PSYCHIATRY SECTION 3-E

4TH BIMONTHLY EXAM

PERSONALITY DISORDER:
1. Magical thinking, peculiar notions, ideas of reference, illusions, and derealization are seen
in patients of which personality disorder?
A. Antisocial
B. Schizotypal
C. Borderline
D. Avoidant
2. Which personality disorder is marked by extreme fear of criticism and rejection?
A. Schizoid
B. Paranoid
C. Antisocial
D. Avoidant
3. Which of the following is not a feature of Personality Disorders?
A. Onset in early childhood
B.They are not due to organic disease
C. They are ego syntonic
D. They are fixed and inflexible
4. Which of the following is the DSM-5 Diagnostic Criteria for Avoidant Personality
Disorder
A. Avoids occupational activities that involve significant interpersonal contact because of
fears of criticism, disapproval, or rejection.
B. Is willing to get involved with people unless certain of being liked.
C. Shows no restraint within intimate relationships because of the fear of being shamed or
ridiculed.
D. Is not preoccupied with being criticized or rejected in social situations.
5. Personality Disorder subtype that are classified by _______?
A. No of people
B. Characteristic traits
C. Past historical finding
D. Surgical findings
6. Schizoid personality disorder is characterized by:
A. Disregard for the rights of others and a lack of empathy
B. A lack of interest in close relationships, even with family members
C. A pattern of grandiosity, need for admiration, and lack of empathy
D. Chronic and pervasive instability in self-image and relationships
7. Which of the following are the main features of avoidant personality disorder?
A. Persistent social inhibition
B. Feelings of inadequacy
C. Hypersensitivity to negative evaluation
D. All of the above
8. Patients with antisocial personality disorder can often seem to be normal and even
charming and ingratiating. Their histories, however, reveal many areas of disordered life
functioning EXCEPT
A. Lying and truancy
B. Staying at home and attendance
C. Thefts and fights
D. substance abuse, and illegal activities
9. Which personality trait is associated with individuals who are quick-tempered, curious,
easily bored, impulsive, extravagant, and disorderly?
A. High Harm Avoidance
B. Low Novelty Seeking
C. High Reward Dependence
D. High Persistence
10. In which of the following disorder person is inability to conform to the social norms that
ordinarily governs many aspects of a person's adolescent and adult behavior?
A. schizotypal personality disorder
B. Antisocial personality disorder
C. borderline personality disorder
D. paranoid personality disorder
11. Which disorder is also been called as ambulatory schizophrenia?
A. Borderline personality disorder
B. Antisocial personality disorder
C. Schizotypal personality disorder
D. Dependent personality disorder

12. Who suggested that personality traits are related to a fixation at one psychosexual stage
of development?
A. Sigmund Freud
B. Wilhelm Reich
C. Leon festinger
D. Ivan pavlov
13. When planning care for clients diagnosed with personality disorders, what should be the
anticipated treatment outcome?
A. To stabilize pathology with the correct combination of medications
B. To change the characteristics of the dysfunctional personality
C. To reduce inflexibility of personality traits that interfere with functioning and relationships
D. To decrease the prevalence of neurotransmitters at receptor sites
14. Two primary features of linehan’s diathesis stress theory of borderline personality
disorder are:-
a) ego functioning and transference
b) object representation and cognitive style
c) cognitive bias and attribution error
d) emotional dysregulation and experiences of invalidation

15. The phenomenon in Schizophrenia, known as ‘downward drift’ means which of the
following?
A. Falling to the bottom of the social ladder
B. Become homeless
C. Inability to hold down a job
D. All of the above
16. Is defined as a pervasive and sustained emotion that colors . The person’s perception of
the world.
A. Mood
B. Insight
C. Appearance
D. Affect

17. In Schizophrenia psychotic symptoms such as hallucinations delusions, disorganised

speech and grossly disorganised or catatonic behaviours are known as:

