (1)
Blue ppt turns to a white ppt scores (2)
Test 4 Pale blue ppt allow any colour of ppt or even turns cloudy etc (1)
Soluble in excess (1)

Colourless or pale blue solution (1)
Test 5 No reaction
White ppt (2)

Brown or yellow solution (2)
Give one mark each for ppt and brown/yellow and an additional mark for
linking white to the ppt and brown/yellow to the solution
Solution becomes colourless or white ppt (1)
Conclusion
The ions are SO42-
requires a ppt in Test 3 which does not dissolve when acid is added
NH4+
requires ammonia named or tested for in Test 1
Cu2+ Any two ions to score, (-1 for names)
All points to score up to a paper mark of 40.

June 2004
GCE A LEVEL
MARK SCHEME
MAXIMUM MARK: 60
CHEMISTRY
Paper 4 (Theory 2 (A2 Core))
1 (a) Pippette (1)

(b) Saftey bulb (1)
(c) To prevent liquid entering the mouth (1) [3]
2 (a) It is flammable or very reactive with oxygen or water in the air (1)
(b) Hydrogen (1) pops in a flame (1)
(c) Sodium moves around the surface, inflames, dissolves, reacts violently.
[Any two (2)]
(d) Sodium hydroxide (1)
(e) Blue (1)
(f) 2Na + 2H20 2NaOH + H2 [balanced (1)]
(or balanced reaction based on half quantities) [8]
3 (a) Syringe (1)

(b) Turns lime water milky (1)
(c) (i) 0.005 (ii) 0.01 (1) (iii) No (1)
reaction shows that one mole of calcium carbonate requires two moles
of hydrochloric acid (1).
(d) 0.005 x 24 = 0.12dm3 (1)
(e) 0.12dm3 (1) Magnesium carbonate (0.0059 moles) will be in excess thus
volume of CO2 will be based on HCl as before (1). [9]
4 to 8 (b), (a), (c), (b), (d) 1 mark each [4]
9 (a) 6.96 g (1)

(b) colourless or green to pink or purple (1)
(c) 25.9 48.6 32.4 1 mark for each
0.0 23.3 6.9 correct row or
_25.9 _25.3 _25.5 column (3)
Mean value = 25.4 cm3 (1)
(d) 0.000508 (1) (e) 0.00254 (1)

(f) 0.0254 (1) (g) 3.86 g (1)
(h) 3.10 g (1) (i) 0.172 g (1)
[13]
10 1 coloured solution (1)

2 blue precipitate (1) insoluble in excess (1)
3 blue precipitate (1) soluble in excess (1) forming a DEEP blue solution (1)
4 dilute nitric acid (1) aqueous silver nitrate (1) white precipitate (1)
Formula CuCl2 (1)

11 (a) (i) 0.46 g (1) (ii) 36.3 and 25.8 (1) rise in T = 10.5 (1)
(b) (i)
H H H H
| | | |
H -C – C – C – C – O - H
(1)
| | | |
H H H H
(ii) 74 (1)
(iii) 0.0062 moles (1)
(iv) 1693 kJ/mol (1)
(c) points correctly plotted (1), smooth curve (1).

(d) (i) 0.062 g (1) (please read candidate’s graph)
(ii)
H H H
| | | (1)
H–C-C–C-H
| | |
H O H
|
H
(e) To eliminate error due to heat losses,

to standardize the experiment or act as a control etc (1)
[12]

5070 Chemistry November 2003
CONTENTS
CHEMISTRY ....................................................................................................................... 2
GCE Ordinary Level ........................................................................................................................................ 2
Paper 5070/01 Multiple Choice ..................................................................................................................... 2
Paper 5070/02 Theory................................................................................................................................... 3
Paper 5070/03 Paper 3 – Practical Test ....................................................................................................... 7
Paper 5070/04 Alternative to Practical .......................................................................................................... 8
FOREWORD
This booklet contains reports written by Examiners on the work of candidates in certain papers. Its contents
are primarily for the information of the subject teachers concerned.
1
CHEMISTRY
GCE Ordinary Level
Paper 5070/01
Multiple Choice
Question Question
Key Key
Number Number
1 D 21 A
2 A 22 C
3 A 23 A
4 D 24 C
5 B 25 A
6 C 26 C
7 B 27 C
8 C 28 C
9 D 29 B
10 C 30 D
11 A 31 A
12 C 32 A
13 A 33 D
14 D 34 B
15 B 35 A
16 D 36 D
17 D 37 D
18 D 38 D
19 B 39 D
20 D 40 A
General comments
One question in particular, Question 25, proved a real stumbling block and guessing was widespread
amongst the candidates. All the other questions discriminated well between the candidates. Only two
questions, Question 1 and Question 7 had success rates of over eighty percent, and even then they
discriminated well between the successful and the less successful candidates.
Comments on specific questions
Question 6
Almost one third of the entry thought, incorrectly, that alternative D was correct. The question was testing
the knowledge that the number of protons in an atom is equal to the number of electrons.
Question 9
Methane is a molecule consisting of a carbon atom bonded by four covalent bonds to four hydrogen atoms.
Hence the number of electrons involved in covalent bonding, in methane, is 4 x 2 = 8.
2
Question 16
The large number of candidates that chose B did not realise that it is bond breaking that absorbs energy, nor
did they realise that bond breaking and bond making must both be considered when working out the energy
change in a reaction.
Question 19
Sodium chloride is a neutral salt and when dissolved in water or hydrochloric acid it does not change the pH
of the original solution. The neutralisation of hydrochloric acid by sodium hydroxide is how sodium chloride
is prepared in the laboratory.
Question 30
Concentrated aqueous ammonia always smells of ammonia gas i.e. it is always giving off ammonia. The
solubility of gases decreases with increase in temperature, therefore on heating, aqueous ammonia gives off
more ammonia and thus the very popular alternative A was incorrect.
Question 33
Alternative A was too strong a distractor with over half the candidates choosing this alternative.
Question 36
Almost all the candidates knew that compounds containing a carbon-carbon double bond decolourise
bromine water, thus alternatives C and D were very popular. The realisation that an acid with sodium
carbonate always produces carbon dioxide led the candidates to the answer D.
Paper 5070/02
Theory
General comments
A broad range of achievement was seen across the cohort of candidates assessed, but most candidates
gave performances in the lower mark range. A very small minority of individuals gained very high marks.
The Section B questions proved very challenging for most candidates. Many did not attempt all the
available part questions but left areas of blanks on their Papers.
In Section A, a crossword was used for Al for the first time on this Paper. All candidates knew how to enter
words on the crossword, but some failed to realise the importance of checking spellings (element spellings
are all given on the Periodic Table on the back page). Wrongly spelt words in a crossword do not score.
A common reason scoring poorly in questions that demand explanations was that many candidates gave
general answers, sometimes clearly learned by heart. If the question asks for an explanation of a process, it
is important that the candidates deal specifically with the context given, rather than talking in vague terms
only. A general answer is unlikely to gain full marks because it does not show that the candidate can apply
their knowledge. This occurred, for example, in Section A Question 2 (e) and Section B Question 10 (b).
In calculations, it was noticed this year that some candidates round up answers to 2 or 3 significant figures in
the middle of calculations and carry their rounded value forward. This can lead to a significant error in the
final numerical value calculated. Answers are accepted as fully correct if they are given to two or more
significant figures, but candidates should not round up in the middle of their working.
Areas of the Syllabus that are well understood include energy level diagrams, diffusion rates of gases, dot
and cross diagrams and metal bonding and properties.
Candidates’ skills in predicting observations have improved steadily over recent years. Areas of the Syllabus
that were less well understood included writing ionic equations, calculations (particularly percentage yield)
and strong and weak acids.
3
Section A
Question A1
Most candidates scored at least three marks. Candidates should note that when entering answers in a
crossword, the spelling must be correct. A common error was the misspelling of fluorine as ‘flourine’. Some
weak candidates gave ‘metals’ as positively charged ion, rather than ‘cation’, and some called the
sub-atomic particle a ‘neutral’ rather than a ‘neutron’.
Question A2
Most knew the formula of ammonia and could correctly calculate molecular mass for (a). Some gave
‘hydrochloric acid’ instead of the correct ‘hydrogen chloride’ as the name for HCl, failing to recognise that the
table contained gases not solutions. Others gave wrong names such as ‘hydrochloride’. Almost all gained
some credit in the rest of the question. A common error was giving chlorine as the gas that turned litmus
red.
For (e), some candidates gave general answers, such as, ‘lighter gases travel faster’, rather than applying
their understanding to the process in the question. A better answer was ‘ammonia gas is lighter and so
travels faster’. A candidate giving the latter answer has applied their knowledge to the context and is
showing a higher level of achievement.
Question A3
Most candidates completed the table correctly. Common errors were giving ‘C3H5OH’ as the formula of
propane, implying that they had not read the information carefully, and ‘cracking’ as the process of
manufacture of propane from crude oil. The calculation for (b) proved difficult for many candidates. A
common error was to work in moles only, rather than comparing energy values per kilogram as the question
asked. For (c) most candidates focused on the ease of use of ethanol as a fuel due to its liquid nature.
Some made vague references to ‘less polluting’ which did not score. Few recognised that ethanol is a
renewable fuel whereas propane is not. The energy level diagram was very well completed, but some
candidates did not follow the question instruction which asked for the names of products, and gave only
formulae.
Question A4
Metallic bonding and properties are clearly very well understood by candidates; they scored well on this
question. Some lost marks by lack of precision in their answers e.g. ‘electrons carry charge’ does not
explain conduction, candidates needed to state clearly that the electrons move. Some gave chemical
properties rather than physical for (b) e.g. ‘coloured compounds’. Most read the graph to gain two marks,
but some reversed the boiling point and melting point. Some candidates thought that the tungsten would
melt just above its melting point e.g. ‘at 3450 °C’. A mark was deducted here if the units were omitted from
the answers.
Question A5
Most answered (a) and (b) correctly. Part (c) was poorly answered, with many candidates struggling to
correctly write the ionic equation. Common errors included:
• incorrect charges on ions e.g. Mg+ or Ag+;

