Professional Documents
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12th 4 in 1 Guide
12th 4 in 1 Guide
12th 4 in 1 Guide
ெபா ளட க
1 பல ெதரிக ( ெச , உைரநைட) 03
தமி 2 பல ெதரிக (த ற ) 07
3 இல கண ற 11
பய ச ைகேய
4 ப பத உ ப ல கண 12
5 ண ச 16
6 இல கண பய ச வ னா க 17
7 ெமாழி பய ச 25
8 வ னா க 29
9 த வ னா க ( வ னா க ) 38
10 ச வ னா க 40
11 ெந வ னா க 54
12 த ைண, ைற 85
13 அணி 88
14 இல க ய நய பாரா ட 90
16 மனன ெச 101
19 மர ெசா க 108
21 வ னா தா வ வைம 110
23 த வ னா க (ஒ மத ெப ) 116
3 4
10. உலக நா க மா ஆ றைல ேநா க ெச றா ம ேம வ ெவ பமயமாதைல க ப த
பல ெதரிக
இய -1 - இ ெதாட உண வ
6. ெபா க
அ) ர க - 1) க கைள தவ தன 15. "எ க த ைதய நாெட ற ேப ச னிேல - ஒ
அ) 1, 3, 4, 2 ஆ) 3, 1, 4, 2 இ) 3, 2, 1, 4 ஈ) 2, 1, 3, 4 3, 4, 2, 1
இய -4
7. நர க ைண மீ ெகா கற எ அ ய ப மாதவ ற ப வ 16. "காவ ென கலேன; க ென கல ைப" - இ ெதாடரி 'கல ' உண ெபா
அ) ரிய ஒளி கத ஆ) மைழ ேமக க இ) மைழ ளிக ஈ) நீ ந ைலக அ) ேபா க வ ஆ) த க வ இ) இைச க வ ஈ) ேவளா க வ
ஈ) எ - 4) வ
32. ச த இல க ய எ ப
அ) 1, 2, 4, 3 ஆ) 4, 2, 1, 3 இ) 4, 1, 2, 3 ஈ) 2, 4, 3, 1
1: கைத வ வ லான வ வ ைடய . 2: ெபரிய எ தக எ அைழ க ப வ
அ) 1 சரி, 2 தவ ஆ) 1, 2 சரி
24. 'உ ெளா ைவ ற ெபா ேப வா ' - இ ெதாட உண ப
இ) 1, 2 தவ ஈ) 1 தவ , 2 சரி
அ) ேந மைற ப ஆ) எத மைற ப இ) ர ப ஈ) இைவ அைன
அ) இைர ச ஆ) ைற தா
இய -8
இ) ந ைற ட நீ த ப இ ஈ) ற அைச க அக த ைன அைச க இயலா 35. ச பாணா பைட கா பா ைட தைலவனி இ ைறய ந ல ப த
அ) உதகம டல ஆ) வ ர இ) த வன ஈ) த ம ரி
7 8
36. ெபா தாத ஒ ைற க டற க. இ) ஊழி ெப வ யாஉள ம ஒ
அ) தனி தமி த ைத - 1. . வரதராசனா ழி தா உ .
ஆ) ஆரா ச ேபரற ஞ - 2. மய ைல சீனி. ேவ கடசாமி
4. கீ கா கவ ைத ெபா த றைள எ க..
இ) தமி ெத ற - 3. த .வ .க
உய அ வலரி வ ைக
ஈ) ெமாழி ஞாய - 4. ேதவேநய பாவாண
அ வலகேம அ லா
37. ச. த. ச ணரி உைரைய ேக ட ெப ற மய ைல சீனி. ேவ கடசாமி எ தய . அவ ைடய ச ன அைனவ அற தேத
ேகா கைள வ ைர க
அ) ெபௗ த தமி ஆ) இ லா தமி இ) சமண தமி ஈ) க ற தவ தமி
ஒ ெச ய
38. நா ெவ ெவளிய அைல ெகா க ேற என க ைத ேத யப எ க த ேநர த இ க ேவ
ப ரமணிய ேத வதாக ற ப வ . வ ைரக ற மன
அ) தம கவரிைய ஆ) தம ப ைத இ) தம அைடயாள ைத ஈ) தம பைட கைள பரபர மனவ த மா
வ ைய எ க ேற
39. கைடெய வ ள களி வரிைசைய சாராத ம ன க காைல க ெகா க ற ழ ைத
அ) ஆ அ ர அத க ஆ) ந ய ேகாட மர 'ேபா அ த ப க '
இ) ந ளி ஓரி ஈ) பாரி காரி உதற ெச க ேற ழ ைதைய.
த ற - வ னா க வ ைட: ெச இட கா பா ச ன கா பா அ இட
கா க எ காவா கா எ ?
இய -3
1. பட ெபா தமான த றைள க ப க.
5. ெபா க
1. ெவ ளி - சன
அ) அ அற உைட தாய இ வா ைக
ப பய அ . 2. ைண - ெத ப
ஆ) ைவய வா வா வா பவ வா ைற 3. ஏம - பா கா
ெத வ ைவ க ப . 4. த - ெச வ
இ) ச ன எ ேச தாைர ெகா இன எ
ஏம ைணைய .
6. ைவயக வானக ஆ றலரி எத ?
அ) ெச யாம ெச த உதவ ஆ) பய கா ெச த உதவ
2. கட ெபரிய இ) த ைன ைண ந ற ஈ) கால த னா ெச த ந ற
அ) உ ற கால த ெச த உதவ ஆ) பய ஆராயாம ஒ வ ெச த உதவ இ) த ைனயள ெச த உதவ
7. பைக உளேவா ப ற? - ெபா க
3. ப வ நால யா பாட ெபா ெபா தமான த றைள க டற க.
வ ைட: ச ன ைத ேபா ற பைக ேவ எ இ ைல.
ந லா நயவ இ ப நய இலா
க லா ெகா றாக ய காரண - ெதா ைல
8. ெபா க
வ ைன பய அ ல ேவ ெந க ணா
அ) ைவய வா வா வா பவ - 1) ேச தாைர ெகா
ந ைன ப வ வெதா ற
அ) இ ேவ உலக இய ைக; த ேவ ஆ) பய கா ெச த உதவ - 2) ஞால த மாண ெபரி
ெத ளிய ஆத ேவ . இ) ச ன - 3) ெத வ ைவ க ப
ஆ) ந லைவ எ லா தீயவா தீய ஈ) கால த னா ெச த ந ற - 4) ந ைம கட ெபரி
ந லவா ெச வ ெசய .
அ) 4,3,2,1 ஆ) 3,4,1,2 இ) 1,2,3,4 ஈ) 2,3,4,1
9 10
இய -6
15. ந ப யான ப இ லாதவ
9. பட த ெபா தமான த றைள க ப க.
அ) வர ேபாவைத னேர அற கா ெகா ள யவ ஆ) மன த ப உைடயவ
இ) வ ைன த ப எ ப ஒ வ மன த ப ஆ) ெசா வ - ெசா யப ெச வ
ம ைறய எ லா ப ற.
இ) ச ைம பல ெச வ - பைகவ ெதாட
ஈ) ெம ெபா கா ப - உ க எ ளாத
10. கவ ைத ெபா த றைள க டற க.
17. ெபா க.
மனேமா மா வ அ) எ வ உைறவ உலக உலக ேதா
அ) பா ேபா உட உைற த - 1) தீ கா வா
பாைதெயா க ேபாக ந ைன மா அ வ உைறவ அற .
ஆ) ெச தா - 2) சீ அழி
இ ப இ தா எ ப நக ஆ) ெச ற இட தா ெசலவ டா தீ ஒரீஇ
இ) வ ைம த வ - 3) க உ பவ
வா ைக ச கர ந ற பா உ ப அற .
ஊ ேபா பாைதய இ) அற வ ற கா க வ ெச வா ஈ) இக ேவ த ேச ஒ வா - 4) உட பா இலாதவ
ச கர உ டா உ ளழி க ஆகா அர . அ) 1,2,3,4 ஆ) 2,3,4,1 இ) 4,1,3,2 ஈ) 4,3,2,1
அ ேவ அற ; அ ேவ ெதளி .
ெதரி ெதளிேவா
11. ப வ நால யா பாட ெபா ெபா தமான த றைள க டற க.
அனய - ந ைறவான (இய - 3) (இய 4)
இய -3
9. த தன - தா (த) + ( )+ +அ +அ 16. ெச த - ெச + +அ
தா - ப த (த என கய வ கார ) ெச - ப த
அ - சாரிைய
அ - பட ைக ஆ பா வ ைன வ த 17. சா ற - சா +இ
சா - ப த
ெபா - ப த இய -6
- ச த ( ஆன வ கார ) 18. ெதா தன - ெதா + +அ +அ
- இற தகால இைடந ைல ெதா - ப த
ஆ - ஆ பா வ ைன வ த - இற தகால இைடந ைல
இய -5 அ - சாரிைய
11. ந ைன க ற - ந ைன + +க +அ அ - பட ைக பல பா வ ைன வ த
ந ைன - ப த
இய -7
- ச த
19. அற - அற + ( )+ +உ
க - ந க கால இைடந ைல
அற - ப த
அ - ெபயெர ச வ த
- ச த ( ஆன வ கார )
- இற தகால இைடந ைல
12. ைவ - ைவ + + +உ
உ - வ ைனெய ச வ த
ைவ - ப த
- ச த
20. அ - அ + + +உ
- இற தகால இைடந ைல
அ - ப த
உ - வ ைனெய ச வ த
- ச த
- இற தகால இைடந ைல
13. ேப வா - ேப + +ஆ
உ - வ ைனெய ச வ த
ேப - ப த
- எத கால இைடந ைல இய -8
ஆ - பல பா வ ைன வ த 21. பைக த - பைக + + +அ
பைக - ப த
14. க டா - கா (க )+ +ஆ - ச த
கா - ப த (க என கய வ கார ) - இற தகால இைடந ைல
- இற தகால இைடந ைல அ - ெபயெர ச வ த
ஆ - ஆ பா வ ைன வ த
15 16
22. கைள - கைள + ( )+ +உ ண ச வதக
கைள - ப த ஈ ேபாத
1. ெச பரித - ெச ைம + பரித (இய - 1)
- ச த ( ஆன வ கார )
ஈ ேபாத ெச + பரித = ெச பரித
- இற தகால இைடந ைல
2. ந ெமாழி - ந ைம + ெமாழி (8)
உ - வ ைனெய ச வ த
ஈ ேபாத , இனமிக
23. பழி தன - பழி + + +அ +அ
1. அ கான - அ ைம + கான (3)
பழி - ப த
ஈ ேபாத அ + கான
- ச த
இனமிக அ + + கான =அ கான
- இற தகால இைடந ைல
2. ெப ேத - ெப ைம + ேத (6)
அ - சாரிைய
3. ெப கட - ெப ைம + கட (5)
அ - பல பா வ ைன வ த
ஈ ேபாத , னி ற ெம த ரித
24. இ - இ + ( )+ +உ
1. ெச தமிேழ - ெச ைம + தமிேழ (1)
இ - ப த
ஈ ேபாத ெச + தமிேழ
- ச த ( ஆன வ கார )
னி ெம த ரித ெச + தமிேழ = ெச தமிேழ
- இற தகால இைடந ைல
2. ெவ கத - ெவ ைம + கத (1)
உ - வ ைனெய ச வ த
இய ப வதய ந ற உய கசதப மி
25. ஈ த - ஈ+ ( )+ +அ
1. தைல ேகா - தைல + ேகா (6)
ஈ - ப த
இய ப வதய ந ற உய கசதப மி தைல + + ேகா = தைல ேகா
- ச த ( ஆன வ கார )
2. எ த ைச - எ + த ைச (4)
- இற தகால இைடந ைல
அ - ெபயெர ச வ த
ஈ ேபாத , இய ப வதய ந ற உய கசதப மி
1. ெபய - ைம + ெபய (2)
26. அம தன - அம + ( )+ +அ +அ
ஈ ேபாத + ெசய
அம - ப த
இய ப வதய ந ற உய கசதப மி + + ெபய = ெபய
- ச த ( ஆன வ கார )
- இற தகால இைடந ைல
ம ஒ றழி உய ரீ ஒ ப
அ - சாரிைய
1. இனந ைர - இன + ந ைர (2)
அ - வ த
ம ஒ றழி உய ரீ ஒ ப இன + ந ைர = இனந ைர
27. தா க ய - தா + இ( )+ +அ
ெபய இனெம ைம ேதா
தா - ப த
1. பாவா - + பாவா (5)
இ( ) - இற தகால இைடந ைல
ெபய இனெம ைம ேதா + + பாவா = பாவா
- உட ப ெம ச த
அ - ெபயெர ச வ த
உட ேம உய வ ஒ வ இய ேப
1. வானெம லா - வான + எ லா (1)
உட ேம உய வ ஒ வ இய ேப வான + எ லா ( +எ=ெம)=வானெம லா
2. உர ைட - உர + உைட (8)
17 18
உய வரி உ ற ெம வ ேடா , உட ேம உய வ ஒ வ இய ேப
1. ஆ கவ - ஆ + அவ (1) 4. தமிழி ப ைழய ற எ வத ேம ெகா ள ேவ ய ய சக யாைவ?
தனி ற ஒ உய வரி இர உ +ஒ
உட ேம உய வ ஒ வ இய ேப உ +ஒ ( +ஒ=ெளா) = உ ெளா இய -2
2. ைட - + உைட (8) 5. தமிழி த ைண பா பா ___________அ பைடய ப க ப ள .
2. உ ைனய லா - உ ைன + அ லா (1)
அ) காைளகைள வயைல உ தன . அ) அவ அவ அவ - 1) உள ப தா த ைம ப ைம
ஈ) ெந பய க மைழநீரி க ன. ஈ) நா க , நா - 4) பத ெபய க
அவ தாேன ப தா . அ) மா சீ - 1) க வ ள , வள
ெகா - உடைல வ த ெகா ஆ னா . ஆ) கா சீ - 2) நா , மல
உடைல வ த ெகா டா னா . இ) வ ள சீ - 3) ேதமா கா , ளிமா கா
வ டா - அவ ஆ ட ைத ஆ வ டா . ஈ) ஓரைச சீ - 4) ேதமா, ளிமா
அவ ஆ ட ைத ஆ வ டா . அ) 1,2,4,3 ஆ) 4,3,1,2 இ) 2,3,1,4 ஈ) 3,4,2,1
வ க ப தா வ த ெவ பா எனலா .
31. சரியானவ ைற ெபா த ேத க :
இய -5 அ) காைத - 1) க த ராண
24. ப ம எ பத ெபா
ஆ) ச க . - 2) சீவகச தாமணி
அ) ெசா ஆ) ெசய இ) கா ச ஈ) ஒ இ) இல பக - 3) ளாமணி
ஈ) படல - 4) ச ல பத கார
25. 'காைல இள ெவய ந றாக ேமய, ப ளிவ ெவய ' இ கவ ைதய ______________
அ) 4, 3, 2, 1 ஆ) 3, 4, 1, 2 இ) 3, 4, 2, 1 ஈ) 4, 3, 1, 2
பய வ ள .
32. தவறான இைணைய ேத க
அ) பய ப ம ஆ) வ ைன ப ம இ) ெம ப ம ஈ) உ ப ம
பாவைக இல க ய
அ) ெந ச க க மல பய தா .... ஆ) க நண இழிச ன ைகய ...... ஐ ெப கா ப ய க : ச ல பத கார , மணிேமகைல, சீவகச தாமணி, வைளயாபத , டலேகச
இ) பாச மணி க சவ ேகா க .... ஈ) ெவ தா ெபா னி அ த ப.... ஐ ச கா ப ய க : ளாமணி, நீலேகச , உதயண மா காவ ய , நாக மார காவ ய ,
யேசாதர காவ ய .
28. "மா ேதா வச த த ப டாைட உ தய க ற " - இத எ வைக ப ம ெவளி ப க ற ?
க தளி க மாக ப டாைடைய மர ேபா தய பதாக கா அைத ெப ணாக ெபா ெடாட ந ைல ெச , கைத ெச , அகல கவ , ெதாட நைட ெச ,வ த
இவ ெபரிய அரி ச த ர பா
36. பாவ க - வள க.
அ) ெப - 1) சமாதான
38. ெதா ம ப றய க தவறான ஒ ைற ேத க.
ஆ) றா - 2) ர
அ) உ வா க ப இ க வ டவ வ க . ஆ) பழ கைதைய ெகா க ைத வ ள வ .
இ) தரா - 3) வ ள
இ) ந ப யாத ேபா ேதா நக சக ெச த க .
ஈ) ச க - 4) நீத
ஈ) வ ள காத க கைள பழெமாழிய ல வள வ .
அ) 2, 4, 1, 3 ஆ) 2, 4, 3, 1 இ) 3, 1, 4, 2 ஈ) 3, 1, 2, 4
40. ப ற கைள கைதமா த கேளா ெபா க. அ) சரி, காரண தவ ஆ) சரி, காரண சரி
ஆ) வ ைம - 2) ம நீத ேசாழ
46. ச க இல க ய த , அக த ைண மா த களி உ ள உண கைள ற பாக உண
இ) நீத - 3) ம
ற க
ஈ) வ ள - 4) த ம
அ) உவைம ஆ) உவேமய இ) உ த ஈ) உ ைற உவைம
அ) 3, 2, 1, 4 ஆ) 4, 3, 2, 1 இ) 2, 4, 3, 1 ஈ) 4, 3, 1, 2
வ ய ைவ ப ெதாட .
உைழ பா ெசழி வள க ற எ பேத இ கவ ைதய க தா . 5. The limits of my language are the limits of my world.
2. ெசழி - அ த ரப ற டாக ற .
உவைம ெதாட கைள ெசா ெறாட களி அைம எ க.
51. ற உ தய அ பைட இல கண கைள எ க. 1. தாமைர இைல நீ ேபால: இ லக வா வான தாமைர இைல நீ ேபால ப ற றதாக இ த
இய -2 அக ற பல ந லனவ ைற க ெகா .
மய ெகா ெசா கைள ஒேர ெதாடரி அைம எ க.
1. வ ைல, வ ைள, வ ைழ - கா ப வ த ந றாக வ ைள ததா தானிய களி வ ைல ைறயாம க ெபா தமான ேவ ைம உ கைள ேச ைறயான ெதாட களாக ஆ க.
1. மர பா ேத .
ஏ மத ந வன ட ஒ ப த ெச ெகா ள வ ைழவதாக அர அற வ த .
மரைன பா ேத .
2. தைல, தைள, தைழ - ஆ க த த தைள நீ க ய ட தைல சா தைழைய த ற .
2. மாற ேப தற யா ெவ ல .
3. கைல, கைள, கைழ - கைழ தா த கைல த றைன ச ற பாக ெவளி ப த யதா ட கைள
மாறனி ேப த றைன யாரா ெவ ல ?
க ய .
3. ேபா ெவ ற ெப ற கைல ெச வ பாரா க வ தன.
4. அைல, அைள, அைழ - கட ஆ பரி அைழ ப ேபா எ த அைலக ந க வா
ேபா ய ெவ ற ெப றதா கைல ெச வ பாரா க வ தன.
அைளய த .
4. காைல எ ப நம ந ைம ஏ ப .
இய -3
காைலய எ ப தா நம ந ைம ஏ ப .
வ ன ெம கைள இ நீ க எ க.
5. அைனவ அ அைழ தவ ப தர யா மன வ .
1. எ ைடய ந ப ைக வ ேம த ய தைல ைற மீ தா ; அவ க எ லா ப ர ச ைனகைள ஒ
அைனவைர அ ட அைழ தவ ப தர யா மன வ .
ச க ைத ேபால எத ெகா தீ பா க .
6. சா ேறா மத ெகா வா உயரலா .
எ ைடய ந ப ைக வ ேம த ய தைல ைற மீ தா ; அவ க எ லா ப ர சைனகைள ஒ
சா ேறா மத ெகா தா வா வ உயரலா .
ச க ைத ேபால எத ெகா தீ பா க .
இய -4
2. எ தைன ைற நீ ம றவ க ேனற ெச வதைன க ஒ ெச வதற யா ந ப ைகய ற
ெதாடரி உ ள ப ைழகைள நீ க எ க.
வா . ந ைறய த ன ப ைக ெகா .
1. ந மானில இ தஆ வர ச யா பாத க ப ட .
எ தைன ைற நீ ம றவ க ேனற ெச வதைன க ஒ ெச வதற யா
ந மாந ல இ தஆ வற ச யா பாத க ப ட .
ந ப ைகய ற வா . ந ைறய த ன ப ைக ெகா .
2. எ க ஊரி லக க ட க ட அற நத ஒ கய .
எ க ஊரி லக க டட க ட அர நத ஒ கய .
3. ந வா ைகய தர நம கவன த தர ைத ெபா த கற . தக ப ெபா த
3. ர க ெவ கல பா த ர கைட ைவ த க றா .
கவன அற ைவ ெப வத கான அ பைட ேதைவயா .
அர க ெவ கல பா த ர கைட ைவ த க றா .
ந வா ைகய தர நம கவன த தர ைத ெபா த கற . தக ப ெபா த
4. மான பா த மிய பய வைகக பய ரிட ப க றன.
கவன அற ைவ ெப வத கான அ பைட ேதைவயா .
வான பா த மிய பய வைகக பய ரிட ப க றன.
4. மாணவ க ெப ேறா கைள தம ந ப களாக பாவ ந ெகா ள ேவ . தம இ ப 5. ஐ பச அைடமைழய ஊ னி ந ைற த .
ப கைள ெப ேறா க ட பக ெகா ள ேவ .
ஐ பச அைடமைழய ஊ ணி ந ைற த .
மாணவ க ெப ேறா கைள தம ந ப களாக பாவ ந ெகா ள ேவ . தம இ ப 6. இ னி சாய கால கப ேபா நைடெப .
ப கைள ெப ேறா க ட பக ெகா ள ேவ . இ சா கால (மாைலய ) கப ேபா நைடெப .
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4. த மலெரா பற க ற கா ற
ெசா ைல ப ரி ேச ெதாடரைம க.
5. வான அ கற மி ச ரி க ற மி ன
1. பலைக : பலைகயா ஆன ேமைசய உண உ டன .
பல ைக : பல ைகக ஒ ற ைண ெவ ற ைய தமதா க ன. இய -6
2. தாமைர : தாமைர ந ைற த ள அழகாக கா ச யளி . கீ கா ெதாட களி அைட உ ள ெபய ெசா ைல ெதாட க ஏ றவா
5. ைள உட சரிய ைல நாளா ச ரம ப .
1. வான , பற, ந ல , ெதா - வான த பற ேபா ; பற ந லைவ ெதா ேவா .
ப ைள உட ந ைல சரிய ைல, நாளாக ச ரம ப க ற .
2. ச ,வ ,ம , அைல - ச வ த ம ணி ; ப ன கா றா அைலேபா தர ட .
6. ரைவ ச த பன காவ ேபாவ ெசா .
3. வ மீ , ஒளி , எரி, வ - வ மீ க க ஒளி எரி வ தன.
இர ச ற ய த ைதைய காவ ேபாக ெசா .
4. த ைர, ேவக , ஓ , தா - த ைர ேவகமாக ஓ ேவ ைய தாவ ய .
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31 32
இய -8
இய -7 வ ைட ேக ற வ னா அைம த .
2. ஆணி அ தா ேபால - வ வ ,ஒ க ப ற றயக க ஒ ெவா மாணவ க 2. ந வ அர 2005 ஆ ஆ ச ப 23 அ ேதச ய ேபரிட ேமலா ைம ஆைணய ைத அைம த .
2. க ேசா சா ப பா தா . ெச வ னா க
க ேசா உ பா ப க னா . இய -1
3. ேகாவ த ய க வ க ைர அைம தா .
1. கவ ஞ ச ப எவ ைற வ ய பாட, தமிழி ைண ேவ எ க றா ?
ேகாவ த ய க வ எ ப ைர ேவ தா .
மாைல கத ரவனி மைறவ ேபா ேதா வான ேபா , உைழ ப ச வ த ைககைள உைடய
4. வனவ ல கா பக த ச க யாைன க ேட . ெதாழிலாள களி ேதா மீத வ ய ைவ ளிக தா ற . அவ ைற வ ய பாட,
வனவ ல கா பக த ச க ைள யாைன க க ேட . தமிழி ைண ேவ எ க றா கவ ஞ ச ப பால ப ரமணிய .
இள ேகாவ க சா தனாரிட ெச த வ ைன ந ைறேவ கால எ றீ கேள அவ க ைடய ெப ற ேபா ஒளி க ற . இதைன' நகர ப ைட தீ ய ெவ ைள ைவரமாக ற ' எ க றா கவ ஞ .
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4. எத பாராத ந க கைள ஜலா தீ மி எ வா உ வக ப க றா ? இய -5
ஜலா த மி அவ க எத பாராத ந க களான ஆன த , மன ேசா , அ ப தன ,
12. க வ ழா, ஒ வ ழா - வ ள க த க.
வ ழி ண ஆக யவ ைற எத பாராத வ தாளிகளாக உ வக ப க றா .
க வ ழா: எ ச த வ ழா. அதாவ மய ைலய எ ச மி க வ ழா க நைடெப .
5. ' உள எனி அ ேறா க உள ' எ ற இராமனி ப வ இ பழெமாழிகளி
ஒ வ ழா: ஆரவார வ ழா.அதாவ கபா ர இைறவ ப னி உ த ர ஆரவார வ ழா நைடெப .
எத ெபா ?
13. 'த மமி ெச ைனய க தேகா ட வள தலேமா க தேவேள' ெதாட பத ைர எ க.
அ) ந ழ அ ைம ெவய ெதரி . ஆ) ச ப த உத .
த மமி ெச ைனய - அற ெச ேவா ந ைற த ெச ைனய
இராமனி 'ந ழ அ ைம ெவய ெதரி 'எ ற பழெமாழி ெபா தமாக உ ள .
க தேகா ட - க தேகா ட த ேகாவ
6. ய வா எ லா தைல என வ வ யாைர க றா ?
வள தலேமா க தேவேள - ஓ க எ த ளிய கேவேள!
அற த இய ேபா ப வா ைக நட பவைர ய வா எ லா தைல என வ வ
க றா . 14. 'ெப கட ேவ ட ச பரதவ ' - ெதாடரி உ ள ர நய ைத ற ப க.
மிக ெபரியதா . இய -6
8. மற க டாத , மற க ய எவ ைற?
15. எ வைக ெம பா க யாைவ?
மற க டாத : ஒ வ நம ெச த ந ைமைய மற க டா .
ச ரி ,அ ைக, ச ைம, வ ய , அ ச , ெப மித , ச ன , மக ச ஆக யன எ வைக ெம பா க
மற க ய : ஒ வ ெச த தீைமைய அ ேபாேத மற வ ட ேவ . ஆ .
இைட எ கவ ைத கவ ஞரி கவ ைத சா தஎ ண , அதைன ெவளி ப வ ண , 15. ' ந வ டா ேப அட ' - கவ ைத ெபா தமான பழெமாழி ஒ ைற எ க.
எ த ப ட கவ ைதைய உ வா வாசகனி மனந ைல ேபா றவ ைற ற டாக ற ப கற .
எரிவைத ப க னா ெகாத ப அட க வ .
17. மன உ தய ேதைவ ப ற த ற யா கற ? ேதய ைல ேதா ட த ேதய ைல பற ெதாழிலாள களி ந ைலய ைன , இனிய ைவைய
ந ல ெசயைல ெச வத மன உ த ேய ேதைவ. அ ெசயைல ெச வத அவனிட உ ள ம ற த க ற ச கைரைய தயாரி ெதாழிலாள களி உைழ ைப , பா காக கா ேல ேம
த தக எ லா அ வளவாக பய படா. ைல ெகா மா வள ெதாழிலாள களி க ன உைழ ைப ேதநீ அ
ேநர த லாவ நா ந ைன பா க ேவ .
18. ந பவ என வ வ யாைர இ ைர க றா ?
அ ச த தன: உற உைடேயா ேபா ந உ பைக ெகா டவரி ந அ ச ேவ . 28. க கவரிய ேபானத க த ப ரமணிய காரண ைத எ க.
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37 38
அழக யைல உ வா வத தள அைம த க ற ெதா கா ப ய இல க ய ைத இய -5
ெமாழிைய ஒ ேசர ேப க ற இல கணமா .எ ைத ெசா ைல ேபா ேற ெச ைள ஓ
9. கீ த ைச வ லக ற எ க.
உ ளைம பாக ெதா கா ப ய க கற .
கீ த ைச வ க லக கா ெம க சய ெதா கைள அ பைடயாக ெகா 1869
2. "படாஅ ஈ த ெகடாஅ ந ைச
ஆ ஆ உ வா க ப ட .
கடாஅ யாைன க மா ேபக" - இ ச க கவ ைதய அ களி ஓைச நயமி க ெசா கைள
இ லக அரிய ஓைல வ க , தா வ க , தக க என ெப ெதா கைள
அவ ற கான இல கண ற கைள எ எ க.
ெகா ட .
ஓைச நயமி க ெசா க : படாஅ , ெகடாஅ, கடாஅ - ெச ளிைச அளெபைடக இய -6
'மர தைழ கா மனித ல ந ைல கா ', 'மர மனித இய ைக ெகா த வர ' இைச, பா த ர களி மன கவைலக , அைல கழி க ஆக யவ ைற எத ெரா பதாக
மனிதனி ற மர க வா . மர களி ற மனிதனா வாழ யா . அதனா , மனித தா எ கா வதா அைமவேதா பா த ர களி உண க வ ரி ைர வழ வதாக
வா கால த ஆ ெகா மர ைதயாவ வள க ேவ .வ கால ச தாய ைத கா க இ க ற .
ேவ .
இய -7
5. மனித த ேபராைச காரணமாக இய ைக வள கைள க ைமயாக ேசத ப த யத வ ைளைவ
11. ப வ ேத பய ெச - ேநர ேமலா ைமேயா ெபா த எ க.
இ ச த ெகா க றா - இ ெதாட களா க.
ப வ ேத பய ெச எ ற ெதாட , கால த உ னத ைத உண ெபா ட ந வாக ெநற ைய
மனித த ேபராைச காரணமாக இய ைக வள கைள க ைமயாக ேசத ப த னா .
கைட ப தா ேவளா ைம ெசழி எ உண கற . அதாவ ைறயான பய ைர
அவ அ வா ேசத ப த யத வ ைளைவ இ ச த ெகா க றா .
ேத ெத உரிய கால த வ ைத தா தா , அ வ ைத ைள ந ல பயைன த .
இய -3
இய -8
6. க ,த மைன - ச ற எ க.
12. 'தமிழ வள த அழ கைலக ' ப ற ற வைரக.
க : ச ல இட களி த கா கமாக த மிட .
தமிழரி கைல த றைன எ ேதா 'தமிழ வள த அழ கைலக ' எ ,
த மைன : த மண த ப கணவ மைனவ ெப ேறாரிடமி ப ரி , தனியாக
கவ கைலக ற தமிழி ெவளிவ த ைமயான த ஆ .
வா மிட .
த கால தமி ச க தன பைழய அழ கைல ெச வ கைள மற த ெப ைம
7. ச க கால த தா வழி ச க ைறய ெப க ெப ற த உரிைமக யாைவ?
தானற யா ச கமாக இ வ வைத ந ைன மய ைல சீனி. ேவ கடசாமி அவ க இ ைல
தா வழி ப களி ெப கேள ல ெதாட ச உரியவ களாக இ பதா ெப
எ த னா .
ழ ைதகளி ேப த ைமயாக வ ப ப ட . தா வழி ைறய ப த ெசா வள க
ெச வ க ெப க ெச ேச தன. 13. 'வ ரிெப தமிழ ேம ைம
ஓ க ட ெச வ ெதா ேற
இய -4
உய பணியாக ெகா ேடா ' - யா , யாைர ப ற , எத காக க றா ?
8. அ கால க வ ைறய மனன பய ச உதவ ய க எைவ?
தமிழி நக , ந , காரிைக, த யல கார , நீத க , ஆ த , ெகா ைறேவ த ர ச கவ ஞ பாரத தாச அவ க மய ைல சீனி. ேவ கடசாமிைய ப ற பாரா ற ளா .
இய -2
உைரநைட வ னா க
2. ைண மீ ெகா பைவ எைவ?
இய -1
ைக ஏ த வா க ய மைழ ளிக , நர க ைண மீ ெகா க றன.
1. கைல ைம எ றா எ ன?
3. ெந ந வாைட ெபய காரண த க.
இல க ய த ேநா க அ ல அற வ ய சா த க ந ைலக , கைல உ வா க த ேபாேத
தைலவைன ப ரி த தைலவ பமி த யா ெந வாைடயாக ேபா பாசைறய
சரிவர இைண த க ேவ எ பதைன கா ள . இ தைகயெதா ைமதா ,
தைலவ ெவ ற ெபற ஏ வான ந வாைடயாக இ பதா ெந ந வாைட எ ெபய
கைல ைம என ப க ற .
ெப ற .
2. ெமாழிய இய வழ கைள கைலய ய வழ களாக மா பைவ எைவ?
இய -3
4. த றளி உ ள இய களி எ ணி ைக எ தைன? அைவ யாைவ? உவைம, உ வக , எ ச , ற ,உ ைற, இைற ச ேபா றைவ, ெமாழிய இய வழ கைள
கைலய ய வழ களாக மா பைவயா .
த றளி உ ள இய களி எ ணி ைக ஒ ப . அைவ, பாய ரவ ய , இ லறவ ய ,
த ம , மண டவ , தாம த , ந ச , பரித , பரிேமலழக , த மைலயா , ம ல , பரி ெப மா , இைசேயா இைச க வ ேயா தா பற கற . ஓைச ெபா இைண கைலவ வ
ெகா க றன. இதைனேய பாட ஒ ப ன எ க ேறா .
காளி க
இய -5 4. கவ ைத ம தைல ெதாட எ றா எ ன?
6. அகநா ற உ ள ப ரி க யாைவ?
ெதாடரைம எ ப , எ வா + ெசய ப ெபா + பயனிைல எ வ வேத மர . ஆனா ச க
அகநா ப ரி கைள உைடய . அைவ, களி யாைனந ைர (120 பாட க ) மணிமிைடபவள பாட க பலவ ற இ மர ப ற வ க ற . இ ேவ, கவ ைதய ம தைல ெதாட என ப க ற .
(180 பாட க ), ந த ல ேகாைவ (100பாட க )
இய -2
இய -6
5. ப ைம வா க எ றா எ ன?
7. ச ல பத கார த வழ க ப ேவ ெபய க யாைவ?
கா ப - ைட - ஆ ைச , மீ ேத , ைந ர ஆ ைச , ஓேசா , நீ வா ேபா றவ ைறதா
ம க கா ப ய , ேவ த கா ப ய , ர ச கா ப ய , தமி கா ப ய , ெபா ைம கா ப ய ,
ப ைம வா க எ க றா க .
ஒ ைம கா ப ய , வரலா கா ப ய , உைரய ைடய ட பா ைட ெச .
இய -7 6.ெவ ள ெப ஏ ப வத காரண எ ன?
அ ெபா , அத சய மலராக ச ரி த . இய -3
மட ெக தாணி, வாெர தாணி, ெட தாணி என வைக ப . கற வ தமி , ெபௗ த தமி , சமண தமி , கள ப ர ஆ சய தமிழக , தமிழ
வள த அழ கைலக , தமி நா வரலா , சாசன ெச ம சரி, மைற ேபான தமி க ,
9. நாராச எ றா எ ன?
ப ெதா பதா றா தமி இல க ய , மைற ேபான தமி க .
இர ைட ைள ள ஏ களி ஒ ைளய ெச க ப அ ல க ச ைய ெச க
க வா க அத நாராச எ ெபய . 17. மய ைல சீனி. ேவ கடசாமி ெதாட ெகா த அற ஞ ெப ம க யாவ ?
உபா த யாய ஒ ைற ெசா ல அைத மாணா க க பல ேச ெசா வைத ைற ைவ எ 18. மய ைல சீனி. ேவ கடசாமிய ஆ க ைரக எ ெத த இத களி ெவளிவ தன?
வா க .
யர , ஊழிய , ெச தமி ெச வ , ஆர பாச ரிய ,ல மி
11. ைமயாட வ ழா எ றா எ ன?
ெச ச வ னா க
ஓைல வ களி உ ள எ க ெதளிவாக ெதரிவத காக, ைம தடவ வாச க ெதாட வ .
இய -1
இ தஅ ரா ப யாச 'ைமயாட வ ழா' என ப .
1. 'ெச பரித மைலேம தைலைய சா பா ெச ந ற காடா வானெம லா ' - ெதாட
இய -5
ெவளி ப கா ச நய ைத வ ள க.
12. ெச ைனய ஓ யஆ க யாைவ?
ச வ த கத கைள பர மாைல ேநர ரிய மைல க களி ெம ல மைறக றா .
வடெச ைனய ெகா றைலயா , ம த ய ெச ைனய வ ஆ , ெத ெச ைனய அைடயா , இதைன கவ ஞ ச ப அவ க , ெச பரித மைறக றா எ றாம ெச பரித தைலைய
அத கீேழ பாலா என நா ஆ க ஓ ன. சா பா என ந க அ வழ கா ச ைய ெகா வ ந க றா .
கட வழ க ப ேவ ெபய க அரைல, அரி, அைல, அ வ , அள , அள க , ஆ க , ஆழி, வ வல கால வைகய னாேன ெம ச க தமி ய ேல! வ வா, வா!
ஈ நீ , உவரி, த ைர, பான , ெப நீ , ழி, நீராழி, ண , ெத நீ , ெபௗவ , நீ , வரி, ஓத , வலய -ந -ச ப பால ப ரமணிய
எ பனவா .
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43 44
இ லக பழைமயான ச ல நைட ைறக பய பா மைறவ ைமயான ச ல ப ன ேம மைலைய றவ கத ரவனி மகனான ரீவனி ந க ைட தப
நைட ைறக த தாக ேதா வ றமாகா : கால த ஏ ப மா த கைள ஏ உட ப ற ேதா அ வ ஆேனா .