A. Negative symptoms
B. Positive symptoms
C. Mediating symptoms
D. Catastrophic symptoms
18. What is defined as a patient’s degree of awareness and Understanding about being ill.
A mood
B. Insight
C. Appearance
D. Affect
19. Some of the strategies or behaviors seen in maintaining avoidant personality disorder
typically include
A. Keeping to self, being vigilant
B. Being deceptive/exploitive, stealing
C. Dramatic attention seeking behaviors
D. Avoidance
20. Which of the following is characterized by a pervasive pattern of disregard for and
violation of the rights of others, often with a lack of remorse?
A) Borderline Personality Disorder
B) Narcissistic Personality Disorder
C) Antisocial Personality Disorder
D) Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder
21. Who stated that, “A person is self aware human being not a machine like object that lacks
self awareness”?
A) Sigmund Freud
B) Anna Freud
C) C. Robert cloninger
D) Carl jung

22. A 58 year old man presents with distrustfulness, suspiciousness and interprets other’s
motives as malevolent. This is an example of which personality disorder __________
A) Schizotypal personality disorder
B) Paranoid personality disorder
C) Narcissistic personality disorder
D) Avoidant personality disorder

23. According to DSM-IV-TR classification, antisocial personality disorders is classified

under
A. Cluster-A
B. Cluster-B
C. Cluster-C
D. Cluster-D

24. Which of the following is a characteristic feature of Borderline Personality Disorder

(BPD)?
A) Excessive need for admiration and attention
B) Grandiose sense of self-importance
C) Intense fear of abandonment and unstable relationships
D) Lack of empathy and disregard for others’ feelings
25. Social anxiety disorder is most similar to which personality disorder?
A. Schizoid
B. Dependent
C. Antisocial
D. Avoidant
26. Which of the following is the most well-known of the Personality disorders ?
A. Borderline Personality Disorder
B. Melancholic Personality Disorder
C. Associative Personality Disorder
D. Dissociative Personality Disorder
27. Which of the following personality disorders is the best diagnosis for Claude? Claude
goes to great lengths to be the centre of attention. He announces his views and feelings with
great drama; however, one soon suspects it is only for effect, and he seems willing to say or
do almost anything to get others to pay attention to and like him.
A. Histrionic
B. Schizotypal
C. Schizoid
D. Paranoid

28. In Japan, those with avoidant personality disorder would likely be diagnosed as having
A)hojo
B) taijin kyofusho
C) hatini.
D) shanghi dongwa.

29. The DSM-5 defines personality disorders.

A) 5
B) 8
C) 10
D) 13

30. Antisocial personality disorder has previously been referred to as

A) psychopathy/sociopathy
B) evilness.
C) antiempathic.
D) None of the above.
31. Compared to individuals who don’t display psychopathy, the skin conductance of those
displaying psychopathy is when confronted with an intense or aversive stimulus.
A) less reactive
B) more reactive
C) equally reactive
D) more reactive only in those who are criminals
32. An inability to conform to the social norms that ordinarily govern many aspects of a
person’s adolescent and adult behavior is called
A) Paranoid personality disorder
B) Schizoid personality disorder
C) Antisocial personality disorder
D) Borderline personality disorder

33. Avoidant Personality Disorder is characterized by:

a) A grandiose sense of self-importance
b) Fear of rejection and extreme shyness
c) Perfectionism and preoccupation with rules
d) Excessive emotionality and impulsivity
34. Which psychiatric disorder is characterized by a persistent pattern of disregard for the
rights of others, lying, impulsivity, and lack of remorse?
A) Bipolar Disorder
B) Schizophrenia
C) Antisocial Personality Disorder
D) Panic Disorder
35. Which personality disorder is characterized by a pervasive pattern of distrust and
suspiciousness, often misinterpreting others' motives as malevolent?
A) Paranoid Personality Disorder
B) Borderline Personality Disorder
C) Schizoid Personality Disorder
D) Antisocial Personality Disorder
36. Which of the following is the most well-known of the Personality disorders ?
A. Borderline Personality Disorder
B. Melancholic Personality Disorder
C. Associative Personality Disorder
D. Dissociative Personality Disorder
37. An Individual with Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder will exhibit which of the
following characteristics?
A. exceptionally perfectionist tendencies
B. a preoccupation with orderliness
C. They will stick to rules
D. All of the above
38. Which of the following is NOT a criterion for borderline personality disorder?
A. Fear of abandonment
B. Unstable relationships
C. Unstable self-image
D. Perfectionism