• giving an unbalanced equation;
• omitting state symbols;
• giving a full equation.
(c)(ii) was answered well. Candidates are now scoring much better than in previous years in questions that
ask for observations to be predicted. Some, however, failed to score by describing the formation of a
precipitate.
4
Question A6
Many candidates attempted to draw covalent, rather than ionic, structures for sodium oxide. Some omitted
the charges from the ions. The equation in (b) was usually correct. The calculation proved less accessible.
Most correctly calculated that 62 g of sodium oxide contain one mole, but fewer managed to correctly apply
the reacting ratio to calculate the concentration.
Question A7
This question was the least well answered of the Section A questions. In (a), Examiners allowed ‘error
carried forward’ so an incorrect molecular formula could still score if the empirical formula followed logically
from it. Many candidates did not know the difference between empirical and molecular formulae. Linking
properties of phosphorus oxide to its structure and bonding proved problematic for most candidates. Most
recognised that non-metal oxides are acidic. Far fewer linked the low melting point of phosphorus(III) oxide
to its simple molecular structure. Many gave the reason that the ‘bonding is covalent’, which was not enough
to score because giant covalent structures have high melting points. Most candidates correctly linked the
covalent nature of the bonding to its non-conduction, but some talked in vague terms about ‘no electrons
available’.
Question A8
The marks awarded for this question showed a very broad spread of achievement. Candidates had difficulty
with both the chemistry of reaction rates and with the percentage calculation in (d). In (a) most gained a
single mark for commenting on the fall in mass differences between readings. Only very able candidates
commented explicitly on a decrease in rate by linking mass lost to time. A range of methods of doing this
were accepted, including:
• a mathematical calculation of rate per minute;

• a comment about ‘per unit time’;
• recognition that the readings were taken at regular (or 4 minute) intervals.
Some candidates confused the units, mixing seconds and minutes in their answers. In part (b) several
common errors were seen. Firstly, many candidates described why the reaction stops rather than slows
down, e.g. by commenting on the acid being ‘used up’. Less able candidates talked about the amount of
acid decreasing. Few recognised that the important point is that the concentration of acid is falling, leading
to a decrease in rate. Some thought that the surface area of the sandstone was the limiting factor. Many
candidates gave a general answer that did not link to the specific reaction involved. They talked in general
terms about ‘fewer particles colliding’ but did not link this to the sandstone and acid involved in this context.
Such answers can only gain partial credit, because the candidates have not shown that they can apply their
knowledge to the context of the question.
Part (c) was well answered, with most candidates choosing to collect their gas in a gas syringe. However,
many candidates had difficulty with the calculation in (d). Only more able candidates realised that the mass
lost was due to carbon dioxide gas evolved. Those who did not realise this could not complete the part
question. Partial credit was given if the answer showed understanding of working out percentages from
masses, allowing an error carried forward on incorrectly calculated mass values.
5
Section B
Question B9
This question gave generally high marks. Poor choice of words sometimes lost marks in (a), e.g. ‘the oxygen
dissolves the graphite anode’. Many did not clearly state that it was the oxygen evolved in the process that
reacts with the graphite, implying that the oxygen was from air. A large number failed in attempting to write
the ionic equation for the formation of oxygen. Common errors included:
• starting with OH instead of an oxide ion;

• giving an unbalanced equation e.g. O2→O2+2℮;
• giving the wrong number of electrons;
• putting the electrons on the left hand side.
Parts (b) and (c) were very well answered. Candidates understand the role of cryolite in the process, and
know the uses and properties of aluminium very well. In (d), almost all candidates knew that there is an
oxide layer that protects aluminium, but the differences in observations were less commonly correct.
Common errors included thinking that both strips would produce bubbles or that the elements in the
sandpaper would react with the acid. Most correctly deduced the oxidation state change, but some gave an
ionic equation instead. This did not gain any marks because it does not state the oxidation numbers
involved.
Question B10
This was the least popular choice of the optional questions. In (a) most candidates described acids as
containing H+ ions, but fewer knew that salts contain metal cations. The equation in (b) was very well done
by all but the weakest candidates, but fewer could give two other formulae for salts. Many repeated
NaH2PO3 which was the salt given in the question. The definitions of strong and weak acids usually scored
one of the available two marks for recognising that sulphuric acid is more fully dissociated than ethanoic acid
in solution. Fewer stated that sulphuric acid dissociates fully.
Part (c)(ii) was an opportunity for candidates to apply their knowledge to a new, problem solving situation. A
wide variety of answers was seen and most revealed that many candidates only have a partial understanding
of the differences between strong and weak acids. Some lost all marks by choosing to measure pH, in spite
of the instruction ‘other than measuring pH’ which appeared in the question. Others confused acid strength
with acid concentration, choosing to carry out a titration or measure the amount of gas produced by a
reaction with a metal or carbonate. The best answers carried out experiments to measure rate by the
collection of gas at time intervals by reaction with suitable metals or metal carbonates. Copper or very
reactive metals did not score full marks as these are not appropriate choices. A surprising number of
candidates tried to use substances mentioned in other questions, e.g. calcium carbonate or aluminium.
Candidates should be discouraged from using this as an exam technique. In this case, neither substance
reacts well with dilute sulphuric acid. Some candidates used electrical methods of measuring conductivity
but often confused voltage and current, hence failing to score full marks.
Question B11
Almost all correctly identified that the type of polymerisation was addition. A few gave ‘condensation’ as their
answer, showing confusion due to there being two different monomers reacting. For (b) almost all
candidates could draw the polymer chain, but a large number did not identify the repeating unit, as the
question asked, but drew a chain of multiple monomers joined together. This answer did not answer the
question and so lost all marks. The idea that each of the monomers can join to itself was subtle, and only
the most able candidates spotted this to gain a mark in (c). Most gave vague comments about the products
of polymerisation being difficult to control. Such answers were not awarded any credit.
The equation in (d) was intended to be a straightforward task but candidates found unexpected difficulty in
deducing the formula for butadiene, despite its structure being shown above. Common errors included:
• using the wrong formula for butadiene e.g. C3H8, C4H8;