ெகா வ க டாயமா எ கற ந .
உ ள த அ ெகா எ களிட வ தஅ பேன உ ட ேச எ வ ஆேனா .
தமிேழ! நீ பா யரி ச க த தைலைம தா க ய ; பாரி தலான வ ள கைள ஈ ற
எ ைன கா அ பய உ த ைத தயரத , இதனா த த வ கைள ெப
ேபா மீ அ த பழைம நல ைத த உட ச தமி ய ேல வ வா,
ெப ைம அைடக றா எ இராம டணனிட மன ெநக ற னா .
வா எ க றா ச ப பால ப ரமணிய .
7. "வ பவ எவராய ந ற ெச " - இட ெபா வள க.
பழைமயானவ ைற நா ற ஒ கவட யா . அவ பல நல பய ெச த க
இ கலா . அதனா தா கவ ஞ ச ப அவ க , ச தாய வ ழி ண ைவ ெப ம மல ச இட : இ கவ ைதய அ எ . ச தய த ெமாழிெபய த ஜலா தீ மிய 'வ தன இ ல '
அைட த ட பழைமைய ப க ேவ எ க றா . எ கவ ைதய இட ெப ள .
உரிய கால த ஒ வ ெச த உதவ அளவ ச ற யதாக இ தா அ உலக த அளைவ வ ட த த யற ெகா ப ைடயவ எ பைத ற ப கற .
மிக ெபரியதா .
அத யமானி ெகாைட சற , ர சற ெவளி ப வதா இ பாட பாடா த ைண
பயைன எத பா காம ஒ வ ெச த உதவ ய அ ைடைமைய ஆரா தா அ கடைலவ ட சா றாக அைம ள .
ெபரியதா .
இய -5
இ வா வா லக , ந ல லக , கட ஆக யவ ைறவ ட 'ந ற ' உய த என வ வ க றா .
14. இராம கஅ க க தேவளிட எ தைகேயா உற ேவ ெமன ேக க றா ?
13. ச ன தா வ ேக ைன க.
க தேவேள! என ஒ ெநற ப ட மன ைடய உ ைடய மல ேபா ற த வ கைள
தீைமயான வ ைள க அைன ச ன தா ஏ ப க றன. அதனா , எவரிட த சன ந ைன க ற உ தம த உற ேவ .
ெகா வைத மற வ ட ேவ . ஏெனனி , கமல ச ைய அகமல ச ைய ெகா க ற
உ ள த ஒ ெவளிய ஒ மாக ேப வ சக த உற எ ைன ப றாதவா கா க
ச ன ைத வ ட ேவ பைக இ ைல.
ேவ என இராம கஅ க ைறய க றா .
ேக ட இைவ எ ெபா ஒ ற ல. வ தன .
அ க ைல ெவ ன . இ .எ பதைன கவ ஞ
ஏ ேகா அகல எ ேகா நீள ஒ ேகா உயர உைடயதாக அர ைக அைம தன . 'ஆ பரி கட அத அ தள ெமௗன ; மகா ெமௗன ' என எ ைர க றா .
ஓவ ய ேவைல பா மி க ேம வ தான ைத அைம , சற த களா ஆன மாைலகைள அற அழி வராம கா க வ யா . அ பைகவரா அழி க யாத பா கா
அர க வ ெதா கவ டன . அரணா .
இத ல நா ய அர க நீள , அகல , உயர எ வா அைமவ சற எ பைத ந மா மன ைத அ ேபா ேபா க ெச லவ டாம தீைமய வல க ந ல வழிய
ரி ெகா ள கற . நக நைடெப ேபா அ ந க ைவ அைனவ கா வைகய ெச வேத அற வா .
கா ச ப தேவ அர அைம க ப க ற . ேம , அர க சா த எ ண ற காரண கைள
இள ேகாவ க ெதளி பட கா ச ப த ளைமைய ந மா ெத ள ெதளிவா அற ய எ த ெபா ைள யா ெசா ல ேக டா அ ெபா ளி உ ைம த ைமைய அற வேத
கற . அற வா .
18. ஏேத இர ெம பா க ேதா வத கான ந ைலைய க பைனயாக பைட க. உலக எ தைகய உய த ெநற ய ெச க றேதா அ ெநற ய தா உலக ேதா இைண
ெச வேத அற வா .
அ ச : மனித அ வ ேபா கா ச , இ ம , சளி வ வெத ப இய பான ஒ றா .
ெகாேரானா கால த இைவக தா அவ ற அற றக எ ற ட சாதாரண கா ச , இ ம , சளி ப வர ேபாவைத னேர அற கா ெகா அற ைடேயா அவ
ெப மித : ச வா எ ற மாணவ ேப வசத ேய இ லாத க ராம த வா பவ . த ைதைய இழ தவ . கா ப உைடயவராக இ கலா எ பைத இ த ற பா களி ல
19. கவ ைத எ ப க ந க வைத மனத ந க வைத ெதாட ப த ெசா ச மிழி எ ணியா த ணிய ஆக ெபற :ஒ ெசயைல ப ற எ ணியவ மன உ த உைடயவராக
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49 50
20. ச றன ேசராைம , ந ன த ைண மாக வ வ உைர பன ப ற நீவ அற வனவ ைற 25. எ க ேதா வ க ற
எ க.
வ ண ச ெயா
ம க இய ைக அற எ ப , அவரவ மன தா ஏ ப வேத ஆ . ஆனா , ஒ வைன
பறைவக வர நாைள - இட ெபா வள க.
இவ ந லவ எ ேறா தீயவ எ ேறா ற ெப வத காரணமாக அைமவ அவ சா த
இனேமயா . இட : தமி நத இய ற ய 'அத பற எ ' எ அத சய மல எ தைல ப
இ பாட இட ெப ள .
ந லவனிட ந ைவ தா ந லவ எ , தீயவனிட ந ைவ தா தீயவ எ
ற ெப வ . அதனா தா உலக த ந ல இன ைத வ ட ச ற ததாக ய ைண இ ைல; தீய ெபா : கைள ேத வ ண ச வ வைத ேபால பறைவக வ .
இன ைத வ ட ப த பைக இ ைல என வ வ ற ளா .
வ ள க : ஈழ கவ ஞ தமி நத , மைழ ெபாழி ேபாரினா பாத க ப மீ வா
ஈழ ம களி வா ைவ பட ப கா ட வ ப னா . ப ற த ழ ைத ச ரி ெகா ப
ேபால ெமா கைள வ ரி த ெச . அ யாைனக உ இ ெச றஎ ச த ைள த .
21. வாைள பா ைப எ வைக பைக சா றாக வ வ க றா ?
அ ெச ய த மலரி ேதைன ைவ பத காக வ ண சக வ க றன. இ மர க
ெவளி பைடயான பைக: வாைள ேபா ெவளி பைடயாக ப ெச பைகவ அ ச வள த பறைவக ந சயமாக வ என கவ ஞ இ கவ ைதய ல நம எ ைர க றா .
ேவ யத ைல. ஆனா , உற ைடயவ ேபா ந உ பைக ெகா ேடாரி ந அ ச
ேவ . 23. 'யாைன க ல ேபால தா உ ணா உலக ெக ேம' - உவைமைய ெபா ைள
ெபா த வள க.
உட படாதவேரா வா வ : உ ள த உ பைக ெகா உட பா இ லாதவ ட ேச
வா வா ைக, ஒ ைசய பா ட வா வைத ேபா ற என வ வ க றா . இ பாடல , அரசனி ந வாக சீ ேக டா நா நல பாத க ப வைத க ப ச ரா ைதயா
அற த பா ய றநா பாட இட ெப ள .
22. க ேக த - த ற வழி வ வரி க.
உவைம: ச ற ய வய வ ைள த ெந ைல அ உணவா க கவளமாக ெகா தா யாைன
தா மிட த ஒ வ ைடய கால கழி மானா , அ ேவ அவ ைடய பர பைர ெச வ ைத ெபா : அரச ம கைள வ த ெநற ைற தவற வரி த ர னா அ த பண அவ
உற க யவ இற தவைர வ ட ேவ ப டவ அ ல ; அ வாேற க டவ ந உ டவ இய -8
இய -7 வ ள க ஆ டப த ெச த ெசய க
24. அத சய மலரி ெச எ வா ைள ததாக, தமி நத க றா ? ேபக ெபாத னிமைல ப வ தவறாம மைழ ெபாழி வளமி மைலய வா மய ,
(பழனி) ளிரா ந வதாக எ ணி த ைடய ஆைடைய ெகா தவ .
ெபா ட ெவளிய ேபாரி ப பற த ழ ைதயாக அத சய மலெரா ெமா இத வ ரி
ச ரி க ற . பாரி பற மைல மல கைள ைடய ைல ெகா ஒ ப ற படர, தா ஏற வ த
ெபரிய ேதரிைன ஈ தவ .
ஆ க இ லாத ேநர த ற த ரி த யாைனகளி எ ச த வ த வ ைதெயா
ெச யாக ைள த கலா . காரி மைலயமா த ைரகைள ஏைனய ெச வ கைள இனிய ெமாழிக ட
(த ேகாவ ) இரவல இ ைலெய றாம ெகா பவ .
எவ ைடய காலணிய (ெச ) ப ற ஒ வ த வ ைத, உய தரி ெச யாக
ைள த கலா என தமி நத க றா .
51 52
உைரநைட ச வ னா க
ஆ ெபாத யமைல ஒளிமி க நீலவ ண க ைல நாக ெகா த ஆைடய ைன
மனவ ப ெகா ஆ கீ அம த இைறவ இய -1
ெகா தவ .
1. ச க பாட களி ஒ ேகால ற பட த கஒ ப பா - வள க.
அத யமா தக உய ந ைலெப வாழ உத அ த ைத ஒ த அரிய
ெந கனிைய தா உ ணா ஔைவ வழ க யவ . ெமாழி, சமி ைஞய இைசய ப ற க ற . ெமாழி சா த கவ ைத இைசேயா
இைச க வ ேயா தா ப ற க ற . ஓைச ெபா இைண கைலவ வ ெகா க றன.
ந ளி நளிமைல (ஊ ) த னிட உ ள ெபா ெச வ ைத இ ைலெய னா ந இதைனேய அ த பாட ஒ ப ன எ க ேறா .
ெகா டவ உ ள மக ச அைட மா ற பற வழ க யவ .
'கட த தாைன வ
ஓரி ெகா மைல மண மல க ந ைற த, ர ைன மர க த ச ற ய மைல உட றனி ஆய பற ெகாள கரிேத'
நா ைட த பரிசாக வழ க யவ . எ ற றநா பாட வ ைமயான உண ச ைய கா க,த,ட,ற த யவ ன ெம க , ப ற
ெம ன, இைடய ன ெம கைள கா அத கமாக வ ளன.
ச க கால த அரச க , நல ம ன க ெகாைட வ லவ களாக இ த க றா க . நீ வழி பாைதக கான ெதளிவான வைரபட உ வா க ப அ பாைதகைள ெதாட
அவ க த ைம பா வ லவ க ம றவ க ெபா ைன ெபா ைள பராமரி க ேவ .
ெகாைடயாக ெகா மக த க றா க .
ச க கா க வள த ட கைள ச க இய கமாக வள ெத க ேவ .
ந ேனா கைள ேபால நா ெபா ைன ெபா ைள ெகா காவ டா க ைண ,
உ ண உணைவ , உய ைர கா க த ைய , இ ெகாைடயாக வழ கலா . கட கைர ஓர களி ச ந ல கா கைள வள த ேவ .
ஒ ேவைள உண ேக அ ல ப ழ ைதக ம ப ைளகளா ைகவ ட ப ட பத றமைடதைல தவ , வானிைல ஆரா ச ைமய ெவளிய ய , மைழ ெதாட பான
த ேயா க உணைவ ெகாைடயாக வழ கலா . தகவ களி அ பைடய ம க ெசய பட ேவ .
இய -4 இய -6
இ ற யைமயாததாக அைமக ற .
பழைமயான ெமாழி, ப ப ட ெமாழி, வா ேக இல கண வ த வளமான ெமாழி அ தா
ஐ பச , கா த ைக மாத களி மைழ அத கமாக ெபாழி . இ ப வ கால ைத பழ தமிழ இராவண ட ச ைடய காய ப கட த க ேவ த சடா ைவ கா க றா . தா சீைதைய
வாைட கால எ அைழ தன .ெந ந வாைடய வாைட கால வ ணைனைய கா ேபா . மீ க இராவணேனா ேபாரா காய ப டைத ற உய ற க றா சடா . இராம , த த ைதய
ந பனான சடா ைவ த த ைதயாகேவ க த மக ந ைலய இ த சட கைள ெச தா .
த ய மைழ ெபாழித :
சவரி ( எளிய த யவ )
தா த கய த மைலைய வல ப கமாக எ த ேமகமான உலக ளி மா தய
மைழைய ெபாழி த . மைலைய அ ள தா வான ப த களி ெவ ள ெப ெக ஓ ய . இராமனிட மி த யான அ ைப ப த ைய ெகா டவ சவரி சீைதைய ேத வ இராமைன
ரீவ ட ந ெகா மா ெச தவ . கா ப ய த ேபா க த ப ைத ஏ ப த யவ . இராம
ேமடான ந ல களி த சமைடத :
சவரிய ட தாய ட கா அ ைப கா னா . த ெபா ளாக ய இராம சவரிட இனிதாக
ைர:
இராம இல ைகய கா பத தேபா த ந ைரைய ஏ கா க ைர த அ ண
கா கால த ெதாட ச ளி கால . ப வ மா ற களா உய ரின களி இய வா ைக மா ற இராவணைன ெவ , டண இராமனிட அைட கல தா . அர க ல த ப ற தவனாய
ெப கற . ைல ந ல ம க , பறைவக , வ ல க இவ ற வா வ மைழ ளி ஏ ப அவனிட , " கேனா ஐவராேனா ; வா மகெனா அ வ ஆேனா ; ந ெனா எ வ
மா ற ைத ந கீர அவ க அழகாக வ ணைனயாக பத ெச ளா . ஆேனா " எ ற த உட ப ற தவனாகேவ டணைன ஏ க றா .
இய -3 ைர:
2. ப ப ப மமாக பைட க ப ட இராம , ப ற உய க ட ெகா த உற ந ைலைய பாட ப த இராம மா த களிட , மா களிட , ம பைதய வா பறைவகளிட அ பாச
வழி ந க. ெகா வ ள க னா . அவ ைடய அ ப ேவட , பறைவ, எளிய த யவ , வானர , பைகவனி
த ப எ க ற ேவ க இ ைல.
ைர:
3. ெச ந ற யற தேல அற எ பைத வா ைற வா த ைணெகா ந க.
இராம அ ப நாயக ; ப ப ப ம ; ந ப அைடயாள எ பைத க பராமாயண த
அேயா த யா கா ட , ஆரணிய கா ட ,க க தா கா ட , த கா ட வாய லாக கா ேபா . ைர:
தா ஓ உதவ ெச யாத தன உதவ ெச த ஒ வ ம லைக ச னமான கமல ச ைய அகமக ச ைய அழி வ . அ தைகய ச ன ைதவ ட ேவ பைக
வ லைக ைக மாறாக ெகா தா ஈடாகா . நம க ைல. ஒ வ த ைன தா கா ெகா ள வ ப னா , ச ன வராம கா ெகா ள
உரிய கால த ஒ வ ெச த உதவ அளவ ச ற யதாக இ தா ,அ உலக த அளைவ வ ட சன எ ப ,த ைன ேச தவைர அழி ெந ேபா ற .அ ம ம லாம அ த
மற க டாத மற க ய :
இய -4
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61 62
த . ெச ய த மீ வ வ த வ ேபா ந ல லவ களி பாட களி ெவ ற த . ைர:
அ ட எளிய சாதாரண ம க அற வ ண கவ ைதகைள தமிழி பைட க ேவ . வய
த ஞானச ப த அ ளிய த மய ைல பத க தா மய லா ரி சற , ெச ைனய
எ இ வதா பய ெசழி வள . ந ல ேக வ கைள எ வதா ஆரா ச வ ைள .ந ேனா
அைம ள க தேகா ட , அற ெச வா ந ைற த எ ெச த வ ளலா பாடலா
ேபா க ேதா க றா , கவ ைதகளி அற , ெபா ெவளி ப . மி த அற வ னா க
கா ச ப த ப ளன.
வ ைள . இவ ைறெய லா ெதரி ெகா ளாம எ ேவா க சற எ க ைட ?
இய -6
ைர:
7. அற ைடைம வா வ உய ைண ந எ பைத வ வ வழிந ந க.
யா ைறய சீ , தைள ,அ ெதாைட , ச ற பாக அைம தா பா ெசழி பாக இ
எ பதைன கவ ஞ ரதா அவ க மிக அழகாக த ைடய கவ ைதகளி எ ற ளா . ைர:
இய -5 வ வ க வ ைய 'ேக வ ெச வ க வ' எ றா . க லா வல க சம எ றா .
இ ப க வ ப ற ற ெகா ேட வ த வ வ க வ யா ெப வ அற . அ ேவ வா வ
6. ெச ைனய உ ள மய லா , க த ேகா ட ப த க ெச ளி எ வத கா ச ப த ப க றன?
உைடைம எ றா .
ைர:
அற வ சற :
ெச ைனய ப த களாக அைம தைவ மய லா க த ேகா ட . அ த மய ைல எ
அற ெவ ப ஒ வ அழி வராம கா க வ யா . அ ற அ பைகவரா அழி க
அைழ க ப ட மய லா ரி கபா வர ெகா ளா . க தேகா ட த க ெப மா
யாத பா கா ேகா ைடயாக அைம சற ைடயதா .
ெகா ளா . இத காரணமாக இ இ ப தக சற ெப வள க றன.
அற வ இல கண :
மய லா
மன ைத அ ேபா ேபா க ெச லவ டாம தீைமகளி வ ல க , ந ல வழிய ெச வேத
அ ப வ வ ழா ஆ ேதா ச ற பாக நைடெப இட த மய ைல ஆ . ஞானச ப த
அற வா . ேம , எ த ெபா ைள யா ெசா ல ேக டா அ ெபா ளி உ ைம ெபா ைள
எ உ வ இ த பாைவைய மீ ெப ணாக மா ற ய இட . இ த சற மி மய லா
ஆரா வேத அற வா .
வ ழா க ந ைற த ப த யா . இ வ ழா க ப ற ச ப த த பாட ற ப க றா .
உலக எ தைகய உய த ெநற ய ெச க றேதா, அ ெநற ய தா உலக ேதா இைண
இள ெப க ஆரவார ேதா ெகா டா த வ ழா க ந ைற த த கைள உைடய ெபரிய ஊ
ெச வேத அற வா .
த மய ைல. அ எ ச மி க வ ழா க நக மய ைல கபா சர எ ேகாவ ற
இைறவ ைசய ப னி உ த ர வ ழா நைடெப . அைத நா க களி கலா . அற வ னா உ டா பய :
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63 64
அற ேவ ச ற த க வ : இய -7
அற , ஒ வ அழி வராம கா க வ யாக இ பேதா , பைகவரா அழி க யாத 10. எளிய ம களி வ கைள நா ற இல க ய வ வ கேள ைமயாக ப ரத ப க றன - ந க.
பா கா அரணாக வள க ற .
ைர:
அற வ ற கா க வ ெச வா
நா ற இல க ய வ வ க கைத, கைத பாட க , மி, பழெமாழிக , வ கைதக , ராண க
உ அழி க ஆகா அர .
என பலவைக ப . இைவ பாமர ம களி வா ைகைய ப ரத ப பதாக அைமக றன.
ைண பைக :
கைத பாடலாக வ ேதய ைல ேதா ட பா எ மி பாட எளிய ம களி வ கைள
ைர:
இய -8 இய -1
ைர:
ைர:
அ ேபா இராம , த ச ற ைனயாக ய ைகேகய ய ட , 'ம னவ பணிய றாக பணி பா அ ல கவ ைதய நைடய ய களி ஒ ேகால க ெசா களி ல ெதாடரிய
ம ேபேனா? என க றா . இ தைகய கைத ெசா பா ைக எ .ஏ.க ணனா க பனிடமி ேத ேபா க மிக க யமானைவயா . கவ ைதய இய கா ற தா நைடயா .
க றா எனலா .
ஒ ேகால க :
ப ைமதாச : ெநக ழி எ ப ஒ த ட ெபா ஆ . பல ேவத ய ய ெபா கைள ெகா 2. ப எ ச ற ய அைம ப மனித ச க எ பர த அைம க டைம க ப க ற -
எ வா ?வள க.
உ வா க ப ஒ ெபா ப ளா ேகா எ ற க ேர க ெசா ப ளா
ைர:
எ ற ெசா உ வான . அ தைகய ெநக ழிய தயாரி க ப ெநக ழி ைபய
ப எ ச ற ய அைம ப ேத மனித ச க எ பர த அைம க டைம க ப க ற .
டான ேதநீைர ஊ ற னா ேவத வ ைன ஏ ப ந சாக மா . அைத நா தா ேதா
ப ெதாட க ல , ட , ெப , ச க எ ற அைம வைர வ ரி ெப க ற . ஆத ,
ேநா , ேநா தலான ெகா ய ேநா க ஏ ப . பேம மனித ச க த அ பைட அலகாக உ ள .
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ப : இய -4
வாத ரித : த வர க அர கநாத வாமி ேகாவ 108 ைவணவ த தல களி த த தலமா . காவ ரி
ஆ ற னா ழ ப ட ஏ மத க அைம ள த வர க 600 ஏ க பர பள ெகா ட
க வய வாத ெச த ந நா ப ளி ட களி இ த . மிக ச ற த பய ச
ஒ தீ நகரமா . இ ேகாவ இராஜேகா ர த உயர 72 மீ ட (220அ ) ஆ . இ
உைடயவ க அரசைவகளி வா ரி த க வ த றைமைய ந ைலநா வ .
ெத னி த யாவ ேலேய ெபரிய ேகா ரமாக வ ள க ற .
ைர:
த வாைன ேகாவ
இய -5 நீ உரியதா .
காவ ரி ஆ ற கைரய அைம ள த ச ரா ப ளி, ச க கால த கால ேசாழ களி ப கைல கழக
தைலநகரமாக வள கய நகரமா . காவ ரிய வடகைரய த வர க ெத கைரய
த யேதா உலக பைட க த ச மாநகரி ேகா ைட சாைலய 1982 ஆ ஆ ஏ ர 30ஆ
மைல ேகா ைட அைம ளன. மைல ேகா ைட அ க அழக ய ெத ப ள ச கார ேதா
நா ர ச கவ ஞ பாரத தாச ெபயரா ப கைல கழக ந வ ப ள . இதனா இ மாவ ட த
நீ ட கைட தக அணிவ ந க றன. நகரி ம தய ம த ய ேப ந ைலய
உ ள மாணவ க உய க வ பய ல வசத யாக அைம ள .
ெதாட வ ச த அைம ளன.
வ மான ந ைலய :
ெபய காரண :
த ச ப னா வ மான ந ைலய இ த யாவ உ ள பழைமயான வ மான ந ைலய க ஒ றா .
த ரிச ர எ ற அர க தைலகைள ெகா டவ . அ வர க இ ரி வா ததா
ேவகமாக வள வ ப னா வ மான ந ைலய களி த ட த உ ள . தன இத ல
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3000 பயணிக பயனைட வ க றன . வள கற .
ைர: ைர
ைர: ைர:
கா ச ெமாழியாக, கவ கைலயாக வ ள க ற த ைர பட கைத எ த , த ைர கைத எ த , வசன மனித இன ேதா ற யேபாேத ேமலா ைம ெதாட க வ ட . தைட க கைள ப க களாக
எ த , இய க , ஒளி பத ெச , இைச ேச , ெப த உ வா த டமி ட மா ற ேமலா ைமேய ஒ வ அவச யமா . ஒ வ எ ெதாழிைல ெதாட க னா த டமிட ,
ய ச யா . இ த ைர பட ஆய ர ேபைர கா பா ெதாழிலா? அ ல கைலகளி ச கமமா? ெசய ப த ஆக ய ந வாக ைறக ச ற பாக அைமய ேவ .
எ பைத இனி கா ேபா .
ந வாக ேமலா ைம:
சவா ந ைற த ெதாழி :
உய பதவ களி இ பவ க எ லாவ ற ந ண வ ெப றவ களாக இ ப
ஒ த ைர பட தயாரி ப எ ப ெப த ெச ய ப க ற ெப ெதாழிலா . த சா த யமி ைல. ஆனா , யா த றைமசா க எ அற அவ கைள அ க ைவ ெகா டா
கைத உ வா த , ந க கைள ேத ெச த , உைரயாட எ த , பாட எ த , பாட இைச ேபா . ெதரி த ப ஒ வைக அற எ றா , யா ெதரி என ெதரி த ப ம ெறா
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ைர: கைலக ற தமிழி ெவளிவ த ைமயான த ஆ .
ஒ ெவா ேதச ய இன த ைடய கட தகால வரலா ைற அற த தா ம ேம எத கால ேவ கடசாமி அவ க மைலயாள , க னட , சம க த , பா , ஆ கல ஆக ய ெமாழிகளி லைம
இல கைள அைடய . அ தைகய இன வரலா ைற இல க ய , ெதா ய , க ெவ , ப பா உைடயவ . எனேவ, மேக த ரவ ம இய ற ய 'ம த வ லாச ' எ ற நாடக ைல ஆ க ல வழியாக
ேவ கடசாமி ஆவா .
ைர:
இளைம ப வ :
தமி ல இவ ஆ ற ய ெதா ைன பாரா ம ைர காமராச ப கைல கழக 'தமி ேபரைவ
மய ைல சீனி. ேவ கடசாமி 16. 12. 1900ஆ ஆ ெச ைன மய லா ரி ப ற தா . த ைத சீனிவாச ெச ம ' எ ற வ த ைன அளி த . தம ஓயாத ேதட னா க ைமயான உைழ பா அரிய ஆ
ஒ ச தம வராக அவ ைடய தைமயனா ேகாவ தராச தமிழாச ரியராக வ ள க யைமயா கைள ெகாண த இவ அற ஞ க ஒ ெச ைன ேகாகேல ம டப த மணிவ ழா
இளைமய ேலேய தமிழி மீ தணியாத ப க ஆரா தற ெகா டவராக வ ள க னா . எ 'ஆரா ச ேபரற ஞ ' எ ற ப ட ைத வழ க ச ற ப தன .
அற ஞ ெப ம களிட ெதாட :
ெதாட ககால ஆ க :
ைர:
மய ைலயா த ெதாட ககால ஆ களான 'க ற வ தமி ', 'ெபௗ த தமி ', 'சமண
மகாகவ , ேதச ய கவ , ெச தமி ேதனீ, ச த ைத எ ெற லா பாரத ய கவ வ
தமி ' ஆக ய கைள கா ண வ ற ந ந ைல ந இய ற னா . சமய , மா டவ ய , தமிழக
க ைட காத ப ட கேள இ ைல. ஆனா , பாரத யா கவ ஞராக ம ம லாம எ தாள ,
வரலா , ெதா ெபா ஆ , கைல வரலா , ெமாழியா தலான பல ைறகளி ேவ கடசாமி
ப த ரி ைகயாள , ெமாழிெபய பாள , ச க சீ த தவாத என ப க ஆ ைம ெகா டவ .
கைள எ தய ப இவர ப க அற ைவ வ ள க ற .
க த கைள இல க யமா எ தாள க பாரத யா த ைமயானவ . அவ , த ப
வரலா ஆ க : ெந ைலய ப எ த ய க த களி இட ெப ற ெமாழி ப ைற ச க ப ற கா ேபா .
ச க ப மாரி வட எ ண ைத த
இய -2 அைனவ ஒ க ெகா டன .
வ வரி க.
வ தம த உட உ ள ேசா த தா . அவ மைனவ அ ந ைலைமைய ரி
ம த . அவனி ப நல ைத கா ேபா .
வ ய காைலய எ த அ அ க ப த த ம தைன காணா த ைக தா . ம த
3. ய தா க த னா ய க அ க அ கட மி இைண கைள சரிெச ய 3. 'உரிைம தாக ' கைதய சேகாதர க இ வ ஒ ற ைணயாம இ த தா ..... கைதைய
ெதாட எ த க.
ேகாரி உ க ஊ மி வாரிய ெபாற யாள க க த எ க.
"ேமல கா ல கீழ தா ேமல ந ப க ெகைரய எ தய தாமி ல ஒ க த ப " க மா
அ ந
ைதயனிட ெசா னா . ைதய மன த .
அ ஆ இ ஈ,
"ேந ேகாழி ப ட எ த ரி ச க ச கா சீ ேத . அ ப ச ெபா டா க க
க ப ெத , ேபச டா க. மன கச ேபால . ேம ப கா சாமிக ட எர வா வா க த ப க
மி வாரிய ,
"ெவ ைள சாமி லஇ க யாடா"?
அரிய - 621 704.
ெவ ைள சாமி கடைன த ப ெகா க யாத வ த த கவைலேயா ப த தா .
மத ப ரிய ஐயா, அவ மைனவ ப க த அம த தா .
எனேவ, மிக வ ைரவ ேபா கால நடவ ைகயாக, அ கட மி இைண கைள சரிெச
இைத எத பாராத ைதய "எ னால உ க ெர ேப ளச ைட ேவ டா . மன ேக கல
த மா தா ைம ட ேக ெகா க ேற . அதா வ ேத . ெநல த மீ க ற வழிய பா க" எ ெசா யவாேற ைதய ெவளிேய
வ தா .
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வப க பல ஏ ப க றன. சாைல ேபா வர காவல க இ வா வாகன ெச பவ க
மீ உரிய நடவ ைக எ தா வப ஏ ப வைத ெப மளவ ைற கலா .
இய -4
ஓ ந உரிம :
4. 'சாைல வ ப த லா தமி நா ' - இ நனவாக நா ெச ய ேவ யன யாைவ?
ஓ ந உரிம ெப றவ கேள சாைலகளி வாகன ைத ஓ ட ேவ . ஆனா இ ெப ேறா களி
ைர:
ெபா ப ற த ைமயா ஓ ந உரிம ெபறாத ப ளி மாணவ க , இைளஞ க வாகன ைத மிக
மனித ேதைவக அத கமாக வ ட இ கால த சாைல ேபா வர எ ப மிக அத கமாக வ ட . ேவகமாக ஓ க றன . இதனா , வ ப க அத கமாக நைடெப க றன. காவ ைறய ன ஓ ந
தகவ ெதாழி ப மி த யாக மி த யாக சாைல ேபா வர மி த யாக வ ட . அேதேபா உரிம ெபறா வாகன ெச பவ க மீ உரிய நடவ ைக எ தா சாைல வ ப த ைன த கலா .
வப க அத கமாக வ டன. சாைல வ ப த லா தமிழகமாக மாற வ த ைறகைள ப ப வேத
ைர:
ஒேர வழியா .
இ ச கர வாகன க , நா ச கர வாகன க அத கமாக வ ட இ , உணவ லாம
சாைல வ த ைறக :
வா ைக நட வ ட . ஆனா , வாகன க இ லாம வா ைக நட த யா எ ற ந ைல
வாகன ஓ ந க சாைலய இட ற த ேலேய வாகன கைள ெச த ேவ உ வாக வ ட . எனேவ, வாகன ைத ேதைவ ம ைறயான வ த ைறகைள ப ப ற மிதமான
ேவக த ெச த னா தமிழக வப த லா தமிழகமாக மா .
சாைல வைள களி ெச வாகன ைத த ெச தைல தவ க ேவ .
இ ச கர வாகன இ லாத ேட இ ைல எ ற ந ைல இ உ ள . சாைலய பயணி ேபா ல ெபய ேபாத ய மைழவள இ ைமயா வ வசாய அழி த , இைளய தைல ைறய னரி
த ய வாகன ஆய பைழய வாகன ஆய ஒ ெவா நா ேவக தைட ந த ெபாற , ேவக ன க ராம களி பய ெதாழி ேபாக நட த . ஆனா , கால ேபா க மைழ வள
க பா க வ டய ேபா றவ ைற சரியான ந ைலய உ ளனவா என ேசாத பா க ைற த . இத காரணமாக ேபாக பய ெதாழி இ ேபாக ஒ ேபாக என மாற ப ன
ேவ அ ேபா தா வப க தவ க ப . ேக வ ற யாக வ ட . இதனா ச வ வசாய க வ வசாய க தன களாக நக ேநா க
பைடெய க ெதாட க வ டன .
ேதைவ ஒ எ :
ம க ெதாைக ெப க :
வாகன ஓ பவ க சல ஒ பாைன சரியான ேநர த பய ப வத ைல. சல
ஒ பாைன பய ப வைதேய தவ க றன . ச லேரா மிக அ க ெச ஒ எ வ இதனா ம க ெதாைக ெப க க ராம களி ய கைள ப மட ெப க ன. வய க எ லா
வப க ஏ ப க றன. எனேவ, வாகன ஓ ந க சரியான ேநர த , சரியான இட த ஒ பாைன மைனகளாக க டட களாக மாற வ க றன. இதனா வ வசாய ந ல க அ க வ க றன.
பய ப த ேவ அ வா பய ப ெபா வப க தவ க ப . ேதைவயான உண ெபா ைள தர யாத ழ ந ல க ற . எனேவ, ம க க ராம கைள வ
ெம ல நக ேநா க நக க றன .
ம வ பயண வழிய மரண :
ெதாழி சாைலக :
ம ேபாைதய வாகன ஓ ட டா எ ப வ த . ஆனா , இ பல இர ேநர த ம ைவ
அ தவ ம ேபாைதய க கல க த ேலேய வாகன ஓ க றன . அதனா சாைலகளி ச நகர கைள ஒ ய க ராம களி நீ வள இ தா அ ேக ெதாழி சாைலக
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வ க றன. ெதாழி சாைலைய ஒ ய இட களி ெப கைடக , உணவக க என த தாக ர வசன த வ ைளந ல ச வாஜி:
கைட த க உதயமாக வ க றன. அதனா ெதாழி வள ெப க க ராம க இ த இட ெதரியாம
ரபா ய க டெபா ம எ ற த ைர பட ச வாஜி அவ க உலகளாவ ய கைழ த த .
ேபா வ க றன.
ச வாஜிைய பா , நீ க அ பட த ேபச ய வசன ைத இ ேபா ேபச மா? எ ேக டேபா ,
மைழவள ைற , வ வசாய த அழி , க வ வள ச , ெதாழி வள ச , நாகரிக வள ச ஆக யன "நீ ஏ ப தாயா? கைள ெவ னாயா? க ச கலய ம தாயா? அ ெகா ச வ ைளயா எ க
க ராம க த க கவரிைய இழ பத கான காரண களாக மாற வ க றன. ேவைல ேத ல ெப க ம ச அைர ெகா தாயா? நீ எ ன என மாமனா? ம சானா?
இைளஞ க நகர த ெச ல நாகரிக மா ற தா அ ேகேய த க வ க றன . இதனா மான ெக டவேன". தமிழக ம கைள ச ெதழ ெச த அ ரவசன ைத ஒேர ச ேபச
ப பா மறவாத ந க த லக :
ைர:
ந லக ச கரவ த என எ ேலா வய க ற மக தான ந க ச வாஜி கேணச . நவரச
உண கைள த க ற களா உட ெமாழிகளா ச ற பாக ெவளி ப த ந த மகாந க . ந ப இமய , ர , வசன த எ , உ ள த களி இ ைண ச வாஜி
இ தைகய ச ற கைள ெப தமி த ைர லக அைடயாளமாக வ ள ெசவா ேய ச வாஜி நவரச நாயக எ ற கைழ த தன. அ த க தன ேக க ைட த ேபா ச வாஜி ப ற ய
கேணச அவ கைள பால ச த ர ளி கா ச த த ேபா நக த மனேவா ட ைத இனி மனேவா ட ைத கா ச ப த ளா க ைரயாச ரிய .
கா ேபா .
ச வாஜிய இளைம ப வ :
7. உ க ஊ ப தய வா கைலஞ ஒ வைர ேநரி பா த அ பவ ைத வ வரி
ச வாஜி கேணச பற த ஊ வ ர . ச ைனயா கேணச எ ப தா அவ ெபய . க ைரயா க.
ஆ க ேலயரா ச ைற ெச ற தன த ைதைய ஒ பதாவ வயத தா கேணச த த
ைர:
பா தா . அவ ப ளி ட த ப தேத இ ைல. ஐ வயதா ேபாேத ப ைத
நா ற கைலகளி அ தள ெத ; ெத த வள ச ேமைட நாடக ; ேமைட
கா பா வத காக நாடக க ெபனிய ேச தா . இளைம ப வ த ேலேய தமி நா மிக ச ற த
நாடக த வள ச ேய இ ைறய த ைர பட . ராண இத காச கைதகைள பாமர ம களிட எ
நாடக ந க எ ெபய எ தா .
ெசா ல க வ யாக பய ப ட அரிய கைலக தா ெத ேமைட நாடக . அ வா நா ற
ச கநைட ச வாஜி: கைலகளி சற வ ள க ய கைலஞ ஒ வைர ச த த ந க ைவ கா ேபா .
நா ற கைலகளி வள ச தா த ைர பட . ஆனா , இ த ைர பட த வள ச யா
நா ற கைலக ெம ல ெம ல அழி வ க றன. அதனா , நா ற கைலகைளேய ந ப வா இய -8
வ கைலஞ களி வா ைக பயண ேக வ ற யாக வ ட . எனேவ, இனியாவ ந ஊ களி
9. ேகாைடமைழ கைத வாய லாக வ ள க ப மனித ேநய ப கைள வ ள க.
நைடெப த வ ழா களி நா ற கைலக வா வழ க நா ற கைலகைள வள ேபா .
நா ற கைலஞ கைள ஊ வ ேபா . ைர:
ைற வ ள க :
--------------------------------------------------------ந க. ஏம ைணைய .
ந உ பா க உ பவ . ப வ ந ைலயணி ஆ .
உவைம ஒ ெதாடராக உவேமய ம ெறா ெதாடராக அைம இைடய ஒ ைம கா ேபால அணி ெபா த :
எ உவம உ மைற வ வ எ கா உவைமயணி ஆ .