39. Which of the following is a characteristic of dependent personality disorder?

A. Submissive and clinging behavior
B. Excessive need to be taken care of
C. Difficulty making decisions without the advice of others
D. All of the above

40. Most effective treatment in borderline personality disorder

A.pharmacotheraphy
B. Behavior therapy
C. Combination of both pharmacotherapy and behavior therapy
D. None
41. Which personality disorder is characterized by a pervasive pattern of grandiosity, a need
for admiration, and a lack of empathy for others?
A) Antisocial Personality Disorder
B) Borderline Personality Disorder
C) Narcissistic Personality Disorder
D) Schizoid Personality Disorder
42. A person with borderline personality disorder often engages in self-harming behaviors
and has difficulty regulating emotions. This behavior is known as:
a) Dissociation
b) Impulsivity
c) Magical thinking
d) Avoidance
43) Which cluster of personality disorders includes conditions characterized by odd or
eccentric behavior and perceptual distortions?
a) Cluster A
b) Cluster B
c) Cluster C
d) Cluster D

44) A pervasive pattern of grandiosity, need for admiration, and lack of empathy is
characteristic of which personality disorder?
a) Antisocial Personality Disorder
b) Borderline Personality Disorder
c) Narcissistic Personality Disorder
d) Avoidant Personality Disorder

45) Individuals with borderline personality disorder often experience intense fear of
abandonment and exhibit:
a) Pervasive distrust and suspicion of others
b) Unstable relationships, self-image, and affect
c) Obsessive-compulsive tendencies
d) Emotional detachment

46) What is a common feature of schizoid personality disorder?

a) Grandiosity and a lack of empathy
 b) Emotional instability and mood swings
c) Detachment from social relationships and limited emotional expression
d) Recklessness and impulsivity

47) A person with avoidant personality disorder is most likely to exhibit:

a) A pervasive pattern of perfectionism and control
b) Fear of social interaction and avoidance behavior
c) Chronic self-doubt and excessive need for reassurance
d) Impulsivity and a lack of empathy

48) Which personality disorder is characterized by a pattern of intense emotional swings,

impulsivity, and unstable self-image?
a) Schizoid Personality Disorder
b) Narcissistic Personality Disorder
c) Borderline Personality Disorder
d) Histrionic Personality Disorder

49) A person with paranoid personality disorder may exhibit:

a) Fear of abandonment and unstable self-image
b) Dramatic and attention-seeking behavior
c) Emotional instability and mood swings
d) Chronic distrust and suspicion of others

50) What is a characteristic feature of obsessive-compulsive personality disorder (OCPD)?

a) A pervasive pattern of perfectionism, control, and rigidity
b) Intense fear of social interactions
c) Unstable self-image and identity
d) A history of criminal behavior

MENTAL STATUS EXAMINATION

51. When conducting a psychiatric mental status examination (MSE), which of the following
components assesses a patient's thought process?
A. Affect
B. Perception
C. Thought content
D. Insight
52. In which facilitating intervention is the words of the patient's are being used by the
psychiatrist to indicate that he or she has heard what the patient is saying and conveys an
interest in hearing more.
A. Reinforcement
B. Reflection
C. Summarizing
D. Education.
53. In the MSE, which component evaluates a patient's emotional state?
A. Insight
B. Affect
C. Thought Process
D. Judgment

54. What does the "E" in SIGECAPS represent when assessing symptoms of major
depression?
A. Entertainment
B. Energy
C. Exercise
D. Environment
55. How many Personality disorder subtypes classified in DSM-5?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Five
56. A patient's thought process is disorganized and fragmented, with a lack of logical
connections between ideas. Which term best describes this thought process disturbance?
A. Flight of ideas
B. Circumstantiality
C. Tangentiality
D. Loose associations
57. In the context of thought disorders, which symptom is characterized by a sudden
disruption of thought or a break in the flow of ideas?
A. Circumstantiality
B. Thought blocking
C. Neologism
D. Tangentiality
58. Which one is correct sequence of the Initial Psychiatric Interview?
A. Chief complaint, Present illness, Past psychiatric history, Identifying data, Source and
reliability.
B. Identifying data, Source and reliability, Chief complaint, Present illness, Past psychiatric
history
C. Present illness, Past psychiatric history, Identifying data, Source and reliability, Chief
complaint.
D. Past psychiatric history, Identifying data, Source and reliability, Chief complaint, present
illness.