• giving methane, CH4, or water as the other product;
• failing to balance the equation.
6
Where errors occurred, an error carried forward was allowed into the calculation for (e). All knew uses for
hydrogen, the only common error being to state that it is used ‘in balloons’. In (e) many candidates did not
know how to carry out a percentage yield calculation and failed to include any consideration of expected
mass by considering reacting mole ratios. Many divided the mass obtained (2.16 kg) by the mass of butane
used (2.90 kg) and multiplied by 100. Such answers gained no credit.
Paper 5070/03
Paper 3 – Practical Test
General comments
The overall standard was very high and candidates are to be congratulated on the way they tackled the
examination. Only a minority of candidates were unable to demonstrate significant practical skills.
Question 1
(a) In the first part of the exercise, candidates were required to add dilute hydrochloric acid to solid T,
and then perform a number of tests on the resulting solution. Although this part of the exercise was
generally well done, a number of candidates decided at an early stage that the compound was
calcium carbonate and crossed out their original correct observations and replaced them with
‘theoretical results’. Candidates should be encouraged to trust in their experimental observations
and not to try to ‘guess’ the identity of the unknown substances given to them.
Test 1
The addition of dilute hydrochloric acid to T, zinc carbonate, causes it to effervesce and produce a
gas which turns limewater cloudy and therefore is carbon dioxide. In this type of exercise,
candidates are require to make the observation, effervesces, and then test for and name the gas
evolved. A surprising number still leave out one of more of these scoring points. The zinc
carbonate dissolves to give a colourless solution.
Tests 2 and 3
When either aqueous sodium hydroxide or ammonia is added to the solution produced in Test 1, a
white precipitate, which dissolves in excess to produce a colourless solution, is seen. Clear is not
an alternative to colourless. Virtually all candidates scored the white precipitate mark, but many
found it harder to decide if it then dissolved in excess.
Conclusion
Correct observations lead to the conclusion that T is zinc carbonate, credit was given to those
candidates who identified the metal or carbonate ions without identifying the compound completely.
A surprising number gave the answer as just zinc (or calcium) and appeared to think that T was a
metal rather than a compound.
(b) Candidates were required to calculate the relative formula mass of T, most were able to do this
successfully.
(c) The titration was exceptionally well done, with most candidates scoring full, or nearly full marks.
Full marks were awarded for recording two results within 0.2 cm3 of the Supervisor’s value and
then for averaging two or more results which did not differ by more than 0.2 cm3.
Teachers are asked to continue to emphasise that in any titration exercise, candidates should
repeat the titration as many times as necessary, until they have obtained consistent results, and
then to average these consistent results, having first ‘ticked’ them to indicate that these are their
most accurate values. Although the majority of candidates do carry out this procedure carefully, a
small number still tick only one result. Similarly a number of candidates average all their results,
irrespective of how consistent they are. Deciding whether to disregard some results is an important
skill, and Teachers are asked to reinforce this message.
7
(d) – (g) Although the majority of candidates were able to calculate the correct concentration of the acid, the
rest of the calculations proved to be very difficult. In (d) there were very few occasions of candidates
using anything other than a 1:1 mole ratio or inverting the volume ratio. The answer was required to
three significant figures, very few candidates over approximated. Very few candidates appreciated
that the answer to (e) simply required them to subtract their answer to (d) from 0.500, this gives the
number of moles of hydrochloric acid which had reacted with T. The answer to (f) required them to
divide their answer to (e) by 2, this was usually appreciated, although a significant number multiplied
by 2. To obtain the final mass of T, the number of moles obtained in (f) was multiplied by the relative
formula mass found earlier or by 140. Candidates who had an answer to (f) usually scored the mark
for (g). The calculation was marked consequentially throughout.
Question 2
This was a relatively straightforward exercise, and the overall marks were very high. Marks were usually lost
for incomplete rather than incorrect observations. Most candidates used the correct terminology to describe
colour changes and the formation of precipitates.
Test 1
Addition of aqueous barium nitrate to P, iron(II) ammonium sulphate, produces a white precipitate which does
not dissolve when nitric acid is added. There were very few cases of ‘white solutions’ or the mixture ‘turning
milky’.
Test 2
When aqueous sodium hydroxide is added to P, a green precipitate of iron(II) hydroxide is produced, this does
not dissolve in excess alkali but does begin to darken or turn brown when left exposed to the air. This final
observation was required.
Test 3
When the mixture from Test 2 is warmed, ammonia is produced and this turns damp red litmus blue. Both
comments were required. Both sulphur dioxide and chlorine were claimed by a surprisingly large number of
candidates.
Test 4
The addition of hydrogen peroxide, causes the solution to become yellower. The final colour of this solution is
dependent on the concentration of the hydrogen peroxide, accordingly a range of colours was acceptable.
However there is no precipitate at this stage. When sodium hydroxide is added a red-brown precipitate of
iron(III) hydroxide is now produced. The mixture also effervesces and produces oxygen which can be tested
for with a glowing splint.
Conclusions
The ions present were Fe2+, NH4+ and SO42-. Most candidates gave Fe2+ and SO42-, but NH4+ was much less
common. Many candidates also suggested Fe3+, presumably due to the brown precipitate in Test 4 and NO3–
There were very few examples of names rather than formulae or incorrect formulae.
Paper 5070/04
Alternative to Practical
General comments
The Alternative to Practical Chemistry Paper is designed to test the candidate’s knowledge and experience of
Practical Chemistry.
Skills examined including recognition and calibration of chemical apparatus and their uses, recall of
experimental procedures, handling and interpretation of data, drawing and interpretation of graphs, analysis of
unknown salts and calculations.
The standard continues to be maintained and the majority of candidates show evidence of possessing many of
the aforementioned skills.
8
Most candidates show competency of plotting points on graphs and there is evidence of a general
improvement in the drawing of appropriate smooth curves.
There continues to be a significant number of candidates who confuse the tests for the gases Hydrogen and
Oxygen.
The use of indicators and the knowledge of colour changes to determine the end-point in titrations is
necessary and are generally well known but the actual colour change is often reversed. This was particularly
evident in this examination where aqueous potassium manganate(VII) was used as the titrating solution.
Question 1
This question required the candidate to state which piece of apparatus was the most suitable for the
purpose. The correct answers were D, a funnel for helping to pour a liquid into a container with a narrow
neck; B, a volumetric flask for titrations; and E, a measuring cylinder for transferring 80 cm3 of a liquid into a
container. F, a burette, was accepted as an alternative for the measuring cylinder.
Question 2
(a) Acceptable answers for the appearance of solid zinc are silver, grey and shiny but not white.
Aqueous copper(II) sulphate is blue.
(b) Three different observations were required for the reaction between zinc and aqueous copper(II)
sulphate. Possible answers included: zinc dissolves, reacts; a red or copper deposit; solution
warms up, bubbles, effervesces or a gas is evolved.
(c) Acceptable answers for the type of reaction were displacement, redox or exothermic.
Question 3
Candidates were given diagrams of four electrolysis experiments and were asked to state the electrode(s) at
which certain elements were produced.
(a) Hydrogen was produced at electrodes L, N and Q.
(b) Oxygen was produced at electrode M.
(c) Sodium was produced at electrode S.
(d) Chlorine was produced at electrodes K, P, and R.
In all cases for any incorrect electrode marks were deducted from the marks gained.
Questions 4 - 8
The correct answers to the multiple choice Questions, 4 to 8 were (d), (a), (c), (b), and (b) respectively.
Question 9
Parts (a) to (c) involved the analysis of the fertiliser, F, which was later volumetrically analysed to determine
its percentage iron content.
(a) Dissolving F in water produced a coloured or green solution. Reference to solids or substances
were not acceptable.
(b) The addition of aqueous sodium hydroxide produced (i) a green precipitate (ii) which was insoluble
in excess of the reagent. (iii) Heating the mixture produced a gas or ammonia, which turned litmus
blue. The colour change of the litmus must refer to the gas, as the alkaline solution would also
produce the same colour change. Failure to do this lost the mark.
(c) Acceptable tests for the sulphate ion included combinations of aq.Ba(NO3)2/HNO3 and
aq.BaCl2/HCl producing a white precipitate. The observation mark was only gained as a result of a
correct test for the sulphate ion.
9
(d) The mass of F used in the experiment was 6.95g.
(e) A pipette was the most suitable apparatus for this purpose.
(f) Acceptable colour changes were colourless, green or yellow to pink or purple. As mentioned
earlier in the Report it was disappointing to see a large number of candidates give the correct
colour change but the wrong way round. Candidates should be advised to always consider
carefully, which solution is in the titrating flask before deciding on the initial colour.
(g) The correct volumes of G, as a result of the burette volume readings were: 25.2, 24.4 and 24.6
respectively, giving a mean value using readings 2 and 3 of 24.5 cm3. In cases where incorrect
reading of the burettes resulted in different volumes of G, candidates were given credit for choosing
the two closest volumes, which may not have been 2 and 3, to produce their mean value.
(h) The answers to the calculation were:
0.00049, (i) 0.00245, (j) 0.0245, (k) 1.37g, (l) 19.7%.
In all cases any incorrect answer to any part of the calculation may be correctly used in the following parts
and gain the marks. Any rounding up or down was penalised once only e.g. 0.00049 becoming 0.0005.
Question 10
(a) Candidates were required to read the thermometer diagrams giving temperature values of 26, 35,
47, and 60 respectively. These results were plotted on the first graph and joined by a smooth
curve. Marks were awarded for accurate plotting of these results and the quality of the smooth
curve. The resulting curve was used to produce answers to parts (c) and (d).
A common error was in the reading of the thermometers a number of candidates reading the
values as 20.6 rather than 26, 30.5 rather than 35 etc. Although the initial marks were lost
candidates could still gain the following marks so long as they plotted 20.6, 30.5 etc.
The candidate’s graphs were read to assess their answers to parts (c) and (d). The answer to part
(d) was obtained by reading from the graph the temperature at which the time was 55s, half the
initial time of 110s.
(e) A second plot of points was required for part (d) from which parts (f) and (g) could be answered.
Part (g) proved to be very difficult for the majority of candidates although it was pleasing to see a
good proportion realising that to get the answer they had first to read from the first graph the time,
60s, for 30°C and then on the second graph read the concentration at a time of 60s which should
give a concentration of 0.05 mol/dm3.
Question 11
This question involves various aspects of water and its purification.
(a) The rain water would boil at a lower temperature as the sea water contains salts, which increases
its boiling point.
(b) Sodium chloride is the main constituent of sea water.
(c) Sea water may be converted to drinkable water by either distillation, desalination or ion exchange.
(d) Chlorine, tested by the bleaching of litmus, should be used to kill any bacteria.
(e)(i) Sodium, in its reaction with water, produced hydrogen, which is tested by its ability to ‘pop’ in a
flame.
(ii) Candidates are asked to give two different observations. Possible observations included, sodium
dissolved, reacted vigorously, burst into flames, moved around the surface of the water,
effervesced or a gas was evolved and the solution, which contained litmus, turned blue.
Further general comments
In Questions 2 (b) and 11 (e) marks are only awarded for observations, not theoretical answers e.g. in 2 (b)