ஒ ெசயைல அைடய ந ைன தவ மனஉ த உைடயவராக இ தா அவ ந ைன த ெசயைல
அணி ெபா த : ந ைன தவாேற அைடவ .
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தர டக : ெவ வ ைண ைட கா
ச ட சட ச ட சட ட டா எ
பா ய ம ன க கட ெகா ட ம ைர, கபாட ர இ ைறய ம ைர ஆக ய இட களி
ச க க அைம தன . ெப லவ கைள அைழ தன . அ ச க களி அளவ லாத தாள க ெகா கைன வான
அக ெபா ற ெபா க க ந ைற த ெசா ைவ ெபா ைவ மி த கவ ைதகைள எ த ைச இ ய - மைழ
அர ேக ற ன . எ ஙன வ ததடா த ப ரா! - பாரத யா
ைமய க : ஆச ரிய ற :
பா ய ச க ைவ தமி வள தசற இ கவ ைதய ற ப கற . இ பதா றா வ ெவ ளி, ைம கவ ஞ , ேதச ய கவ , மகாகவ எ ெற லா
அைழ க ப ட பாரத பா ெகா லவனா தக ம களிட தமி உண ைவ வ தைல
ேமாைன நய :
உண ைவ ஊ யவ . நா வ தைல, ச க நல , ெமாழி த யன ற பா ய பாரத ,
ெச ளி சீ ேதா அ ேதா தெல ஒ ற வர ெதா ப ேமாைன ெதாைட ஆ .
இய ைக ப ற ய பாடைல பா ளா .
ச க - லவ , அ ச க - அள பரிய
ைமய க : 'இ மி ன ட எ த ைச வான ெபாழி த ெப மைழ' எ பேத இ பாட
ெசா ச க - ைவமி த , அ த க - அைம த
எ ைக நய : ைமய க தா
ச த : இய 3
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வ .கைல ெச வ , கைல தமிழாச ரிய , அர ேம ந ைல ப ளி, கீழ காவ டா ற ச
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ந ைலநா யவ . 'கவ யர ' எ ற ப ட ெப ற இவ அழகான கவ ைதகளா ெபா தம ற ப வ பழெமாழிகைள வா ைக ந க ேவா ெபா த எ க.
ெகா ைககைள சா பவ .
1. யாைன அ ச
ைமய க : க னமான வா ைவ ெம ைமயாக ேம ைமயாக மா ற ேவ எ க றா கவ ஞ .
ெபா : ச ல ேநர களி த றைமயானவ களி த றைம ட ேசாதைன வ .
ேமாைன: மி ச கா - யைல, இரவ - இரெவரி
வா ைக ந க : 1983ஆ ஆ இ த ய க ரி ெக அணி ஒ சரி த ர மி த ஆ டா .
எ ைக: இரவ - இரெவரி இ ேபா க ரி ெக கட ளாக ேபா ற ப எ தஒ ர அ ேபா இ ைல. ஆனா நக த
சரி த ர . 1975, 1979ஆ ஆ களி நட த உலக ேகா ைப க ரி ெக ேபா ய உலக வ லைம
இைய : கட களா ேவ - ெத றலா ேவ - ேப ேவ - ேவ
ெகா ட அணியாக க த ப ட ேம க த ய தீ க அணிேய ேகா ைபைய ெவ ற . 1983இ நட த
ர : ய X த ய ெத ற உலக ேகா ைப இ த ேபா ய த ேறா ெவளிேயற வ எ எத பா க ப ட இ தய
அணி , வ ைம மி த ேம க த ய தீ க அணி ேமாத ன. அ ேபா ய யா எத பா காத
அணி: இ பாட உய நவ ச அணி பய வ ள .
இ த ய அணி ேம க த ய தீ க அணிைய ெவ ேகா ைபைய த ெச ற . யாைன அ
ச த : எ ைக ேமாைனகைள ெகா இைச பத ஏ ற இனிய ச த நய ட அைம ள . ச எ ப ேபா ேம க த ய தீ க அணி ேதா ற .
: த ைன வ ைத தவ த ைன அ பா ; வ ைன வ ைத தவ வ ைன அ பா எ ற பழெமாழி
ஆச ரிய ற : ெபா தமாக இ ந க அைம ள .
த ரி ட ராச ப கவ ராய ச றல கய பா வத வ லவ . அத ஓைச நய ட ய ச 3. ற பா க ற இ ைல
பாட கைள பா வத தற மி கவ . இவ எ தய றால றவ ச தமி நர பய லா .
றால மைலவள ேப இ பாட உ ள பாநய கைள கா ேபா . ெபா :எ தத ெக லா ைற க டா உற ந ைல கா .
எ ெதாைக ப பா
அக ற அக ற அக ற
கீ கா ப த ைய ப ஐ வ னா கைள உ வா க.
ந ற ைண றநா பரிபாட ற ச பா ம ைர கா ச
ெமாழி எ ப ம க பைட கா அரியெதா கைல. ெமாழிேய ம களி அற ைவ வள
ெதாைக பத ப ைல பா த கா பைட
உய அரிய க வ யாக உ ள . ெப ற தாய த ேவ ைக த ழ ைத ட ேப த . அவ
ஐ ெந ந வாைட ெபா நரா பைட த அைட ெபரிய மக ச ழ ைதய ேப ைச ேக பேத ஆ . ழ ைதய மன வள ச ேயா
ெதாட ைடய ெமாழி வள ச ேய ஆ . மன எ ப ெப பா ெமாழியா வள அைம த .
அகநா ப ன பாைல ெப பாணா பைட
மன த வள ச ஏ பேவ ேப ேவாரி ெமாழி வள ச ெப ந . ம க அைனவ
க ெதாைக ச பாணா பைட
ெமாழி ஆச ரியராக உ ளன ; மாணவராக உ ளன . ெமாழிைய வள பவ ம கேள;
தரா பைட ெமாழியா வள பவ ம கேள..
வ னா க :
ச க இல க ய க இ வைக ப . அைவ எ ெதாைக ப பா ஆ . எ ெதாைக
1. ம க பைட கா அரியெதா கைல எ ?
கைள அக , ற , அக ற என றாக வைக ப தலா . ந ற ைண, ெதாைக, ஐ ,
அகநா , க ெதாைக ஆக ய ஐ க அக ெபா சா தைவயா . றநா , 2. ெப ற தாய த ேவ ைக எ ?
பத ப ஆக ய இர க ற ெபா ப ற யதா . பரிபாட எ ற ம அக
ற கல த லா . 3. ழ ைதய மனவள ச ேயா ெதாட ைடய எ ?
இ ப ஆ க ல - தமி ெசா க
3. Periyar was not only a great social revolutionary; he was something more than that. He is known as a great
1. Green Belt Movement - ப ைம வளாக இய க 2. Shocked - அத ச அைட champion of the underprivileged; even in this sphare he was much more than that. His sphare of activity was very
wide and when he took up any issue he went deep into it, understood all the aspects of it and did not rest until he had
3. Food - உண 4. Fuel - எரிெபா 5. Soil erosion - ம அரி 6. Guiding - வழிகா த
found a permanent solution to it. Communal difference in our society were deep rooted and appeared to be
7. Generation - தைல ைறய ன 8. Parliament - பாரா ம ற 9. Minister - அைம ச permanent features of our society until Periyar came on the scene.
10. Sustainable - ந ைலயான 11. Desertification - பாைலவனமாத 12. Deforestation - கா க அழி ெபரியா ஒ ச தாய ர ச யாள ம ம ல ; அைத தா ச ல ச ற கைள ெப றவ .
உரிைமய இ ேதா உரிைம ெப த த ஒ மா ர . அவ இ த ைறய எ வள ெச ய
13. Election - ேத த 14. Halting - த 15. Movement - இய க 16. Success - ெவ ற ேமா அைதவ ட ப மட ெச ளா . அவ எ த ஒ ேகாரி ைகைய எ ெகா டா , அத
17. Providing - வழ 18. Social forests - ச க கா க 19 regions - ப த களி 20. People - ம க பர வ ரி த ெசய பா க ட ெசய ப வா ; அத அவ ஆ ெசய ப வா . ச கநீத ய
ெபரியா ப ேக வைர சாத ேவ பா க ச தாய த ஆழமாக ேவ ற இ த . ெபரியாரி
வ ைக ப றேக ச க த சாப ேகடான அ கைளய ப ட .
தமிழா க த க.
1. In terms of human development objectives, education is an end in itself, not just a means to an end. Education is 4. Popular as the 'Cultural Capital' of India, Tamil Nadu is extremely well known for its marvellous temples and
a basic human right. It is also the key which opens many economic, social and political doors for people. It increases others architectural gems. The state rose to prominence primarily because of this it's well - known and outstanding
Tanjore Paintings that flourished at the time of Chola dynasty in ancient Tanjavoor. In this traditional art form, the
access to income and employment opportunities. While economists generally analyse the importance of education
paintings showcase the embellished form of the sacred deities of the region. The deities in the paintings are
largely as a means for better opportunities in life and thatis the main theme of this chapter let it be clearly stated festooned with glass pieces, pearls, semi- precious stones, and gold and other vibrant colours.In the modern times,
that educating people is a worthy goal in itself, irrespective of the economic rates of return. Tanjore Paintings looks up to human figures, animals, floral motifs and birds as muses.
ெந ந வாைட ம ைட கா டக அ ேற
எ த ைச ெச , அ த ைச ேசாேற. - ஒளைவயா
ைவயக பனி ப வலேன வைளஇ
பாவைக: ேநரிைச ெவ பா
ெபா யா வான ெபய ெபாழி ெதன
ப ரி உள என உ ேன ; எ ைழ அ ப வ த ச ல பத கார
றநா பற த அதனா வ .
உ ைம அற ேவ மி .
இர சணிய யா த ரிக 11. அற வ ற கா க வ ெச வா
பாதக மி ெசா ற பழி ைர எ ெகா ளி உ அழி க ஆகா அர .
ஏதமி க ைண ெப மா இ தய ஊ றஊ ற 12. எ ெபா யா யா வா ேக ப அ ெபா
ேவதைன உழ ச ைத ெவ ப டா அ லா ெம ெபா கா ப அற .
ேநாதக ச ன ேதா மா ற வ ற ல க ம ேநா க . -எ .ஏ.க ணனா 13. எத ரதா கா அற வ னா இ ைல
பாவைக: அ சீ கழிெந ல ஆச ரிய வ த
அத ர வ வேதா ேநா .
அ சாணி அ னா உைட .
த ற
18. கட அற கால க த இட அற
1. அ அற உைட தாய இ வா ைக
எ ணி உைர பா தைல.
ப பய அ .
19. வா ேபா பைகவைர அ ச க; அ க
2. ைவய வா வா வா பவ வா உைற
ேக ேபா பைகவ ெதாட .
ெத வ ைவ க ப .
20. பழக ய ெச வ ப ெக
3. ெச யாம ெச த உதவ ைவயக
கழக காைல க
வானக ஆ ற லரி .
4. ந ற மற ப ந ற ;ந ற ல
அற 4 பாய ரவ ய , இ லறவ ய , றவறவ ய , ஊழிய
அ ேற மற ப ந .
ெச ந ற ெகா ற மக .
இ ப 2 களவ ய , க ப ய
6. அஃகாைம ெச வ த யாெதனி ெவஃகாைம
ேவ பற ைக ெபா .
107 108
/தைல ஆச ரிய
ஆச ரிய எ தய க மர ெசா க
ச ப பால ப ரமணிய ஒளி பறைவ, ச பயாக , ரிய ந ழ , ஒ க ராம நத ,
ஒ மர ெசா க
ய களி ச க , (கவ ைத)
ெவ ைக, ப ற , அ ஞா , ெகா ைம ( த ன ) மா க எ ைம க ர ஆ
க ைள - உறவ ன மா - ஓ ஏ கரி ற ஒ ப II 1 15 - 18 வ னா - ெச 4 3 03 X 02 = 06
2 19 - 21 வ னா - உைரநைட 3 2 02 X 02 = 04
கல - யா (இய - 4) நீச - இழி த, (இய - 8)
3 22 - 30 ெமாழி பய ச 9 7 07 X 02 = 14
கல ைப - க வ கைள ைவ ைப க டக , பாதக - ெகா யவ
இல கண
ம - ேகாடரி ஆ க ைன - த டைன
III 1 31 - 34 ச வ னா - ெச 4 2 02 X 04 = 08
உர -வ ைம வ -கண , ந ணய -உ த
2 35 - 38 ச வ னா - உைரநைட 4 2 02 X 04 = 08
வ ளிேயா - வ ள க உதத , வாரித - கட , வ யைத - உ த ைய
அணி, கவ ைத
கீ -பள , ந ைத - பழி 3
39 - 43 தமிழா க 5 3 03 X 04 = 12
ஆலம ெச வ - ச வெப மா
ம வ ழா - வ ழா க ந ைற த (இய - 5) இல க ய நய
க க - ஆைட ப ணி தைம - க யைம ெமாழி பய ச
க வ ழா - எ ச த வ ழா
ேகா ய - த
ப வ ழா - த ைச ேதா ைசய உ த ரவ ழா
சாவ -வ , க - பார IV ெந வ னா - ெச 2 1 01 X 06 = 06
ஒ வ ழா - ஆரவார வ ழா
44 - 46 ெந வ னா - உைரநைட 2 1 01 X 06 = 06
ேபா - மல , நா - இளைம
உமண -உ வணிக ெந வ னா - ைண பாட 2 1 01 X 06 = 06
மைலத - ேபாரிட
ஞம - நா , ெச - வய V 47 மனன ெச 1 1 04 + 02 = 06
-வ
ெகா ைள - வ ைல, கத - வ ைர த ற 1 1
நாக - ர ைன, நாக பா
ேவ ட - மீ ப த ெமா த மத ெப 90
113 114
ஆ ெபா ேத 2022 16. எத பாராத வ த னராக ஜலா தீ மி ற ப வ யாைர?
17. ச ன ைத ஏ கா க ேவ ?
கால அள : 3.00 மணி ேநர தமி மத ெப : 90
18. இைறமகனா அைட த ப ைத க ம க எ வா வ தன ?
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
ப ரி -3
ப த -I
எைவேய இர ட வ ைட த க. 2X2=4
அைன வ னா க வ ைட த க. 14 X 1 = 14
19. ெமாழிய இய வழ கைள கைல வழ களாக மா பைவ எைவ?
1. தமிழி த ைண பா பா _______________ அ பைடய ப க ப ள .
20. ப எ அைம ஏ ப வத அ பைடயாக இ ப எ ?
அ) ெதாட ற ஆ) ெபா ற இ) எ ற ஈ) ெசா ற
21. ஓைலய எ வத ரிய எ தாணிகளி ெபய கைள ற ப க.
2. த றளி உ ள ெமா த இய களி எ ணி ைக ________________
ப ரி -3
அ) 9 ஆ) 7 இ) 3 ஈ) 5
எைவேய ஏழ வ ைட த க. 7 X 2 = 14
3. "ம ச ளி பா ைமய பா மி ச க ட மிக வள தா " - இ வரிக இட ெப ___
22. ெபா ேவ பா அற ெதாடரைம க : கா , கா
அ) றநா ஆ) க க பரணி இ) தமி வ ஈ) நால யா
23. ெதாடரி உ ள மர ப ைழகைள நீ க எ க. பைன ம ைடயா ைர ைவ த தன .
4. உவைம கவ ஞ எ ச ற ப க ப பவ _______________
24. ேப வழ ைக எ வழ காக மா க. ப ைள உட சரிய ைல. நாளா ச ரம ப .
அ) பாரத தாச ஆ) பாரத யா இ) வாணிதாச ஈ) ரதா
25. ெசா ைல ப ரி ேச ெதாடரைம க. அ) பலைக ஆ) ேகாவ
5. உரிைம தாக எ கைதைய எ த யவ ________________
26. ெதாடரி உ ள ப ைழகைள நீ க எ க. மான பா த மிய பய வைகக பய ரிட ப க றன.
அ) உ தமேசாழ ஆ) மணி இ) ஐராவத மகாேதவ ஈ) கம மீரா
27. ஏேத ஒ ற ப பத உ ப ல கண த க. அ) அ ஆ) க டா
6. 'ந லக ச கரவ த'எ எ ேலாரா அைழ க ப பவ _______________
28. ஏேத ஒ ற ண ச வ த த க. அ) ைட ஆ) பாவா
அ) ந ப யா ஆ) ெஜமினி கேணச இ) ராம ஈ) ச வாஜி கேணச
29. கீ கா ெசா கைள ப ரி ேச இ ேவ ெதாட கைள அைம க.
7. 'கா ெந ' - எ பத இல கண ற _______________
<
அ) வ ைன ெதாைக ஆ) ப ெதாைக இ) உ ைம ெதாைக ஈ) உவைம ெதாைக
30. கைல ெசா லா க த க. அ) Mobile Banking ஆ) Biography
8. "தமி ய ேல! வ வா, வா!" என ற யவ _______________
ப த - III
அ) ச ப பால ப ரமணிய ஆ) பாரத யா இ) ரதா ஈ) பாரத தாச
ப ரி -1
9. பைகவரா அழி க யாத அர __________________
எைவேய இர ட வ ைட த க. 2X4=8
அ) அற ஆ) ந இ) பைட ஈ) ெச வ
31. 'த ேன இலாத தமி ' - இட ெபா வள க.
10. ேவ வ தைலவ _____________ ஆவா
32. சடா ைவ த ைதயாக ஏ , இராம ஆ ற ய கடைமைய எ க.
அ) ரீவ ஆ) க இ) இராம ஈ) டண
33. வ ளலா க தேகா ட இைறவனிட ேவ வைத ெத வ மணிமாைல பாட வழி வ ள க.
11. உபா த யாய எ ற ெசா யாைர ற ?
34. நா ய அர க அைம ைப இள ேகாவ க கா ச ப பா ற உ க க ைத எ க.
அ) ந க ஆ) கண க இ) ஆச ரிய ஈ) ம வ
ப ரி -2
12. ' ம க கா ப ய ' எ அைழ க ப _________________
எைவேய இர ட வ ைட த க. 2X4=8
அ) ச ல பத கார ஆ) க பராமாயண இ) வைளயாபத ஈ) இர சணிய யா த ரிக
35. "படாஅ ஈ த ெகடாஅ ந ைச" - இ பாட ஒ ேகால களி ப ைப வ ள க.
13. 'இல க ய த ேமலா ைம' எ ஆச ரிய ________________
36. 'இ ைறய ப ,ப ைடய வ ரி த ப த ெதாட ச ேய' - வ ள க.
அ) ப தவ சல பாரத ஆ) ெவ. இைறய இ) த . . நடராச ஈ) அ ய ப மாதவ
37. ப ைட கால ப ளி ட களி ப ப ற ப ட ற ப ட த க நைட ைறக யாைவ?
14. அணி இல கண ைத ம ேம இல கண _________________
38. உழ ெதாழி ேமலா ைம ற நீவ அற தனவ ைற எ க.
அ) ரிய ஆ) ெதா கா ப ய இ) த யல கார ஈ) ரேசாழிய
ப ரி -3
ப த - II
எைவேய ற வ ைட த க. 3 X 4 = 12
ப ரி -1
எைவேய ற வ ைட த க. 3X2=6 39. (அ) உவைமயணிைய சா ட வள க. (அ ல )
41. ப வ பழெமாழிைய வா ைக ந க வ அைம எ க. 9. த . . நடராச ேபால நா தமி ேபராச ரியராக பணியா ற ய ப கைல கழக வா சா ப கைல கழக
44. (அ) தமிழி சீரிளைம த ற வய கவ ஞ ச ப பால ப ரமணிய வனவ ைற ெதா 19. ஆ த எ ெசா களி வ மிட இைடய ம
(ஆ) 'அரி ' என றைள அ ப றழாம எ க. 29. UNFCCC - United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Changes
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117 118
30. அ ய ப மாதவனி கவ ைத பட இ 62. 'அ ஞா ' த ன த காக 2014 இ சாக த ய அகாெதமி வ ெப றவ மணி
32. பா ய ெந ெசழியைன பா ைட தைலவனாக ெகா பாட ப ட ெந ந வாைட 64. த வ வ ப கைல கழக அைம ள இட ேவ
34. ' த க 'எ ச கைதைய எ த ய உ தம ேசாழனி இய ெபய ெச வரா 66. 'வ வைன ெப றதா ெப றேத க ைவயகேம' எ பா யவ பாரத தாச
35. "க ழ வாச உதய " எ றத க இதைழ நட த யவ உ தம ேசாழ 67. வ வ த ைன உலக ேக த வா க ெகா ட தமி நா என ேபா ற க தவ பாரத யா
42. ' ப 'எ ெசா த த இட ெப த ற 75. 'ம ச ளி பா ைமய பா மி ச க ட மிக வள தா ' தமி வ
43. ' 'எ ெசா ெபா வா த 76. வ கைள ைவ பத எ ெச வத உபேயாக ப க வ (அ) அைச
44. "மற ய ைட ப த மா ப ைண ேபா " மகைன ந வணாக ெகா தைலவ தைலவ வா தன என 77. ஓத ப ரி ரிய கால எ ைல வ ட
45. "மைன ைற மகளி ஆடவ உய ேர" - என ெதாைக 79. 1932 இ ெச ைன ப கைல கழக த டா ட ப ட ெப றவ உ.ேவ.சா.
46. ெந கமான ப எ ப தனி ப 80. பேகாண அர கைல க ரிய ெச ைன மாந ல க ரிய தமி ஆச ரியராக
49. பாரசீக த மிக ச ற த கவ ஞ களி ஒ வ ஜலா தீ மி 82. த ைச தமி ப கைல கழக த இராசராச வ ெப றவ ரதா
50. ஜலா தீ மிய கவ ைதகைள ஆ க ல த ெமாழிெபய தவ ேகா ம பா 83. க க கவ ைதகைளேய ெகா ட இத காவ ய
51. ஜலா தீ மிய கவ ைதகைள 'தாக ெகா ட மீெனா 'எ ற தைல ப தமிழி 84. நைட எ ச ற தைழ நட த யவ ச . மணி
97. பத ற த அத ேம ப ட அ க வைர வ வ க ெவ பா இய -6
98. ஆ க ேலய களி ஆ ச அ தளமாக அத கார ைமயமாக வ ள க ய கட கைர நகர மதராசப ன 128. த ைர பட த கைத ெசா லலா என க ப தவ ஜா மி
101. ெசய ஜா ேகா ைட உ ேள க இ த ப த ைய ெவ ைளய நகர எ ப 131. த ைர பட த உண கைள ெவளி ெகாணர உத கைல ப னணி இைச
102. ஆச யாவ உ வான த ஐேரா ப ய க வ ைறய லான ப ளி னித ேமரி ேதவாலய த ம ப ளி 132. ஒ கதாநாயக ேபால மி காக உைட அணி வ பவ ேநேர ட (கைத ெசா )
103. ெத னி த யாவ த ெதாட வ ந ைலய அைம க ப ட ஆ 1856 133. பாரத ய கவ ைதகைள ஆ க ல த ெமாழிெபய தவ ந ல
104. ெத னி த யாவ த ெதாட வ ந ைலய அைம ள இட இராய ர 134. கவ ஞ ந லனி இய ெபய .ேக. ைரசாமி
107. தாம ப ஆ ச கால ைத ெச ைனய ெபா கால எ ப . 137. தைல ேகா வல ரியாக இட ரியாக ற க ய ெபா தக சா நத
108. ஆ க ேலயரி ந த உதவ ய ற இ த ய ஒ வரா உ வா க ப ட க வ ந வன ப ைசய ப க ரி 138. ச ல பத கார ற ப ேமைடய ெபா த ப ட த ைரய (எழினிய ) வைகக
109. இ ேதா சாரசனி க டட கைல ைறய 1768 இ க க ப ட த க டட ேச பா க அர மைன 139. மாதவ ஆடைல அர ேக ற ெச தேபா வய 12
110. இ த யாவ த ெபா லக க னிமாரா லக 140. ர ச கா ப ய , தமி கா ப ய , உைரய ைடய ட பா ைட ெச , ெபா ைம கா ப ய , வரலா
112. 2019ஆ ஆ ெதாட க ப ட ஆச யாவ இர டாவ மிக ெபரிய லக அ ணா றா லக 142. தமிழி க ைட க ெப ற த இல கண ெதா கா ப ய
114. த வ பாவ உ ளத ைறக ஆ 145. 'ெசா ேக டா ெபா க டாத ' எ 'கவ க கா 'எ பவ ேபராச ரிய
115. ம ைற க ட வாசக , ஜீவகா யஒ க ஆக ய உைரநைட கைள எ த யவ 146. "எ ைன ேபா ச வாஜி ந பா . ஆனா எ னா தா ச வாஜி ேபா ந க யா என ற யவ மா ல
இராம கஅ க ப ரா ேடா
116. ேதவார பாட கைள ெதா தவ ந ப யா டா ந ப 147. வ .ச .கேணச 'ச வாஜி கேணச ' என ெபயரி டவ ெபரியா
117. ப னி த ைறகளி த த ைறகைள பா யவ த ஞானச ப த 148. பால ச த ர ளி கா எ த ய ச த பர மரண எ ைல 'ச த பர ந ைன க ' எ தைல ப
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121 122
155. ெப கா ப ய த ரிய நா வைக உ த ெபா க ,பறஉ க ைமயாக அைமய ெப 184. "தமி ப ேனா வழியாக என க ைட த சீதன " என ற யவ மய ைல சீனி. ேவ கடசாமி
160. த ைரக இற மத ெச ய ப ட ப ற 'நீரி வ த ந மி பரி ரவ 'எ ற ப ப ன பாைல 189. ஆரா ச ேபரற ஞ எ ற ப ட ைத ெப றவ மய ைல சீனி. ேவ கடசாமி
162. யவனைர அர மைன ெதாழிலாள களா க க ப த யவ இமயவர ப ெந ேசரலாத அகநா ற (162)இ பைத த த அற ெவளி ப த யவ மய ைல சீனி. ேவ கடசாமி
ெப றவ ஐராவத மகாேதவ 209. ைஹதராபா த ெவளியா 'ந ைற' எ ற மாத இதழி ஆச ரிய சா தா த
181. இராமாயண த அக ைக கைதைய ைவ சாபவ ேமாசன , அக ைக ஆக ய கைதகைள எ த யவ 210. ற ய ஓ இல க ய ேகா பாடாக உ ெப ற 19ஆ றா
இ ய ல ்8
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Harmony, Not Discord
3. Scientific management is developed by
Mental Revolution
a) Fayol b) Taylor c) Mayo d) Jacob
Cooperation, Not Individualism
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4. Dividing the work into small tasks is known as
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4. What determines the span of management?
a) Discipline b) Unity c) Division of work d) Equity The following factor determines the span of management:
a
a
Capacity of subordinate
a) More b) Less c) Multiple d) Additional Nature of work
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II. Very short answer questions: Degree of decentralization
1. What is Management?
Planning
lv
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Communication technique
Management is the art of getting things done with and through others.
IV. Long answer questions:
a
a
2. List out the management tools.
Accounting Econometrics 1. Explain the concept of management.
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Business Law Data Processing i). Body of Knowledge:
Statistics Management knowledge is the best passport to enter the world of
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3. State the meaning of Authority. employment either in business world or government or private.
Authority means the right of a superior to give the order to his subordinates. ii). Management Tools:
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4. What do you mean by Span of management? Accounting, Psychology, Econometrics,
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The Span of Management refers to the number of subordinates who can be Business Law, Statistics, Data Processing,
managed efficiently by a superior. iii). Separate Discipline:
III. Short answers questions: Management studies in many universities and institutions of higher learning
“Management is a multipurpose organ that manages a business and manages Seminars, special courses, training programmes are becoming fashionable and
manager, and manages worker and work.” popular for orientation.
— Peter F. Drucker:
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iv). Specialization:
CHAPTER – 2 FUNCTIONS OF MANAGEMENT
There is a growing tendency to select and appoint highly qualified, trained and
I. Choose the Correct Answers:
experienced persons to manage the business in each functional areas of
management. 1. Which is the primary function of management?
v). Professional Association: (a) Innovating (b) Controlling (c) Planning (d) Decision-making
The Business Management Associations in many countries to promote the 2. Which of the following is not a main function?
spread of knowledge in all management areas and to build up the bright (a) Decision-making (b) Planning (c) Organizing (d) Staffing
public image of managerial profession.
3. _________ is included every managerial function.
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2. Explain the principles of modern management.
(a) Co-ordinating (b) Controlling (c) Staffing (d) Organizing
i). Division of Work:
According to this principle the whole work is divided into small tasks. 4. Which of the following is verification function?
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The specialization of the workforce according to the skills of a person, creating (a) Planning (b) Organizing (c) Staffing (d) Controlling
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specific personal and professional development within the labour force.
5. The goals are achieved with the help of _______________
ii). Authority and Responsibility:
(a) Motivation (b) Controlling (c) Planning (d) Staffing
a
a
This is the issue of commands followed by responsibility for their consequences.
Authority means the right of a superior to give the order to his subordinates II. Very Short Answer Questions:
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whereas responsibility means obligation for performance. 1. Write a short note about Planning.
iii). Discipline: Planning is the primary function of management.
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lv
It is obedience, proper conduct in relation to others, respect of authority, etc. Nothing can be performed without planning.
It is essential for the smooth functioning of all organizations. 2. What is meant by Motivation?
a
a
iv). Unity of Command:
The goals are achieved with the help of motivation.
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This principle states that each subordinate should receive orders and be
3. List the subsidiary functions of management?
accountable to one and only one superior.
Innovation Decision making
If an employee receives orders from more than one superior, it is likely to create
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Representation Communication
confusion and conflict.
4. What is the traditional proverb used in Planning?
v). Unity of Direction:
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“Think Before you Act” or “ Look Before you Leap”.
All related activities should be put under one group, there should be one plan of
III. Short Answer Questions:
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action for them, and they should be under the control of one manager.
@*@*@*@*@*@ 1. List out the main functions of management?
Planning Directing Controlling
Organizing Motivation Co-ordination
2. State the importance of staffing.
Staffing refers to placement of right persons in the right jobs.
Staffing helps to ensure better utilization of human resource
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It ensures to continuity and growth of the organization, through development MANAGEMENT BY OBJECTIVES (MBO)
managers. CHAPTER – 3
MANAGEMENT BY EXCEPTION (MBE)
3. How the employees are informed about important matters in a company?
Communication is the transmission of human thoughts and opinions from one I. Choose the Correct Answers:
person to another person.
1. ___________ System gives full Scope to the Individual Strength and Responsibility.
Employees are informed about the following way.
(a) MBO (b) MBE (c) MBM (d) MBA
IV. Long Answer Questions:
2. Which is the First step in Process of MBO?
1. Explain the various functions of management.
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(a) Fixing Key Result Area (b) Appraisal of Activities
i). Planning
“Look Before you Leap” are traditional proverbs which provide a basis for
(c) Matching Resources with Activities (d) Defining Organizational Objectives
planning. 3. ______ keeps Management Alert to Opportunities and Threats by Identifying Critical
l
da
da
Planning is the primary function. Problems.
ii). Organizing
(a) MBA (b) MBE (c) MBM (d) MBO
It is the process of establishing harmonious relationship among the members of
4. Delegation of Authority is Easily Done with the Help of __________ .
a
a
an organisation and the creation of network of relationship among them.
(a) MBM (b) MBE (c) MBO (d) MBA
ik
ik
iii). Directing
Directing denotes motivating, leading, guiding and communicating with 5. MBO is popularized in the USA by __________ .
(a) Prof. Reddin (b) Geroge Odiorne (c) Henry Feyol (d) E.W Taylor
lv
lv
subordinates on an ongoing basis in order to accomplish pre-set goals.
iv). Representation: II. Very Short Answer Questions:
A manager has to act as representative of a company.
a
a
1. What are the objectives of MBO?
Manager has dealings with customers, suppliers, government officials, banks.
.k
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To measure and judge performance
v). Decision-making:
To relate individual performance to organizational goals
Every employee of an organisation has to take a number of decisions every day.
w
w
2. Bring out the meaning of MBE.
Decision- making helps in the smooth functioning of an organisation.
Management by Exception is an important principle of managerial control
@*@*@*@*@*@
w
w
suggested by the classical writers on management.
3. Mention any two advantages of MBO?
w
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MBO gives the criteria of performance. It helps to take corrective action.
Delegation of authority is easily done with the help of MBO.
4. What is known as KRA?
Key result areas are fixed on the basis of organizational objectives premises.
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Defining Organizational Objectives a) Short Term Finance b) Medium Term Finance
Goals of Each Section
c) Long Term Finance d) Both Short Term and Medium Term Finance
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Fixing Key Result Areas
da
da
IV. Long Answer Questions: 3. Primary market is also called as
1. What are the major advantages of MBO? a) Secondary market b) Money market
Systematic evaluation of performance is made with the help of MBO. c) New Issue Market d) Indirect Market
a
a
MBO gives the criteria of performance. It helps to take corrective action.
4. Spot Market is a market where the delivery of the financial instrument and payment of
ik
ik
Delegation of authority is easily done with the help of MBO.
cash occurs
MBO motivates the workers by job enrichment and makes the jobs meaningful.
lv
lv
The responsibility of a worker is fixed through MBO. a) Immediately b) In the future c) Uncertain d) After one month
2. What are the advantages of MBE? 5. How many times a security can be sold in a secondary market?
a
a
It saves the time of managers because they deal only with exceptional matters.
a) Only one time b) Two time c) Three times d) Multiple times
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It focuses managerial attention on major problems.
It facilitates delegation of authority. II. Very Short Answer Questions:
There is increase in span of control. 1. What are the components of organized sectors?
w
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This leads to motivation and development of subordinates.
Regulators, Financial Institutions
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3. Discuss the disadvantages of MBE.
Financial Markets, Financial Services
Only managers have the power over really important decisions, which can be
2. What is Spot market?
w
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demotivating for employees at a lower level.
It is market where the delivery of financial instrument and payment of cash occurs
Furthermore, it takes time to pass the issues to managers.
immediately.
Managing employees who deviate from the normal procedures.
Because of compliance failures are considered difficult to manage. 3. What is debt market?
Typically find themselves with limited job duties and ultimately dismissed. Debt Market is the financial market for trading in Debt Instrument
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occurs immediately. i.e. settlement is completed immediately.
It does not provide funding to companies.
3. Bring out the scope of financial market in India. 3. Discuss the role of financial market.
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It leads to the overall economic development. (i) Savings Mobilization
da
da
It provides financial assistance to individuals, agricultural sectors, industrial Obtaining funds from the ‘surplus’ units such as business firms, public sector
sector, service sectors and financial institutions. units, Government is an important role played by financial markets.
With the help of the financial market all the above stated individuals institutions (ii) Investment
a
and government can get their required funds in time. Financial market plays a key role in arranging the investment of funds thus
ik
ik
collected, in those units which are in need of the same.
IV. Long Answer Questions:
(iii) National Growth
1. Distinguish between new issue market and secondary market. Financial markets contribute to a nation’s growth by ensuring an unfettered flow
lv
lv
S.no Basis New Issue Market Secondary Market of surplus funds to deficit units.
1 Meaning The market place for new The place where formerly issued (iv) Entrepreneurship Growth
a
a
shares is called primary market securities are traded is known Financial markets contribute to the development of the entrepreneurial class by
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as Secondary Market. making available the necessary financial resources.
w
Securities sold Only Once The different components of financial markets help an accelerated growth of
3 Multiple times
industrial and economic development of a country.
4 Gained Person Company Investors
w
w
@*@*@*@*@*@
5 Intermediary Underwriters Brokers
w
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3. Primary market is a Market where securities are traded in the In capital market, various types of securities help to mobilize savings from
various sectors of population.
a) First Time b) Second Time c) Three Time d) Several Times
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ii). Industrial Growth
4. Participants in the capital market includes
da
da
The stock exchange is a central market through which resources are transferred to
a) Individuals b) Corporate c) Financial Institutions d) All of the above
the industrial sector of the economy.
5. The ______ was set up by a premier financial institution to allow the trading of 3. Explain about Factoring and Venture Capital Institutions.
a
a
securities across the electronic counters throughout the country i). Factoring Capital
ik
ik
a) OTCEI b) Factoring c) Mutual Funds d) Venture funds Institutions The factoring institutions collect the book debts for and on behalf of its clients.
Some of the factoring institutions operating in India are SBI Factors and
II. Very Short Answer Questions:
lv
lv
Commercial Services Private Limited, etc
1. What is Capital Market?
ii). Venture capital:
It is a market where buyers and sellers engage in trade of financial securities like
a
a
Venture capital funds bring into force the hi-technology projects which are
bonds, and stocks.
.k
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converted into commercial production.
2. Write a note on OTCEI.
They include Risk Capital Foundation of IFCI, Venture Fund of IDBI, SIDBI, and
The OTCEI was set up by a premier financial institution to allow the trading of
others.
w
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securities across the electronic counters throughout the country.
IV. Long Answer Questions:
3. Who are the participants in a Capital Market?
w
w
Individuals Government banks
1. Discuss the characters of a Capital Market.
Corporate Sectors Financial Institutions (i) Securities Market
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The dealings in a capital market are done through the securities like shares,
4. How is price determined in a Capital Market?
debentures, etc. The capital market is thus called securities market.
Price determined in a Capital Market it is based on demand and supply.
(ii) Price
III. Short Answer Questions:
The price of the securities is determined based on the demand and supply.
1. What are the various kinds of Capital Market? Explain. (iii) Participants
The capital market is divided into two i.e.,
There are many players in the capital market. It includes individuals, corporate
Primary market and
Secondary market sectors, Govt., banks and other financial institutions.
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(iv) Location Some of the greatest strengths of OTCEI are transparency of transactions, quick
Capital market is not confined to certain specific locations, although it is true that deals, faster settlements and better liquidity.
parts of the market are concentrated in certain well-known centers known as Stock iii) National Stock Exchange of India Limited (NSEI)
Exchanges. NSEI was established in 1992 to function as a model stock exchange.