59. This type of record includes details of transference, fantasies, dreams, personal
information about persons with whom the patient interacts, and other intimate details of the
patient's life.
A. Personal notes
B. Blogs
C. Psychotherapy notes
D. E-mail
60. Which psychometric property refers to the consistency or repeatability of ratings and is
largely empirical.
A. Reliability
B. Validity
C. Disability
D. Facility
61. A 38 year female came to hospital. She is previously diagnosed with amnesia so
frequently go to other place ( forget her address), had an accident and Now she is having
sleeping difficulties. You are the attending medical clerk what would you write in chief
complaint?
A. Amnesia
B. sleeping difficulties
C. Accident
D. Memory loss
62. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of individuals with paranoid personality
disorder?
A. avoidance of close relationships
B. avoidance of public places
C. are often spontaneously aggressive to others
D. often feel that they have been deeply and irreversibly betrayed by others
63. Which of the following methods is commonly used for the examination and diagnosis of
psychiatric disorders?
A. Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)
B. DSM-5 (Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Fifth Edition)
C. Blood Pressure Monitoring
D. Electrocardiogram (ECG)
64. Sigmund Freud sggested that personality traits are related to a fixation at one
psychosexual stage of development which is one of the cause of personality disorder. What
causative factor does it belong?
A) Biological factors
B) Genetic factors
C) Psychoanalytic factors
D) Environmental factors
65. What would you do before the interview?
A. Physical examination
B. Prescription of some medication
C. Obtain general information like name, age
D. Referral to other health professionals
66. What are the questions can be asked to evaluate the patient memory?
A. what is your name?
B. what did you have for breakfast?
C. what place is this?
D. how are an apple and an orange alike
67. What type of delusion involves the belief that the patient’s thoughts are being placed into
their mind by an external power?
A.Thought Insertion
B.Thought withdrawal
C.Thought broadcasting
D.Auditory hallucinations

68. What is a common term used to describe an affect that shifts suddenly and rapidly
between emotions?
A.Flat affect
B.Inappropriate affect
C.Blunted affect
D.Labile affect
69. What is the term used to describe a patient’s inability to experience pleasure or joy?
A.Mood congruency
B.Anhedonia
C.Emotional lability
D.Dissociation

70. When assessing level of arousal in a patient, which of the following sensory stimuli is
considered most stimulating?
A.Touch
B.Smell
C.Sound
D.Pain
71. How might a patient appear if they display a complete lack of interest in their
environment?
A.Apathetic
B.Obsessive
C.Distracted
D.Hostile
72. What is the term used to describe a thought process in which a person associates words or
sounds based on their similarity rather than their meaning?
A.Loose Associations
B.Clang Associations
C.Echolalia
D.Neologism
73. Which of the following is a common cause of retrograde amnesia?
A.Traumatic brain injury
B.Parkinson’s disease
C.Alzheimer’s disease
D.Factitious disorder
74. What term is used to describe a patient who appears excessively happy and elated?
A.Euphoric
B.Ambivalent
C.Schizophrenic
D.Manic
75. What is a common hallmark of anxiety disorders?
a) Hallucinations
b) Delusions
c) Excessive fear or worry
d) Impulsivity

76. Which of the following is NOT a primary symptom of major depressive disorder?
a) Persistent sadness
b) Insomnia
c) Grandiosity
d) Loss of interest or pleasure
77. What is the most important part of the psychiatric mental status examination (MSE)?
A. Appearance and behavior
B. Mood and affect
C. Speech and thought
D. Perception and insight
78. It describe A brief description is given of the patient's appearance, behavior, and manner
of relating to the examiner, with particular attention paid to abnormalities.
A. Appearance
B. Emotional Expression
C. Speech
D. Thinking and Perception
79. In the mental status examination, "orientation" refers to a person's awareness of:
A. Their current emotional state
B. Their surroundings, time, and identity
C. Their genetic history
D. Their past traumas

80. which aspect assesses a person's speech and thought patterns?