several candidates stated that zinc sulphate was produced. This is not an observation and hence would not
be given credit.
10
5070 Chemistry June 2003
FOREWORD ....................................................................................................................... 1
CHEMISTRY ....................................................................................................................... 2
Paper 5070/02 Theory................................................................................................................................... 3
Paper 5070/03 Paper 3 – Practical Test ....................................................................................................... 7
1
GCE Ordinary Level
Paper 5070/01
Multiple Choice
Question Question
Key Key
Number Number
1 D 21 C
2 C 22 C
3 D 23 D
4 C 24 D
5 D 25 A
6 C 26 D
7 A 27 A
8 A 28 A
9 C 29 C
10 C 30 C
11 D 31 B
12 B 32 B
13 B 33 B
14 B 34 B
15 C 35 C
16 C 36 B
17 D 37 C
18 A 38 B
19 B 39 C
20 D 40 A
General comments
Only one question, Question 18, was found to be easy by almost all the entry. Question 28 produced a
great deal of guessing. Except for the two questions already referred to the Paper discriminated well
between the candidates and proved to be a good test of knowledge and understanding.
Question 5
This was one of the few questions where an incorrect alternative was more popular than the correct answer.
Candidates had to realise that sulphuric acid was a diprotic acid.
H2SO4(aq) ® 2H+(aq) + SO42-(aq)
Question 9
The diagrams of diamond and graphite were very well known and for most of the entry the question was a
choice between alternatives A and C. Metals are a lattice of positive ions in a “sea of electrons” which was
alternative C. Alternative A was a lattice of positive and negative ions which is the structure of an ionic
compound such as sodium chloride.
2
Question 10
Alternative A was a strong distractor since the correct combination of X and Y produced CaCl2 a well-known
compound. However, ionic compounds have high melting and boiling points and calcium chloride would not
be expected to be gaseous.
Question 15
A sound knowledge of the electrolysis of concentrated aqueous sodium chloride is required by the syllabus.
Hence changing sodium chloride to rubidium chloride, another Group I chloride, would not change the
products of electrolysis.
Question 24
A high proportion of the candidates incorrectly thought that the melting point of the elements increases down
Group I, possibly because the relative atomic mass of the elements increases down the Group. The melting
point of the elements decreases down Group I because the strengths of the metallic bonding decreases.
Question 32
A great deal of guessing occurred in this question. This question was intended to test the simple recall of a
statement in the syllabus concerning the manufacture of hydrogen by the cracking of oil.
Paper 5070/02
Theory
General comments
This Question Paper generated a wide range of marks, from single figures to close to the maximum. Some
very good scripts were seen and the majority of the candidates must be congratulated on the clarity of the
presentation of their answers.
This year, Section A proved to be more difficult than usual and high marks were rare. Conversely,
Section B resulted in higher marks than in previous years.
Many of the questions in both sections contained points that even the strongest candidates found testing.
There was no evidence of candidates having problems in completing the Paper in the time allocated.
As in previous examinations, a common fault was the failure to respond to the precise wording of the
question. Candidates should be advised to read and think before they begin to write. Note that when the
question asks for the name of a material, then the formula may not be accepted.
Section A
Candidates found this section to be rather difficult and marks over 35 were rare. Fewer than 20 was a
frequent score. All seven questions contained something that caused problems, even for the better
candidates.
Question 1
Just three or four was a common score and all five marks was rare.
(a) Both bromine and sulphur were given as forming a basic oxide.
(b) Bromine was the most common answer, but iodine was a popular incorrect suggestion.
(c) Hydrogen as reacting with aqueous copper(II) sulphate was a frequent error.
3
(d) The correct answer, hydrogen, was the mark scored most frequently in this question.
(e) Ignoring ‘giant’ in the question, bromine and sulphur were common answers.
Question 2
As for Question 1 it was unusual for all eight marks to be scored.
(a) Although the mark allocation for this section was shown as four, many answers did not contain four
points. Any three from fermentation, yeast, using glucose solution and a temperature in the range
20° to 40° C were allowed. The fourth mark for the equation was rarely scored. Either the
equation was unbalanced or there was no attempt at the equation.
(b) The displayed formula in (i) was usually correct, as was the name, water or steam, in (ii). In (iii),
phosphoric acid as the catalyst was well known. For the temperature and pressure, specific figures
were required. Temperatures in the range 300° to 400° C and pressures of 40 to 80 atmos were
allowed. No credit was given for generalised statements such as high temperature or high
pressure.
Question 3
A generally high scoring question with many candidates gaining all eight marks.
(a) Well known. Some indication that carbon and hydrogen are the only elements present was
required.
(b) With the wide range of acceptable answers available, incorrect suggestions were rare.
(c) All four marks in this section were frequently gained. One type of error seen in (i) and (ii) was a
result of not reading the question. Two formulae of specific compounds were required. Names
and general formulae were not accepted. The tests in (iii) were very well known.
Question 4
Most candidates scored some marks on this question but full marks were rare.
(a) Either the phrase ‘global warming’ or a specific example of this effect was accepted.
(b) A source of methane was not well known. Car exhausts was a common misconception.
(c) In order to score, the candidates were required to refer to the greenhouse factor given in the table.
Many irrelevant accounts of the removal of carbon dioxide in photosynthesis were seen.
(d) Only about half of the candidates mentioned ozone depletion. Skin cancers and some effect on
plant growth are examples of unacceptable answers.
Question 5
There was a wide range in the quality of the answers to this question.
(a) Almost every candidate scored this point. Some thought that the water evaporated.
(b) Either reference to the balance readings or to the effervescence ceasing was accepted. Some
suggested that the marble had completely reacted.
(c) The two calculations in (i) and (ii) were very well answered and figures other than 0.10 moles of
acid and 0.02 moles of carbonate were rare.
In (iii), not many candidates could use these two figures to show that an excess of the acid was
present. An excess of the acid because 0.10 is greater than 0.02 was a frequent suggestion.
Others ignored the equation given in the question and worked with a 1:1 mole ratio.
(d) That the rate would increase was well known. Reference to an increase in the frequency of
collisions was often omitted.
4
Question 6
This was the question in this section most likely to lead to a zero score for the weaker candidates. Stronger
candidates could score all six marks.
(a) Failure to mention pH at all by stating that the change was from acid to alkali was the most frequent
error.
(b) This ionic equation was not often correct. Many candidates gave a molecular equation.
(c) The meaning of ‘acid’ in (i) was well known but the response to (ii) was poor. Confusion between
strength and concentration was frequent. That a strong acid gave more hydrogen ions than a weak
acid was a typical attempt.
(d) Again, the ionic equation was not well done. Many had an Mg2+ ion on the left-hand side or only
one H+.
Question 7
The candidates found this to be the most difficult question in this section.
(a) That the ions cannot move was the only possible answer. Movement of electrons and movement
of molecules were very frequent errors.
(b) Very few candidates could score on this section. There were many lengthy accounts of the transfer
of electrons between the atoms of the elements. Melting points, determined by the attractive forces
between the ions was not understood.
(c) Many good diagrams were given and for some candidates this was the only section in this question
to score. Common errors were to omit the inner electron pair and failure to show any charges on
the ions.
Section B
Many candidates scored highly on this section and, with the exception of Question 8, full marks were often
awarded.
Question 8
This was by far the least popular question and also the one leading to the lowest scores.
(a) The source of oxygen was better known than that of hydrogen. Electrolysis of water was not
accepted as a source of either gas.
(b) The name of the electrolyte was well known.
(c) Ignoring the equations given in the question, oxidation was a more popular choice than the correct
response of reduction. With just one mark available, only the reason for the selection of reduction
gained credit.
(d) This calculation caused problems for many candidates. Although the question specifically asked
for the volume of oxygen needed, this figure was missing from many answers. An incorrect
connection between the volume of oxygen and the mass of water formed resulted in many answers
of either half or double the correct figure of 180 g of water.
(e) About the only valid advantage seen with any frequency was that water as the only product causes
no pollution problems. Vague references to cost were not accepted, expensive electrodes were
allowed. Although the question showed that the fuel cell was for use in a space shuttle, difficulty in
transporting the cell was a commonly quoted disadvantage.
5
Question 9
A popular and generally high scoring question.
(a) Both sections of this question were well answered. Some candidates gave their answer on
page 11 of the Question Paper.
(b) Failure to read the question resulted in structures for pentanoic acid rather than propanoic acid.
Candidates should be advised that a displayed formula requires inclusion of the bond between O
and H in an acid.
(c) Many correct calculations were given. Since the question asked for an empirical formula, the
answer, HCO2H, was not accepted.
(d) The names of the products were scored more often than the equation. An incorrect formula for
magnesium ethanoate was the main problem. Again, failure to read the question was the reason
for the answers using magnesium rather than magnesium oxide.
(e) The reaction with ethanol was usually scored but the use of concentrated sulphuric acid in this
reaction was often omitted. Many candidates included a correct equation in their answer. In that
this equation was not required by the question, additional credit could not be allowed.
Question 10
A popular and high scoring question.
(a) This tended to be a three or zero section. Energy required to make bonds was a common error.
Disregarding the structural equation given in the question, many stated that more bonds are formed
than are broken.
(b) Many candidates could arrive at 222.5 kJ. The Examiners allowed –222.5 kJ but the unit kJ/mol
was not correct here.
(c) These diagrams varied widely in quality. A common error was the failure to indicate where the
reactants and the products were on the diagram. The question asked for labels for both the
activation energy and the enthalpy change. Although the activation energy was usually shown, an
indication of the enthalpy change was often missing.
(d) This diagram was almost always correct.
Question 11
The most popular and also the highest scoring question in this section.
(a) Many equations were correct. N for N2 was the most frequent error.
(b) Answers to (i) and (ii) were usually correct. In (iii), calcium oxide was the common error.
(c) Both an oxidising agent and a catalyst were acceptable answers. For those choosing an oxidising
agent, the reason had to include some explanation of oxidation. Mere repetition of the words
oxidation and reduction was insufficient.
(d) Many correct statements were seen. Some lengthy descriptions of this process were given but
they usually included the key facts of a temperature in the range 450° to 600° C and vanadium(V)
oxide as the catalyst. With reluctance, the Examiners allowed the name vanadium oxide for the
catalyst. Referring to the question, a formula was not accepted.
6
Paper 5070/03
Paper 3 – Practical Test
General comments
The overall standard was pleasing with many candidates demonstrating a sound understanding of both
qualitative and quantitative techniques.
Question 1
(a) Reactions of hydrogen peroxide
This proved to be the most difficult part of the Paper. Many candidates lost marks for incomplete,
incorrect, observations and the ‘chemical’ language used was often contradictory, e.g. many
candidates recorded the formation of “soluble precipitates”.
Test 1
The addition of potassium dichromate(VI) to an acidified solution of hydrogen peroxide produces a