(v) Market for Financial Assets The Exchange aims at providing the advantage of nation-wide electronic screen
Capital market provides a transaction platform for long term financial assets. based “scripless” and “floorless” trading system in securities.
iv) National Securities Depositories Limited
2. Briefly explain the functions of capital market.
The NSDL was set up in the year 1996 for achieving a time bound
(i) Savings and Capital Formation
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dematerialization as well as rematerialization of shares.
Various types of securities help to mobilize savings from various sectors of
The establishment of NSDL is expected to alleviate the problems of post trade
population.
transactions in the secondary market.
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(ii) Permanent Capital
v) Stock Holding Corporation of India Limited (SHCIL)
da
da
The existence of a capital market/stock exchange enables companies to raise
It aims at serving as a central securities depository in respect of transactions on
permanent capital.
stock exchanges.
The investors cannot commit their funds for a permanent period.
a
iii) Industrial Growth
ik
ik
The stock exchange is a central market through which resources are transferred
@*@*@*@*@*@
to the industrial sector of the economy.
The existence of such an institution encourages people to invest in productive
lv
lv
channels.
(iv) Ready and Continuous Market
a
a
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Easy marketability makes investment in securities more liquid as compared to
other assets.
(v) Reliable Guide to Performance
w
w
The capital market serves as a reliable guide to the performance and financial
w
w
position of corporate, and thereby promotes efficiency.
3. Explain the various types of New Financial Institutions
w
w
i) Mutual Funds
Financial institutions that provide facilities for channeling savings of small
investors into avenues of productive investments are called ‘Mutual Funds’.
ii) Over the Counter Exchange of India (OTCEI)
The OTCEI was set up by a premier financial institution to allow the trading of
securities across the electronic counters throughout the country.
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a) Commercial Bank b) Reserve Bank of India Liquidity
c) State Bank of India d) Central Bank. 2. Who are the participants of Money Market?
l
3. Debt Instruments are issued by Corporate Houses are raising short-term financial Private and Public Banks Commercial Banks
da
da
Mutual Funds Institutions State Governments
resources from the money market are called __________.
Insurance Companies Public
a) Treasury Bills b) Commercial Paper
RBI and SBI
a
a
c) Certificate of Deposit d) Government Securities 3. Explain the types of Treasury Bills?
ik
ik
4. The market for buying and selling of Commercial Bills of Exchange is known as a _____.
On the basis of periodicity, Treasury Bills may be classified into three. They are:
a) Commercial Paper Market b) Treasury Bill Market
91 days Treasury Bills
lv
lv
c) Commercial Bill Market d) Capital Market
Ninety one days Treasury Bills are issued at a fixed discount rate of 4 per
5. A marketable document of title to a time deposit for a specified period may be referred
a
a
cent as well as through auctions.
to as a ____.
182 days Treasury Bills
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a) Treasury Bill b) Certificate of Deposit
The RBI holds 91 days and 182 Treasury Bills and they are issued on tap
c) Commercial Bill d) Government. Securities
w
w
basis throughout the week.
II. Very Short Answer Questions: 364 days Treasury Bills
w
w
1. What is a CD market?
364 days Treasury Bills do not carry any fixed rate.
Certificate of Deposits are short-term deposit instruments issued by banks and
w
w
financial institutions to raise large sums of money. 4. What are the types of Commercial Bill?
A method of trading whereby merchants bid against one another and where the Accommodation and supply Bills
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1. Differentiate between the Money Market and Capital market? The liquidity profile of gilt-edged securities varies.
S.no Features Money Market Capital Market Accordingly liquidity profile of securities issued by Central Government is high.
iv). Issue Mechanism
01 Duration of It is a market for short term It is a market for long term
The Public Debt Office of the RBI undertakes to issue government securities.
Funds loan funds. Funds .
v). Issue opening
02 Risks Low credit and Market risk High credit and Market Risk
A notification for the issue of the securities is made a few days before the public
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03 Liquidity High Low subscription is open.
l
da
da
2. Explain the characteristics of Money Market?
a
i).Short-term Funds
It is a market purely for short-term funds or financial assets called near money.
ik
ik
ii).Maturity Period
It deals with financial assets having a maturity period up to one year only.
lv
lv
iii).Conversion of Cash
It deals with only those assets which can be converted into cash readily without
a
a
loss and with minimum transaction cost.
.k
.k
iv).Existence of Secondary Market
There should be an active secondary market for these instruments.
w
w
v).Wholesale Market
It is a wholesale market and the volume of funds or financial assets traded in the
w
w
market is very large.
3. What are the Characteristics of Government Securities?
w
RBI takes a special and an active role in the purchase and sale of these securities
as part of its monetary management exercise.
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a) 21 b) 24 c) 20 d) 25 Failure to control unhealthy speculation.
3. Jobbers transact in a stock exchange No proper regulation of listing of securities on the stock exchange
l
a) For their Clients b) For their Own Transactions 2. Explain Bull and Bear.
da
da
c) For other Brokers d) For other Members i). Bull
A Bull or Tejiwala is an operator who expects a rise in prices of securities in the
4. A pessimistic speculator is
future.
a
a
a) Stag b) Bear c) Bull d) Lame Duck He is called bull because just like a bull tends to throw his victim up in the air,
ik
ik
5. An optimistic speculator is the bull speculator stimulates the price to rise.
a) Bull b) Bear c) Stag d) Lame duck He is an optimistic speculator.
lv
lv
ii). Bear
II. Very Short Answer Questions:
A bear or Mandiwala speculator expects prices to fall in future and sells
a
a
1. What is meant Stock Exchange? securities at present with a view to purchase them at lower prices in future.
Stock Exchange is an organized market for the purchase and sale of industrial and A bear usually presses its victim down to ground.
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financial security. A bear is a pessimistic speculator.
2. Write any 5 Stock Exchanges in India. 3. Explain Stag and Lame Duck.
w
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Bangalore Stock Exchange Ltd. i) Stag
The Cochin Stock Exchange Ltd. A stag is a cautious speculator in the stock exchange.
w
w
The Bombay Stock Exchange He applies for shares in new companies and expects to sell them at a premium,
The Jaipur Stock Exchange Ltd.
w
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if he gets an allotment.
The Kanara Stock Exchange Ltd. He is also called a premium hunter.
3. What is meant by Remisier? ii). Lame Duck
He acts as an agent of a member of a stock exchange. When a bear finds it difficult to fulfill his commitment, he is said to be
He obtains business for his principal. struggling like a lame duck.
The member and gets a commission for that service. A bear speculator contracts to sell securities at a later date.
Moreover, the buyer is not willing to carry over the transactions.
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IV. Long Answer Questions: 3. Distinguish between Stock Exchange and Commodity Exchange.
1. Explain the functions of Stock Exchange. S.no Features Stock Exchange Commodity Exchange
i). Ready and Continuous Market
1 Meaning It is an organized market for the It is an exchange where
Stock Exchange is, in fact, a market for existing securities.
purchase and sale of industrial commodities are traded.
If an investor wants to sell his securities, he can easily and quickly dispose
them off on a stock exchange. and financial security.
ii). Correct Evaluation of Securities 2 Function Providing easy marketability Price insurance service and
One can easily evaluate the worth of one’s securities on the basis of these liquidity to securities
quotations. 3 Object It is facilitating capital formation It is facilitating goods flow
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The lender can easily assess the worth of security offered for loan. through risk reduction
iii). Aid to Capital Formation
4 Participants Investors and Speculators Producers, Dealers, Traders
The facilities provided by it for their purchase and sale induce people to save
l
and invest. 5 Price Its dealings only one quotation Its dealings multiple quotation
da
da
Stock exchanges thus ensure a steady flow of capital into industry and assists Quotation is possible is possible
industrial development.
iv). Facilities for Speculation
a
Speculation is an integral part of stock exchange operations.
As a result of speculation, demand for and supply of securities are equalized. @*@*@*@*@*@
ik
ik
Similarly, price movements are rendered smoothly.
v). Seasoning of Securities
lv
lv
Speculators and underwriters hold for a temporary period, securities issued by
new companies.
a
a
They unlock them when the market is prepared to absorb the new issues.
2. Explain the features of Stock Exchange.
.k
.k
i). Market for Securities
Stock exchange is a market, where securities of corporate bodies, government
w
w
and semi-government bodies are bought and sold.
ii). Deals in Second Hand Securities
It deals with shares, debentures bonds and such securities already issued by the
w
w
companies.
iii). Regulates Trade in Securities
w
w
Stock exchange does not buy or sell any securities on its own account.
It regulates the trade activities so as to ensure free and fair trade.
iv). Association of Persons
A stock exchange is an association of persons or body of individuals which may be
registered or unregistered.
v). Recognition from Central Government
Stock exchange is an organized market. It requires recognition from the Central
Government.
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a) Calcutta b) Bombay c) Chennai d) Delhi account opening form.
3. Registering and controlling the functioning of collective investment schemes as ______ Only photocopies of the documents are required for submission, but originals are
required for verification.
l
a) Mutual Funds b) Listing c) Rematerialisation d) Dematerialization
da
da
3. Draw the organization structure of SEBI.
4. SEBI is empowered by the Finance ministry to nominate ______ members on the
Organizational Structure of SEBI
Governing body of every stock exchange. Director
a
a
a) 5 b) 3 c) 6 d) 7
Additional director/ Additional director Technical Director/
ik
ik
5. Trading is dematerialized shares commenced on the NSE is ________ Joint Director (Adminstration) Joint Directors (system)
lv
II. Very Short Answer Questions: Assistant Directors (Adminstration) (System)
a
Assistant director Assistant director
SEBI is an apex body that maintains and regulates our capital market. (Adminstration) (System)
.k
.k
2. Write any two objectives of SEBI. Section Officers Technical Assistants
(Adminst5ration)
Regulation of Stock Exchanges
w
w
Protection to the Investors
3. Mention the headquarters of SEBI. IV. Long Answer Questions:
w
w
BandraKurla Complex in Mumbai,
1. What are the functions of SEBI?
w
w
Regulating and controlling the business on stock markets.
North - New Delhi, East - Kolkata, South - Chennai and West- Ahmadabad.
Barring insider trading in securities.
4. What are the various ID proofs?
Carrying out steps in order to develop the capital markets by having an
PAN Card, Driver's License, Electricity Bill,
accommodating approach.
Voter's ID, Bank Attestation, Telephone Bill,
Levying fee or any other type of charges to carry out the purpose of the Act.
Passport, IT Returns, ID Cards
Performing functions that may be assigned to it by the Central Government of
India.
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a) Science and art b) Theory and practice
intermediaries
c) History and Geography d) None of the above
It can even impose suspension of their registration for a short period.
3. Planning is a -------------- function.
l
iii). Power to Initiate Actions in Functions Assigned
da
da
a) Selective b) Pervasive c) Both a and b d) None of the above
SEBI has a power to initiate actions in regard to functions assigned.
For example, it can issue guidelines to different intermediaries
4. Human resource management determines the --------------------- relationship.
a
SEBI has power to regulate insider trading or can regulate the functions of c) Owner, Servant d) Principle, Agent
ik
ik
merchant bankers. 5. Labour turnover is the rate at which employees ---------- the organisation
v). Powers Under Securities Contracts Act a) Enter b) Leave c) Salary d) None of the above
lv
lv
For effective regulation of stock exchange, the Ministry of Finance issued a
II. Very Short Answer Questions:
Notification on 13 September, 1994 delegating several of its powers under the
a
a
1. What is Human Resource Management?
Securities Contracts (Regulations) Act to SEBI.
The branch of management that deals with managing human resource is known as
.k
.k
Human Resource Management.
2. State two features of HRM.
w
w
It is an Universally relevant.
@*@*@*@*@*@ Goals are made possible through best utilization.
w
w
3. Mention two characteristics of Human Resource.
w
w
Human resources are movable.
Human resources are emotional beings.
It can work as a team.
4. What are the Managerial functions of HRM.
Planning,
Organizing,
Directing,
Controlling
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III. Short Answer Questions: iii). To ensure the correct requirement of manpower:
1. Define the term Human Resource Management. At any time the organisation should not suffer from shortage or surplus manpower
HRM as that part of management process which is primarily concerned with the which is made possible through human resource management.
human constituents of an organization. iv). To select right man for right job:
It ensures the right talent available for the right job, so that no employee is either
- E.F.L.Brech
under qualified or over qualified
2. What are the Characteristics of Human resources?
v). To update the skill and knowledge:
It is the only factor of production that lives.
Managing human resource plays a significant role in the process of employee
It’s created all other resources.
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skill and knowledge.
Human resources are emotional beings. Enhancement to enable the employees to remain up to date through training
Human resources are movable. and development programmes.
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It can work as a team. 3. Discuss the Operating functions HRM.
da
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Its exhibits innovation and creativity i. Procurement:
3. What is the Significance of Human resource? Acquisition deals with job analysis, human resource planning, recruitment,
selection, placement, transfer and promotion
a
a
Industrial relation depends on human resource.
Human relation is possible only through human resource. ii. Development
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Human resource manages all other factors of production. Development includes performance appraisal, training, executive development,
It’s well protected by legislative framework. career planning and development, organizational development
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lv
iii. Compensation
IV. Long Answer Questions:
It deals with job evaluation, wage and salary administration, incentives, bonus,
1. Explain the Characteristics of Human Resource.
a
a
fringe benefits and social security schemes
Human resource is the only factor of production that lives
iv. Retention
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Human resource created all other resources
This is made possible through health and safety, welfare, social security, job
Human resources are emotional beings satisfaction and quality of work life.
w
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Human resources are movable v. Integration
Human resource can work as a team It is concerned with the those activities that aim to bring about reconciliation
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2. Describe the significance of Human Resource Management. between personal interest and organizational interest
i). To identify manpower needs:
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such a way that the human resource management acts as an agent to make the
change effective.
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2. Recruitment bridges gap between ------------ --- and -------------- . and fill up their vacancies.
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3. State the steps in Recruitment process Outsourcing?
a) Job seeker and job provider b) Job seeker and agent
Recruitment understanding Profile Submission
c) Job provider and owner d) Owner and servant
Advertise & Source Interview Process
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3. Advertisement is a --------------- source of recruitment
Screening Selection
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a) Internal b) External c) Agent d) Outsourcing Validation
4. Transfer is an --------------- source of recruitment. IV. Long Answer Questions:
a
a) Internal b) External c) Outsourcing d) None of the above 1. Explain the internal source of recruitment.
5. E-recruitment is possible only through -------------- facility.
ik
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i). Transfer:
Transfer of employee from one department with surplus staff to that of
a) Computer b) Internet c) Broadband d) 4G
another with deficit staff.
lv
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II. Very Short Answer Questions: ii). Upgrading:
1. Give the meaning of Recruitment. Performance appraisal helps in the process of moving employees from a
a
a
lower position to a higher position
Recruitment is the process of finding suitable candidates for the various posts in
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iii). Promotion:
an organization.
Based on seniority and merits of the employees they are given opportunity
2. What is promotion?
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to move up in the organizational hierarchy
Based on seniority and merits of the employees they are given opportunity to move iv). Demotion:
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up in the organizational order. Movement of employee from a higher position to a lower position because of
3. Write any two internal source of recruitment. poor performance continuously.
w
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Transfer Upgrading Promotion Demotion v). Dependants:
The legal heir or the dependent employee may be given a chance to replace
4. What is meant by Poaching?
the deceased.
Organizations instead of training and developing their own employees hire
2. Explain the external source of recruitment.
employees of other competitive companies by paying them more both financial
i). Advertisements:
and non financial benefits.
The employer can advertise in dailies, journals, magazines etc. about the
It is also called raiding.
vacancies in the organisation.
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suitable candidates.
a) Positive b) Negative c) Natural d) None of these
v). Recruitment at Factory gate:
Usually unskilled employees are recruited by this way. 3. Which of the following test is used to measure the various characteristics of the
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They are recruited at factory gate and paid on hourly or daily basis. candidate?
da
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3. What is the Recent trend in Recruitment? a) Physical Test b) Psychological Test
i). Outsourcing
c) attitude Test d) Proficiency tests
a
a
It help in the process of recruiting through screening of applications and finding
4. The process of eliminating unsuitable candidate is called
ik
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the right person for the job for which job they are paid service charges.
a) Selection b) Recruitment c) Interview d) Induction
Recruitment Process Outsourcing:
Recruitment understanding 5. Job first man next is one of the principles of -----------
lv
lv
Advertise & Source a) Test b) Interview c) Training d) placement
Screening II. Very Short Answer Questions:
a
a
Validation
1. What is selection?
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Profile Submission
Selection is the process of choosing the most suitable person for the vacant
Interview Process
position in the organization.
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Selection
2. What is an interview?
ii). Poaching
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“An interview is a purpose full exchange of ideas, the answering of questions and
Organizations instead of training and developing their own employees hire
communication between two or more persons.”
employees of other competitive companies by paying them more both financial
w
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3. What is intelligence test?
and non financial benefits.
Intelligence tests are one of the psychological tests, that is designed to measure a
It is also called raiding.
variety of mental ability, individual capacity of a candidate.
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1. What is stress interview? Intelligence tests are one of the psychological tests, that is designed to
This type of interview is conducted to test the temperament and emotional measure a variety of mental ability, individual capacity of a candidate.
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Under this method, a series of question to be asked by the interviewer are pre-
Interest test measure a candidate’s extent of interest in a particular area
prepared by the interviewer and only these questions are asked in the interview.
chosen by him/ her so that organization can assign the job suited to his/her
3. Name the types of selection test? in term.
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SELECTION TEST 2. Explain the important methods of interview.
a
Aptitude Test Interest Test This type of interview is conducted to test the temperament and emotional
Achievement Test Personality Test balance of the candidate interviewed.
ik
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Intelligence Test Projective Test Interviewer deliberately creates stressful situation by directing the candidate to
Judgment Test Attitude Test do irrational and irritating activities.
lv
lv
4. What do you mean by achievement test? ii). Structured Interview:
a
a
This test measures a candidate’s capacity to achieve in a particular field.
Under this method, a series of question to be asked by the interviewer are pre-
It is also called proficiency test.
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prepared by the interviewer and only these questions are asked in the interview.
This test is conducted before, during or after a learning experience.
iii). Online Interview
IV. Long answer questions:
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These days interviews are conducted by means of internet via Skype, Wechat,
1. Briefly explain the various types of tests. Google duo, Viber, Whatsapp or Video chat applications.
w
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i). Aptitude Test: They saves a lot of time, money and energy both for employer's organisation
and the candidate.
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It is a test to measure suitability of the candidates for the post/role.
iv). Group interview
It helps in predicting the ability and future performance of the candidate.
A group interview is a screening process where multiple candidates are
ii). Achievement Test:
interviewed at the same time.
This test measures a candidate’s capacity to achieve in a particular field.
Group interview is a good time saving type of interview.
It is also called proficiency test.
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a) Training b) Selection c) Recruitment d) Performance appraisal
01 Approach Positive one Negative one
3. When trainees are trained by supervisor or by superior at the job is called
02 Sequence First Second
a) Vestibule training b) Refresher training
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03 Method It is economical method It is an expensive method c) Role play d) Apprenticeship training
4. ------------- is useful to prevent skill obsolescence of employees
04 Contractual No contractual relation Its contractual relation
a) Training b) Job analysis c) Selection d) Recruitment
a
a
relation
5. Training methods can be classified into training ----- and-------training
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05 Process It is very simple It is very complex.
a) Job rotation and Job enrichment b) On the Job and Off the Job
c) Job analysis and Job design d) Physical and mental
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II. Very Short Answer Questions:
a
a
@*@*@*@*@*@ 1. What is meant by training?
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Training is the act of increasing the Knowledge and skills of an employee for doing
particular jobs”.
2. What is Mentoring training method?
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Mentoring is the process of sharing knowledge and experience of an employee.
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3. What is Role play?
Under this method trainees are explained the situation and assigned roles.
w
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They have to act out the roles assigned to them without any rehearsal.
There are no pre-prepared dialogues.
4. State e-learning method?
E learning is the use of technological process to access of a traditional classroom
or office.
E learning is also often referred to us online learning or web based training.
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III. Short Answer Questions: In this method superior plays the role of coach or guide and an instructor.
ii) Mentoring method:
1. What is vestibule training?
Vestibule training is training of employees in an environment similar to actual Mentoring is the process of sharing knowledge and experience of an employee.
work environment artificially created for training purpose. The focus in this training is on the development of attitude of trainees.
2. What do you mean by on the job Training? It is mostly used for managerial employees.
On the job training refers to the training which is given to the employee at the iii) Job Rotation Method
work place by his immediate supervisor. Under this method a trainee is periodically shifted from one work to another
It is based on the principle of “Learning by Doing and Learning While Earning”. work and from one department to another department for a particular period of
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3. Write down various steps in a training programme. time.
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Who is the trainee? Under this method participants are divided into various groups.
da
da
Who are trainers? Each groups has to prepare solution after deep discussion with their group
What method will be used for training? members.
What should be the level of training? Moderator will give final solution after listening to divergent view points.
a
Where to conduct the training programme? v) Role Play Method
ik
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4. Write short note on trainer and trainee. Under this method trainees are explained the situation and assigned roles.
Trainee They have to act out the roles assigned to them without any rehearsal.
lv
lv
A person who is learning and practicing the skills of particular job is called There are no pre-prepared dialogues.
trainee. Thus they have to assume role and play the role without any preparation.
a
a
Trainees should be selected on the basis of self-interest and recommendation
by the supervisor or by the human resource department itself.
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2. What are the differences between on the job training and off the job training?
Trainer
S.no Transaction On the job training Off the job training
Trainer is a person who teaches skills to employee and prepares them for a
w
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job activity. 01 Meaning The employee learns the job in Off the job training involves the
Trainers may be supervisor, coworkers, HR staffs, faculty members of the actual work environment. training of employees outside the
w
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Educational Institutions like University etc. actual work location.
The trainers is otherwise called Instructor, Coach, Teacher, Mentor, Adviser, 02 Cost It is cheapest to carry out It requires expenses like separate
w
w
Counselor, Guide, Guru, Manager, Handler, Tutor and Educator etc,. training rooms specialist, resource
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3. Explain the benefits of training. (any 2 points from each heading) CONCEPT OF MARKETING
(i) Benefits to the Organization CHAPTER -13 AND MARKETER
It reduces wastages of materials and idle time.
It exposes employees to latest trends.
I. Choose the Correct Answers:
It minimizes the time for supervision.
1. One who promotes (or) Exchange of goods or services for money is called as .
It reduces labour turnover of employee
(ii) Benefits to the Employees a) Seller b) Marketer c) Customer d) Manager
It adds to the knowledge skill and competency of employee 2. The marketer initially wants to know in the marketing is .
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It enables him to gain promotion or achieve career advancement in quick time.
a) Qualification of the customer b) Quality of the product
It improves the employees productivity
c) Background of the customers d) Needs of the customers
It enhances the morale of the employee.
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(iii)Benefits of Customer 3. The Spot market is classified on the basis of .
da
da
Customers get better quality of product/ service. a) Commodity b) Transaction c) Regulation d) Time
Customers get innovative products or value added or feature rich products. 4. Which one of the market deals in the purchase and sale of shares and debentures?
a
a) Stock Exchange Market b) Manufactured Goods Market
ik
ik
c) Local Market d) Family Market
@*@*@*@*@
5. Stock Exchange Market is also called ...........................
lv
lv
a) Spot Market b) Local Market c) Security Market d)National Market
II. Very Short Answer Questions:
a
a
1. What is Market?
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The meeting place of buyers and sellers in an area is called Market.
2. Define Marketer.
w
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“A person whose duties include the identification of the goods and services
desired by a set of consumers, as well as the marketing of those goods and
w
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services on behalf of a company”.
3. What is mean by Regulated Market?
w
w These are types of markets which are organized, controlled and regulated by
Statutory measures.
4. What is meant by Spot Market?
Goods are exchanged and the physical delivery of goods takes place immediately.
5. What is meant by Commodity Market?
A commodity market is a place where produced goods or consumption goods are
bought and sold.
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namely banking, insurance, finance, hospitality, tourism, etc.,
iii). Information:
Information is the most valuable product that can be marketed today.
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The data collected by an organisation can be used as a product for this
da
da
purpose.
2. Mention any three Role of Marketer?
a
i. Instigator
Marketer keenly watches the developments taking place in the market and
ik
ik
identifies marketing opportunities.
ii. Innovator
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lv
He differentiates his products /services by adding additional features to the 2. How the market can be classified on the basis of Economics?
existing product.
a. Perfect Market:
a
a
iii. Integrator
A market is said to be a perfect market, if it satisfies the following conditions:
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Marketer plays a role of integrator in the sense that he collects feedback from
Large number of buyers and sellers are there.
channel members and consumers.
Prices should be uniform throughout the market.
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3. Explain the types of market on the basis of time.
Buyers and sellers have a perfect knowledge of market.
(i) Very short period market:
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Goods can be moved from one place to another without rest
restrictions.
Markets which deal in perishable goods like, fruits, milk, vegetables etc., are
called as very short period market. b. Imperfect Market: A market is said to be imperfect when
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(ii) Short period market: Products are similar but not identical.
In certain goods, supply is adjusted to meet the demand. Prices are not uniform.
The demand is greater than supply. There is lack of communication.
(iii) Long period market: There are restrictions on the movement of goods.
This type of market deals in durable goods, where the goods and services are @*@*@*@*@*@*@
dealt for longer period usages.
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Marketing mix:
3. In the following variables which one is not the variable of marketing mix? “Marketing mix is a pack of four sets of variables namely product variable, price
a) Place Variable b) Product Variable variable, promotion variable, and place variable”.
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Elements of marketing of mix:
c) Program Variable d) Price Variable
da
da
i. Product:
4. Marketing mix means a marketing program that is offered by a firm to its target……..to
Product is the main element of marketing.
earn profits through satisfaction of their wants. Without a product, there can be no marketing.
a
a
a) Wholesaler b) Retailer c) Consumer d) Seller ii. Price:
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5. Which one is the example of Intangible product? Price is the value of a product expressed in monetary terms.
It is the amount charged for the product.
a) Education b) Mobiles c) Garments d) Vehicles
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IV. Long Answer Questions:
II. Very Short Answer Questions:
1. Discuss about the Evolution of marketing.
a
a
1. What is Marketing? i. Barter System:
It is one of the business functions that all activities that take place in relation to
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The goods are exchanged against goods, without any other medium of exchange,
markets for the purpose of satisfying human needs and wants. like money.
2. Define Marketing Mix. ii. Production Orientation:
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“Marketing mix is a pack of four sets of variables namely product variable, price This was a stage where producers, instead of being concerned with the
w
w
variable, promotion variable, and place variable”. consumer preferences, concentrated on the mass production of goods for the
- Mr. Jerome McCarthy, purpose of profit.
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3. What is meant by Grading? They cared very little about the customers.
It means classification of standardized products in to certain well defined classes. iii. Sales Orientation:
III. Short Answer Questions: The stage witnessed major changes in all the spheres of economic life.
The selling became the dominant factor, without any efforts for the satisfaction
1. What are the objectives of marketing?
of the consumer needs.
Intelligent and capable application of modern marketing policies.
iv. Marketing Orientation:
To develop the marketing field.
Customers’ importance was realized but only as a means of disposing of goods
To find sources for further information concerning the market problems. produced. Competition became more stiff.
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v. Consumer Orientation:
Under this stage only such products are brought forward to the markets which are CHAPTER -15 RECENT TRENDS IN MARKETING
capable of satisfying the tastes, preferences and expectations of the consumers-
I. Choose the Correct Answers:
consumer satisfaction.
2. Narrate the Elements of Marketing mix. 1. Selling goods/ services through internet is
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“A product is anything that can be offered to a market for attention, acquisition,
3. Social marketing deals with:
consumption that might satisfy a want or a need”.
- Philip Kotler
a. Society b. Social Class c. Social change d. Social evil
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ii) Price: 4. Effective use of Social media marketing increase conversion rates of –
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Price is the value of a product expressed in monetary terms. a. Customer to buyers b. Retailer to customers
It is the amount charged for the product. c. One buyer to another buyer’s d. Direct contact of marketer
“Price is the amount of money charged for a product or service.
a
a
5. Pure play retailers are called
- Philip Kotler
ik
ik
a. Market creators b. Transaction brokers c. Merchants d. Agents
iii. Place
The fourth element of product mix, namely place facilitates the movement of II. Very Short Answer Questions:
lv
lv
products from the place of manufacture to the place of consumption at the right
1. What is service marketing?
time.
Service marketing is a specialized branch of marketing.
a
a
The qualified product will be wasted if it is not transferred to the consumers.
The processing of selling service goods like telecommunication, banking,
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iv. Promotion
insurance, car rentals, healthcare, tourism, professional services, repairs etc.,
The special features and benefits should be conveyed to the potential
2. What is green marketing?
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consumers.
Green marketing involves developing and promoting products and services which
Most of the consumers become customers on the basis of the special features of
satisfy customers’ wants and needs without affecting environment.
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the products.
3. What is Ambush Marketing?
w
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It is a new technique whereby a particular advertiser seeks to connect his product
@*@*@*@*@*@ to the event in the mind of potential customer without paying sponsoring expenses to
the event.
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1. What are the advantages of E-marketing? The processing of selling service goods like telecommunication, banking,
It’s provides 24 Hrs and 7 days service to its users. insurance, car rentals, healthcare, tourism, professional services, repairs etc.,
Products bought through e-marketing become cheaper. Multilevel Marketing:
Customer can buy whatever they want just by browsing the various sites.
It is the marketing strategy wherein the direct sales companies encourage its
2. Discuss the objectives E-Marketing
existing distributors.
Expansion of market share
The distributor is compensated not only for the sales generated by him.
Reduction of distribution and promotional expenses.
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The distributors not only sell the products but also encourage others to join the
Achieving higher brand awareness.
company.
Strengthening database.
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3. Explain in detail about Niche marketing. The recruits are called as the participant’s “Downline”.
da
da
A strategy of directing all marketing efforts towards one well defined segment of
@*@*@*@*@*@
the population.
The sports channels like STAR Sports, ESPN, STAR Cricket and Fox Sports
a
a
target the niche market of sports enthusiasts.
ik
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IV. Long Answer Questions:
1. Explain in detail how traditional marketing differ from E-marketing
lv
lv
S.No E-marketing Traditional marketing
1 It is very economical and faster way It is very expensive and takes more time
a
a
to promote the products. to promote product.
.k
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2 It is quiet easier for promoting It is very expensive and time consuming to
w
3 It can expand their operation with It needs more man power.
w
w
Minimum manpower.
w
sold or bought 24*7,round the marketing.
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in the contract.
c) Ralph Nader d) Jawaharlal Nehru The Trademark Act, 1999 prevents the use of fraudulent marks on the product.
3. Sale of Goods Act was passed in the year? The Competition Act, 2002 protects the consumers against unhealthy competition.
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a) 1962 b) 1972 c) 1930 d) 1985 2. What is meant by artificial scarcity?
da
da
4. The Consumer Protection Act came into force with effect from There are certain situations where the shop-keepers put up the board ‘No Stock”
in front of their shops, even though there is plenty of stock in the store.
a) 1.1.1986 b) 1.4.1986 c) 15.4.1987 d) 15.4.1990
a
In such situations consumers who are desperate to buy such goods have to pay
5. ----------- of every year is declared as a Consumer Protection Day to educate the public
high price to buy those goods.
ik
ik
about their rights and responsibilities.
Even in Cinema houses, board may hang in the main entrance ‘House Full’ while
a) August 15 b) April 15 c) March 15 d) September 15 cinema tickets will be freely available at a higher price in the black market.
lv
lv
II. Very Short Answer Questions: 3. Write the importance of consumerism.
1. Who is a consumer? Awakening and uniting consumers.
a
a
A consumer is one who consumes goods manufactured and sold by others. Discouraging unfair trade practices.
.k
.k
One, who avails services such as banking, transport, insurance, etc., is also Protecting against exploitation.
called a consumer. Awakening the government.
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2. Give two examples of adulteration. Providing complete and latest information.
Mixing of stones with grains IV. Long Answer Questions:
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Papayas seed is added to black pepper
1. How consumers are exploited?
3. What is Caveat Emptor?
i). Selling at Higher Price:
w
w
‘Caveat emptor’ is a Latin term that means "let the buyer beware."
The price charged by the seller for a product service may not be matching
The principle of caveat emptor serves as a warning to the buyers that they have
with the quality but at times it is more than the fair price.
no recourse with the seller if the product does not meet their expectations
ii). Adulteration:
4. What is Caveat Venditor? It refers to mixing or substituting undesirable material in food.
The principle of caveat venditor, which means "let the seller beware," by This causes heavy loss to the consumers.
which goods are covered by an implied warranty of merchantability. This will lead to monitory loss and spoil the health.
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iii). False Advertisements: 3. What are the objectives of Consumer Protection Act, 1986?
Advertisements convey very little information about the product. Protection of consumers against marketing of goods which are hazardous and
Many times it makes false representation about the quality, price, grade, dangerous to life and property of consumers.
composition, utility guaranteed, performance etc. Providing correct and complete information about quality, quantity, purity, price
iv). Sub-standard: and standard of goods purchased by consumers.
On opening a packet or sealed container one may find the content to be of Protecting consumers from unfair trade practices of traders.
poor quality. Empowering consumers to seek redressal against exploitation
A consumer finds it difficult to exchange the defective one for good one. Educating the consumer of their rights and duties
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v). Warranty and Services:
Warranty service may not be extended to many parts of the product sold.
@*@*@*@*@*@
Thus consumers may be charged exorbitant charges in the name of repair
l
da
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costs.
a
Business enterprises should stop from hiking the price in the context of critical
ik
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shortage of goods.
lv
Business enterprises should allow the business to flow normally.
It should not indulge in hoarding and black marketing to earn maximum
a
a
possible profit in the short term at the cost of consumers.
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iii) Guarantees for Good Quality
Business enterprises should not give false warranty for the products.
w
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It should ensure supply of good quality.
w
Business enterprises should not convey false, untrue, bogus information
relating to the product through the advertisements in media and thus mislead
w
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the consumers.
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2. --------- is the king of modern marketing. consumers’ health, lives and property.
a. Consumer b. Wholesaler c. Producer d. Retailer The consumers are entitled to protection of their health and safety from the
goods and services they buy.
3. As the consumer is having the rights, they are also having -------.
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IV. Long Answer Questions:
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a. Measures b. Promotion c. Responsibilities d. Duties
4. Which of the following is not a consumer right summed up by John F. Kennedy 1. Explain the duties of consumers.
i). Ensure the Weights and Measurement before Making Purchases:
a. Right to safety b. Right to choose
a
a
The sellers often cheat consumer by using unfair weights and measures.
c. Right to consume d. Right to be informed
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The consumer should ensure that he/she is getting the product of exact weight
5. It is the responsibility of a consumer that he must obtain----------- as a proof for the
and measure.
purchase of goods. ii). Reading the Label Carefully:
lv
lv
a. Cash receipt b. Warranty card c. Invoice d. All of these It is the duty of the consumer to thoroughly read the label of the product.
It should have correct, complete and true information about the product.
a
a
II. Very Short Answer Questions: iii). Beware of False and Attractive Advertisements:
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1. Write short notes on: “Right to be informed.” Often the products are not as attractive as shown in the advertisement by the
Consumers should be given all the relevant facts about the product so that they
sellers.
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can take intelligent decisions on purchasing the product.
Hence, it is the prime duty of consumer not to get misled by such fraudulent
2. What are the rights of consumer according to John F. Kennedy? advertisements.
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“The Right of Safety, the Right to be informed, the Right to choose and the Right to iv). Ensuring the Receipt of Cash Bill:
be heard.” It is a legitimate duty of consumers to collect cash receipt and warranty card
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- Mr. John F. Kennedy supplied along with bills.
This will help them in seeking redressal for their grievances.
3. Which is the supreme objective of business?
v). Buying from Reputed Shops:
Satisfaction of consumer needs/requirements is stated to be supreme objective of
It is advisable for the consumer to make purchase from the reputed shops or
a business.
government shops like super bazaar, cooperative stores, and the like.
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quantity, price etc of the product before purchasing it. a) Judge of a High Court b) Chief Minister
The consumer must get cash receipt as a proof of goods purchased from the
c) Finance Minister d) None of the above
seller.
3. The Chairman of the District Forum is________
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The consumer must file a complaint with the seller concerned about defects or
da
da
short comings noticed in their products and services. a) District Judge b) High Court Judge
c) Supreme Court Judge d) None of the above
@*@*@*@*@*@*@*@
a
a
4. The State Commission can entertain complaints where the value of the goods or
services and the compensation, if any claimed exceed
ik
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a). Rs. 2 lakhs but does not exceed Rs. 5 lakhs
lv
lv
b) Rs. 20 lakhs but does not exceed Rs. 1 crore
c) Rs. 3 lakhs but does not exceed Rs. 5 lakhs
a
a
d) Rs. 4 lakhs but does not exceed Rs. 20 lakhs
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5. The International Organisation of Consumers Unions (IOCU) was first established in
a)1960 b)1965 c)1967 d)1987
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II. Very Short Answer Questions:
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1. What do you meant by Redressal Mechanism?
It is a management and governance related process used commonly in India.
w
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While the term "Grievance Redressal" primarily covers the receipt and processing
of complaints from citizens and consumers
2. What do you know about National Commission?
It is a quasi-judicial commission in India which was set up in 1988 under the
Consumer Protection Act of 1986.
Its head office is in New Delhi.
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3. State the meaning of the term State Commission. Four other members of ability, knowledge and experience from any other fields.
A consumer has to be protected against defects, deficiencies and unfair and It should include a woman.
The State Consumer Protection Council is also called State Commission. Section 21 of The Consumer Protection Act, 1986 describes, the National
As per the Consumer Protection Act of 1986 the establishment of a District Forum To entertain a complaint valued more than 1 Crore.
by the State Government in each district is necessary today to protect the interest Revised the orders of State Commissions.
2. Explain the overall performance of State Commission.
of aggrieved consumers in that district.