A. Appearance
B. Affect
C. Thought process
D. Insight
81. What is the primary purpose of a psychiatric mental status examination?
A. To diagnose physical health issues
B. To assess cognitive functioning
C. To evaluate a person's mental state and behavior
D. To prescribe medication
82. Which of the following is NOT a component of the mental status exam?
A. Appearance and behavior
B. Thought content
C. Blood pressure measurement
D. Mood and affect
83. What does "affect" refer to in a mental status examination?
A. A person's emotional expression
B. A person's physical appearance
C. A person's thought process
D. A person's history of illnesses
84. Which of the following components of the mental status exam assesses a person's
memory, attention, and ability to perform calculations?
A. Thought content
B. Insight
C. Cognitive functioning
D. Reflexes
85. What is the purpose of assessing "perception" during a mental status examination?
A. To evaluate a person's physical health
B. To determine their level of consciousness
C. To identify distortions in sensory experiences
D. To assess their emotional well-being
86. Which term refers to the process of systematically asking questions to gather information
about their symptoms and history?
A. Observation
B. Interviewing
C. Diagnosing
D. Medicating

87. How would you ask questions to evaluate the patient orientation?
A. what is your name?
B. what did you have for breakfast?
C. who was your teacher?
D. how are an apple and an orange alike

88. What is the study of mental distress known as?

A. Psychosomatics
B. Psychoanalytics
C. psychopathology
D. psychodynamics
89. What is the type of mental illness in which person is aware of problem & seek remedy?
A. Pschysosis
B. Neurosis
C. Schizophrenia
D. Huntington's disease
90. The first step in the treatment of incest is to:
A. believe the child who reports the activity.
B. notify the proper authorities.
C. objectively confront the accused family member.
D. remove the child from the home
91. Which part of the mental state exam considers whether the patient recognises that they are
unwell?
A) Cognition
B) Insight
C) Thought
D) Perception
92. A couple in counseling reports fighting with their son when they are angry with each
other. This behavior typifies:
A. coalition
B. indirect communication
C. transference
D. triangulation

93. Mental Status Examination can be divided into the following major categories except,
A. General Appearance
B. Thoughts
C. Cognition
D. Addiction
94. During a mental status examination (MSE), which of the following would be considered
an abnormal finding?*
A. The patient maintains good eye contact throughout the interview
B. The patient's speech is coherent and logical
C. The patient exhibits psychomotor agitation, constantly fidgeting and pacing
D. The patient expresses appropriate emotions and affect during the interview

95. Which of the following is not a component of the psychiatric mental state examination
(MSE)?
A. Appearance
B. Behaviour
C. Perception
D. Blood pressure
96. During a psychiatric examination, a patient exhibits symptoms such as depressed mood,
loss of interest or pleasure, significant weight loss, insomnia, and feelings of worthlessness.
Which of the following diagnoses is most likely?
A) Generalized Anxiety Disorder
B) Major Depressive Disorder
C) Bipolar Disorder
D) Schizophrenia
97. Which diagnostic system is widely used for classifying psychiatric disorders?
A) ASAM Criteria
B) WHO International Classification of Diseases (ICD)
C)) Beck's Cognitive Triad
D) Korsakoff's Syndrome

98. An individual experiences recurrent episodes of uncontrollable eating followed by

purging behaviors. This is most likely indicative of:
A) Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD)
B) Bulimia Nervosa
C) Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)
D) Bipolar Disorder
99. Which neurotransmitter is commonly associated with mood regulation and is often
implicated in mood disorders like depression?
A) Dopamine
B) Serotonin
C) Acetylcholine
D) Norepinephrine

100. What is the primary characteristic of post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)?

A) Frequent panic attacks
B) Recurrent flashbacks and nightmares
C) Bipolar mood swings
D) Social phobia