very dark blue or purple solution, which rapidly begins to effervesce and turn green. As is always
the case, candidates were expected to make the observation (effervesces or bubbles), test for the
gas (relights a glowing splint) and then to name the gas (oxygen). A large number of candidates
lost marks by failing to include all three pieces of information. There was the usual confusion with
hydrogen which ‘pops’ with a lit splint and oxygen which relights a glowing splint, often with a ‘pop’.
A range of colours was allowed, but not black or dark and marks were lost for reporting coloured
precipitates rather than solutions.
Test 2
With equal volumes of hydrogen peroxide and potassium iodide a solution of iodine is produced,
the colour of this solution will lie between yellow and brown depending on the precise
concentrations used. Candidates who reported a black precipitate (or similar) had used too much
hydrogen peroxide and did not score.
Test 3
When hydrogen peroxide is added to aqueous iron(II) sulphate, oxidation takes place and the
solution becomes noticeably more yellow, there is no precipitate at this stage. Subsequent addition
of aqueous sodium hydroxide produces the usual red/brown precipitate of iron(III) hydroxide. This
was often accompanied by the decomposition of any excess hydrogen peroxide and the evolution
of oxygen gas.
Test 4
The addition of S (manganese (IV) oxide) to the hydrogen peroxide catalyses the decomposition
and vigorous effervescence is seen. Candidates were again expected to report the observation
and test for and name the gas. Leaving the mixture to stand should have enabled candidates to
see that S settles and has not changed its state, allowing the later conclusion that it had not been
used up and had acted as a catalyst. There are no additional precipitates formed and the solution
remains colourless, once S has settled and the effervescence has slowed.
7
Conclusions
The formation of a brown precipitate of iron(III) hydroxide with sodium hydroxide in Test 3 indicates
that the original iron(II) sulphate has been oxidised and that the hydrogen peroxide had acted as
an oxidising agent.
Similarly S remains unchanged in Test 4 and has therefore acted as a catalyst.
Many candidates had great difficulty with these conclusions with many guessing and changing their
minds several times. It is always the case that conclusions come from the experimental
observations and candidates are not expected to know the theoretical answer.
(b) Determination of the concentration of hydrogen peroxide
Although most candidates coped well with the relatively difficult manganate (VII) titration, there
were a number who appeared to have never carried out a titration before and therefore failed to
score many marks. Full marks were awarded for two results within 0.2 cm3 of the Supervisor’s
value and then for averaging two or more results which did not differ by more than 0.2 cm3.
Teachers are asked to continue to emphasise that in all titration exercise, candidates should repeat
the titration as many times as necessary, until they have obtained consistent results, and then to
average these consistent results, having first ‘ticked’ ALL of them to indicate that these are their
most accurate values. Although many candidates do carry out this procedure carefully, a
significant number still tick only one results (or none at all) and often use another value in the
summary. Another common fault is for candidates to average all their results even if they had
‘ticked’ only one result. When carrying out titrations, candidates are expected to use their chemical
judgement and sometimes reject some of their values.
(c) The calculation of the concentration of hydrogen peroxide was not well done, with many candidates
making no attempt at this part of the Paper.
Most candidates who scored the marks in part (c) did so by using the basic equation:
Conc. H2O2 ´ Vol. H2O2 0.02 ´ Vol. KMnO 4