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Meaning:
III. Short Answer Questions: A consumer has to be protected against defects, deficiencies and unfair and
1. Who are the members of the National Commission? restrictive trade practices.
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The National Commission should have five members. The State Consumer Protection Council is also called State Commission.
da
da
One should be from judiciary. Members:
Four other members of ability, knowledge and experience from any other fields. Each State Commission shall consist of the following members.
a
It should include a woman. A person who is or has been a Judge of a High Court appointed by the State
2. Who are the members of the state commission? Government as its President.
ik
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Judge of a high court appointed by the state government as its president. Two other members who shall be persons of ability, integrity and standing and
Two other members who shall be person of ability, integrity and standing and have adequate knowledge or experience.
lv
lv
have knowledge. Powers:
One shall be women. The State Commission also has the power to call for the records and pass
a
a
appropriate orders in any consumer dispute which is pending before or has been
3. Write a note on the Voluntary Consumer Organisation.
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decided by any District Forum within the State.
Consumer is a broad label for any individuals or households that use goods and
To furnish such information that may be required for the purposes of the Act to
services produced within the economy.
any officer so specified.
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Voluntary consumer organizations refer to the organisation formed voluntarily by
@*@*@*@*@*@*@
the consumers to protect their rights and interests
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IV. Long Answer Questions:
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1. Explain the overall performance of National Commission?
National Commission is a quasi-judicial commission in India which was set up in
1988 under the Consumer Protection Act of 1986.
Its head office is in New Delhi.
Members:
The National Commission should have five members.
One should be from judiciary.
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4. Expand VUCA.
CHAPTER - 19 ENVIRONMENTAL FACTORS
VUCA – Volatility, Uncertainty, Complexity and Ambiguity,
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The legislative, executive and judiciary are the three political institutions which
d). All of the above
directs and influences a business
2. GST stands for
2. Write about any three internal environmental factors of business.
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a). Goods and Social Tax b). Goods and Services Tax
da
da
i). Vision and objectives:
c). Goods and Sales Tax d). Goods and Salary Tax The vision and objectives of a business guides its operations and strategic
a
ii). Management structure:
a). Internal Thinker b). External Thinker
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The structure of management/board and their style of functioning, which
c). Fellow human beings d). All of the above
affects the decision making.
4. Macro Environment of business is an __________factor. iii). Company image:
lv
lv
a). Uncontrollable b). Controllable c). Manageable d). Immanageable The image of an organisation plays an important role.
5. The two major types of business environment are _________ and _________ 3. What do you know about Technological environment?
a
a
a). Positive and Negative b). Internal and External The development in the IT and telecommunications has created a global market.
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Technology is widely used in conducting market research for understanding the
c). Good and Bad d). Allowable and Unallowable
special needs of the customer.
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II. Very Short Answer Questions: Digital and social media are used as a platform for advertising and promoting the
products/services.
1. What is internal environment?
w
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Internal environment refers to those factors within an organisation e.g. Policies and
IV. Long Answer Questions:
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programmes, organizational structure, etc., which are controllable factors. 1. Discuss the role of macro environment of business.
2. Give the meaning of corporate governance.
i) Economic environment:
It is a set of rules and policies which governs a company.
The business is an integral part of the economic system prevalent in a nation.
It provides a frame work for managing a company and achieving its objectives.
The nature of economy based on the stage of development.
3. What is GST?
The Economic indices like GDP, GNP national income, etc..
GST is the indirect tax levied on goods and services across the country.
Types of taxes: CGST,SGST,IGST
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Business is a part of the society. All organizations face competition at all levels local, national and global.
It refers to the sum total of factors of the society in which the business is Competitors may be for the same product or for similar products.
located. iv) Marketing Channel members:
Social and cultural environment of society affects the business.
The marketing inter-mediaries serve as a connecting link between the
iii) Political and Legal environment: business and its customers.
The framework for running a business is given by the political and legal Market research agencies help the firm to understand the needs of the
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environment. customers
The success of a business lies in its ability to adapt and sustain to political v) Public:
and legal changes.
The public group has the ability to make or mar a business.
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iv) Technological environment:
da
da
Many companies had to face closure due to actions by local public.
The development in the IT and telecommunications has created a global @*@*@*@*@*@
market.
a
Technology is widely used in conducting market research for understanding
the special needs of the customer.
ik
ik
v) Global environment:
lv
lv
With the rapid growth of technology the physical boundaries are fast
disappearing and the new global market is emerging.
a
a
The international environmental factors which affects a business
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2. Explain the micro environmental factors of business.
i) Suppliers:
w
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In any organisation the suppliers of raw materials and other inputs play a
very vital role.
w
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Organizations have realized the importance of nurturing and maintaining
good relationship with the suppliers.
w
ii) Customers:
The aim of any business is to satisfy the needs of its customers. The
customer is the king business.
Customer relationship management aims at creating and sustaining cordial
w
relations with customers.
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reserved for public sector. Corporations got a competitive advantage from lower operating costs, and access
(a) Liberalization (b) Privatization (c) Globalization (d) Public Enterprise to new raw materials and additional markets.
It can manufacture, buy and sell goods worldwide.
3. ____________ ownership makes bold management decisions due to their strong
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Globalization has led to a boom in consumer products market.
da
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foundation in the international level.
3. Write a short note on New Economic Policy.
(a) Private (b) Public (c) Corporate (d) MNC’s India agreed to the conditions of World Bank and IMF and announced New
a
4. __________ results from the removal of barriers between national economies to Economic Policy (NEP) which consists of wide range of economic reforms.
This new set of economic reforms is commonly known as the LPG
ik
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encourage the flow of goods, services, capital and labour.
Liberalization
(a) Privatization (b) Liberalization (c) Globalization (d) Foreign Trade
Privatization
lv
lv
5. New Economic Policy was introduced in the year _______. Globalization
a
IV. Long Answer Questions:
II. Very Short Answer Questions: 1. Explain the advantages and disadvantages of liberalization.
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1. State the branches of New Economic Policy. Advantages:
(a). Increase in foreign investment:
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Liberalization, Privatization, Globalization
If a country liberalizes its trade, it will make the country more attractive for
2. What is Privatization? inward investment.
w
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It is the incidence or process of transferring ownership of a business enterprise, (b). Increase the foreign exchange reserve:
agency or public service from the government to the private sector. Relaxation in the regulations covering foreign investment and foreign exchange
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(c). Increased dependence on foreign nations: 3. Which of the below is not a good?
Trade liberalization means firms will face greater competition from abroad.
a) Stocks b)Dividend due c)Crops d)Water
(d). Unbalanced development:
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4. In case of the sale, the ____ has the right to sell
Trade liberalization may be damaging for developing economies, The trade
da
da
liberalization often benefits developed countries rather than developing economies. a)Buyer b)Seller c)Hirer d)Consignee
2. What are the Highlights of LPG policy? 5. The property in the goods means the
a
Introduction of new Foreign Trade Agreements a) Possession of goods b) Custody of goods
Foreign Investment (FDI & FII)
ik
c) Ownership of goods
ik
d) Both (a) and (b)
MRTP Act, 1969 (Amended)
II. Very Short Answer Questions:
Deregulation
lv
lv
1. What is a contract of sale of goods?
Opportunities for overseas trade
It is a contract whereby the seller transfers or agrees to transfer the property of
a
a
Steps to regulate inflation the goods to the buyer for a price.
Tax reforms 2. List down the essential elements of a contract of sale.
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Abolition of License Two Parties
Transfer of Property
w
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Goods
Price
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3. What is meant by goods?
The term ‘goods’ includes every kind of movable property, stocks and shares,
w
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Unascertained Goods- 2. Distinguish between Conditions and Warranty.
2. Discuss the implied conditions and warranties in sale of goods contract. S.No Particulars Conditions Warranty
In every contract of sale, there are certain expressed and implied conditions and 01 Meaning It is a stipulation which is It is a stipulation which is
l
warranties. essential to the main purpose of collateral to the main
da
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Following are the implied conditions: the contract of sale. purpose of contract.
Conditions as to Title 02 Significance Condition is so essential to the It is of subsidiary or
Conditions as to Description contract that the breaking of inferior character.
a
a
Sale by Sample which cancels out the contract.
ik
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Implied Warranties: 03 Transfer of Ownership on goods cannot be Ownership on goods can
Quiet Possession ownership transferred. be transferred.
lv
lv
Free from Any Encumbrances 04 Remedy In case of breach of contract, the In the case of breach of
Warranty in the case of Dangerous Goods
affected party can cancel the warranty, the affected
a
a
IV. Long Answer Questions: contract and claim damages. party cannot cancel the
1. Explain in detail the elements of Contract of sale. contract.
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i). Two Parties:
05 Treatment Breach of condition may be Breach of warranty cannot
A contract of sale involves two parties–the seller and the buyer.
treated as breach of warranty be treated as breach of
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The buyer and the seller should be two different persons.
condition
ii). Transfer of Property:
w
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To constitute sale, the seller must transfer or agree to transfer the @*@*@*@*@*@
ownership in the good to the buyer.
w
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A simple transfer of possession does not amount to sale.
iii). Goods:
The term ‘goods’ includes every kind of movable property, stocks and
shares, growing crops etc.
Goodwill, trademarks, copy rights, patent rights etc., are all also regarded
as goods.
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THE NEGOTIABLE INSTRUMENTS 2 Title Transferee gets the right of Assignee's title is subject to
CHAPTER - 22
ACT 1881 holder in due course. the title of Assignor.
1. Negotiable Instrument Act was passed in the year ______. 2.. What are the characteristics of a bill of exchange?
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3. Section 6 of Negotiable Instruments Act 1881 deals with
i). General Cheque Crossing:
a. Promissory Note b. Bills of exchange c. Cheque d. None of the above
The
he cheque or the payee will receive the payment only through a bank account
4. _______ cannot be a bearer instrument.
l
and not over the counter.
da
da
a. Cheque b. Promissory Note c. Bills of exchange d. None of the above
5. A cheque will become stale after _____ months of its date:
a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 1
a
a
II. Very Short Answer Questions:
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1. What is meant by Negotiable Instrument?
A negotiable instrument means a promissory note, bill of exchange or cheque
lv
lv
payable either to order or to bearer.
ii). Special Cheque Crossing:
- Negotiable instruments Act 1881
However, in special crossing two parallel transverse lines are not essential
a
a
2. List three characteristics of a Promissory Note.
but the name of the banker is most important.
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A promissory note must be in writing.
IV. Long Answer Questions:
The promise to pay must be unconditional
1.. Distinguish a cheque and a bill of exchange.
w
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It must be signed by the maker.
3. What is meant by Cheque? S.No Particulars Cheque Bill of exchange
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“A bill of exchange drawn on a specified banker and not expressed to be payable 01 Drawn It can be drawn on any person It can be drawn only on a
otherwise than on demand”. including a banker particular banker.
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III. Short Answer Questions: 02 Notice Notice
otice of dishonor is necessary. Notice is not necessary
03 Sets Foreign bills of exchange are It is not so in case of cheque.
1. Distinguish between Negotiability and Assignability.
drawn in sets of three.
S.No Particulars Negotiability Assignability
04 Discounting A bill can be discounted with a A cheque cannot be
1 Transfer Not required Must be served by assignee on bank. discounted
notice his debtor. 05 Stamping Bills are to be sufficiently stamped Cheques need not be
stamped
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make the document a cheque.
(iii) Drawn on a Specified Banker Only: 3. What are the characteristics of an entrepreneur?
The cheque is always drawn on a specified banker. (a) Spirit of enterprise (b) Flexibility (c) Self Confidence (d) All of the above
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The customer of a banker can draw the cheque only on the particular
4. Which of the below is not classified into managerial functions?
da
da
branch of the bank where he has an account.
(a) Planning (b) Marketing (c) Organizing (d) Controlling
(iv). A Certain Sum of Money Only:
The order must be for payment of only money. 5. Which of the below is a commercial function?
a
a
If the banker is asked to deliver securities, the document cannot be called a (a) Accounting (b) Coordination (c) Discovery of idea (d) Planning
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cheque.
II. Very Short Answer Questions:
(v) Payee to be Certain:
1. Mention any two characteristics of entrepreneurs.
lv
lv
The cheque must be made payable to a certain person or to the order of a
Spirit of Enterprise
certain person or to the bearer of the instrument.
Self Confidence
a
a
3. What are the requisites for a valid endorsement?
Innovation
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Endorsement is to be made on the face of the instrument or on its back. Hard work
It is usually made on the back of a negotiable instrument. 2. List down the managerial functions of entrepreneurs. (any 2)
w
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When there is no space for making further endorsements a piece of paper can Planning
be attached to the negotiable instrument for this purpose. Organizing
w
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This piece of paper is called ‘Allonge’. Directing
Endorsement for only a part of the amount of the instrument is invalid. Controlling
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It is presumed that the endorsements appearing on a negotiable instrument 3. List down the promotional functions of entrepreneurs. (any 2)
were made in the order in which they appear thereon. Discovery of Idea
Signing in block letters does not constitute regular endorsement. Detailed Investigation
Choice of form of enterprise
@*@*@*@*@*@*@
Mobilization of funds
4. List the challenges faced by the women entrepreneurs? (any 2)
Problem of Finance
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an entity. service in an entity
Entrepreneur should not single-mindedly stick to decisions in a rigid
2 Status He/ She is an owner of the entity salaried employee in the entity
fashion.
3 Risk bears the risk and uncertainty in doesn’t bear any risk in the Entrepreneur should change the decisions made already in the light of ever-
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Bearing operating the enterprise venture
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changing business environment.
2. List down the commercial functions of Entrepreneur and explain them shortly. iii). Innovation
(i) Production or Manufacturing: Entrepreneur should contribute something new or something unique to
a
Under production function, entrepreneur has to take decision relating to meet the changing requirements of customers.
iv). Analytical Ability
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selection of factory site, design and layout, type of products to be manufactured,
product design etc., Entrepreneurs should not make decisions on the basis of personal likes and
lv
In the sphere of financial function, an entrepreneur has to take decisions like It should be able to objectively analyze the situation and act accordingly.
choosing the right type of financing, framing the best dividend policy, acquiring of v). Foresight
a
a
funds, etc.. Entrepreneur should have a foresight to visualize future business environment
.k
.k
(iii) Human Resource Management: 2. Distinguish between an Entrepreneur and an Intrapreneur.
Entrepreneur has to estimate the manpower needs of the enterprise and S. No Basis Entrepreneur Intrapreneur
w
w
accordingly decide the size of manpower required for various slots of organizational Thinking
1 He is a free thinker He is forced to think
structure.
independently.
w
w
3. Explain the promotional functions of entrepreneur. Dependency He is an independent person He is an employee.
2
(i) Discovery of Idea:
w
w
3 Fund He has to mobilize funds to He does not engage in fund
The first and foremost function of entrepreneur is idea generation.
Mobilization finance the venture. mobilization.
Ideas can be generated through several ways like own experience and so on.
4 Reward He is rewarded by profit for He gets perquisites, salary,
(ii) Detailed Investigation:
the risk bearing exercise. incentives etc., for the service.
Entrepreneur has to analyze in detail the product proposes to produce.
5 Operation He operates mostly outside He operates within the
(iii) Choice of form of enterprise:
the enterprise. enterprise.
Entrepreneur has to choose the appropriate form of organisation suited to
implement the venture.
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their family even after they plunge into the venture started by them.
This restricts the mobility of women entrepreneur significantly. 3. Corporate Entrepreneur is also called as _____
iii). Lack of Education a. Intrapreneur b. Promoter c. Manager d. Shareholder
l
Illiterate and semi-literate women entrepreneurs encounter a lot of 4. Which of these is based on Technology?
da
da
challenges in their entrepreneurial journey.
a. Modern b. Professional c. Corporate d. Industrial
This reduces the efficiency of operating the business successfully.
5. Which of the below is not a Characteristic of a Fabian Entrepreneur?
iv). Stiff Competition
a
a
Women entrepreneurs have to face serious competition for their goods from a. Conservative b. Risk averse c. Sceptical d. Adaptive
ik
ik
organized sector and from their male counterparts. II. Very Short Answer Questions:
Since they are not able to spend freely due to financial restrictions.
1. What is the other name of business entrepreneur?
lv
lv
v). Lack of Information
Business entrepreneur is called solo entrepreneur.
Women entrepreneurs are reported not to be generally aware of subsidies
2. Mention the other name for corporate entrepreneur.
a
a
and incentives available for them due to their poor literacy levels.
Corporate entrepreneur is called promoter
.k
.k
3. Who are agricultural entrepreneur?
@*@*@*@*@*@*@*@ Those who raise allied products like poultry, meat, fish, honey, skin,
w
w
agricultural implements, flowers, silk, fruits, prawn etc., are called agricultural
entrepreneur.
w
w
4. Give some examples of pure entrepreneurs.
w
w
Dhirubai Ambani,
Jamshadji Tata,
T.V. SundaramIyengar,
Seshadriji, Birla,
Narayanamurthi,
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They use the various inputs like labour, fertilizer, insecticide, water technology
For example, many electronic products invented in advanced countries are
etc. to raise the products and market their products either directly.
simply reengineered in developing countries.
2. Discuss the nature of functional entrepreneurs.
l
3. Write about Fabian Entrepreneur.
(i) Innovating Entrepreneur:
da
da
These entrepreneurs are said to be conservatives and sceptical about
Innovative entrepreneur is who is always focused on introducing a new
plasticizing any change in their organisation.
product or introducing something new in the venture already started.
They are of risk-averse type.
a
a
They constantly observe the environment around them; collect information
They do not simply change to the changes happening in the environment.
and analyze them in order to contribute something a new in the venture.
ik
ik
IV. Long Answer Questions: (ii) Imitative Entrepreneur:
1. Explain in detail on classification according to the type of business Imitative entrepreneur is one who simply imitates existing skill, knowledge or
lv
lv
(i) Business Entrepreneur: technology already in place in advanced countries.
Business entrepreneur is called solo entrepreneur. For example, many electronic products invented in advanced countries are
a
a
He/she may establish small or large enterprise to commercially exploit his /he simply reengineered in developing countries.
.k
.k
idea. (iii) Fabian Entrepreneur:
He/she takes up production, operations and pursues marketing activities. These entrepreneurs are said to be conservations and sceptial about
(ii) Trading Entrepreneur: plasticizing any change in their organization.
w
w
Trading entrepreneurs are those who restrict themselves to buying and selling They are of risk-averse type.
finished goods. They do not simply change to the changes happening in the environment.
w
w
They may be engaged in domestic and international trade. (iv) Drone Entrepreneur:
w
w
Their core strength lies in distribution and marketing. Drone entrepreneur are those who are totally opposed to changes unfolding in
(iii) Industrial Entrepreneur: the environment.
These are entrepreneurs who manufacture products to cater to the needs of They used to operate in the niche market.
consuming public after identifying the need left unfulfilled by the They are similar to Fabian entrepreneur in doggedly pursuing their
manufacturer hitherto. conventional practices.
They may be small, medium and large entrepreneurs.
@*@*@*@*@*@*@*@
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2. ________ is designed to transform India to a global design and manufacturing hub. A ‘Fund of Funds’ has been created to help startups gain access to finding.
a) Digital India b) Make in India c) Startup India d) Design India. 2. Expand the following: i). STEP, ii). JAM, iii). SEED.
STEP - Support to Training and Employment Programme for Women
l
3. ___________ is the Government of India’s endeavor to promote culture of innovation
da
da
JAM – Jan Dhan - Aadhaar - Mobile
and entrepreneurship.
SEED - Science for Equity Empowerment and Development
a) AIM b) STEP c) SEED d) AIC
IV. Long Answer Questions:
a
a
4. ___________ should cover aspects like sources of finance, technical know-how, source
1. Explain any five Government Entrepreneurial schemes.
ik
ik
of labour and raw material, market potential and profitability.
i). Support to Training and Employment Programme for Women (STEP):
a) Technical Report b) Finance Report c) Project Report d) Progress Report STEP was launched by the Government of India’s Ministry of women and child
lv
lv
5. ________ has to include the mechanism for managing venture in the project report. Development.
To train women who have access to formal skill training facilities, especially in
a) Banker b) Government c) Lending Institutions d) Entrepreneur
a
a
rural India.
II. Very Short Answer Questions:
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ii). Jan Dhan- Aadhaar- Mobile (JAM):
1. Name any four Governmental Entrepreneurial schemes. JAM, for the first time, is a technological intervention that enables direct
transfer of subsidies to intended beneficiaries.
w
w
Startup India
And, therefore, eliminates all intermediaries and leakages in the system, which
Make in India
w
w
has a potential impact on the lives of millions of Indian citizens.
Support to Training and Employment Programme for Women (STEP)
iii). Trade related Entrepreneurship Assistance and Development (TREAD):
Trade related Entrepreneurship Assistance and Development (TREAD)
w
w
This schemes envisages to address the critical issues of access to credit among
2. Give a note on ‘Digital India’.
India’s underprivileged women.
The Digital India Initiative has been launched to modernize the Indian economy
The TREAD programme enables credit availability to interested women through
to make all government services available electronically.
non-governmental organizations (NGOs).
The initiative aims at transforming India into a digitally- empowered society and
iv). Modified Special Incentive Package Scheme (M-SIPS):
knowledge economy with universal access to goods and services.
The M-SIPS scheme provides capital subsidy of 20% in SEZ and 25% subsidy in
3. List down the two types of finance for entrepreneur.
non-SEZ for business units engaged in manufacturing of electronics.
Long term Finance Short term finance
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An entrepreneur may select a product according to his aspiration, capacity
(a) Director (b) Company Secretary (c) Registrar (d) Promoter
and motivation after a through scrutiny of micro and macro environment of
3. Which of the following types of shares are issued by a company to raise capital from
business.
l
An entrepreneur has to conduct economic viability of the project.
the existing shareholders?
da
da
ii). Selection of form of ownership: (a) Equity Shares (b) Rights Shares (c) Preference Shares (d) Bonus Shares
Entrepreneur has to choose the form of organization suitable and 4. The shares which are offered to the existing shareholder at free of cost is known as
a
appropriate for his venture namely family ownership, partnership and
(a) Bonus Share (b) Equity Share (c) Right Share (d) Preference Share
private limited company.
ik
ik
5. The shares which are offered first to the existing shareholder at reduced price is
Family ownership and partnership forms of organization are suited for
exercising unified control over the venture. known as __________.
lv
lv
iii). Selection of Site: (a) Bonus Share (b) Equity Share (c) Right Share (d) Preference Share
Entrepreneur has to choose suitable plot for accommodating his venture. II. Very Short Answer Questions:
a
a
He has four options open to him for housing his venture.
1. What are four stages of formation of a company?
.k
.k
These have been mentioned below.
Promotion
iv). Designing Capital Structure:
Registration
w
w
Entrepreneur has to determine the source of finance for funding the
Capital Subscription and
venture.
Commencement of Business
w
w
He/she may mobilize funds from his own savings, loans from friends and
2. What is Bonus Shares?
relatives, term loans from banks and financial institutions.
w
w
To utilize the company’s reserves and surpluses, issue of shares to existing
v). Acquisition of Manufacturing Know-how:
shareholders without taking any consideration is known as Bonus Shares.
Entrepreneur can acquire manufacturing know- how from Government
research laboratories, research and development divisions of industries, and
3. What is Right Shares?
individual consultants. Right shares are the shares which are issued by the company, with the aim of
Besides, manufacturing know-how can be obtained by foreign technical increasing the subscribed share capital of the company by further issue, if it is
@*@*@*@*@*@*@*@
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to be issued at a premium. Partly Convertible Debentures (PCD)
For example, a share having the face value of Rs 10 is issued at Rs.12. Here, Fully convertible Debentures (FCD)
Rs.2 is the premium. Optionally Convertible Debentures (OCD)
l
The amount of share premium has be transferred to an account called the
da
da
II. On the basis of Security:
‘Securities Premium Account. a). Secured Debentures:
2. Explain different Kinds of Preference shares. These instruments are secured by a charge on the fixed assets of the
a
(i) Cumulative Preference Shares: issuer company.
All dividends are carried forward until specified, and paid out only at the end of So if the issuer fails on payment of interest amount, such fixed assets can
ik
ik
the specified period. be sold to repay the liability to the investors.
(ii) Non-cumulative Preference Shares: b). Unsecured Debentures:
lv
lv
The opposite of cumulative, obviously. Dividends are paid out of profits for every These instruments are unsecured in the sense that if the issuer defaults
year. on payment of the interest amount, the investor has to be included as
a
a
There are no arrears carried over a time period to be paid at the end of the term. unsecured creditors of the company.
.k
.k
(iii) Redeemable Preference Shares: III. On the basis of Redeemability,
Such preference shares can be claimed after a fixed period or after giving due Debentures are classified into:
w
w
notice. a). Redeemable Debentures:
It refers to the debentures which are issued with a condition that the
IV. Long Answer Questions:
w
w
debentures will be redeemed at a fixed date.
1. Write the difference between Shares and Debentures:
Debentures are generally redeemable and on redemption these can be
w
w
S.No Shares Debenture reissued or cancelled.
1 Shares are part of the capital of a Debentures constitute a loan. b). Irredeemable Debentures:
company. A Debenture, in which no specific time is specified by the companies to pay
2 Top level. Middle and Lower Level. back the money, is called irredeemable debentures.
IV. On the basis of Registration,
3 Shares do not carry any such charge. Debentures generally have a charge on
Debentures may be classified as:
the assets of the company.
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@*@*@*@*@*@*@ 3. A Public Company having a paid up Share Capital of Rs. ___________ or more may have
a Director, elected by such small shareholders.
l
(a) One crore (b) Three crore (c) Five crore (d) Seven crore
da
da
4. What is the statue of Directors who regulate money of the company?
(a) Banker (b) Holder (c) Agent (d) Trustees
a
5. According to Companies Act, the Directors must be appointed by the.
ik
ik
(a) Central Government (b) Company Law Tribunal
(c) Company in General Meeting (d) Board of Directors.
lv
lv
II. Very Short Answer Questions:
1. Name the companies required to appoint KMP.
a
a
Every listed company
.k
.k
Every public company (Having paid up share capital of Rs. 10 crore or more)
2. Who is whole time Director?
w
w
A Whole Time Director is one who devotes whole of his time of working hours
to the company and has a significant personal interest in the company as the source
w
w
of his income.
3. Who is called as Managing Director?
w
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The alternative director is not a representative or agent of Original Director. - Section 149(6)
2. Who is a shadow director? iii). Small shareholders directors:
A person who is not the member of Board but has some power to run it can be Small shareholders can appoint a single director in a listed company.
l
appointed as the directors but according to his/her wish. But this action needs a proper procedure like handing over a notice to at
da
da
least 1,000 shareholders or 1/10th of the total shareholders.
3. State the minimum number of Directors for a Private company.
iv). Nominee director:
In case of One Person Company: The requirement of directors is one.
a
A director nominated by any financial Institution on pursuance of the
Other Private Companies: The minimum requirement of Directors is two.
provisions of any law for the time being in force, or of any agreement, or
ik
ik
IV. Long Answer Questions: appointed by any Government, or any other person to represent its
1. Who are the KMP? interests”.
lv
lv
Key-Managerial Personnel of a Company v). Additional directors:
Companies Act, 2013 (Act) has introduced many new concepts and Key Any individual can be appointed as Additional directors by a company.
a
a
Managerial Personnel (KMP) is one of them.
3. State the qualification of Directors.
.k
.k
KMP covers the traditional roles of managing director and whole time
In general, a director shall possess appropriate skills, experience and knowledge
director and also includes some functional heads like Chief Financial
in one or more fields to the company’s business.
Officer and Chief Executive Officer and Company Secretary.
w
w
According to the different provisions relating to the directors; the following
Who are the key managerial personnel:
qualifications may be mentioned:
w
w
the Chief Executive Officer
A director must be a person of sound mind.
the Company Secretary
A director must hold share qualification, if the article of association
w
w
the Whole-time Director;
the Chief financial Officer; and provides such.
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majority.
a) Individual person b) Partnership firm
The number of votes, cast in favor of the resolution should be three times the
c) Co-operative societies d) Trade unions number of votes cast against it.
l
3. Which meeting will be held only once in the life time of the company? The intention of proposing a resolution as a special resolution must be
da
da
a) Statutory b) Annual General c) Extra – ordinary d) Class General specifically mentioned in the notice of the general meeting.
4. Who is not entitled to speak at the annual general meeting of the company. 2. What do you mean by Statutory Meeting?
a
According to companies act, every public company, should hold a meeting of the
a) Auditor b) Shareholder c) Proxy d) Directors
ik
ik
shareholders within 6 months but not earlier than one month from date of
5. From the date of its incorporation the First Annual General Meeting is to be
commencement of business of the company.
conducted within __________ months. The first general meeting of the public company is called statutory meeting.
lv
lv
(a) Twelve (b) Fifteen (c) Eighteen (d) Twenty one 3. Give any three cases in which an ordinary resolution need to be passed.
II. Very Short Answer Questions:
a
a
To change or rectify the name of the company.
1. Who is a Secretary? To alter the share capital of the company.
.k
.k
It means any individual possessing the prescribed qualifications, appointed to To increase or decrease the number of directors within the limits prescribed.
perform the duties which may be performed by a secretary under this company’s act IV. Long Answer Questions:
w
w
2013.
1. Briefly state different types of company meetings.
2. What is meant by Meeting?
w
w
a) Statuary meeting:
A meeting is a gathering of two or more people that has been convened for the
The first general meeting of the public company is called the statutory meetings.
w
w
purpose of achieving a common goal through verbal interaction such as sharing
information or reaching agreement. This meetings is conducted only once in the lifetime of the company.
3. Write short note on ‘Proxy’? A private or a public company having no share capital need not conduct a
statutory meeting.
A person being the representative of a shareholder at the meeting of the company
The company gives the circular to shareholders before 21 days of the meeting.
who may be described as his agent to carry out which the shareholder has himself
decided upon. b) Annual general meeting (AGM):
Every year a meetings is held to transact the ordinary business of the company.
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The debenture holders of a particular class conduct these meetings.
l
Strictly speaking, these are not meetings of a company.
da
da
Unlike the meetings of a company, there arise situation in which a company ******************
may wish to arrive at a consensuses with the creditors to avoid any crisis or
to evolve compromise or to introduce any new proposals.
a
2. Explain different types of open and secret types of voting.
ik
ik
i) Open procedure:
This type of voting has no secrecy as the all the members assembled can see
lv
lv
voting.
a) By voice:
a
a
Voice voting is a popular type of voting in which the chairman allows the
.k
.k
members to raise their voice in favour or against an issue ‘Yes’ for approval
and ‘No’ for rejection.
w
w
It is an unscientific method.
b) By show of hands:
w
w
Under this method the chairman, requests the members to raise their hands
of those who are in favour of the proposal or candidate and the then request
w
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COMPULSORY QUESTIONS & ANSWERS 8. He/she takes initiative necessary to start an entity under corporate format. He/she arranges to fulfill
Question No 30, 40 is Compulsory: the formalities to start a corporate entity under company law. Who is he/she?
1. The production manager establishes quality control standards where invite defects are permissible for Corporate entrepreneur
every 100 units. What is the management principle highlighted here? 9. Oil and Coffee are sold in a Commodity market. Mention the market to which they belong.
MBE - Management by exception is an important principle of managerial control suggested by the Oil - Hard CommoditiesCoffee - Soft Commodities
classical writers on management. 10. Give three suggestions to a salaried employee to invest in Gilt-Edged Securities.
It is a style of business management that focuses on identifying and handling cases that deviate from Gilt –Edged Securities is safe because it is a government issuedbond.
the norm. Tax exemption is available.
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It has both a general business applicationand a business intelligence application. Get a certain percentage guarantee.
2. The proprietor takes goods from his business for his personal use asa contract of sale. why? 11. If the payee is an illiterate, how can he endorse a negotiableinstrument?
l
However, there is one exception .When the goods of a person are sold in execution of a decree, he himself If the payee is an illiterate person, he can endorse it by affixing his thumb impression on the
da
da
may buy the goods retain their ownership. instrument.
3. Suresh wants 0+ve blood for his one month old child for an emergency which type of marketing 12. When there is no space in Negotiable instrument for making further endorsement, how can it be
a
technique will he use? endorsed?
Viral marketing A piece of paper can be attached.
ik
ik
4. As a famous film director what selection test would you conduct to select a skilled music director? It is called Allonge.
Achievement test 13. What is the name of the marketing that secretly advertises their product with the advertiser in order
lv
lv
5. Vijay makes a sale deal with Ajith. That means if I got the car from Vikram, I will sell it, What king to impress the customer without and funding for an event.
of Contract does this come with? Ambush Marketing
a
a
Contingent goods. 14. Mr.Mohan is a CEO of CRP groups ,Rohan is one of the subordinatesof the company, Who issued
.k
.k
6. The owner takes inventory from his profession for own benefit. C anthis be considered a orders to Mr.Mohan. True or False? Justify.
merchandise deal? False. CEO has substantial powers of Management over the affairs of the company subject to
w
w
No, It cannot be considered as Merchandise deal as the owner is taking out for his own benefit it superintendence, direction and control of the board.
w
w
should be considered as drawing. 15. Mr.Arun is appointed by the members of stock exchange and hetransacts on behalf of his
7. Gomathi father has gifted a large share of cement company. Thesecurities in the physical employer. Identify who is Mr. Arun?
w
w
form. She has a bank account and she does not possess any of the form of securities. She Authorized clerks
wishes to sell the share and approached a registered broker for the purpose. Mentionone 16. Mr. Varun is a person who invests in new companies and try to sellat higher price. Identify the
mandatory detail which she have to provide with the broker. Speculator?
Trading has become more convenient as one can trade through computers at any location without Premium hunter.
need of visiting a broker. 17. Mr.Ramu is an independent dealer in stock exchange, They buy andsell on their own and enjoy
through price change. Identify who Ramu?
Jobbers
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18. In IPL 20-20 match Kannan &co send a 20 employees as a audience wearing the company name 26. You are buying a object by knowing 2 yrs old. Then you feel like its5 year old. What will you do?
T-Shirt .What kind of Marketing. Condition as to description
Ambush marketing In a contract of sale by description, there is an implied condition that goods supplied should agree
19. A sells to B a product .In these sales “a gets commission on sale to B Who on turn sells to and with the descriptions made by the seller.
C,D E. A gets certain percentage commission on Bsales to C,D,E. What type of marketing eg. ‘A’ has bought machinery from ‘B’ who described it to be just one year old. After buying the
strategy is this? machinery and using it for a month, ‘A’came to know that it is very old machinery.
Multilevel marketing In this case, ‘A’ can return the machinery to ‘B’ on the ground that machinery is not as per the
20. A single person does not contain a meeting so it has to be sun thatthe required numbers of description i.e. not recent one.
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people are present. Requisite number of person at the meeting is called as 27. Raghu bought a washing machine from a company with a warrantyof two years. The washing
Quorum machine broke within two months of use Raghu immediately lodged a complaint with the company. But
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21. Mrs.Ramya w i s h e s t o s t a r t a n e w b u s i n e s s unit. Explain a n y 5 Challenges that she will the company did not take any action. In this situation. Give your suggestions to Raghu.
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face? Raghu must first registered the complaint in the consumer court.
Women Entrepreneurs Limited Mobility Lack of Network support The complaint should be registered by the following ways:
a
Problem of finance Lack of Education Stiff competition Complaint can be registered within 2 years from the date on which the cause of action has arisen, to
22. Mr.Madan goes to Mr.Raja to buy a bike .The bike is show room. While not deciding what the date on which the completion from the deficiency in service.
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bike to buy .Explain what kind inventory. Stamp paper is not required for declaration
Unascertained (or) Generic goods Complaint can be registered, in person, by the complainant or through his authorised agent or by post
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23. Raja hopes to transfer money to someone through Cross cheque. What should he do? addressed to the RedressalAgency.
Advocates are not necessary.
a
a
General crossing
24. Mr.Aakash brought ½ kg of black pepper from Pandian stores, Tiruppur. While opening the packet he The complaint should contain the following particulars:
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found some papaya seeds inside it. Explain how he is exploited and how to register the complaints? The name and complete address of the complainant
Adulteration The name and complete address of the opposite party/parties
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The complaint should be registered by the following ways: Date of purchase of goods or services availed
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Complaint can be registered within 2years from the date on which the cause of action has arisen, to Amount paid for the above purpose
the date on which the completionfrom the deficiency in service. Particulars of goods purchased with number or details of services availed
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Stamp paper is not required for declaration The details of complaint, whether it is against Unfair Trade Practices/supply of defective goods/deficiency
Complaint can be registered, in person, by the complainant or through his authorized agent or by in service provided/collection of excess price, should explicitly be mentioned in the complaint petition.
post addressedto the Redressal Agency. Bills/receipts and copies of related correspondence, if any.
Advocates are not necessary. 28. Jothi graduated with a Bachelor of Commerce degree and did not want to work for others for a
25. Give a n y t h r e e cases in which an ordinary resolution need to bepassed? monthly salary but joined a bookkeeping training centre and got trained and engaged in bookkeeping
business. What Kind of entrepreneur is she?
To appoint the directors To declare the dividend Women entrepreneur.
To redeem the debentures.
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29. Government securities are examples of which assets? Explain. 39. X bought from Y a heap of wheat at a rate of Rs.8 per kg and Y hadto weight the wheat. Before
Marketable assets are those which can be easily transferred from oneperson to another without weighting was completed, the wheat was destroyed by fire. State whether X is liable to pay the price
much hindrance. or not. Why?
30. Which assets cannot be used for further production? It’s useful forconsumption only. No, X is not liable to pay the price. Because it is yet to ascertain the ownership of the property
Physical assets transferred only if Y weighs the wheat. So theynot entered to contract.
31. Explain cut off rate? 40. What is the name of the rule which is applicable only in the suitable where it is not possible to
364 days Treasury Bills do not carry any fixed rate. The discount rate on these bills are quoted in check the described item/inventory and know the truth?
Name of the rule is Implied conditions.Explanations:
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auction by the participants and accepted by the authorities. Such a rate is called cut off rate.