=
5 2
Any equivalent method involving calculating the number of moles of hydrogen peroxide in 25 cm3
(or 20 cm3) of solution, as the first step, was equally acceptable. Answers were required to three
significant figures. It is an important skill to recognise that titrations are an accurate method for
determining concentrations and using the correct number of significant figures is a way of recording
this.
Question 2
It was intended that this part of the Paper would be relatively straightforward to balance a difficult
Question 1. This did not appear to be the case and answers were, in many cases, disappointing.
Tests on Solution T (zinc sulphate)
Tests 1 and 2
Addition of either aqueous sodium hydroxide or aqueous ammonia to zinc sulphate produces a white
precipitate which dissolves in excess to give a colourless solution. Whilst many candidates scored full marks
in these two tests, many lost marks by failing to describe the colourless nature of the final solution. Clear
and colourless are not the same. More worryingly many simply described the initial reaction as turning the
mixture ‘milky or cloudy’ neither of which are acceptable terms.
Test 3
There is no reaction with silver nitrate or when nitric acid is subsequently added. Candidates often tried quite
hard to describe some sort of chemical change but they should recognise that there will occasionally be
Tests which do not have any positive observations to report.
8
Test 4
With barium nitrate, zinc sulphate produces a white precipitate which does not dissolve on the addition of
nitric acid. As in Tests 1 and 2 many candidates lost marks by using imprecise descriptions, ‘turns milky’
was again very common.
Conclusions
In the introduction, T was described as a “simple salt” and the intention was that this would indicate that it
contained one positive and one negative ion. Surprisingly many candidates gave either two positive ions
(often aluminium and zinc) or two negative ions (chloride and sulphate). Candidates could use either names
or correct formulae for the ions and as always conclusions required correct observations to score.
Paper 5070/04
General comments
The Alternative to Practical Chemistry Paper is designed to test the candidate’s knowledge and experience
of Practical Chemistry. Skills including recognition and calibration of apparatus and their uses, recall of
experimental procedures, handling and interpretation of data including the drawing and interpretation of
graphs, analysis of unknown salts and calculations are to be tested. The standard in general continues to be
maintained and the majority of candidates show evidence of possessing many of the aforementioned skills.
Most candidates show competence of accurately plotting points on graphs although the connecting of these
points freehand, rather than using a ruler to draw a straight line occurs too frequently. A large number of
candidates continue to confuse the tests for oxygen and hydrogen. This has been mentioned in previous
reports. The rounding up and down of answers to calculations should be discouraged and the appropriate
number of significant figures should be carried through all calculations.
Question 2
(a) Aqueous ammonia turns litmus blue.
(b) The gas evolved is ammonia, which is confirmed by litmus turning blue or any other correct test
such as the formation of white fumes with a stopper from a bottle of concentrated hydrochloric acid,
not dilute hydrochloric acid. Several candidates stated that the gas is oxygen or hydrogen. These
answers are incorrect but for these two gases, only, a correct test for either gas, could score the
last two marks.
(c)(i) The other essential element is nitrogen.
(ii) The molar mass for ammonium phosphate is 149, which gives an answer of 208 g of phosphorus
produced from 1 kg of the salt. Several candidates lost the second mark by not stating the unit of
mass with the answer, i.e. 208 g or 0.208 kg. The second mark may be obtained, if an incorrect
molar mass is correctly used to calculate a mass of phosphorus. Candidates must show all their
working, as an incorrect answer alone, scores no marks.
Question 3
(a) Although the correct answer is 5.80 g many candidates wrote it as 5.8. All candidates should
maintain the number of significant figures with any calculation answer.
(b) The correct acid is nitric acid.
9
(c)(i) The heating is done in the fume cupboard to ensure that students are not exposed to the
poisonous gas, nitrogen dioxide. The toxicity of the gas is the point to mention.
(ii) The dish was reweighed to ensure that constant mass was obtained, indicating that decomposition
is complete. Answers suggesting that it is to check that the first weight was accurate, were not
acceptable.
(iii) The mass of magnesium oxide was 5.50 g giving a percentage yield of ....
(d) 94.8%.
(e) This question allows candidates to think of any possible errors that may have occurred during the
experiment. Answers included: “the initial sample of magnesium oxide was impure”, or “a small
amount of the powder was lost or solution was spilled when carrying the dish”. It was pleasing to
see a large number of candidates thinking about the question and producing some appropriate
answers.
Questions 4 - 8
The correct answers are a, d, b, d and a respectively.
Question 9
(a) The correct apparatus is a pipette.
(b) The colour change is yellow to orange, pink or red.
(c) The reading of the burettes was generally excellent. However, many candidates do not indicate
which titres have been used to calculate the average volume to be used in the calculation.
Candidates should always indicate the titres to be used with a tick in each case.
(d) The correct answer is 0.003 moles.
(e) The candidate’s average volume is used to calculate the answer which is 0.001 moles, if 22.3 cm3
was used as the average.
(f) This answer is the result of dividing answer (d) by answer (e). Candidates are expected to give an
accurate answer to this calculation which is then rounded up or down for the answer to part (g).
(g) The value for x is 3, which should then be used to produce a balanced equation for (h). Any other
calculated value for x may be appropriately used in an alternative equation.
Question 10
(a) Any inert electrode is acceptable, the most popular choice being carbon or graphite.
(b) Copper is deposited at electrode E. Although the answer ‘cathode’ is correct, the letter of the
electrode must be stated as requested in the question.
(c) A gas or effervescence is seen at the other electrode. It was not necessary to state which gas, as
unless tested, its identity cannot be confirmed.
(d)(i) The total increases at 30, 40, 50 and 60 minutes are 1.35, 1.80, 2.25 and 2.25 g respectively.
(ii) These masses should be plotted on the graph and connected by two straight lines using a ruler.
Any incorrect increase in mass in (d)(i) could obtain marks subsequently, providing that these
incorrect points are accurately plotted and connected on the graph.
(iii) A correctly plotted graph will give an answer of 35.5 minutes for the time taken to deposit 1.60 g of
copper.
(iv) The last two readings are identical, as there is no more copper or copper ions remaining in the
solution. Alternative answers, suggesting that the electrolysis was finished or complete, were
acceptable.
10
(e) The colour is blue at the start of the experiment and colourless at the end. Many candidates use
the word clear instead of colourless or give answers such as bluish or lighter blue, all of which are
incorrect.
(f) To gain the mark, candidates must draw a straight line on the existing angled line and extend it
further to give one straight line only.
(g) The final colour is blue.
Question 11
(a) The test will give a white precipitate to confirm the presence of sulphate ions.
(b) Effervescence is seen producing a gas, which turns lime-water milky.
(c) The test for iodide ions requires the addition of nitric acid followed by aqueous lead(II) nitrate.
There is a mark for the word aqueous to describe the state of lead(II) nitrate. The large majority of
candidates scored well on this question indicating a sound knowledge of experimental inorganic
analysis.
Question 12
(a)(i) Apparatus M is a fractionating tube or column and is used to,
(ii) Separate liquids or vapours, separate being the important word.
(iii) Apparatus N is a condenser and is used to,
(iv) Cool or change vapours to liquids. An answer stating that it is used to condense vapours was
insufficient as it does not explain the meaning of the word, condense.
(b) The hydrocarbon mixture is very flammable thus a water bath is used, for safety reasons, rather
than a flame to heat the mixture.
(c) The reading on the thermometer was 69°C when the first few drops distillate were seen.
(d) The candidates knew that all the first alkane had distilled over when the thermometer showed an
increase in temperature.
11
SR12IN0201
FOREWORD ....................................................................................................................... 1
CHEMISTRY ....................................................................................................................... 2
Paper 5070/02 Theory................................................................................................................................... 4
Paper 5070/03 Paper 3 - Practical Test ........................................................................................................ 7
1
GCE Ordinary Level
Paper 5070/01
Multiple Choice
Question Question
Key Key
Number Number
1 B 21 B
2 B 22 D
3 A 23 B
4 A 24 A
5 D 25 B
6 D 26 C
7 B 27 D
8 A 28 B
9 B 29 A
10 D 30 B
11 A 31 C
12 B 32 B
13 A 33 B
14 A 34 A
15 A 35 D
16 B 36 B
17 C 37 C
18 D 38 A
19 A 39 D
20 D 40 C
General comments
All the questions proved straightforward with the exception of Question 34 which had a very strong distracter
in alternative C. Two questions, namely Questions 15 and 17, proved to be very easy and Questions 4, 15,
26 and 40 had low discrimination.
In general the Paper discriminated well between the candidates and proved to be a good test of knowledge
and understanding.
Question 2
The responses to this question suggested that many of the candidates were guessing. The question
involved little if any chemical knowledge and simply the ability to interpret the information given by a graph.
An ability required by all chemists.
2
Question 4
An aqueous solution of barium ions on the addition of sulphate ions always forms a white precipitate of
barium sulphate. This is the basis of the test for sulphate ions. Thus the state symbol aq after MSO4 was
the key to obtaining the correct answer.
Question 8
Atom Y (2.8.1..) was the atom of a metal and atom Z (2.8.7.) was the atom of a non-metal and could be
expected to bond ionically making alternative D, which was popular, incorrect.
Question 19
Alternative D had more candidates choosing it than had the correct answer A. The change from Zn2+ in
Z2+S2- to Zn is reduction, making D incorrect.
Question 24
Compounds of transition metals are usually coloured and the choice of answer for this question could be
quickly reduced to a choice between alternatives A and B.
Question 26
Industry has to take into account many considerations when deciding upon a particular method of
preparation for a chemical and cost is almost always a major consideration. Iron could be manufactured by
electrolysis but the reduction of haematite by coke is cheaper.
Question 29
This question proved to be difficult but a good discriminator. Carbon dioxide is the gas to which all carbon
compounds in the exhaust gases are converted and hence the answer to the question.
Question 34
The statement on the Question Paper in alternative A was almost a direct quote from the syllabus and the
question was intended to be a matter of simple recall. Unfortunately alternative C was too strong a distracter
and proved to be favoured by a large number of the entry.
Question 40
This question from an Examiner’s point of view had by far the worst statistics of any on the Paper. This was
surprising since it had been used quite successfully on previous occasions, although these occasions were
quite a number of years ago.