32. Open market operations the central bank absorbs surplus cashduring and provides additional In a contract of sale by description, there is an implied condition that goods supplied should agree
liquidity in the____ with the descriptions made by the seller. eg. ‘A’ has bought a machinery from ‘B’ who described it to
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Off-seasons, Busy seasons be just one year old. After buying the machinery and using it for a month, ‘A’ came toknow that
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33. What is meant by Near money? it is very old machinery. In this case, ‘A’ can return the machinery to ‘B’ on the ground that
Short term funds market purely short term funds or financial assetscalled near money. machinery is not as per the description i.e. not recent one.
a
34. If you are a Human resource manager on the job training or off the job training given to 41. If you are Marketing manager, How to market your products?
employees or workers? Marketing managers generate customer interest in products and services across various media
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On the job training is best. At the work place channels. They often oversee the communicationbetween a business and its customer base.
Because practical approaches Cheapest to carry out 42. If you are a marketing manager, use recent trends in marketing- E- commerce, list your
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35. Which company was trade the securities in demat form in first. How many shares? company products in Amazon.com?
Reliance industries were the first company to trade its 100 shares indemat form. E-commerce marketing strategies involve promotional tactics to drive traffic to an online store. A
a
a
36. E-commerce is now developed in India. Do you agree? well-thought-out marketing plan, coupled with an engaging website, can convert visitors into paying
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Yes, agree .Now a days in the Globalised business environment, the marketer must move goods faster customers, help businesses retain them and increase their overall customer lifetime value (CLV). If
and quicker to satisfy the consumers’ needs and wants by serving the best quality goods and marketing teams stay up to date on the latest trends, they can help the organization reach and
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services. retain new customers.
Content Marketing Email Marketing
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37. Write any two web based job portals with websites name?
Naukri.com LinkedIn Shine.com Social Media Marketing SMS Marketing
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Indeed.com Monster.com Google Jobs 43. Write a note on Redressal.
38. Why medical examination of an employee is necessary? The complaints and protests are not just to be heard, but the aggrieved party to be granted
The employee health checkup helps you to identify the health issues before they become serious and compensation within a reasonable time period.
affect the employee's performance. Hence, an employee health checkup designed considering your There should be fair settlement of deserving claims in a definitetimeframe.
specific industry can be the first important step for both - the employer andemployees. 44. What do you mean by Redressal Mechanism?
Under the provisions of the consumer protection Act, 1986, there shall be consumer councils and
three tier quasi judicial machinery called Redressal Forums.
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It primarily covers the receipt and processing of complaints from citizens and consumers, actions taken on 50. What are factor affecting recruitment?
any issue raised by them to avail services more effectively. Internal factors
There tier quasi judicial machinery is called Redressal mechanism.National commission (above 1 Crore) Size of the organization Image of organization
State commission (more than 20 lakhs less than`1 Crore)District Forum (Less than020 lakhs). Recruiting policy Image of job
45. What are the factors affecting the price of the product? External factors
Factors affecting Price of product / service Democraphic factors Labour laws
Internal Factors: Labour market Legal consideration
Marketing Objectives Costs Unemployment situation
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Marketing Mix Strategy Organization Objectives 51. Which bond holder is not a member of the company? What is hisposition in the company?
Organizational considerations Debenture holder, creditors
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External Factors: 52. The proprietor takes goods from his business for his personal use asa contract of sale. Why?
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The market and demand Customers Legal factors Two parties are required for contact of sales.
Competition Suppliers Regulatory factors Which mean buyer andseller...no person can't sell himself. Then no price consideration there so this
a
46. What is Mixed Economy? not a contract of sales.
A mixed economy is a system that combines characteristics of market, command, and traditional 53. How many digits are present in IFSC code?
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economies. IFSC is a 11 character code. The first 4 alphabetic characters represent the bank name and the last 6
It benefits from the advantages of all three while also experiencing some of the disadvantages. characters (usually numeric) represent the branch.
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47. Differences between shares and stock. The fifth character is 0 and reserved for future use. This code routes the messages to the
a
a
Shares destination banks or branch. The format of IFSC code is given below:
A share is a financial instrument that represents the part ownership of a company There is a nominal
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value that is associated with shares. Bank Code 0 Branch Code
The shares of a company are either fully paid up or partially paid up. 54. If you are promoter, What are the steps to be followed to start a company?
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Stock There are several steps involved in the registration phase, and are as follows: Memorandum of
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A stock is a financial instrument that represents part ownership in oneor more organisations. Association: A memorandum of association (MOA) must be signed by the founders of the company.
There is no nominal value that is associated with stocks. Steps in Formation of a Company
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The stocks of a company (or a group of companies) are always fully paidup Promotion stage. Incorporation stage.
48. Who is the kingpin of the whole Corporate machinery? Registration stage. Commencement of Business stage
Company Secretary 55. What are the steps in promoting an Entrepreneurial venture?
49. Who can be appointed a Nominee director? Steps in Promoting an Entrepreneurial Venture Designing Capital Structure.
Third party or Central Government Selection of the product. Acquisition of Manufacturing know-how.
Selection of form of ownership. Preparation of project report.
Selection of Site. Economic Viability
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56. What are the Government Schemes available for Entrepreneurs orNew Entrepreneurs?
Start up India Make in India Stand up India
Digital India Atal Innovation mission
57. If you are Entrepreneur, How to start or what steps to be taken forstart company?
Conduct market research. Market research will tell you if there's an opportunity to turn your
idea into a successful business.
Write your business plan. Choose your business name.
Fund your business. Register your business.
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Pick your business location. Get federal and state tax IDs.
Choose a business structure.
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58. If you are Bank Manager how to handle customer?
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Be polite. Most of the times anger will be on a hot tempered staff or service. Try to solve the issue
as quickly as possible. If it.
a
59. What are the advantages of disinvestment?
Disinvestment is a system of privatizing government enterprises.The following are its advantages:
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Increase in efficiency:
Professional management:
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Increase in competition:
WISH YOU ALL THE BEST FOR
Reduction in economic burden of Government:
a
a
60. Why should an entrepreneur possess Decision making skill? YOUR PUBLIC EXAMINATION
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To take timely and correct decision with regard to nature and type of product to be produced, type of technology to
be adopted, type of human assets to be employed, location of the enterprise, size of the unit, volume of production
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and so on.
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The very success of any enterprise hinges on prompt, correct and relevant decisions made by the entrepreneur.
61. Give note on “Make in India Scheme”.
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This scheme is designed to transform India a global design and manufacturing hub, the make in India initiative was
launched in September 2014.
It came as powerful call to India’s citizens and business leaders, and an invitation to potential partners and
investors around the world to centralize information about opportunities in India’s manufacturing sector.
This has in turn helped procure investments, foster innovation, develop skills, protect intellectual property and build
best in class manufacturing infrastructure.
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NAME : ________
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Nehf;fkhf ,Uf;fl;Lk;. mJNt cd; tho;f;if vd;Dk; ghijf;F ey;topfhl;Lk;. gs;sp
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VICE-PRINCIPAL, cq;fSf;fhf ehq;fs;!!!!
PG ASSISTANT OF COMMERCE & ACCOUNTANCY cd; ntw;wpNa vq;fs; ntw;wp!!!!!
VIVEKANANDA VIDYALAYA MATRIC HR SEC SCHOOL
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PANNAIKADU PIRIVU, KODAIKANAL, DINDIGUL DT.
WISH YOU ALL THE BEST FOR YOUR EXAMINATION
CELL: 9791324143
EMAIL: npvasu92@gmail.com Mrphpah;
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M.Com.,M.Phil.,DCA.,B.Ed., Page 2
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2 ACCOUNTS OF NOT FOR PROFIT ORGANIZATION 3. Opening statement of affairs is usually prepared to find out the
(a) Capital in the beginning of the year (b) Capital at the end of the year
(c) Profit made during the year (d) Loss occurred during the year
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3 ACCOUNTS OF PARTNERSHIP FIRMS
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4. The excess of assets over liabilities is
(a) Loss (b) Cash (c) Capital (d) Profit
5. Which of the following items relating to bills payable is transferred to total creditors
4 GOODWILL IN PARTNERSHIP
a
a
account?
(a) Opening balance of bills payable (b) Closing balance of bills payable
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5 ADMISSION OF PARTNER (c) Bills payable accepted during the year (d) Cash paid for bills payable
6. The amount of credit sales can be computed from
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(a) Total debtors account (b) Total creditors account
6 RETIREMENT OF PARTNER (c) Bills receivable account (d) Bills payable account
a
a
7. Which one of the following statements is not true in relation to incomplete records?
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(a) It is an unscientific method of recording transactions
7 COMPANY ACCOUNTS
(b) Records are maintained only for cash and personal accounts
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(c) It is suitable for all types of organisations
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8. What is the amount of capital of the proprietor, if his assets are Rs. 85,000 and liabilities are
Rs. 21,000?
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9 RATIO ANALYSIS (a) Rs.85,000 (b) Rs.1,06,000 (c) Rs. 21,000 (d) Rs.64,000
9. When capital in the beginning is Rs. 10,000, drawings during the year is Rs. 6,000, profit
made during the year is Rs. 2,000 and the additional capital introduced is Rs.3,000, find out
10 COMPUTERIZED ACCOUNTI GN SYSTEM - TALLY the amount of capital at the end.
(a) Rs. 9,000 (b) Rs. 11,000 (c) Rs. 21,000 (d) Rs. 3,000
10. Opening balance of debtors: Rs. 30,000, cash received: Rs. 1,00,000, credit sales: Rs.
90,000; closing balance of debtors is
(a)Rs. 30,000 b) Rs. 1,30,000 c) Rs. 40,000 d) Rs. 20,000
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II VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS: 3. State the differences between double entry system and incomplete records.
1. What is meant by incomplete records? S. Basic Double Entry System Incomplete Records
When accounting records are not strictly maintained according to double entry system, these no
records are called incomplete records.
1 Accounts All accounts are maintained Only personal and cash
2. State the accounts generally maintained by small sized sole trader when double entry
accounts are maintained.
accounting system is not followed.
2 Trial balance It can be prepared easily. It is difficult to prepare it.
Generally cash and personal accounts are maintained fully.
3 Reliability It is reliable. It is not reliable.
Real and Nominal accounts are not maintained.
4. State the procedure for calculating profit or loss through statement of affairs.
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3. What is a statement of affairs?
The difference between the closing and opening capital are taken as profit or loss of the
It is a statement showing the balances of assets and liabilities on a particular date.
business.
It is prepared under single entry system to find out capital.
Due adjustments are to be made for Drawings (+) and Additional capital (-).
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Capital = Assets - Liabilities
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Statement of Profit or Loss for the year ended __________
III SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS:
Particulars Rs.
1. What are the features of incomplete records?
Closing Capital xxx
(i) Nature:
a
a
+ Drawings xxx
It is an unscientific way of recording transactions.
xxx
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Accounting principles are not followed properly.
- Additional Capital xxx
(ii) Type of accounts maintained:
Adjusted Closing Capital xxx
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Only cash and personal accounts are maintained fully.
- Opening Capital xxx
Real and nominal accounts are not maintained properly.
Profit or Loss xxx
a
a
(iii) Lack of uniformity:
Different organisations record their transactions according to their needs and
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If adjusted closing capital is more than the opening capital – Profit.
conveniences.
If adjusted closing capital is lesser than the opening capital – Loss.
2. What are the limitations of incomplete records?
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i). Lack of proper maintenance of records: 5. Differentiate between statement of affairs and balance sheet.
It is an unscientific way of maintaining records. S. no Basic Statement of Affairs Balance Sheet
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Real and nominal accounts are not maintained properly.
1 Reliable It is not reliable. It is reliable.
(ii) Difficulty in preparing trial balance:
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2 Accounting It is prepared form single entry It is prepared by double entry
The accounting records are incompleted.
System system system
Hence, it is difficult to prepare trial balance.
(iii) Errors and Frauds: 3 Missing items It is very difficult to trace it. It trace very easily
Errors and frauds cannot be easily detected from partial records.
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6. How is the amount of credit sale ascertained from incomplete records? IMPORTANT NOTES: (DO YOU KNOW)
By preparing total debtors accounts credit sale can be prepared. ⁂ Opening capital + Additional capital + Profit/ – Loss – Drawings = Closing capital
⁂ Profit/Loss = Closing capital + Drawings – Additional capital – Opening capital
⁂ When accounting records are not strictly maintained according to double entry system they are
called incomplete accounting records.
⁂ In general, only cash and personal accounts are maintained fully.
⁂ Any increase in capital is taken as profit while a decrease is regarded as loss.
⁂ Closing Capital + Drawings – Additional Capital – Opening Capital = Profit/ Loss
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⁂ A statement of affairs is prepared to find out capital on a particular day by showing the
balances of assets on the right side and the balances of liabilities on the left side.
⁂ From the information available from incomplete records, and from other documents, the
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missing figures can be found out and then the final accounts can be prepared.
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5 MARKS:
1. State the differences between double entry system and incomplete records.
************
S. no Basic Double Entry System Incomplete Records
a
a
1 Accounts All accounts are maintained Only personal and cash accounts are
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maintained.
2 Suitable It is suitable for all accounts It is only suitable for sole trading and
lv
lv
partnership Firms.
3 Trial balance It can be prepared easily. It is difficult to prepare it.
a
a
4 Reliability It is reliable. It is not reliable.
5 Acceptability Accounting records are acceptable Accounting records may not be
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to all users acceptable to all users
2. Differentiate between statement of affairs and balance sheet.
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S. no Basic Statement of Affairs Balance Sheet
It is generally prepared to find out It is prepared to ascertain the financial
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1 Objective
the capital of the business position of the business.
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2 Accounting It is prepared form single It is prepared by double
System entry system entry system
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A gift made to a not–for–profit organization by a will, is called legacy.
(a) Loss incurred during the period (b) Excess of income over expenditure of the period
It is a capital receipt.
(c) Total cash payments during the period (d) Cash and bank balance as on the date
4. Write a short note on life membership fees.
4. Income and expenditure account is a
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Amount received towards life membership fee from members.
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(a) Nominal A/c (b) Real A/c (c) Personal A/c (d) Representative personal account
It is a capital receipt.
5. Income and Expenditure Account is prepared to find out
It is non-recurring in nature.
(a) Profit or loss (b) Cash and bank balance
5. Give four examples for capital receipts of not–for–profit organisation.
a
a
(c) Surplus or deficit (d) Financial position
Sale of fixed assets Life member fees
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6. Which of the following should not be recorded in the income and expenditure account?
Legacy Endowment fund
(a) Sale of old news papers (b) Loss on sale of asset
6. Give four examples for revenue receipts of not–for–profit organisation.
(c) Honorarium paid to the secretary (d) Sale proceeds of furniture
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lv
Interest on fixed deposit Interest on investment
7. Subscription due but not received for the current year is
Sale of old sports material Subscription
(a) An asset (b) A liability (c) An expense (d) An item to be ignored
a
a
III SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS:
8. Legacy is a
1. What is income and expenditure account?
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(a) Revenue expenditure (b) Capital expenditure
It is nominal account.
(c) Revenue receipt (d) Capital receipt
It is prepared to find out Surplus or Deficit relating to a particular year.
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9. Donations received for a specific purpose is
It is just like preparing profit and loss account.
(a) Revenue receipt (b) Capital receipt
Only revenue income and expenditure items are recorded.
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(c) Revenue expenditure (d) Capital expenditure
10. There are 500 members in a club each paying Rs. 100 as annual subscription. Subscription Depreciation and Outstanding expenses are also recorded.
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due but not received for the current year is Rs. 200; Subscription received in advance is Rs. 2. State the differences between Receipts and Payments Account and Income and Expenditure
Account.
300. Find out the amount of subscription to be shown in the income and expenditure
S. no Basic Receipt and Payment Account Income and Expenditure Account
account.
1 Nature of account It is real account It is nominal account
a) Rs. 50,000 b) Rs. 50,200 c) Rs. 49,900 d) Rs. 49,800
2 Basis It is based on cash system It is based on accrual system
II VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS:
1. State the meaning of not–for–profit organisation. 3 Opening and It commence opening and closing There is no opening and closing
Some organisations are established for the purpose of rendering services to the public Closing balance balance. balance
without any profit motive.
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4 Nature of items It contains actual receipt and It contains only revenue expenses and
payment. incomes.
5 Period It contains only the items relating to It contains only the items relating to
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past, current and subsequent period current period.
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ii). items
a
IMPORTANT NOTES: (DO YOU KNOW)
ik
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⁂ In this unit, entrance fees or admission fees, donations, special fees and grants from
government and other organisations have been treated as revenue receipts even though these
may also be treated as capital receipts.
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4. How the following items are dealt with in the final accounts of not–
⁂ If capital fund of the organization is not given in the problem, the opening balance sheet should
for–profit organisation?
be prepared to ascertain the opening capital fund. The difference between the total of assets
a
a
a) Sale of sports materials b) Life membership fees
and the total of liabilities as at the beginning of the year is the opening capital fund.
c) Tournament fund
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⁂ Opening capital fund = Assets at the beginning– Liabilities at the beginning
a) Sale of sports materials:
⁂ New assets purchased or assets sold are to be found out by referring to the receipts and
Consumable items such as sports material, stationary medicines etc., consumed during
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payments account.
the year.
⁂ A trial balance can also be prepared for a not–for–profit organization by taking various ledger
Consumption = opening stock + Purchase - Closing Stock
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balances available. The total of debit balances will be equal to the total of credit balances.
b) Life membership fees:
Expenses, losses and assets will have debit balances. Revenues, gains and liabilities will have
Amount received towards life membership fee from members.
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credit balances.
It is a capital receipt.
⁂ Not–for–profit entities exist to provide services to the members or to the society at large.
It is non-recurring
recurring in nature.
⁂ The three principal accounting statements of a not–for–profit organization include Receipts
c) Tournament fund
and Payments Account, Income and Expenditure Account and Balance Sheet.
If there are any specific funds such as tournament fund, prize fund etc….
⁂ The Receipts and Payments Account is a summarized cash book which records all cash receipts
and cash payments effected during an accounting year irrespective of the nature as to capital
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or revenue, irrespective of the period to which it belongs, that is, whether it relates to the CHAPTER – 3 ACCOUNTS OF PARTNERSHIP FIRM -
FUNDAMENTALS
previous or current year or subsequent year.
I. CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER:
⁂ Income and Expenditure Account is prepared to ascertain the excess of revenue income over
1. In the absence of a partnership deed, profits of the firm will be shared by the partners in
revenue expenditure (surplus) or excess of revenue expenditure over revenue income (deficit)
(a) Equal ratio (b) Capital ratio (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
for a particular accounting year, which is the result of the entity’s over all activities for the
2. In the absence of an agreement among the partners, interest on capital is
accounting year.
(a) Not allowed (b) Allowed at bank rate
⁂ Opening capital is found out by comparing the opening balances of assets and liabilities.
(c) Allowed @ 5% per annum (d) Allowed @ 6% per annum
⁂ The Balance sheet is prepared at the end of the accounting year to show the financial position
3. As per the Indian Partnership Act, 1932, the rate of interest allowed on loans advanced by
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on that date. It includes the capital fund or accumulated fund, special purpose funds, long term
partners is
liabilities and current liabilities on the liabilities side and fixed assets and current assets on the
(a) 8% per annum (b) 12% per annum (c) 5% per annum (d) 6% per annum
assets side.
4. Which of the following is shown in Profit and loss appropriation account?
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(a) Office expenses (b) Salary of staff (c) Partners’ salary (d) Interest on bank loan
************** 5. When fixed capital method is adopted by a partnership firm, which of the following items
will appear in capital account?
a
(a) Additional capital introduced (b) Interest on capital
(c) Interest on drawings (d) Share of profit
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6. When a partner withdraws regularly a fixed sum of money at the middle of every month,
period for which interest is to be calculated on the drawings on an average is
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(a) 5.5 moths (b) 6 months (c) 12 months (d) 6.5 months
7. Which of the following is the incorrect pair?
a
a
(a) Interest on drawings – Debited to capital account
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(b) Interest on capital – Credited to capital account
(c) Interest on loan – Debited to capital account
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(d) Share of profit – Credited to capital account
8. In the absence of an agreement, partners are entitled to
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(a) Salary (b) Commission (c) Interest on loan (d) Interest on capital
9. Pick the odd one out
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(a) Partners share profits and losses equally
(b) Interest on partners’ capital is allowed at 7% per annum
(c) No salary or remuneration is allowed
(d) Interest on loan from partners is allowed at 6% per annum.
10. Profit after interest on drawings, interest on capital and remuneration is Rs. 10,500.
Geetha, a partner, is entitled to receive commission @ 5% on profits after charging such
commission. Find out commission.
(a) Rs. 50 (b) Rs. 150 (c) Rs. 550 (d) Rs. 500
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II VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS: 3. State the differences between fixed capital method and fluctuating capital method.
1. Define partnership. S. no Basic Fixed Capital Method Fluctuating Method
The relation between persons who have agreed to share the profits of a business carried on
1 Number of Two accounts are maintained Only one account capital account
by all or any of them acting for all. Accounts i). capital account maintained.
- Indian Partnership Act, 1932 ii). current account
2 Closing It always show the credit balance It always show the debit or credit
2. What is a partnership deed?
Balance balance
It is a document in writing that contains the terms of the agreement among the parents.
3 Adjustments All adjustments done in current All adjustments done in capital
It is also called Articles of Partnership.
account account
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3. What is meant by fixed capital method?
4. Write a brief note on the applications of the provisions of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932
The capital of the partners is not altered and remains generally fixed.
in the absence of partnership deed.
Two accounts are maintained for each partner
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(i) Remuneration to partners:
Capital account
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No salary or remuneration is allowed to any partner. [Section 13(a)]
Current account
(ii) Profit sharing ratio:
4. What is the journal entry to be passed for providing interest on capital to a partner?
Profits and losses are to be shared equally. [Section 13(b)]
a
Date Particulars LF Debit Credit
(iii) Interest on capital:
Rs. Rs.
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No interest is allowed on the capital. [Section 13(c)]
Interest in capital a/c Dr xxx
(iv) Interest on loans advanced by partners to the firm:
To Partners capital a/c xxx
Interest on loan is to be allowed at the rate of 6%. [Section 13(d)]
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lv
(Being interest on capital provided)
(v) Interest on drawings:
5. Why is Profit and loss appropriation account prepared?
No interest is charged on the drawings of the partners.
a
a
It is prepared for the purpose of adjusting the transaction relating to the amount due to and
amount due from partners. 5 MARKS:
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1. State the differences between fixed capital method and fluctuating capital method.
III SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS:
S. no Basic Fixed Capital Method Fluctuating Method
1. State the features of partnership.
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1 Meaning The capital of the partners is not All the transactions between the
It is an association two or more person.
altered and it remains generally fixed. partner and the firm are recorded in the
Minimum 2 and Maximum number of members 50 limited.
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capital account.
They agreement may be oral or written.
2 Number of Two accounts are maintained Only one account capital account
It’s carried on by all or any of them acting for all.
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Accounts i). capital account maintained.
2. State any six contents of a partnership deed. ii). current account
Name of the firm and nature and place of business 3 Change in The amount of capital not changes The amount of capital changes from
Date of commencement and duration of business Capital from period to period period to period
Names and addresses of all partners 4 Closing Balance It always show the credit balance It always show the debit or credit
balance
Capital contributed by each partner
5 Adjustments All adjustments done in current All adjustments done in capital
Profit sharing ratio
account account
Amount of drawings allowed to each partner
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IMPORTANT NOTES: (DO YOU KNOW) Profits and losses are shared among the partners of a firm in the profit sharing ratio. In the
The maximum number of partners is not specified/ prescribed in the Indian Partnership Act, absence of agreed ratio, the profits and losses are to be shared by the partners equally.
1932. But, the Indian Companies Act, 2013 specifies the maximum number of partners. In the absence of agreement, no interest is allowed on capital, no interest is charged on
As per Section 464(1) of the Indian Companies Act, 2013, no association or partnership drawings and no salary or other remuneration is given to the partners.
consisting of more than such number of persons as may be prescribed shall be formed for the Partners are entitled to interest on the loans advanced by them to the firm at a rate agreed by
purpose of carrying on any business, provided that the number of persons which may be them. If the rate of interest on partners’ loan is not agreed, the partners are entitled to interest
prescribed under this sub-section shall not exceed one hundred. on loans at 6% per annum.
Rule 10 of Companies (Miscellaneous) Rules 2014 specifies the limit as 50. Thus, the When fixed capital method is adopted by a firm, current accounts are opened for each partner
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maximum number of partners in a partnership firm is 50. apart from the capital account of each partner.
The following provisions of the Act will apply: When fluctuating capital method is followed, all the adjustments regarding additional capital
(i) Remuneration to partners [Section 13(a)] introduced, share of profit, interest on capital, interest on drawings, etc. are done in the capital
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(ii) Profit sharing ratio [Section 13(b)] account.
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(iii) Interest on capital [Section 13(c)] In Profit and loss appropriation account, adjustments are made for interest on capital, interest
(iv) Interest on loans advanced by partners to the firm [Section 13(d)] on drawings and partners’ remuneration, the resultant profit is shared by the partners in their
The final accounts prepared by partnership firms are: profit sharing ratio.
a
a
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(b) Trading and profit and loss account – to ascertain profitability
(c) Profit and loss appropriation account – to show the disposal of profits and surplus ************
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(d) Balance sheet – to ascertain the financial status.
Product method is based on the principle that interest on the amount for a number of
a
a
days/months is the same as interest for one day/month on the sum of the products of amount
withdrawn and the period of interest.
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Limited Liability Partnership (LLP):
LLP is a type of partnership in which the liability of the partners is limited to the extent
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of their capital contribution.
It is a legal entity separate from that of its partners. It is formed as per the provisions
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of The Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008.
It has perpetual succession. Any change in the partners of LLP shall not affect the
w
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circumstances.
3. The average rate of return of similar concerns is considered as
5. State any two circumstances under which goodwill of a partnership firm is valued.
(a) Average profit (b) Normal rate of return (c) Expected rate of return (d) None of these
Change in profit sharing ratio Retirement or death of a partner
4. Which of the following is true?
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Admission of a partner Dissolution of partnership firm
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(a) Super profit = Total profit / number of years
III SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS:
(b) Super profit = Weighted profit / number of years
1. State any six factors determining goodwill.
(c) Super profit = Average profit – Normal profit
Profitability of the firm.
a
a
(d) Super profit = Average profit × Years of purchase
Favorable location of the business enterprises.
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5. Identify the incorrect pair
Good quality of goods or service offered.
(a) Goodwill under Average profit method - Average profit × Number of years of purchase
Efficiency of management.
(b) Goodwill under Super profit method - Super profit × Number of years of purchase
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Degree of competition
(c) Goodwill under Annuity method - Average profit × Present value annuity factor
Tenure of the business enterprise
(d) Goodwill under Weighted average - Weighted average profit × Number of years of purchase
a
a
2. How is goodwill calculated under the super profits method?
profit Method
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6. When the average profit is Rs. 25,000 and the normal profit is Rs. 15,000, super profit is i). Average Profit = Total Profits
(a) Rs. 25,000 (b) Rs. 5,000 (c) Rs. 10,000 (d) Rs. 15,000 Number of Years
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7. Book profit of 2017 is Rs. 35,000; non-recurring income included in the profit is Rs. 1,000
ii). Normal Profit = Capital Employed x NRR
and abnormal loss charged in the year 2017 was Rs. 2,000, then the adjusted profit is
iii). Super Profit = Average Profit - Normal Profit
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(a) Rs. 36,000 (b) Rs. 35,000 (c) Rs. 38,000 (d) Rs. 34,000
8. The total capitalised value of a business is Rs. 1,00,000; assets are Rs. 1,50,000 and liabilities iv). Goodwill = Super Profit x No. Year of Purchase
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are Rs. 80,000. The value of goodwill as per the capitalisation method will be 3. How is the value of goodwill calculated under the capitalization method?
(a) Rs. 40,000 (b) Rs. 70,000 (c) Rs. 1,00,000 (d) Rs. 30,000
i). Capitalized Value of the business = Average Profits x 100
II VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS:
1. What is goodwill? Number of Years
It is the good name of the business. ii). Capital Employed = Fixed Asset + Current Asset – Current Liabilities
It is an intangible assets iii). Goodwill = Capitalized Value of business – Capital Employed
It has no physical existence
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5 MARKS: Annuity refers to series of uniform cash flows at regular intervals. The table value gives the
1. State any six factors determining goodwill. present value of annuity of rupee one received at the end of every year for a specified number
of years.
(i). Profitability of the firm
Goodwill based on capitalization of average profit method and capitalization of super profit
The profit earning capacity of the firm determines the value of its goodwill.
method will give the same amount of goodwill.
A firm earning higher profits and having potential to generate higher profits in future will
Goodwill is the good name or reputation of the business which brings benefit to the business.
have higher value of goodwill.
It is an intangible fixed asset. Following are the circumstances that require valuation of
(ii). Favourable location of the business enterprise
goodwill of partnership firms in order to protect the rights of the partners:
☻ If the firm is located in a prominent place which is easily accessible to the customers, it can
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When the profit sharing ratio is changed, when a new partner is admitted into a firm, when an
attract more customers.
existing partner retires from the firm or when a partner dies and when a partnership firm is
☻ Its sales and profit will be higher when compared to a firm which is not located in a
dissolved
prominent place.
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Goodwill may be classified into acquired goodwill and self-generated goodwill.
☻ Hence, it will have high value of goodwill.
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Following are the methods generally followed to value goodwill:
(iii). Good quality of goods or services offered
Average profits methods, super profit methods and capitalization method
If a firm enjoys good reputation among the customers and general public for the good quality
a
of its products or services, the value of goodwill for the firm will be high.
(iv). Tenure of the business enterprise *@*@*@*@*@*@
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A firm which has carried on business for several years will have higher reputation among its
customers as it is better known to the customers.
lv
lv
Such a firm will have higher earnings and higher value of goodwill when compared to a new
firm.
a
a
(v). Efficiency of management
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A firm having efficient management will earn more profits and the value of its goodwill will be
higher compared to a firm with less efficient managerial personnel.
IMPORTANT NOTES: (DO YOU KNOW)
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Goodwill may be classified into acquired goodwill and self-generated goodwill.
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Acquired or purchased goodwill
Goodwill acquired by making payment in cash or kind is called acquired or purchased
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goodwill.
Self-generated goodwill
It is the goodwill which is self generated by a firm based on features of the business
such as favourable location, loyal customers, etc.
Such self-generated goodwill cannot be recorded in the books of accounts.
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CHAPTER – 5 ADMISSION OF A PARTNER 9. James and Kamal are sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 5:3. They admit Sunil as a
partner giving him 1/5 share of profits. Find out the sacrificing ratio.
I. CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER:
(a) 1:3 (b) 3:1 (c) 5:3 (d) 3:5
1. Revaluation A/c is a
10. Balaji and Kamalesh are partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 2:1. They admit
(a) Real A/c (b) Nominal A/c (c) Personal A/c (d) Impersonal A/c
Yogesh into partnership. The new profit sharing ratio between Balaji, Kamalesh and Yogesh
2. On revaluation, the increase in the value of assets leads to
is agreed to 3:1:1. Find the sacrificing ratio between Balaji and Kamalesh.
(a) Gain (b) Loss (c) Expense (d) None of these
(a) 1:3 (b) 3:1 (c) 2:1 (d) 1:2
3. The profit or loss on revaluation of assets and liabilities is transferred to the capital account of
II. VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS:
(a) The old partners (b) The new partner
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1. What is meant by revaluation of assets and liabilities?
(c) All the partners (d) The Sacrificing partners
When a partner is admitted into the partnership the assets and liabilities are revalued as the
4. If the old profit sharing ratio is more than the new profit sharing ratio of a partner, the
current value may differ from book value.
difference is called
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Determination of current value of assets and liabilities is called revaluation of assets and
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(a) Capital ratio (b) Sacrificing ratio (c) Gaining ratio (d) None of these
liabilities.
5. At the time of admission, the goodwill brought by the new partner may be credited to the
2. How are accumulated profits and losses distributed among the partners at the time of
capital accounts
admission of a new partner?
a
a
(a) all the partners (b) the old partners (c) the new partner (d) the sacrificing partners
Any reserve fund, accumulated profit and loss belong to the old partners and hence these
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6. Which of the following statements is not true in relation to admission of a partner
should be distributed to the old partners in the old profit sharing ratio.
(a) Generally mutual rights of the partners change
3. What is sacrificing ratio?
(b) The profits and losses of the previous years are distributed to the old partners
lv
lv
It is ratio of share sacrificed by the old partners.
(c) The firm is reconstituted under a new agreement
Share of the new partner is the sum of share sacrificed by the old partners.
(d) The existing agreement does not come to an end
a
a
4. Give the journal entry for writing off existing goodwill at the time of admission of a new
7. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
partner.
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List I List II
Date Particulars LF Debit Rs. Credit Rs.
(i) Sacrificing ratio 1. Investment fluctuation fund
Old partner capital a/c Dr xxx
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(ii) Old profit sharing ratio 2. Accumulated profit
(iii) Revaluation Account 3. Goodwill To Goodwill a/c xxx
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(iv) Capital Account 4. Unrecorded liability (Being Existing goodwill is written off )
Codes: 5. State whether the following will be debited or credited in the revaluation account.
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(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (a) Depreciation on assets (b) Unrecorded liability
(a) 1 2 3 4 (c) Provision for outstanding expenses (d) Appreciation of assets
(b) 3 2 4 1
(a) Depreciation on assets - Debited
(c) 4 3 2 1
(b) Unrecorded liability - Debited
(d) 3 1 4 2
8. Select the odd one out (c) Outstanding expenses - Debited
(a) Revaluation profit (b) Accumulated loss (d) Appreciation of assets - Credited
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2. What are the journal entries to be passed on revaluation of assets and liabilities?
i). For increase in the value of asset iv). For Loss on Revaluation
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iii). For recording unrecorded asset Date Particulars LF Debit Credit
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Rs. Rs.
JOURNAL ENTRY
Old Partners Capital a/c Dr xxx
Date Particulars LF Debit Credit
Rs. Rs. To Revaluation a/c xxx
a
Concerned Asset a/c Dr xxx (Revaluation of profit transferred to
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Concerned liability a/c Dr xxx capital a/c)
To Revaluation a/c xxx 3. Write a short note on accounting treatment of goodwill.
(Assets and Liabilities are recorded )
lv
lv
i). When new partner brings cash towards goodwill
When the new partner brings cash towards goodwill in addition to the amount of
a
a
capital.
i). For decrease in the value of asset
It is distributed to the existing partners in the sacrificing ratio.
.k
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ii). For increase in the amount of liability
ii). When the new partner does not bring goodwill in cash or in kind
iii). For recording unrecorded liability
If the new partner does not bring goodwill in cash or in kind, his share of goodwill must
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JOURNAL ENTRY
be adjusted through the capital accounts of the partners.
Date Particulars LF Debit Credit
Rs. Rs. iii). When the new partner brings only a part of the goodwill in cash or in kind
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Revaluation a/c Dr xxx Sometimes the new partner may bring only a part of the goodwill in cash or assets.
To Concerned Asset a/c xxx In such a case, for the cash or the assets brought, the respective account is debited and
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To Concerned liability a/c xxx for the amount not brought in cash or kind, the new partner’s capital account is debited.
(Assets and Liabilities are recorded ) iv). Existing goodwill
If goodwill already appears in the books of accounts, at the time of admission if the
partners decide.
It can be written off by transferring it to the existing partners’ capital account / current
account in the old profit sharing ratio.
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partners’ capital account in old profit sharing ratio. (c) Date of his retirement (d) Date of his final settlement
If the market value of the investments is less than the book value, then the difference is 2. On retirement of a partner from a partnership firm, accumulated profits and losses. Are
to be subtracted from the investment fluctuation fund and the balance of investment distributed to the partners in the
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fluctuation fund is to be transferred to the old partners’ capital account in old profit (a) New profit sharing ratio (b) Old profit sharing ratio
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(a) Capital account of all the partners (b) Revaluation account
the information given in the problem.
da
da
(c) Capital account of the continuing partners (d) Memorandum revaluation a/c
ometimes an existing partner may also gain in share of profit on admission of a partner when
4. On revaluation, the increase in liabilities leads to
the new share is greater than the old share. In this case, the gaining partner has to
(a) Gain (b) Loss (c) Profit (d) None of these
a
a
compensate the sacrificing partners to the extent of his share in the total goodwill of the firm.
5. At the time of retirement of a partner, determination of gaining ratio is required
On admission of a new partner, the firm is reconstituted with a new agreement and the
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(a) To transfer revaluation profit or loss (b) To distribute accumulated profits and losses
existing agreement comes to an end.
(c) To adjust goodwill (d) None of these
On admission of a partner, generally there is a change in the mutual rights of the partners. The
lv
lv
6. If the final amount due to a retiring partner is not paid immediately, it is transferred to
new partner acquires the right to share the future profits and share the assets of the firm.
(a) Bank A/c (b) Retiring partner’s capital A/c
The new partner becomes liable for all the acts which are carried out by the firm from the
a
a
(c) Retiring partner’s loan A/c (d) Other partners’ capital A/c
date of his / her admission into the firm.
7. ‘ A’ was a partner in a partnership firm. He died on 31st March 2019. The final Amount Due
.k
.k
On admission of a partner, the accumulated profits, accumulated losses and reserves before
to him is Rs.25,000 which is not paid immediately. It will be transferred to
admission are to be distributed to the existing partners in the old ratio.
(a) A’s capital account (b) A’s current account
w
w
When a partner is admitted into the firm, assets and liabilities are to be revalued and the
(c) A’s Executor account (d) A’s Executor loan account
profit or loss on revaluation is to be distributed to the existing partners in the old ratio.
8. A, B and C are partners sharing profits in the ratio of 2:2:1. On retirement of B, Goodwill of
w
w
At the time of admission of a partner it is necessary to determine the new profit sharing ratio the firm was valued as Rs. 30,000. Find the contribution of A and C to compensate B:
because the new partner is entitled to share the future profits of the firm.
(a) Rs.20,000 and Rs.10,000 (b) Rs. 8,000 and Rs.4,000
w
w
If the new profit sharing ratio is not agreed, the partners will share the profits and losses (c) Rs.10,000 and Rs. 20,000 (d) Rs.15,000 and Rs. 15,000
equally. 9. A, B and C are partners sharing profits in the ratio of 4:2:3. C retires. The new Profit sharing
The existing partners sacrifice part of their share of profit in favour of the new partner. To ratio between A and B will be
compensate the sacrifice made by the existing partners, goodwill brought by the new partner (a) 4:3 (b) 3:4 (c) 2:1 (d) 1:2
is distributed in the sacrificing ratio to the old partners who sacrifice. 10. X, Y and Z were partners sharing profits and losses equally. X died on 1.4. 2019. Find out
Sacrificing ratio is the proportion of the profit which is sacrificed or foregone by the old the share of X in the profit of 2019 based on the profit of 2018 which showed Rs. 36,000.
a). Rs. 1,000 (b) Rs. 3,000 (c) Rs.12,000 (d) Rs.36,000
partners in favour of the new partner.
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II. VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS: 3. What are the ways in which the final amount due to an outgoing partner can be settled?
1. What is meant by retirement of a partner? i). Cash due paid immediately
When a partner leaves from a partnership firm, it is known as retirement. Date Particulars LF Debit Credit
It is also called outgoing or retirement partner. Rs. Rs.
2. What is gaining ratio? Retiring partner capital a/c Dr xxx
The continuing partners may gain a portion of the share of profit of the retiring partner. To Cash/Bank a/c xxx
Gaining Ratio = New share - Old share (Being cash due paid immediately recorded )
3. What is the purpose of calculating gaining ratio? ii). Cash due not paid immediately
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The purpose of finding the gaining ratio is to bear the goodwill to be paid to the retiring Date Particulars LF Debit Credit
partner. Rs. Rs.
4. What is the journal entry to be passed to transfer the amount due to the deceased partner to Retiring partner capital a/c Dr xxx
l
the executor of the deceased partner? To Retiring partners loan a/c xxx
da
da
Date Particulars LF Debit Credit (Being cash due not paid immediately recorded )
Rs. Rs. iii). Cash due paid partly immediately
Deceased partner capital a/c Dr xxx
Date Particulars LF Debit Credit
a
a
To Deceased partner executor a/c xxx Rs. Rs.
ik
ik
(Being Deceased partner amount transferred to capital Retiring partner capital a/c Dr xxx
account) To Cash/Bank a/c xxx
lv
lv
III SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS: To Retiring partners loan a/c xxx
1. List out the adjustments made at the time of retirement of a partner in a partnership firm. (Being cash due paid partly immediately recorded )
Distribution of accumulated profits, reserves and losses
a
a
5 MARKS:
Revaluation of assets and liabilities
1. Distinguish between sacrificing ratio and gaining ratio.
.k
.k
Determination of new profit sharing ratio and gaining ratio
S.No Basic Sacrificing Ratio Gaining Ratio
Adjustment for goodwill
w
w
Adjustment for current year’s profit or loss upto the date of retirement 1 Meaning A share o profit sacrificed by the old A share of profit gained by existing
Settlement of the amount due to the retiring partner partner to new partner. partner from retiring partner.
w
w
2. Distinguish between sacrificing ratio and gaining ratio. 2 Time Admission of a partner Retirement of a partner
S.No Basic Sacrificing ratio Gaining ratio Sacrificing Ratio = Gaining Ratio =
3 Formula
w
2
Meaning
Time
A share o profit sacrificed by the old A share of profit gained by existing
partner to new partner.
Admission of a partner
partner from retiring partner.
Retirement of a partner
w 4 Purpose
old ratio – new ratio New ratio – Old ratio
Its calculated to determine the amount Its calculated to determine the
to be adjusted towards goodwill for amount to be adjusted towards
the sacrificing partners. goodwill for the gaining partners.
3 Formula Sacrificing Ratio = Gaining Ratio =
old ratio – new ratio New ratio – Old ratio
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Important notes: (Do you Know) When a partner retires from the partnership firm, the assets and liabilities are to be revalued
All these adjustments are similar to the adjustments to be done on admission of a partner and the profit or loss on revaluation is to be distributed to all the partners in the old profit
except determination of profit sharing ratio and settlement of the amount due to the retiring sharing ratio.
partner. At the time of retirement of a partner, the continuing partners gain part of retiring partner’s
There are two ways in which the revaluation of assets and liabilities may be dealt with in the share of profit. Hence the retiring partner’s share of goodwill is to be valued and adjusted
Revised value of assets and liabilities are shown in the books Gaining ratio is the proportion of the profit which is gained by the continuing partners. The
Revised value of assets and liabilities are not shown in the books share gained is new share minus old share.
.in
.in
When the new profit sharing ratio is not given in the problem, it is to be calculated based on The amount due to the retiring partner may be settled by paying the entire amount due
the information given in the problem. immediately in cash, or transfer the entire amount due to the loan account of the partner or by
Profit and loss suspense account is a temporary account opened to transfer the share of paying part of the amount immediately in cash and transferring the balance to the loan
l
retiring or deceased partner’s share in current year’s profit or loss upto the date of retirement account of the partner.
da
da
or death. when a partner dies the amount due from the firm is paid to the executor or legal
If the amount due to the retiring/deceased partner is not paid in cash immediately and if there representative of the deceased partner.
a
the Indian Partnership Act, 1932 will apply.
ik
ik
As per section 37, the retiring partner or the representatives of the retiring or deceased
partner is entitled to choose any of the following options: @*@*@*@*@*@*@
lv
lv
Share of profits attributable to the use of his share of property of the firm or
Interest at the rate of 6 per cent per annum on the amount of his share on the property of the
a
a
firm.
Life policies may be taken on the life of the partners in a partnership firm. The life policy may
.k
.k
be individual policy or joint life policy. Incase of individual policy, if a partner dies, his policy
alone matures and the policy amount is received from the insurance company.
w
w
Incase of joint life policy, one policy is taken on the lives of all partners. When any one of the
partners dies, the policy matures and the policy amount is received. In both types of policies,
w
w
the insurance premium is paid by the partnership firm. The policy amount received from the
insurance company is used to settle the amount due to the deceased partner.
w
On retirement of a partner, existing agreement comes to an end. The firm is reconstituted and
other partners continue the partnership firm with a new agreement.
The retiring partner is liable for all the acts which are carried out by the firm until the date of
his retirement from the firm.
w
At the time of retirement of a partner the accumulated profits and losses and reserves upto
the date of retirement is to be distributed to all the partners in the old profit sharing ratio.
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CHAPTER – 7 COMPANY ACCOUNTS 9. If a share of Rs. 10 on which Rs. 8 has been paid up is forfeited. Minimum reissue price is
(a) Rs. 10 per share (b) Rs. 8 per share (c) Rs. 5 per share (d) Rs. 2 per share
I. CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER:
10. Supreme Ltd. forfeited 100 shares of Rs. 10 each for non-payment of final call of Rs. 2 per
1. A preference share is one
share. All these Shares were re-issued at Rs. 9 per share. What amount will be transferred
(i) which carries preferential right with respect to payment of dividend at fixed rate
to capital reserve account?
(ii) which carries preferential right with respect to repayment of capital on winding up
(a) Rs. 700 (b) Rs. 800 (c) Rs. 900 (d) Rs. 1,000
(a) Only (i) is correct (b) Only (ii) is correct
II VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS:
(c) Both (i) and (ii) are correct (d) Both (i) and (ii) are incorrect
1. What is a share?
2. That part of share capital which can be called up only on the winding up of a company is
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The capital of a company is divided into small units of fixed amount.
called:
These units are called shares.
(a) Authorised capital (b) Called up capital (c) Capital reserve (d) Reserve capital
2. What is over-subscription?
3. At the time of forfeiture, share capital account is debited with
l
When the number of shares applied for is more than the number of shares offered for
da
da
(a) Face value (b) Nominal value (c) Paid up amount (d) Called up amount
subscription.
4. After the forfeited shares are reissued, the balance in the forfeited shares account should be
It is said to be over subscription.
transferred to
3. What is meant by calls in arrear?
a
a
(a) General reserve account (b) Capital reserve account
Sometimes shareholders may fail to pay the amount due on calls.
(c) Securities premium account (d) Surplus account
ik
ik
The amount called up but not paid is called calls in arrears.
5. The amount received over and above the par value is credited to
4. Write a short note on securities premium account.
(a) Securities premium account (b) Calls in advance account
lv
lv
When a company issues shares at a price more than the face value, the shares are said to be
(c) Share capital account (d) Forfeited shares account
issued at premium.
6. Which of the following statement is false?
a
a
The excess is called as premium.
(a) Issued capital can never be more than the authorised capital
5. Why are the shares forfeited?
.k
.k
(b) In case of under subscription, issued capital will be less than the subscribed capital
If the shareholders fail to pay the amount due on calls, shares will be forfeited.
(c) Reserve capital can be called at the time of winding up
III SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS:
w
w
(d) Paid up capital is part of called up capital
1. State the differences between preference shares and equity shares.
7. When shares are issued for purchase of assets, the amount should be credited to
S.no Basic Preference share Equity Shares
w
w
(a) Vendor’s A/c (b) Sundry assets A/c (c) Share capital A/c (d) Bank A/c
8. Match the pair and identify the correct option 1 Meaning It’s are those shares which have It’s are those which have no
w
w
(1) Under subscription - (i) Amount prepaid for calls preferential rights regarding preferential rights. So they are
(2) Over subscription - (ii) Subscription above the offered shares dividend and return of capital called ordinary shares.
(3) Calls in arrear - (iii) Subscription below the offered shares
2 Rate of dividend Fixed Changed
(4) Calls in advance - (iv) Amount unpaid on calls
(1) (2) (3) (4) 3 Voting power They do not have any voting They have dividend changes
(a) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) rights according to profit earned by
(b) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) company.
(c) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(d) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
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2. Write a brief note on calls in advance. IMPORTANT NOTES: (DO YOU KNOW)
The excess amount paid over the called up value of a share is known as calls in advance. As per Section 39 of the Indian Companies Act, 2013, application money must be at least 5 per
It is the excess money paid on application or allotment or calls. cent of the nominal value of shares or such other percentage or amount as may be specified by
3. What is reissue of forfeited shares? the Securities Exchange Board by making regulations. As per SEBI guidelines, the minimum
Shares forfeited can be reissued by the company. application money shall not be less than 25 per cent of the issue price.
The shares can be reissued at any price. Calls are to be made as provided in the Articles of Association of a company. In the absence of
But, the reissue price cannot be less than the amount unpaid on forfeited shares. the required provisions in the Articles, Table F, Schedule I of the Indian Companies Act, 2013
4. Write a short note on (a) Authorised capital (b) Reserve capital will be applicable which has the following provisions:
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.in
i). Authorized Capital: Period of one month must elapse between two calls.
It means such capital as is authorized by the memorandum of association. The amount of one call should not be more than 25% of the face value of the share.
It is the maximum amount which can be raised as capital. Authorised capital is the maximum amount that can be raised as capital as is authorised by the
l
It is also known as Registered capital or Nominal capital memorandum of association
da
da
ii). Reserve Capital: Reserve capital is part of subscribed capital to be called up at the time of winding up of the
The company can reserve a part of its subscribed capital to be called up only at the time of company.
Issue of equity shares to public through prospectus by a public company is called public issue.
a
a
winding up.
It is called Reserve Capital. When the share capital is received through instalments, first instalment is called application
ik
ik
5. What is meant by issue of shares for consideration other than cash? money.
A company may issue equity shares either for cash or for consideration other than cash. When the number of shares subscribed is less than the number of shares offered, it is known as
lv
lv
When shares are issued for cash, the cash may be received under subscription.
In Installments At One Time When the minimum subscription stated in the prospectus has been subscribed for by the
a
a
5 MARKS: public, a company can allot shares.
.k
.k
1. State the differences between preference shares and equity shares. When applications are allotted in proportion of shares applied for it is called pro-rata
allotment.
S.no Basic Preference share Equity Shares
The excess amount paid over the called up value of a share is known as calls in advance.
w
w
1 Meaning It’s are those shares which have It’s are those which have no
When a shareholder fails to pay the amount due on allotment or on calls, the amount
preferential rights regarding preferential rights. So they are
remaining unpaid is known as calls in arrears.
w
w
dividend and return of capital called ordinary shares.
When a company issues shares at a price more than the face value (nominal value), the shares
2 Rate of dividend Fixed Changed
w
w
are said to be issued at premium.
3 Voting power They do not have any voting They have dividend changes
@*@*@*@*@*@*@*@
rights according to profit earned by
company.
4 Affairs of company They do not have any rights to They have to appoint the board of
appoint board of directors. directors
5 Payment of dividend Dividend is distributed first. After paying dividend is
distributed
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CHAPTER – 8 FINANCIAL STATEMENT ANALYSIS increased to Rs. 88,000. What is the trend percentage in the second year?
a) 10 % b) 110 % c) 90 % d) 11%
I. CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER II VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS:
1. Which of the following statements is not true? 1. What are financial statements?
a) Notes and schedules also form part of financial statements. Financial statements are the statements prepared by the business concerns at the end of the
b) The tools of financial statement analysis include common-size statement accounting period to ascertain the operating results and the financial position.
c) Trend analysis refers to the study of movement of figures for one year
2. List the tools of financial statement analysis.
d) The common–size statements show the relationship of various items with some common
Comparative statement
base, expressed as percentage of the common base
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2. Balance sheet provides information about the financial position of a business concern Common size statement
l
c) For a period of time d) For the accounting period
da
da
3. Which of the following tools of financial statement analysis is suitable when data relating to Cash flow analysis
a) Cash flow statement b) Common size statement The capital of a business which is used in its day-to-day trading operation.
a
c) Comparative statement d) Trend analysis Working Capital = Current Asset – Current Liabilities
4. When is trend analysis preferred to other tools?
ik
ik
4. The financial statements do not exhibit
a) Non-monetary data b) Past data c) Short term data d) Long term data When data of more than two years are to be analyzed it may be difficult to use comparative
lv
a) Trend analysis b) Common size statement For this purpose trend analysis may be used.
a
6. The term ‘fund’ refers to 1. ‘Financial statements are prepared based on the past data’. Explain how this is a limitation.
.k
.k
a) Current liabilities b) Working capital c) Fixed assets d) Non-current assets Financial statements are prepared based on historical data.
7. Which of the following statements is not true? They may not reflect current position.
w
w
a) All the limitations of financial statements are applicable to financial statement analysis also. The previous data does not reveal the operating results and financial position of the
b) Financial statement analysis is only the means and not an end. business concern.
w
w
c) Expert knowledge is not required in analysing the financial statements. So it is a limitation.
d) Interpretation of the analysed data involves personal judgement. 2. Write a short note on cash flow analysis.
w
w
8. A limited company’s sales has increased from Rs. 1,25,000 to Rs. 1,50,000. How does this It is concerned with Preparation of cash flow statement which shows the inflow and outflow
appear in comparative income statement? of cash and cash equivalents in a given period of time.
a) + 20 % b) + 120 % c) – 120 % d) – 20 % Cash includes cash in hand and demand deposits with banks.
9. In a common-size balance sheet, if the percentage of non-current assets is 75, what would be 3. Briefly explain any three limitations of financial statements.
the percentage of current assets? i). Record of historical data:
a) 175 b) 125 c) 25 d) 100 Financial statements are prepared based on historical data.
10. Expenses for a business for the first year were Rs. 80,000. In the second year, it was They may not reflect the current position.
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ii). Ignore price level changes: Intra-firm comparison is comparison within the organisation among different departments,
Adjustments for price level changes are not made in the financial statements. divisions, etc.
Hence, financial statements may not reveal the current position. Inter-firm comparison is comparison of one firm with other firm or firms in the industry.
iii). Lack of consistency: Horizontal analysis
Different business concerns may use different accounting methods. When figures relating to several years are considered for the purpose of analysis, the analysis
Hence, comparison between two business concerns becomes difficult. is called horizontal analysis.
4. Explain the steps involved in preparing comparative statement. Generally, one year is taken as the base year and the figures relating to the other years are
(i) Column 1: Particulars of items compared with that of the base year. Comparative statements and trend percentages are
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(ii) Column 2: Enter absolute amount of year 1. examples of horizontal analysis.
(iii) Column 3: Enter absolute amount of year 2. Vertical analysis
(iv) Column 4: Show the difference in amounts between year 1 When figures relating to one accounting year alone are considered for the purpose of analysis,
l
and year 2. (Increase ( + ) or Decrease ( - ) the analysis is called vertical analysis.
da
da
(v) Column 5: Show percentage increase or decrease.
Here, relationship is established among items from various financial statements relating to
Percentage increase or decrease: = Absolute amount of increase or decrease x 100
the same accounting period.
Year 1 amount
a
a
Preparation of common size statements and computation of ratios are examples of vertical
5. Explain the procedure for preparing common-size statement.
analysis.
ik
ik
Common-size statement can be prepared with three columns.
The term financial statements generally refer to two basic statements, income statement and
(i) (i). Column 1: Particulars of items of income statement or balance sheet
balance sheet.
lv
lv
(ii) Column 2: Enter absolute amount.
Notes and schedules also form part of financial statements.
(iii) Column 3: Choose a common base as 100.
The tools of financial statement analysis include Comparative statement, Common size
a
a
For example, revenue from operations can be taken as the base for income
statement, Trend analysis, Funds flow analysis and Cash flow analysis.
statement and total of balance sheet can be taken as the base for balance sheet.
.k
.k
A statement giving comparison of net increase or decrease in the individual items of financial
IMPORTANT NOTES: (DO YOU KNOW)
statements of two or more years of a business concern is called comparative statement.
Where the financial statements of a company do not comply with the Accounting Standards
w
w
The common–size statements show the relationship of various items with some common
referred to in Section 129 (1) of the Companies Act, 2013, the company shall disclose in its
base, expressed as percentage of the common base.
financial statements, the deviation from the Accounting Standards, the reasons for such
w
w
Trend analysis refers to the study of movement of figures over a period.
deviation and the financial effects, if any, arising out of such deviation.
As per Schedule III of the Companies Act, 2013, depending upon the turnover of the company,
w
the figures appearing in the financial statements may be rounded off as given below:
Turnover
(a) less than one hundred crore rupees
Rounding off
To the nearest hundreds, thousands, lakhs or
millions, or decimals thereof.
w @*@*@*@*@*@*@*@*@*@
(b) one hundred crore rupees or more To the nearest lakhs, millions or crores, or
decimals thereof.
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CHAPTER – 9 RATIO ANALYSIS 9. Current liabilities Rs. 40,000 Current assets Rs. 1,00,000; Inventory Rs. 20,000. Quick ratio is
(a) 1:1 (b) 2.5:1 (c) 2:1 (d) 1:2
I. CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER: 10. Cost of revenue from operations Rs. 3,00,000; Inventory in the beginning of the year Rs.
1. The mathematical expression that provides a measure of the relationship between two 60,000; Inventory at the close of the year Rs. 40,000. Inventory turnover ratio is
figures is called (a) 2 times (b) 3 times (c) 6 times (d) 8 times
(a) Conclusion (b) Ratio (c) Model (d) Decision II VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS:
2. Current ratio indicates 1. What is meant by accounting ratios?
(a) Ability to meet short term obligations (b) Efficiency of management When ratios are calculated on the basis of accounting information, these are called
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(c) Profitability (d) Long term solvency ‘accounting ratios’.
3. Current assets excluding inventory and prepaid expenses is called It is the numerical relationship between two items.
(a) Reserves (b) Tangible assets (c) Funds (d) Quick assets 2. What is quick ratio?
l
4. Debt equity ratio is a measure of Quick ratio gives the proportion of quick assets to current liabilities.
da
da
(a) Short term solvency (b) Long term solvency (c) Profitability (d) Efficiency It is otherwise called liquid ratio or acid test ratio.
5. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below: It is calculated as follows:
List I List II Quick ratio = Quick assets
a
a
(i) Current ratio 1. Liquidity
Current liabilities
(ii) Net profit ratio 2. Efficiency
ik
ik
(iii) Debt-equity ratio 3. Long term solvency 3. What is meant by debt equity ratio?
(iv) Inventory turnover ratio 4. Profitability It is calculated to assess the long term solvency position.
Codes :
lv
lv
It expresses the relationship between long term debt and shareholders’ funds.
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) It is computed as follows:
(a) 1 4 3 2
a
a
Debt equity ratio = Long term debt
(b) 3 2 4 1
(c) 4 3 2 1 Shareholders' funds
.k
.k
(d) 1 2 3 4 4. What does return on investment ratio indicate?
6. To test the liquidity of a concern, which of the following ratios are useful?
It shows the proportion of net profit before interest and tax to capital employed.
(i) Quick ratio (ii) Net profit ratio
w
w
(iii) Debt-equity ratio (iv) Current ratio It is an overall measure of profitability of a business concern.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below: It is computed as below:
w
w
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) and (iv) (c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (ii) and (iv) Return on Investment (ROI) = Net profit before interest and tax x 100
7. Proportion of share holder's funds to total assets is called Capital employed
w
w
(a) Proprietary ratio (b) Capital gearing ratio 5. State any two limitations of ratio analysis.
(c) Debt equity ratio (d) Current ratio (i) Ratios are only means:
8. Which one of the following is not correctly matched? Ratios are not end in themselves but they are only means to achieve a particular purpose.
(a) Liquid ratio – Proportion (ii). Accuracy of financial information:
(b) Gross profit ratio – Percentage Its depends on the accuracy of information taken from financial statements.
(c) Fixed assets turnover ratio – Percentage
(d) Debt-equity ratio – Proportion
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III SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS: 5. Bring out the limitations of ratio analysis.
1. Explain the objectives of ratio analysis. (i) Ratios are only means:
To simplify accounting figures Ratios are not end in themselves but they are only means to achieve a particular purpose.
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based on historical data given in financial statements.
Inventory conversion period is the time taken to sell the inventory.
Important notes: (Do you Know)
A shorter inventory conversion period indicates more efficiency in the management of
Accounting ratios can be expressed in any of the following forms:
inventory.
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Pure: It is expressed as a quotient. Example: 2 or 2:1.
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It is computed as follows:
Percentage: It is expressed in percentage. Example: 25%.
Inventory conversion period = Number of days in a year
Times: It is expressed as certain number of times of a particular figure. Example: 4 times.
(in days) Inventory turnover ratio
Operating cycle is the time between the acquisition of an asset for processing and its
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Inventory conversion period = Number of months in a year realisation into cash and cash equivalents.
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(in months) Inventory turnover ratio Inventory is not considered as liquid asset because it takes some time to sell the inventory
3. How is operating profit ascertained? and to convert into cash. Similarly, prepaid expenses are not considered as liquid assets
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Operating Profit = Gross Profit - Operating Expenses because these are expenses paid in advance. These cannot be converted into cash and only the
Gross Profit = Sales - Cost of Goods sold benefit can be derived and are thus excluded from liquid assets.
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(Or) Normally, 2:1 is considered as ideal current ratio; 1:1 is considered as ideal quick ratio.
Gross Profit = Revenue from Operation - Cost of Revenue from Operation However, it is subject to change from business to business and industry to industry.
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Operating Expenses = Selling + Office + Distribution + Administration Expenses Debit balance in the statement of profit and loss is shown as a negative figure under the head
4. State any three advantages of ratio analysis. Reserves and surplus.
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(i) Measuring financial solvency: Shareholders’ funds can also be computed as follows:
Ratio analysis helps to ascertain the liquidity or short term Shareholders’ funds = Total assets – Non current liabilities – Current liabilities.
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Solvency and long term solvency of a business concern. In general, a debt equity ratio of 1:1 may be considered satisfactory. However, it is subject to
(ii) Facilitating investment decisions: change from business to business and industry to industry.
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Ratio analysis helps the management in making effective decisions regarding profitable
avenues of investment.
(iii) Analysing the profitability:
Ratio analysis helps to analyse the profitability of a business in terms of sales and
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operations instead of revenue from operations.
An accounting ratio is a mathematical expression of the relationship between two items or
group of items shown in the financial statements.
investments. Under the functional classification, the ratios are classified as liquidity ratios, solvency ratios,
profitability ratios and turnover ratios.
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Liquidity ratios help to assess the ability of a business concern to meet its short term financial CHAPTER – 10 COMPUTERIZED
obligations. ACCOUNTING SYSYTEM - TALLY
Long term solvency ratios help to determine the ability of the business to repay its debts in I. CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER:
the long run. 1. Accounting report prepared according to the requirements of the user is
Profitability ratios are calculated to analyse the earning capacity of the business and is (a) Routine accounting report (b) Special purpose report
generally expressed as a percentage. (c) Trial balance (d) Balance sheet
Turnover ratios show how efficiently assets or other items have been used to generate 2. Function key F11 is used for
revenue from operations. (a) Company Features (b) Accounting vouchers
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(c) Company Configuration (d) None of these
3. Which submenu displays groups, ledgers and voucher types in Tally?
(a) Inventory vouchers (b) Accounting vouchers
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@*@*@*@*@*@*@*@*@*@ (c) Company Info (d) Account Info
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4. What are the predefined Ledger(s) in Tally?
(i) Cash (ii) Profit & Loss A/c (iii) Capital A/c
(a) Only (i) (b) Only (ii) (c) Both (i) and (ii) (d) Both (ii) and (iii)
a
a
5. Contra voucher is used for
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(a) Master entry (b) Withdrawal of cash from bank for office use
(c) Reports (d) Credit purchase of assets
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6. Which is not the default group in Tally?
(a) Suspense account (b) Outstanding expense (c) Sales account (d) Investments
a
a
7. Salary account comes under which of the following head?
(a) Direct Incomes (b) Direct Expenses (c) Indirect Incomes (d) Indirect Expenses
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8. Rs. 25,000 withdrawn from bank for office use. In which voucher type, this transaction will
be recorded
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(a) Contra Voucher (b) Receipt Voucher (c) Payment Voucher (d) Sales Voucher
9. In which voucher type credit purchase of furniture is recorded in Tally
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(a) Receipt voucher (b) Journal voucher (c) Purchase voucher (d) Payment voucher
10. Which of the following options is used to view Trial Balance from Gateway of Tally?
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Automated accounting is an approach to maintain up-to-date accounting records with the aid
of accounting software.
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Trial balance 3. Mention the commonly used voucher types in Tally.ERP 9.
Income statement Receipt Voucher F6
Balance sheet Payment Voucher F5
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Cash flow statement Contra Voucher F4
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4. What is Accounting Information System (AIS)? Purchase Voucher F9
AIS collects financial data, process them and provides information to the various users. Sales Voucher F8
To provide information AIS requires data from other information system that is Journal Voucher F7
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manufacturing, marketing and human resources. 4. Explain how to view profit and loss statement in Tally.ERP 9.
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5. What is a group in Tally.ERP 9?
☻ Groups are categorized as Primary Groups and Sub-Groups.
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☻ Primary group includes Capital Account, Current Liabilities, Fixed Assets, Current Assets,
etc.
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☻ Sub-Group includes Reserves & Surplus, Sundry Creditors, Sundry Debtors, etc.
☻ Gateway of Tally > Masters > Accounts Info > Groups > Single Group > Display.
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III SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS
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1. Write a brief note on accounting vouchers.
Voucher is a document which contains details of transactions.
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Transactions are to be recorded through voucher entries.
Tally has a set of predefined vouchers such as Purchase, Sales, Payment, Receipt and Contra.
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To view the list of voucher types:
Gateway of Tally > Masters > Accounts Info > Voucher Types > Display
2. What are the pre-defined ledgers available in Tally.ERP 9?
5. Explain any five applications of computerized accounting system.
Tally has two predefined ledgers, i). Maintaining accounting records:
Cash and
It can be maintained easily and efficiently for long time period.
Profit & Loss A/c.
It facilitates fast and accurate retrieval of data and information.
The user has to create various other ledgers based on their requirements.
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v). Taxation: v). Taxation:
CAS helps to compute various taxes and to deduct these and deposit the same to the CAS helps to compute various taxes and to deduct these and deposit the same to the
Government account. Government account.
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5 MARKS: IMPORTANT NOTES: (DO YOU KNOW)
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1. State any five accounting reports. Tally.ERP 9 can be used without a licence. But, for the date of the transactions only 1, 2 and 31
Accounting report is a compilation of accounting information that are derived from the can be recorded.
accounting records of a business concern. To delete or alter a transaction:
a
a
It may be classified as routine reports and special purpose reports. Gateway of Tally > Reports > Display > Day Book > Delete or make changes and Accept >
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Routine accounting reports include: Yes.
Day books / Journal Automated accounting system is an approach to maintain up-to-date accounting records with
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Ledger the aid of accounting software.
Trial balance Gateway of tally is the opening screen of tally. It is shown on the right pane which contains
a
a
Income statement menu options such as transactions and reports.
Accounting group is a collection of ledger accounts of same nature.
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Balance sheet
Cash flow statement Tally has two predefined ledgers, Cash and Profit & Loss A/c.
Special purpose report is a report other than the routine accounting reports which is prepared Different types of vouchers such as receipt, payment, sales, purchases, etc. can be used for
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according to the requirements of the user. recording transactions in Tally.
Following are the steps involved in designing accounting reports: Deposit of cash into bank account and withdrawal of cash from bank account are recorded in
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☻ Define the objective of generating report contra voucher.
Journal vouchers are used for recording transactions such as depreciation, provision for bad
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☻ Specify the structure of the report
debts, rectification entries, etc.
☻ Creating database queries to interact with the database to retrieve, modify, add or
delete data from the records.
2. Explain any five applications of computerized accounting system. @*@*@*@*@*@*@
i). Maintaining accounting records:
It can be maintained easily and efficiently for long time period.
It facilitates fast and accurate retrieval of data and information.
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IF YOU FAIL NEVER
AdAm smith GIVE UP BECAUSEFAIL
a
MEANS FIRST ATTEMPT
FAthER OF EcOnOmics IN LEARNING
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(NEW EDITION 202
2023-24)
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NAME : ________
________________________________
__________________
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REG NO : ___________
________________________________
_______________
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PREPARED BY
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P.VAHEESWARAN M.COM., M.PHIL. DCA., B.ED.,
B.ED
VICE-PRINCIPAL,
PG ASSISTANT OF COMMERCE & ACCOUNTANCY
VIVEKANANDA VIDYALAYA MATRIC HR SEC SCHOOL
PANNAIKADU PIRIVU, KODAIKANAL, DINDIGUL DT.
CELL: 9791324143
EMAIL: npvasu92@gmail.com
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Mrphpah;
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a) Capitalistic Economy b) Socialistic Economy
3. Who is regarded as Father of Modern Macro Economics?
c) Globalisic Economy d) Mixed Economy
a) Adam Smith b) J M Keynes c) Ragnar Frisch d) Karl Marx
17. Quantity of a commodity accumulated at a point of time is termed as ________
4. Identify the other name for Macro Economics.
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a)production b) stock c) variable d) flow
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a) Price Theory b) Income Theory c) Market Theory d) Micro Theory
18. Identify the flow variable.
5. Macro economics is a study of ___________________.
a) money supply b) assets c) income d) foreign exchange reserves
a) individuals b) firms c) a nation d) aggregates
19. Identify the sectors of a Two Sector Model.
a
a
6. Indicate the contribution of J M Keynes to economics.
a) Households and Firms b) Private and Public
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a) Wealth of Nations b) General Theory
c) Internal and External d) Firms and Government
c) Capital d) Public Finance
20. The Circular Flow Model that represents an open Economy.
7. A steady increase in general price level is termed as_____________.
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a) Two Sector Model b) Three Sector Model
a) Wholesale price index b) Business Cycle
c) Four Sector Model d) All the above
c) Inflation d) National Income
a
a
II. Answer the Following Questions in One Or Two Sentences:
8. Identify the necessity of Economic policies.
21. Define Macro Economics.
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a) to solve the basic problems b) to overcome the obstacles
The word ‘Macro’ is derived from the Greek word ‘Makros’ meaning ‘large’.
c) to achieve growth d) all the above
Hence, Macro Economics is the study of the economy as a whole.
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9. Indicate the fundamental economic activities of an economy.
22. Define the term ‘Inflation’.
a) Production and Distribution b) Production and Exchange
A study increase in general price level is called inflation.
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c) Production and Consumption d) Production and Marketing
23. What is meant by an ‘Economy’?
10. An economy consists of
A system by which people earn their living.
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a) Consumption sector b) Production sector
- A.J.Brown
c) Government sector d) All the above 24. Classify the economies based on status of development.
11. Identify the economic system where only private ownership of production exists Developed economics
a) Capitalistic Economy b) Socialistic Economy Developing economics
c) Globalisic Economy d) Mixed Economy Underdeveloped economics
12. Economic system representing equality in distribution is _________. Undeveloped economics
a) Capitalism b) Globalism c) Mixedism d) Socialism
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25. What do you mean by Capitalism? 32. Enumerate the features of mixed economy.
It is the system of total freedom and private ownership of means of production. Ownership of Property and Means of Production
Adam Smith is the ‘Father of Capitalism’. Coexistence of Public and Private Sectors
26. Define ‘Economic Model’. Freedom and Control
It is an explanation of how economy or part of the economy, works. Solution to Economic Problems
27. ‘Circular Flow of Income’ - Define. Economic Planning
It is a model of economy showing connection between different sectors of economy. 33. Distinguish between Capitalism and Globalism.
Such as firms, households, government and nations. S.No Basics Capitalism Globalism
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III. Answer the following questions in about a paragraph: 1 Term Adam smith Manfred D Steger
28. State the importance of Macro Economics. coined by
It’s provides ample opportunities to use scientific investigation to understand the reality. 2 Meaning Production is privately owned and Economic activities of a nation are inter
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It helps to make meaningful comparison and analysis of economic indicators. market determines the economic connected and inter dependent.
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It helps for better prediction about future and to formulate suitable policies to avoid economic activities.
crises. 3 Feature Role of government is minimum and New market ideology connects the
29. Describe the different types of economic systems.
a
a
the market determines the economic nations together through international
Capitalist Economy – Total freedom and private ownership o means of production. activities. trade.
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Socialist Economy – Public ownership of means of production.
Mixed economy – Co-existence of capitalism and Socialism 34. Briefly explain the two sector circular flow model.
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30. Outline the major merits of capitalism. (i) Household Sector:
Automatic Working: The household sector is the sole buyer of goods and services, and the sole supplier of
a
a
Without any government intervention, the economy works automatically. factors of production, i.e., land, labour, capital and organisation.
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The household sector receives income from firm sector by providing the factors of
Efficient Use of Resources:
production owned by it.
All resources are put into optimum use.
(ii) Firms:
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Economic Progress:
The firm sector generates its revenue by selling goods and services to the household
Production and productivity levels are very high in capitalistic economies.
sector.
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31. Indicate the demerits of socialism.
It hires the factors of production, i.e., land, labour, capital and organisation, owned by the
i). Red Tapism and Bureaucracy:
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household sector.
As decisions are taken by government, time delay are approval process may changes of
IV. Answer the following questions in one page:
corruptions.
35. Discuss the scope of Macro Economics.
ii). Absence of Incentive:
i). National Income:
The major limitation of socialism is that this system does not provide any incentive for
Measurement of national income and its composition by sectors are the basic aspects of
efficiency. macroeconomic analysis.
iii). Limited Freedom of Choice: Its composition provides a long term understanding of the growth process of an
economy.
Consumers do not enjoy freedom of choice over the consumption of goods and services.
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ii). Inflation: 38. Compare the feature among Capitalism, Socialism and Mixedism.
A study increase in general price leve
level is called inflation. S.No Basics Capitalism Socialism Mixedism
iii). Business Cycle: 1 Ownership Private ownership Public ownership Private and public
Almost all economies face the problem of business fluctuations and business cycle. 2 Economic motive Profit Social welfare Social welfare and
The cyclical movements in the economy need to be carefully studied based on aggregate profit motive
3 Government role Internal regulation only Complete involvement Limited role
economic variables.
iv). Economic Growth: 4 Income Distribution Unequal Equal Less unequal
The growth and development of an economy and the factors determining them could be 5 Economic freedom Complete freedom Lack of freedom Limited freedom
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understood only through macro analysis.
v). Economic Policies:
Macro Economics is significant for evolving suitable economic policies.
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To solve the basic problems, to overcome the obstacles and to achieve growth.
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36. Illustrate the functioning of an economy based on its activities.
@*@*@*@*@*@
In an economy, the fundamental economic activities are production and consumption.
The ultimate aim of these activities is to
a
a
achieve growth.
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The ‘exchange activity’ supports the
production and consumption activities.
lv
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These activities are influenced by several
economic and non-economic
economic activities.
a
a
The major economic activities include
transportation, banking, advertising,
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planning, government policy and others.
The major non-economic
economic activities
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are environment, health, education,
entertainment, governance, regulations etc
etc.
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37. Compare the features of capitalism and socialism.
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S.No Basics Capitalism Socialism
1 Ownership Private ownership Public ownership
2 Economic motive Profit Social welfare
3 Government role Internal regulation only Complete involvement
4 Income Distribution Unequal Equal
5 Economic freedom Complete freedom Lack of freedom
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19. PQLI is the indicator of ………………
(a) Two (b) Three (c) Five (d) Four
(a) Economic growth (b) Economic welfare
4. Income method is measured by summing up of all forms of ……………
(c) Economic progress (d) Economic development
(a) Revenue (b) Taxes (c) expenditure (d) Income
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20. The largest proportion of national income comes from …….
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5. Which is the largest figure?
(a) Private sector (b) Local sector (c) Public sector (d) None of the above
(a) Disposable income (b) Personal Income (c) NNP (d) GNP
II. Answer the following questions in one or two sentences.
6. Expenditure method is used to estimate national income in …………..
21. Define National Income.
a
a
(a) Construction sector (b) Agricultural Sector
“The labour and capital of country acting on its natural resources produce annually a certain net
(c) Service sector (d) Banking sector
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aggregate of commodities, material and immaterial including services of all kinds.
7. Tertiary sector is also called as ………. sector
This is the true net annual income or revenue of the country or national dividend”.
(a) Service (b) Income (c) Industrial (d) Production
lv
lv
-Alfred Marshall.