3
Paper 5070/02
Theory
General comments
A full range of performance was seen from candidates. Some exceptional candidates achieved almost full
marks. The candidates appeared to use their time well. Candidates answered longer questions well. Most
candidates showed skills in answering longer questions by attempting to write separate answer points to
match the number of marks for longer part questions.
The Paper revealed very good understanding of syllabus chemistry in some areas. Candidates showed a
very good grasp of areas such as organic chemistry, rates of reaction and in factual recall. Candidates
showed exemplary skills in the setting out of calculations and the inclusion of the relevant units. More able
candidates should be encouraged to work out calculations involving industrial quantities i.e. tonnes, using
reacting ratios, rather than always converting all masses to grams and then back to tonnes. Such working is
unnecessary and leads to arithmetic errors.
New syllabus areas were well attempted. Energy level diagrams were problematic for some candidates.
Where understanding of environmental issues is tested, candidates need to ensure that they make clear,
scientific points. Vague answers that mention ‘pollution’ will not score.
Some Examiners again commented on the need for using the lined pages provided for answering Section B
questions. Some candidates are including part answers on pages where the questions are printed. This
should be discouraged, because answers not on the lined pages may be mistaken for rough work.
Section A
Question 1
Fewer candidates than usual scored full marks for the introductory question, although most scored at least
four of the possible six marks. Common errors were naming hydrogen as the gas used to make ammonia for
(a)(ii), which did not score, as it was not one of the gases available for selection from the table. The diagram
of the gas particles for part (v) was well answered, but many candidates drew the gas particles at spacings
not much greater than those of the solid. Some candidates misread or misunderstood the meaning of the
word ‘higher’ in part (b), and wrongly gave ‘nitrogen’ as the answer to (ii) i.e. the gas present in the highest
percentage, rather than carbon dioxide, the gas whose percentage becomes higher.
Question 2
The candidates showed good understanding of the new area of the syllabus tested in this question. For (a)
most knew that UV caused harm to humans, but many scored only one from the possible two marks. Some
answers did not make it clear that ozone depletion allows more UV through to the surface of the earth, some
showed only partial understanding of the harmful nature of UV e.g. ‘causes cancer’. Better answers clearly
stated skin cancer or cataracts as resulting from increased UV exposure. The dot and cross diagram was
well done by more able candidates. Common errors were to omit the six non-bonding electrons from the
fluorine atoms or to add an additional electron to each hydrogen. For part (c) too many gave the formula
‘HF’ when the question clearly asked for the name of the product. Some gave the name as ‘hydrofluorine’.
For (iii) a surprising number of candidates thought that the rate of reaction depended on the mass of
bromine compared to fluorine, sometimes discussing diffusion rates, rather than the relative reactivity of the
two halogens.
4
Question 3
This question was very well answered. Only very weak candidates failed to score the marks for knowledge
of sub-atomic particles in (a). Some candidates unfortunately used a dash ‘-’ to show the charge on a
neutron. This was ambiguous, as it could have been a negative sign, or could imply no charge, and so this
answer did not score. Candidates found (b) challenging. T+ and T2+ were very common answers. Marks
were lost in (c) due to vague answers e.g. ‘tritium has similar properties to hydrogen’. This repeated the
question and so did not score – a clear link to the state of water or ‘hydrogen oxide’ was needed. Some
answered by discussing tritium as an element, and hence said that it was a gas, like hydrogen.
Question 4
This question asked for similarity and a difference between two structures. Candidates did not always use
ideas about structures, but gave vague answers which did not score. When a difference is asked for, it is
important that the answer makes a comparison e.g. ‘Propene contains a double bond, propane does not.’
scores 1, but ‘Propene contains a double bond.’ is not enough to score.
Part (a) was well answered, most candidates correctly stating that both structures contain 3 carbon atoms or
are hydrocarbons. Some believed that propane contained four carbons. The difference between the
molecules was not so well answered, with too many failing to give a structural difference, as stressed in the
question. Hence, answers which used the terms ‘saturated’ and ‘unsaturated’ only, did not score; a mention
of the double bond was needed.
Parts (b) and (c) were mostly correct, although some candidates tried to display the C6H5 part of the
molecule – this was not necessary. Nearly all knew that carbon dioxide is produced by complete
combustion, but surprisingly, many gave hydrogen as the second product. In discussing environmental
issues, such as the advantages of disposing of polystyrene by burning, it is important that the candidates
make clear, scientific points. Vague responses e.g. ‘no air pollution’ ‘no land pollution’ etc. did not score
here. Better answers included ‘the energy produced can be used to generate electricity’, or ‘less space
needed for landfill sites’. A wide range of answers was given credit.
Question 5
This question tested a new syllabus area, and a wide spread of achievement and understanding was shown
by the candidates. Many candidates showed only partial understanding of the conventions used in energy
level diagrams. Most knew that the peak was related to the activation energy, some drawing a label which
pointed to the top of the curve. Many did not correctly draw a vertical line from the level of the products to
the level of the top of the curve. (Candidates were not penalised for double headed arrows or lines with no
arrows, but by convention, the arrowhead should point upwards). In drawing a catalysed reaction profile,
many candidates moved the curve to the left or the right, rather than drawing a lower curve. Weaker
answers moved one or both of the reactant and product lines to a lower level.
A great deal of confusion was revealed by candidate’s answers to (iii) about exothermic reactions and
bonds. Many discussed energy needed for breaking bonds (correct) compared to energy needed (incorrect)
for making bonds. Some believed that it was the number of bonds made and broken that was important.
Only very good candidates scored all three marks here. Part (b) was well answered, although a surprising
number of answers gave ‘lead’ and explained that this is a ‘transition metal’.
Question 6
Answers to this question showed that candidates have a good understanding of redox and can discuss redox
reactions in a number of ways; by oxygen or electron transfer, and by using oxidation numbers. Some lost
marks in (a)(ii) by discussing how iron oxide had been reduced, which did not answer the question, rather
than how carbon monoxide acts as a reducer i.e. by acting as an oxygen acceptor/electron donor. Part (b)
scored poorly. Again, if environmental issues are tested it is important that answers show some scientific
content to score. ‘Saves waste’ ‘reduces land pollution’ etc are too vague. Better answers included ‘Saves
finite iron resources’, and ‘Energy for recycling metals is less than extraction’. The calculation was well
done, but some candidates could not convert the ratio 0.9:1.2 into the formula Fe3O4, hence scoring only two
marks.
5
Section B
Question 7
This question was well answered, with most candidates scoring at least 8 marks. For (a) some failed to
identify carbon monoxide as the hazardous gas. Most gave excellent accounts of the formation of
carboxyhaemoglobin. In (b) some candidates gave confused responses which lacked focus and clarity and
so failed to score e.g. ‘sodium carbonate is too reactive to decompose’, ‘the bonds are too strong’. To score
full marks it was necessary to discuss why each reaction in turn would not occur for sodium compounds.
Part (c) was very well answered. Candidates clearly know this new syllabus area very well. A very few
weak candidates confused global warming with acid rain or ozone depletion. In part (d) it was necessary to
organise information about two experiments sequentially to gain five marks. Some candidates did not
manage to address all the points and so did not score fully e.g. equations or gas tests were omitted, despite
being asked for in the question. Many candidates gave incorrect observations here e.g. formation of
brown/dirty green precipitates. Predicting observations is an area where candidates are less well skilled.
Where equations were given they were usually correct, the commonest error being using the formula ‘ZnCl’
for zinc chloride.
Question 8
This question was extremely well answered, many scored full marks, despite the question containing several
marks for graph interpretation and calculations in an unfamiliar context. All knew the ions present in
aqueous copper(II) sulphate, although a very few gave O2- rather than OH-. Similarly (b) was answered very
well. Common equation errors were to reverse the equation or to give a wrongly balanced equation.
Candidates should note that Examiners accept ‘e’ or ‘e-’ or ‘electron’ to represent electrons in an equation.
Other abbreviations such as ‘ele’ or ‘ele-’ are not acceptable and will not score. A very few named and
tested hydrogen, rather than oxygen, as the anode product. Some candidates tested for oxygen using a
lighted rather than a glowing spill. The graph and calculation for (c) was very well done by all candidates,
with exemplary care in presentation of working and use of units.
Question 9
This question was the least popular choice, although candidates scored well if they attempted it. In (a), all
suggested correctly that the rate would increase, but many gave only a partial explanation that this was due
to more collisions, rather than the fully correct ‘more frequent collisions.’ Some candidates believed that
increasing pressure increases energy. Part (ii) was poorly answered, with almost all candidates wrongly
stating an increase in yield would result. The effect of pressure on equilibrium reactions involving gases is
not well understood.
Part (b) was straightforward for all – the effect of surface area on rate is very well known. For (c) the
calculation was well done, but many candidates carried out the working by very laboriously converting to
grams. Few used direct reacting ratios. Some stopped at the first stage giving 720/24 = 30 g as the full
answer. The equation proved difficult – candidates found adding the equations difficult. Multiples of the
correct equation were allowed to score. Very few correctly cancelled the numbers down correctly i.e.
‘4NH3 + 8O2à …’ was seen more often than ‘NH3 + 2O2à …’
Question 10
Candidates tended to score very high marks here – the manufacture of sulphuric acid is very well known.
Surprisingly, many did not know that calcium carbonate comes from limestone. ‘Lime’ ‘Ca(OH)2’ and
‘Calcium oxide’ were very commonly seen. The equation was given by all but the weakest candidates.
Again, most converted quantities to grams and back again when carrying out the calculation. Although
correct, this is unnecessary. More able candidates should be encouraged to work using reacting ratios.
The sulphuric acid manufacture was very well known, with many scoring all six available marks. Errors
included failing to identify at which stage the catalyst was used – some implied that vanadium(V) oxide was
involved when sulphur trioxide reacts to form oleum. Some did not mention the need for reacting sulphur
trioxide with concentrated sulphuric acid. The equations were very well done. Please note that where a
description of a process is tested, candidates should not use formulae as abbreviations in their written
description. Formulae should be used in the equations, but the compounds should be named in their main
answer.
6
Paper 5070/03
Paper 3 - Practical Test
General comments
The overall standard was very high and candidates are to be congratulated on the way they tackled the
examination. Only a minority of candidates were unable to demonstrate significant practical skills.
Comments on specific question
Question 1
(a) The titration was exceptionally well done, with most candidates scoring full, or nearly full marks.
Although redox titrations, using potassium manganate(VII), are relatively straightforward, the
overall standard was very pleasing. Full marks were awarded for recording two results within 0.2
cm3 of the Supervisor’s value and then for averaging two or more results which did not differ by
more than 0.2 cm3.
Teachers are asked to continue to emphasise that in any titration exercise, candidates should
repeat the titration as many times as necessary, until they have obtained consistent results, and
then to average these consistent results, having first ‘ticked’ them to indicate that these are their
most accurate values. Although the majority of candidates do carry out this procedure carefully, a
small number still tick only one result. Similarly a number of candidates average all their results,
irrespective of how consistent they are. Deciding whether to disregard some results is an important
skill, and Teachers are asked to reinforce this message.
It is clear that a few candidates ‘alter’ their results at a late stage to ‘improve’ them. This often
leads to candidates losing marks. It is always advisable to record results as soon as possible and
to have confidence in their accuracy.
(b) Most candidates were able to calculate the correct concentration of the solution Q which was
iron(II) sulphate. Only a few inverted the volume ratio and even fewer used anything other than
the correct 5:1 mole ratio. The answer was required to three significant figures and fewer
candidates than usual over approximated.
(c) This part of the question asked candidates to use their answer to part (b) to calculate the
percentage of iron(II) that had been oxidised by the air. To do this candidates were required to
subtract their answer to (b) from the original concentration (0.125 mol/dm3) and to express their
answer as a percentage. The majority were able to do this successfully, the most common error
was to simply give the answer to (b) as a percentage of the original concentration. There was a
suggestion that some candidates might have thought that they were required to calculate the
percentage of the iron(II) sulphate which had been oxidised by the potassium manganate (VII) in
the titration, but in most cases, this did not seem to be the case.
Question 2
Candidates found this a demanding exercise, and the overall marks were lower than usual. Marks were
usually lost for incomplete rather than incorrect observations. Most candidates used the correct terminology
to describe colour changes and the formation of precipitates. When a reaction produces a number of
changes, candidates are expected to record them all, not just the final result.
Test 1
When dilute hydrochloric acid is added to R (sodium thiosulphate), there is no initial reaction and the solution
remains colourless. A white precipitate forms gradually and this slowly becomes yellow. All three of these
observations were required. Warming the solution produces sulphur dioxide, which turns potassium
dichromate (VI) green. The fact that the gas turned litmus red also gained some credit. A surprising number
of candidates thought chlorine was evolved, possibly linked to the reactions with aqueous silver nitrate which
appear later in the question. Ammonia and carbon dioxide were also claimed by a significant number of
candidates.
7
Test 2
Addition of R to acidified potassium manganate (VII) causes that solution to be decolourised. When left to
stand a precipitate of sulphur also forms. Clear is not an acceptable alternative to colourless, but in this Test
any indication of a white or yellow solid did score.
Test 3
Addition of an equal volume of aqueous silver nitrate causes the formation of a white precipitate which
rapidly begins to darken in colour, turning yellow then red and finally black. All these changes were required,
but a range of colours were acceptable for the intermediate colours.
Test 4
When excess silver nitrate is added rapidly, the white precipitate which still forms initially, dissolves to
produce a colourless solution. As this is a difficult test to carry out, candidates whose precipitate did not
dissolve completely or who obtained pale yellow/brown solutions also scored the marks.
Test 5
When an excess of R is added to iron(III) chloride the solution becomes very dark red or purple in colour.
Black is not an acceptable colour for a solution and there is no precipitate formed at this stage. The dark red
solution rapidly becomes paler, finally becoming virtually colourless. Any ‘paler’ colour was acceptable,
provided it was linked to a solution and not a solid. When aqueous sodium hydroxide is now added a green
precipitate of iron(II) hydroxide is formed. Candidates who failed to use the correct ratio of R to iron(III)
chloride initially either obtained a red/brown precipitate of iron(III) hydroxide, or a black precipitate which
contains a mixture of iron(II) and iron(III) hydroxides. Candidates should be encouraged to read the
instructions carefully and to use the stated quantities.
Test 6
When R is added to aqueous copper(II) sulphate the solution changes colour from blue to green and there is
no precipitate. Addition of aqueous sodium hydroxide now produces a precipitate which is blue for a very
short time before becoming green. A small number of candidates saw this change in colour and should be
congratulated on their powers of chemical observation. When dilute sulphuric acid is added the precipitate
dissolves to form a pale yellow solution. A range of colours were allowed throughout this test.
Conclusions
The formation of sulphur dioxide in Test 1, allows the conclusion that the anion in R contains the element
sulphur. A number of sulphur containing anions were also suggested but these did not score. It is important
that candidates read the question carefully before committing themselves to an answer. The formation of a
green or black precipitate in Test 4 confirms that R has acted as a reducing agent, converting the original
iron(III) chloride into a compound containing iron(II).
Paper 5070/04
General comments
This Paper is designed to test the candidate’s knowledge and experience of practical chemistry. Skills
including recognition and calibration of chemical apparatus and their uses, recall of experimental procedures,
handling and interpretation of data, analysis of unknown salts and calculations.
The standard in general is being maintained and the majority of candidates show evidence of possessing
many of the aforementioned skills.
Most candidates show competency of plotting points on a graph although a common error is not to use a
ruler to connect points, which are in a straight line, although instructed to do so.
It is also of concern that a large number of candidates confuse the tests for Oxygen and Hydrogen. A
glowing splint is not a test for Hydrogen, the gas requiring a flame to produce the characteristic ‘pop’.
8
Question 1
This experiment determines the percentage composition of Nitrogen in air, this being the gas, which does not
react with the copper.
(a)(i) The gas is Nitrogen and (ii) the volume remaining in the syringe is 72 cm3.
(iii) This gives a percentage of Nitrogen as 80%.
(iv) The copper compound is copper(II) oxide, of formula CuO which is black. Candidates who omitted
the oxidation state of copper in its name lost a mark.
(b)(i) The two products were copper and water. The question asks for names. Candidates who gave
formulae were penalised a mark.
(ii) The purpose of the hydrogen is to reduce the copper(II) oxide.
(iii) A test for hydrogen is the production of a ‘pop’ with a flame. A large number of candidates
continue to give the oxygen test using a glowing splint.
Question 2
This question proved to be the most difficult on the Paper for many candidates.
(a)(i) Following the reaction a yellow precipitate was produced which is removed by filtration.
(b)(i) To answer this part of the question it is necessary to calculate the number of moles of each of the
reagents i.e. 0.05 and 0.06 moles of potassium iodide and silver nitrate respectively. This means
that silver nitrate is the excess reagent.
(ii) To calculate the mass of silver iodide requires the use of the limiting reagent which is potassium
iodide. By multiplying the molar mass of silver iodide, 235g by 0.05 = 11.75g.
(c)(i) Silver chloride is a white precipitate, which darkens on standing.
(ii) The mass of silver iodide produced will be more than silver chloride as the molar mass of silver
iodide is greater than that of silver chloride.
Questions 3 – 6
The correct answers are (c), (d), (a), (b).
Question 7
(a) The mass of fertiliser weighed out is 1.76 g.
(b) Any correct test for ammonia scores the mark. The two most commonly given are litmus turning
blue and white fumes produced from exposing ammonia to hydrogen chloride gas or acid fumes.
For the latter test it is not acceptable to add hydrochloric acid, an answer seen on a number of
scripts.
(c) The colour change at the end-point is either red, pink or purple to colourless.
(d) The volumes of hydrochloric acid produced from the titrations were 27.6, 27.1and 27.3 giving a
mean value of 27.2 cm3. Candidates are asked to tick their best titration results. This is very
important where a candidate incorrectly reads the burettes giving volumes of acid not always
obvious as to which have been used to calculate the mean. The correct calculations are : (e)
0.00272, (f) 0.00272, (g) 0.0272, (h) 0.05, (i) 0.0228, (j)(i) 0.387 g, (ii) 22.0 g.
Candidates should maintain three significant figures throughout the calculations. Failure to do so is
penalised once only. Any incorrect answer may be consequentially used to gain the remaining
marks.
9
Question 8
This question involves the analysis of the salt zinc chloride, ZnCl2.
Test 1 - A colourless solution is obtained. Answers stating a colourless compound would lose the mark.
Tests 2 and 3 produce a white precipitate, which is soluble in excess. Candidates should not use solid,
deposit or compound instead of precipitate. Test 4 - The test for a chloride is the addition of nitric acid and
silver nitrate to produce a white precipitate. Care should always be taken to ensure that the acid is the
correct one. Many otherwise good answers are spoilt by the use of hydrochloric acid or in many cases by
the unspecific use of the word acidify.
Question 9
(a) The precipitate is barium sulphate of formula BaSO4.
(b) The correct masses of precipitate are 0.93, 1.20, 1.86, 2.33, and 2.33g.
(c) When plotted on the graph candidates are instructed to join the points with two straight lines. The
first four points fall on an angled straight line, which then becomes a horizontal line with the final
two points.
(d) The point 1.20 is obviously the incorrect point as it is below the line, the correct value taken from
the line is 1.40. Candidates whose line followed all the points including the incorrect one lost a
mark.
(e) The volume of K producing 1.60 g of precipitate is 6.8 cm3.
(f) The masses of precipitate were the same in the last two experiments because the experiment had
finished. Other better answers included that all the barium chloride had been used but a similar
statement involving sulphuric acid was incorrect.
(g) The last part of the question requires the candidate to recognise that whatever the volume of K, the
volume of J is the limiting factor, hence the mass of precipitate is 0.47 g in all three cases.
10

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UNIVERSITY OF CAMBRIDGE INTERNATIONAL EXAMINATIONS

GCE Ordinary Level

MARK SCHEME for the May/June 2011 question paper

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