8. National income is a measure of the ……… performance of an economy.
22. Write the formula for calculating GNP.
(a) Industrial (b) Agricultural (c) Economic (d) Consumption
a
a
GNP at Market Prices = GDP at Market Prices + Net Factor income from Abroad.
9. Per capita income is obtained by dividing the National income by …………
23. What is the difference between NNP and NDP?
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(a) Production (b) Population of a country (c) Expenditure (d) GNP
S.No Basics NNP NDP
10. GNP = ………. + Net factor income from abroad.
1 Meaning To the value if the net output It is the value of net output of the economy
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(a) NNP (b) NDP (c) GDP (d) Personal income
of the economy during the year. during the year.
11. NNP stands for ……….
2 Formula NNP=GNP-Depreciation NDP = GDP- Depreciation
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(a) Net National Product (b) National Net product
(c) National Net Provident (d) Net National Provident
24. Trace the relationship between GNP and NNP.
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12. ……… is deducted from gross value to get the net value.
(a) Income (b) Depreciation (c) Expenditure (d) Value of final goods S.No Basics GNP NNP
13. The financial year in India is …… 1 Meaning It is the total measure of the flow of To the value if the net output
(a) April 1 to March 31 (b) March 1 to April 30 the final goods and service at market of the economy during the year.
(c) March 1 to March 16 (d) January 1 to December value in a country during a year.
14. When net factor income from abroad is deducted from NNP, the net value is … 2 Formula GNP = GDP + Net factor income NNP=GNP-Depreciation
(a) Gross National Product (b) Disposable Income
(c) Net Domestic Product (d) Personal Income
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25. What do you mean by the term ‘Personal Income’? C - Private consumption expenditure
It is the total income received by the individuals of a country from all sources before I - Private Investment Expenditure
payment of direct taxes in a year. G - Government expenditure
Personal Income = National Income – (Social Security contribution and X-M = Net exports
undistributed corporate profit) + Transfer Payments 32. What is the solution to the problem of double counting in the estimation of national
26. Define GDP deflator. income?
It is an index of price changes of goods and services included in GDP. To avoid double counting either the value of the final output should be taken into the estimate
GDP deflator = Nominal GDP x 100 of GNP or the sum of values added should be taken.
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Real GDP Double counting is to be avoided under the valued added method.
27. Why is self consumption difficult in measuring national income? Any commodity which is either raw material or intermediate goods for the final production
Farmers keep a large portion of food and other goods produced on the farm for self should not be included.
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consumption. 33. Write briefly about national income and welfare.
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The problem is whether that part of the produce which is not sold in the market can be National income is considered as an indicator of the economic wellbeing of a country.
included in national income or not. The economic progress of countries is measured in terms of their GDP per capita and their
III. Answer the following questions in one Paragraph. annual growth rate.
a
a
28. Write a short note on per capita income. A country with a higher per capita income is supposed to enjoy greater economic welfare
ik
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The average income of a person of a country in a particular year is called Per Capita Income. with a higher standard of living.
Per capita income = National income / Population. 34. List out the uses of national income.
lv
lv
29. Differentiate between personal and disposable income. To know the relative importance of the various sectors of the economy and their contribution
a
To formulate he national policies such as monetary policy, fiscal policy and other policy.
1 Meaning It is the total income received by the It is the individuals income after
individuals before payment of direct the payment of income tax. To formulate planning and evaluate plan progress.
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taxes in a year IV. Answer the following questions in about a page.
2 Implication It is never equal to the national income. This is the amount available for 35. Explain the importance of national income.
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households for consumption.
To know the relative importance of the various sectors of the economy and their contribution
3 Formula Personal Income = National income – Disposable income =
towards national income.
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(Social security contribution) + Personal income – Direct tax
To formulate the national policies such as monetary policy, fiscal policy and other policies.
Transfer Payments
30. Explain briefly NNP at factor cost. To formulate planning and evaluate plan progress.
w
Under this method, the total expenditure incurred by the society in a particular year is added 36. Discuss the various methods of estimating the national income of a country.
To calculate the expenditure of a society, GNP = C + I + G + (X-M). It is measures the output of the country.
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It is also called inventory method. 38. Discuss the importance of social accounting in economic analysis.
The gross value of output from different sectors like agriculture, industry, trade and i). In Classifying transaction:
commerce, etc., is obtained for the entire economy during a year. Economic activities in a country involves innumerable transactions relating to buying
Care must be taken to avoid double counting. and selling, paying and receiving income exporting and importing, paying taxes, etc.
ii). Income Method (Factor Earning Method) ii). In Understanding Economic Structure:
This method approaches national income from the distribution side. It helps us to understand the structure of the body economic.
It is calculated by adding up all the incomes generated in the course of producing iii). In Understanding different sector and flows:
national product. It’s throw light on the relative importance of the different sectors and flows in the
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It is also called Factor Earning Method. economy.
iii). Expenditure method. iv). In Clarifying relations between concepts:
The total expenditure incurred by the society in a particular year is added together. It’s help in clarifying the relationships between such related concepts as net national
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To calculate the expenditure of a society, GNP = C + I + G + (X-M). product at factor cost and gross national product at market prices.
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C - Private consumption expenditure I - Private Investment Expenditure v). In Guiding the Investigator:
G - Government expenditure X-M = Net exports Social accounts are a guide for the economic investigator by indicating the type of data
37. What are the difficulties involved in the measurement of national income? which might be collected for analyzing the behavior of the economy.
a
a
i). Transfer payments:
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These are government expenditure.
Government makes payments in the form of pensions, unemployment allowance,
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subsidies, etc. *************
But they are not included in the national income.
a
a
ii). Difficulties in assessing depreciation allowance:
The deduction of depreciation allowances, accidental damages, and repair and
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replacement charges from the national income is not an easy task.
It requires high degree of judgment to assess the depreciation allowance and other
w
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charges.
iii). Unpaid services:
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A housewife renders a number of useful services like preparation of meals, serving,
tailoring, mending, washing, cleaning, bringing up children, etc.
w
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CHAPTER -3 THEORIES OF EMLOYEMENT AND INCOME 12. The component of aggregate demand is ………….
(a) Personal demand (b) Government expenditure
(c) Only export (d) Only import
I. MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
13. Aggregate supply is equal to ………….
1. Every able bodied person who is willing to work at the prevailing wage rate is employed
(a) C + I + G (b) C + S + G + (x-m) (c) C + S + T + (x-m) (d) C + S + T + Rf
called as ……….
14. Keynes theory pursues to replace laissez faire by …………
(a) Full employment (b) Under employment
(a) No government intervention (b) Maximum intervention
(c) Unemployment (d) Employment opportunity
(c) State intervention in certain situation (d) Private sector intervention
2. Structural unemployment is a feature in a ………..
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15. In Keynes theory of employment and income, ……is the basic cause of economic depression.
(a) Static society (b) Socialist society
(a) Less production (b) More demand
(c) Dynamic society (d) Mixed economy
(c) Inelastic supply (d) Less aggregate demand in relation to productive capacity.
3. In disguised unemployment, the marginal productivity of labour is …..
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16. Classical theory advocates ……
da
da
(a) Zero (b) One (c) Two (d) Positive
(a) Balanced budget (b) Unbalanced budget (c) Surplus budget d) Deficit budget
4. The main concention of the Classical Economic Theory is ……..
17. Keynes theory emphasized on …… equilibrium.
(a) Under employment (b) Economy is always in the state of equilibrium
(a) Very short run (b) Short run (c) Very long run (d) Long run
a
a
(c) Demand creates its supply (d) Imperfect competition
18. According to classical theory, rate of interest is a reward for ……
5. J.B. Say is a …………………….
ik
ik
(a) Investment (b) Demand (c) Capital (d) Saving
(a) Neo Classical Economist (b) Classical Economist
19. In Keynes theory , the demand for and supply of money are determined by ….
(c) Modern Economist (d) New Economist
lv
lv
(a) Rate of interest (b) Effective demand
6. According to Keynes, which type of unemployment prevails in capitalist economy
(c) Aggregate demand (d) Aggregate supply
(a) Full employment (b) Voluntary unemployment
a
a
20. Say’s law stressed the operation of …………. in the economy.
(c) Involuntary unemployment (d) Under employment
(a) Induced price mechanism (b) Automatic price mechanism
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7. The core of the classical theory of employment is …………
(c) Induced demand (d) Induced investment
(a) Law of Diminishing Return (b) Law of Demand
II. Answer the following questions in one or two sentences.
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(c) Law of Markets (d) Law of Consumption
21. Define full employment.
8. Keynes attributes unemployment to …………..
Full Employment as the absence of involuntary unemployment.
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(a) A lack of effective supply (b) A lock of effective demand
(c) A lack of both (d) None of the above - Keynes
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9. ………. Flexibility brings equality between saving and investment. 22. What is the main feature of rural unemployment?
(a) Demand (b) Supply (c) Capital d) Interest It is the existence of unemployment in the form of disguised unemployment and seasonal
10. ……theory is a turning point in the development of modern economic theory. unemployment.
(a) Keynes’ (b) Say’s (c) Classical (d) Employment
23. Give short note on frictional unemployment.
11. The basic concept used in Keynes Theory of Employment and Income is……….
It’s arises due to imbalance between supply of labour and demand for labour.
(a) Aggregate demand (b)Aggregate supply
This is because of immobility of labour, lack of necessary skills, break down of machinery,
(c) Effective demand (d) Marginal Propensity Consume
shortage of raw materials etc.
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24. Give reasons for labour retrenchment at present situation. 29. According to classical theory of employment, how wage reduction solve the problem of
It means termination of service of a workman by an employer for any reason whatsoever. unemployment diagrammatically explain.
25. List out the assumptions of Say’s law. Classical economists assumed that full employment condition can be achieved by cutting down
No single buyer or seller of commodity the wag rate.
Full employment
Unemployment would be eliminated when
People are motivated by self interest and economic decisions.
wages are determined by the mechanism of economy.
Money acts only as a medium exchange.
26. What is effective demand? When wage rate is OW then employment is ON,
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Money actually spent by the people on products of industry. as the wage rate us reduced to OW1, then he
The money which entrepreneurs receive is paid in the form of rent, wages, interest and employment is ON1.
profit.
Organization would prefer to hire new employees and more at lower wage rate.
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ED = Y = C + I = Output = Employment
30. Write short note on the implications of Say’s law.
da
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27. What are the components of aggregate supply?
There is no possibility for over production or unemployment.
Aggregate Supply = C + S + T + Rf
As automatic price mechanism operates in the economy, there is no nee
need for government
Consumption expenditure
a
a
intervention.
Private savings
Interest flexibility brings about equality between saving and investment.
ik
ik
Net tax payments
Money performs only the medium of exchange function in the economy
economy.
Personal transfer payments to the foreigners
31. Explain Keynes’ theory in the form of flow chart.
lv
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III. Answer the following questions in a paragraph.
28. Explain the following in short
a
a
(i) Seasonal unemployment (ii) Frictional unemployment
(iii) Educated unemployment
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i). Seasonal unemployment:
Its occurs during certain seasons of the year.
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In agriculture and agro based industries like sugar, production activities are carried out
in some seasons.
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ii). Frictional Unemployment.
It’s arises due to imbalance between supply of labour and demand for labour.
w
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Components: In agriculture and agro based industries like sugar, production activities are carried out
Government expenditure (G) It’s arises due to imbalance between supply of labour and demand for labour.
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It is due to drastic change in the structure of the society.
It refers to the value of total output of goods and services produced in an economy in a year.
36. Critically explain Say’s law of market.
Formula: Aggregate Supply = C + S + T + Rf
i). Says’ Law: “Supply creates its own demand”
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Components:
ii). Explanation off Say’s Market Law
Law:
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Aggregate consumption expenditure (C)
When goods are produced by firms in the economy, they pay reward to the factors of
Aggregate private savings (S)
production.
Net tax payments (T)
The households after receiving rewards of the factors of production spend the amount on
a
a
Personal transfer payments to the foreigners (Rf)
the purchase of goods and services produced by them.
ik
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The figure shows the shape of the two aggregate
iii). Says Law Chart:
supply curves drawn for the assumption of fixed
money wages and variable wages.
lv
lv
Z curve is linear where money wages remains fixed;
Z1 curve is non - linear since wage rate increases with employment.
a
a
34. Write any five differences between Classism and Keynesianism.
.k
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iv). Assumptions:
S.No Keynesianism Classism
No single buyer or seller of commodity or an input can affect price.
1 Short rub equilibrium Long –run
run equilibrium
Full employment.
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2 Saving is a vice Saving is a social virtue
There is wage-price
price flexibility.
3 Macro approach to national problems Micro foundation to macro problems
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Money acts only as a medium of exchange.
4 Demand creates own supply Supply creates own demand
Long - run analysis.
5 Rate of interest is a flow. Rate of interest is a stock
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Criticisms of Say’s Law:
According to Keynes, supply does not create its demand.
IV. Answer the following questions in about page.
35. Describe the types of unemployment. Automatic adjustment process will not remove unemployment.
This unemployment exists during the downturn phase of trade cycle in the economy. Say‟ss law is based on wrong proposition.
ii).
). Seasonal unemployment: Keynes regards full employment as a special case.
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37. Narrate the equilibrium between ADF and ASF with diagram.
i). ADF and ASF:
CHAPTER – 4 CONSUMPTION AND
INVESTMENT FUNCTIONS
Under the Keynes theory of employment a simple two sector economy consisting of the
household sector and the business sector is taken to understand the equilibrium between ADF
I. MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS:
and ASF.
1. The average propensity to consume is measured by
ii). Equations:
a) C/Y b) CxY c) Y/C d) C+Y
Aggregate Demand
d AD = C + I + G + (X – M)
2. An increase in the marginal propensity to consume will:
Aggregate Supply AS = C + S + T + Rf
a) Lead to consumption function becoming steeper
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Effective Demand ED = Y = C + I = Output = Employment
b) Shift the consumption function upwards
iii). Equilibrium Point:
c) Shift the consumption function downwards
Effective Demand = AD = AS
d) Shift savings function upwards
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iv). Diagram:
da
da
3. If the Keynesian consumption function is C=10+0.8 Y then, if disposable income is Rs 1000,
what is amount of total consumption?
a) ₹ 0.8 b) ₹ 800 c) ₹ 810 d) ₹ 0.81
a
4. If the Keynesian consumption function is C=10+0.8Y then, when disposable income is Rs
ik
ik
100, what is the marginal propensity to consume?
a) ₹ 0.8 b) ₹ 800 c) ₹ 810 d) ₹ 0.81
5. If the Keynesian consumption function is C=10+0.8 Y then, and disposable income is Rs. 100,
lv
lv
v). Diagram Explanation:
what is the average propensity to consume?
The aggregate demand and aggregate supply reach equilibrium at point E.
a) ₹ 0.8 b) ₹ 800 c) ₹ 810 d) ₹0.9
a
a
The employment level is No at that point.
6. As national income increases
At ON1 employment, the aggregate supply is N1 R1.
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a) The APC falls and gets nearer in value to the MPC.
But they are able to produce M1 N1.
b) The APC increases and diverges in value from the MPC.
The expected level of profit is M1 R1
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c) The APC stays constant
The equilibrium level of employment need not be the full employment level.
d) The APC always approaches infinity.
It iss understood that the difference between No – Nf is the level of unemployment.
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7. As increase in consumption at any given level of income is likely to lead
38. Explain the differences between Classical theory and Keynes theory.
S.No Basis Classical Theory Keynes Theory a) Higher aggregate demand b) An increase in exports
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c)A fall in taxation revenue d) A decrease in import spending
1 Equilibrium Long run equilibrium Short run equilibrium
8. Lower interest rates are likely to :
2 Savings Saving is a social virtue Saving is a vice
a) Decrease in consumption b) increase cost of borrowing
3 Approach Micro foundation to macro problems
Macro approach to national c) Encourage saving d) increase borrowing and spending
problems
9. The MPC is equal to :
4 Output Supply creates own demand Demand creates own supply
a) Total spending / total consumption b) Total consumption/total income
5 Employment Full employment Unemployment
c) Change in consumption /change in income d) none of the above.
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10. The relationship between total spending on consumption and the total income is the _____ 23. Define average propensity to consume (APC).
a) Consumption function b) Savings function The average propensity to consume is the ratio of consumption expenditure to any particular
c) Investment function d) aggregate demand function level of income.”
11. The sum of the MPC and MPS is _______ APC = C/Y
24. Define marginal propensity to consume (MPC).
a)1 b) 2 c) 0.1 d) 1.1
The marginal propensity to consume may be defined as the ratio of the change in the
12. As income increases, consumption will _________
consumption to the change in income.
a)fall b) not change c) fluctuate d) increase
MPC = ΔC / ΔY
13. When investment is assumed autonomous the slope of the AD schedule is determined by
25. What do you mean by propensity to save?
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the _____
It is the relationship between income and consumption that is when income increases,
a) marginal propensity to invest b) disposable income
consumption also increase.
c) marginal propensity to consume d) average propensity to consume
26. Define average propensity to save (APS).
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14. The multiplier tells us how much __________ changes after a shift in _____
The average propensity to save is the ratio of saving to income.
da
da
a) Consumption , income b) investment, output
It is the ratio of total savings to total income.
c) savings, investment d) output, aggregate demand
APS = S / Y
15. The multiplier is calculated as
a
a
27. Define Marginal Propensity to Save (MPS).
a) 1/(1-MPC) b) 1/MPS c) 1/MPC d) a and b
Marginal Propensity to Save is the ratio of change in saving to a change in income.
ik
ik
16. It the MPC is 0.5, the multiplier is ____________
MPS is obtained by dividing change in savings by change in income.
a) 2 b)1/2 c) 0.2 d) 20
MPS = ΔS / ΔY
lv
lv
17. In an open economy import _________ the value of the multiplier
28. Define Multiplier.
a) Reduces b) increase c) does not change d) changes
The ratio of the change in national income to change in investment.
a
a
18. According to Keynes, investment is a function of the MEC and _____
K =ΔY/ΔI
a) Demand b) Supply c) Income d) Rate of interest
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- J.M Keynes
19. The term super multiplier was first used by
29. Define Accelerator.
a) J.R.Hicks b) R.G.D. Allen c) Kahn d) Keynes
“The accelerator coefficient is the ratio between induced investment and an initial change in
w
w
20. The term MEC was introduced by
consumption.”
a) Adam Smith b) J.M. Keynes c) Ricardo d) Malthus
III. Answer the following questions in one paragraph
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II. Answer the following questions in one or two sentences. 30. State the propositions of Keynes’s Psychological Law of Consumption
21. What is consumption function?
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When income increases, consumption expenditure also increases but by a smaller amount.
It is a functional relationship between two aggregates viz., total consumption and gross The increased income will be divided in some proportion between consumption expenditure
national income. and saving.
C = f (Y) Increase in income always leads to an increase in both consumption and saving.
22. What do you mean by propensity to consume?
31. Differentiate autonomous and induced investment.
Prosperity to consume refers to income consumption relationship.
When income increase consumption also increase. S.No Autonomous Investment Induced Investment
1 Independent Planned
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2 Income inelastic Income elastic IV. Answerr the following questions in a page
3 Welfare motive Profit Motive 36. Explain Keynes psychological law of consumption function with diagram.
32. Explain any three subjective and objective factors influencing the consumption function. i). Meaning:
i). Subjective Factors The law implies that there is a tendency on the part of the people to spend on consumption
less than the full increment of income.
The motive of calculation: The desire to enjoy interest and appreciation.
ii). Assumptions:
The motive of financial independence.
The other variables such as inc
income
ome distribution, tastes, habit,
habit social customs, price
The motive of enterprise (desire to do forward trading).
movements, population growth, etc, do not.
ii). Objective Factors
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The law holds good under normal conditions.
Income distribution:
People may spend the whole of increased income on consumption.
There is large disparity between rich and poor.
The law operates in a rich capital economy where there is no government intervention.
Price level: When the price falls, real income goes up.
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iii). The three propositions of the law:
da
da
Wage level:
Wage level plays an important role in determining the consumption function. Income Consumption Savings
33. Mention the differences between accelerator and multiplier effect (Y) (C) S=Y-C
120 120 0
a
a
S.No Accelerator Multiplier
1 It is the ratio between induced investment The ratio of the change in national income 180 170 10
ik
ik
and an initial change in consumption. to change in investment. 240 220 20
2 Change in consumption expenditure Change in investment forms the effect. iv). Explanations:
lv
lv
forms the effect. Proposition (1):
3 β =ΔI/ΔC K =ΔY/ΔI Income increases by ₹ 60 crores and the increase in consumption is by ₹ 50 crores.
a
a
34. State the concept of super multiplier. Proposition (2):
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The super multiplier is worked out by combining both induced consumption and induced The increased income of ₹ 60 crores in each case is divided in some proportion between
w
It is greater than simple multiplier.
It is K and β integration, Y = C + IA + IP As income increases consumption as well as saving increase. Neither consumption nor
saving has fallen.
w
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35. Specify the limitations of the multiplier.
It assumes that those who earn income are likely to spend a proportion of their additional 37. Briefly explain the subjective and objective factors of consumption function?
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income on consumption. i). Subjective Factors
But in practice people tend to spend their additional income on other items. The motive of precautions: to build up a reserve against unforeseen contingencies.
Such expenses are known as leakage. The motive of foresight: The desire to provide for anticipated future needs.
These leakage are the limitation of multiplier The motive of calculation: The desire to enjoy interest and appreciation.
Payment towards past debts The motive of financial independence.
Purchase of existing wealth The motive of enterprise (desire to do forward trading).
Import of goods and service.
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Meaning: So that total demand for machines is 20.
The multiplier is defined as the ratio of the change in national income to change in It may be noted here a 10 percent increase in demand for consumer goods causes a 100 percent
investment. increase in demand
and for machines
machines.
l
If ΔI stands for increase in investment and ΔY stands for resultant increase in income, Operation of Accelerator.
da
da
the multiplier K =ΔY/ΔI. SS is the saving curve.
The multiplier is the reciprocal of one minus marginal propensity to consume. Since At point E1,, the economy is in equilibrium with OY
OY1.
a
a
marginal propensity to save is 1 - MPC. (MPC+MPS =1). Saving and investment are equal at OI 2.
ik
ik
Multiplier is 1/ MPS. Now, investment is increased from OI
OI2 to OI 4.
The multiplier is therefore defined as reciprocal of MPS. This increases income from OY
OY1 to OY3, the equilibrium point being E3.
lv
lv
Multiplier is inversely related to MPS and directly with MPC. If the increase in investment by II2 I4 is purely exogenous, then the increase in income by Y1 Y3
a
Suppose the Government undertakes investment expenditure equal to Rs.100 crore on But in this diagram it is assumed that exogenous investment is only by II2 I3 and induced
some public works, by way of wages, price of materials etc. investment is by I3 I4.
.k
.k
Thus income of labourers and suppliers of materials increases by Rs.100 crore. Suppose Therefore, increase in income by Y
Y1 Y2 is due to the multiplier effect and the increase in income
w
A sum of Rs.80 crores is spent on consumption . 40. What are the differences between MEC and MEI.
As a result, suppliers of goods get an income of Rs. 80 crores. S.No MEC MEI
w
w
They intern spend Rs.64 crore. 1 It is based on given supply price for capital. It is bases on the induced change in the price
In this manner consumption expenditure and increase in income act in a chain like due to change in the demand for capital.
w
w
2 It represents the rate of return on all It shows the rate of return on just those units
manner.
successive units of capital without regard of capital over and above the existing capital
The final result is ΔY = 100+100×4/5+100 ×[4/5]2+100×[4/5]3 to existing capital. stock
39. Explain the operation of the Accelerator. 3 The capital stock is taken on the X axis of The amount of investment is taken on the X –
diagram. axix of diagram.
Meaning:
4 It is a stock concept It is a flow concept
It is the numerical value of the relation between an increase in consumption and the
5 It determines the optimum capital stock in It determines the net investment of the
resulting increase in investment. an economy at each level of interest rate. economy at each interest rate given the capital
Accelerator (β)= ΔI / ΔC stock.
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CHAPTER – 5 MONETARY ECONOMICS 14. During depression the level of economic activity becomes extremely
(a) high (b) bad (c) low (d) good
I. MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 15. “Money can be anything that is generally acceptable as a means of exchange and that the
1. The RBI Headquarters is located at same time acts as a measure and a store of value”, This definition was given by
(a) Delhi (b) Chennai (c) Mumbai (d) Bengaluru (a) Crowther (b) A.C.Pigou (c) F.A.Walker (d) Francis Bacon
2. Money is 16. Debit card is an example of
(a) acceptable only when it has intrinsic value (b) constant in purchasing power (a) currency (b) paper currency (c) plastic money (d) money
(c) the most liquid of all assets (d) needed for allocation of resources 17. Fisher Quantity Theory of money is based on the essential function of money as
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3. Paper currency system is managed by the (a) measure of value (b) store of value
(a) Central Monetary authority (b) State Government (c) medium of exchange (d) standard of deferred payment
(c) Central Government (d) Banks 18. V in MV = PT equation stands for
l
4. The basic distinction between M1 and M2 is with regard to . (a) Volume of trade (b) Velocity of circulation of money
da
da
(a) post office deposits (b) time deposits of banks (c) Volume of transaction (d) Volume of bank and credit money
(c) saving deposits of banks (d) currency 19. When prices rise slowly, we call it
5. Irving Fisher’s Quantity Theory of Money was popularized in (a) galloping inflation (b) mild inflation
a
a
(a) 1908 (b) 1910 (c) 1911 (d) 1914 (c) hyper inflation (d) deflation
ik
ik
6. MV stands for 20. __________ inflation is in no way dangerous to the economy.
(a) demand for money (b) supply of legal tender money (a) walking (b) running (c) creeping (d) galloping
lv
lv
(c) Supply of bank money (d) Total supply of money II. Answer the following questions in one or two sentences.
7. Inflation means 21. Define Money.
“ Money is, what money does”
a
a
(a) Prices are rising (b) Prices are falling
(c) Value of money is increasing (d) Prices are remaining the same - Walker.
.k
.k
22. What is barter?
8. _________ inflation results in a serious depreciation of the value of money.
Before money was invented the exchange of goods for goods was known as “Barter System”.
(a) Creeping (b) Walking (c) running (d) Hyper
w
w
23. What is commodity money?
9. _________ inflation occurs when general prices of commodities increases due to
It is the value from the commodity by which it is made.
increase in production costs such as wages and raw materials.
w
w
Commodity money has value in itself and value in its use of money.
(a) Cost-push (b) demand pull (c) running (d) galloping
Example: Jewels
10. During inflation, who are the gainers?
w
w
24. What is gold standard?
(a) Debtors (b) Creditors (c) Wage and salary earners (d) Government
It is a system in which the standard currency is directly linked with gold.
11. ___________ is a decrease in the rate of inflation.
25. What is plastic money? Give example.
(a) Disinflation (b) Deflation (c) Stagflation (d) Depression
It is the advanced form of financial products and it is an alternative to cash.
12. Stagflation combines the rate of inflation with
Example: Credit cards, Debit cards, smart cards
(a) Stagnation (b) employment (c) output (d) price
26. Define inflation.
13. The study of alternating fluctuations in business activity is referred to in Economics as
Too much of money chasing too few goods.
(a) Boom (b) Recession (c) Recovery (d) Trade cycle - Coulbourn
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27. What is Stagflation? 32. Explain Demand-pull and Cost push inflation.
Combination of stagnant economic growth, high employment and high inflation. i). Demand-Pull Inflation:
III. Answer the following questions in one paragraph. Demand and supply play a crucial role in deciding the inflation levels in the society at all
28. Write a note on metallic money. points of time.
Some kind of metal either gold or silver is used to determine the standard value of the money For instance, if the demand is high for a product and supply is low, the price of the
Standard coins made out of the metal are the principal coins used under the metallic standard. ii). Cost-Push Inflation:
Their face value is equal to their intrinsic metal value. When the cost of raw materials and other inputs rises inflation results.
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29. What is money supply? Increase in wages paid to labour also leads to inflation.
It means the total amount of money in an economy. 33. State Cambridge equations of value of money.
It refers to the amount of money which s in circulation in an economy at any given time. i) Marshall’s Equation
l
Money supply plays a crucial role in the determination of price level and interest rates. The Marshall equation is expressed as: M = KPY
da
da
30. What are the determinants of money supply? Where
The ratio of money held by the public in currency to that they hold in bank deposits. Y is the aggregate real income of the community
a
a
ii). Reserve Deposit Ratio: P is Purchasing Power of money
ik
ik
Vault cash in banks K represents the fraction of the real income
Deposits of commercial banks with RBI. The value of money is 1/P = KY/M
lv
lv
iii). Cash Reserve Ratio: ii) Keynes’ Equation
It is the fraction of the deposits the banks must keep with RBI. Keynes equation is expressed as: n = pk (or) p = n / k
a
a
31. Write the types of inflation. Where
.k
Creeping inflation p is the general price level of consumption goods
Walking inflation k is the total quantity of consumption units
w
w
Running inflation Keynes indicates that K is a real balance, because it is measured in terms of consumer
w
ii). On the basis of Demand and Cost: 34. Explain disinflation.
Demand - Pull inflation It is the slowing down the rate of inflation by controlling the amount of credit available to
w
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P = MV + M1V1
M i) Basis of the Credit System:
T Money is the basis of the Credit System.
The quantity of money in circulation ‘M’
Business transactions are either in cash or on credit.
The velocity of circulation of money ‘V’
l
ii) Money facilitates distribution of National Income:
The volume of bank credit money M1
da
M
da
The task of distribution of national income was exceedingly complex under the barter
The velocity of circulation of credit money V1
V
system.
and the volume of trade (T)
(
D. Other Functions
a
a
Figure (A):
i) Money helps to maintain Repayment Capacity:
It shows the effect of changes in the quantity of
ik
ik
To maintain its repayment capacity, every firm has to keep assets in the form of liquid
money on the price level. When the quantity of
cash.
money is OM, the price level is OP.
lv
lv
ii) Money represents Generalized Purchasing Power:
When the quantity of money is doubled to OM2, the price level is also doubled to OP2.
Purchasing power kept in terms of money can be put to any use.
Further, when the quantity of money is increased four
four-fold
fold to OM4, the price level also
a
a
increases by four times to OP
OP4. 37. What are the causes and effects of inflation on the economy?
Figure (B): Causes:
.k
.k
It shows the inverse relation between the quantity of money and the value of money, i) Increase in Money Supply:
where the value of money is taken on the vertical axis. Inflation is caused by an increase in the supply of money which leads to increase in
w
w
With
ith the quantity of money increasing by four
four-fold
fold to OM4, the value of money is aggregate demand.
reduced by OI / P4. ii) Increase in Disposable Income:
w
w
This inverse relationship between the quantity of money and the value of money is When the disposable income of the people increases, it raises their demand for goods and
shown by downward sloping curve I O / P = f(M). services.
w
The
he quality of general acceptability, and all exchang
exchanges
es take place in terms. The policy of credit expansion also leads to increase in the money supply
Money
oney is that it measures the value of goods and services. a. Effects on Production:
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The profit due to rising prices encourages and induces business class to increase their
CHAPTER – 6 BANKING
investments in production, leading to generation of employment and income.
b. Effects on Distribution I. MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. A Bank is a
i) Debtors and Creditors:
a) Financial institution b) Corporate c) An Industry d) Service institutions
During inflation, debtors are the gainers while the creditors are losers.
2. A Commercial Bank is an institutions that provides services
ii. Investors:
a) Accepting deposits b) Providing loans c) Both a and b d) None of the above
The investors, who generally invest in fixed interest yielding bonds and securities have
3. The Functions of commercial banks are broadly classified into
much to lose during inflation.
a) Primary Functions b) Secondary functions c) Other functions d) a, b, and c
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38. Describe the phases of Trade cycle.
4. Bank credit refers to
i) Boom: a) Bank Loans b) Advances c) Bank loans and advances d) Borrowings
The movement of the economy beyond full employment is characterized as boom period. 5. Credit creation means.
l
During this period money wages rise, profits increase and interest rates go up.
da
da
a) Multiplication of loans and advances b) Revenue
ii) Recession: c) Expenditure d) Debt
The turning point from boom condition is called recession. 6. NBFI does not have.
This happens at higher rate, than what was earlier.
a
a
a) Banking license b) government approval
iii) Depression: c) Money market approval d) Finance ministry approval
ik
ik
The level of economic activity becomes extremely low. 7. Central bank is --------------- authority of any country.
Interest prices, profits and wages are low. a) Monetary b) Fiscal c) Wage d) National Income
lv
lv
The agricultural class and wage earners would be worst hit. 8. Who will act as the banker to the Government of India?
Depression is the worst phase of the business cycle. a) SBI b) NABARD c) ICICI d) RBI
a
a
iv. Recovery: 9. Lender of the last resort is one of the functions of.
This is the turning point from depression to revival towards upswing.
.k
.k
a) Central Bank b) Commercial banks c) Land Development Banks d) Co-operative banks
It begins with the revival of demand for capital goods. 10. Bank Rate means.
Autonomous investments boost the activity.
w
w
a) Re-discounting the first class securities b) Interest rate
Recovery may be initiated by innovation or investment or by government expenditure. c) Exchange rate d) Growth rate
w
w
11. Repo Rate means.
a) Rate at which the Commercial Banks are willing to lend to RBI
w
w
@*@*@*@*@*@ b) Rate at which the RBI is willing to lend to commercial banks
c) Exchange rate of the foreign bank d) Growth rate of the economy
12. Moral suasion refers.
a) Optimization b) Maximization c) Persuasion d) Minimization
13. ARDC started functioning from
a) June 3, 1963 b) July 3, 1963 c) June 1, 1963 d) July 1, 1963
14. NABARD was set up in.
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a) July 1962 b) July 1972 c) July 1982 d) July 1992 25. Write the meaning of Open market operations
15. EXIM bank was established in. In narrow sense, the Central Bank starts the purchase and sale of Government securities in
a) June 1982 b) April 1982 c) May 1982 d) March 1982 the money market.
16. The State Financial Corporation Act was passed by In Broad Sense, the Central Bank purchases and sells not only Government securities but
a) Government of India b) Government of Tamilnadu also other proper eligible securities like bills and securities of private concerns.
c) Government of Union Territories d) Local Government. 26. What is rationing of credit?
17. Monetary policy his formulated by. This is the oldest method of credit card
a) Co-operative banks b)Commercial banks It aims to control and regulate the purposes for which credit is granted by commercial
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c) Central Bank d) Foreign banks banks.
18. Online Banking is also known as. 27. Manson the functions of agriculture credit department.
a) E-Banking b) Internet Banking c) RTGS d) NEFT To maintain an expert staff to study all questions on agricultural credit.
l
19. Expansions of ATM. To provide expert advice to central and state government state cooperative banks
da
da
a) Automated Teller Machine b) Adjustment Teller Machine and other banking activities.
c) Automatic Teller mechanism d) Any Time Money III. Answer the following questions in about a paragraph
20. 2016 Demonetization of currency includes denominations of 28. Write the mechanism of credit creation by commercial banks.
a
a
a) Rs. 500 and Rs. 1000 b) Rs.1000 and Rs. 2000 Credit creation means the multiplication of loans and advances.
ik
ik
c) Rs. 200 and Rs. 500 d) All the above Banks have the power to expand or contact demand deposits and they exercise this
II. Answer the following questions in one or two sentences power through granting more or less loans and advances and acquiring other assets.
lv
lv
21. Define Commercial banks. This power of commercial bank to create deposits through expanding their loans and
These are the institutions that make short term loans to business and in the process create advances is known as credit creation
a
a
money. 29. Give a brief note on NBFI.
22. What is credit creation? A non banking financial institution is a financial institution that does not have a full banking
.k
.k
It means the multiplication of loans and advances. license or is not supervised by the central bank.
Commercial banks receive deposits from the public and use these deposits to give loans. It’s do not carry on pure banking business, but they will carry on other financial
w
w
23. Define Central bank. transactions.
It is an institution that manages a state’s currency, money supply, and interest rates. It can be broadly classified into two categories. i). Stockxchange ii). Other financial
w
w
Central banks also usually oversee the commercial banking system. Institutions.
24. Distinguish between CRR and SLR. 30. Bring out the methods of credit control.
w
S.No
1
2
CRR
The commercial Bank has to
maintain reserve with the RBI
Selective
i). Rationing of credit
ii). Direct action
iii). Variable Cash Reserve Ratio iii) Moral suasion
in the economy iv). Publicity
v). Regulation of Consumer Credit
vi). Marginal Requirements
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Industrial Finance Corporation of India provides assistance to the industrial concern. right type of persons.
Long term loans both rupees and foreign currencies. For the economic development of the country.
Underwriting of equality, preference and debenture issues. v). Employment Generation
l
After the nationalization of big banks, banking industry has grown to a great extent.
33. Distinguish between money market and capital market.
da
da
Bank’s branches are opened frequently, which leads to the creation of new employment
S.No Basis Money Market Capital Market
opportunities.
1 Meaning The mechanism through which System which is concerned with raising
36. Elucidate the functions of Commercial Banks.
a
a
Short term funds are loaned and capital by dealing in share, Bonds and
A). Primary Function:
ik
ik
borrowed other long term investments.
i). Accepting Deposits:
2 Financial Treasury Bills, Commercial Papers, Shares, Debenture, Bonds, Retained
It implies that commercial banks are mainly dependent on public deposits.
Instruments Certificate Of Deposits, Trade Credit Earnings, Asset Securitization.
lv
lv
There are two types of deposits which are discussed as follows
3 Institutions Central bank, Commercial Bank Commercial bank, Stock Exchange Demand Deposit
34. Mention the objectives of demonetizations.
a
a
Time Deposit
Meaning: ii). Advancing Loans:
.k
.k
It is the act of stripping a currency unit of its status as legal tender. It refers to granting loans to individuals and business.
It occurs whenever there is a change of national currency Commercial bank grants loans in the form of overdraft, cash credit, and discounting
w
w
Objectives of Demonetization bills of exchange.
Removing Black Money from the country. B. Secondary Function:
w
w
Stopping of Corruption. i). Agency Function:
Stopping Terror Funds. It implies that commercial banks act as agents of customers by performing various
w
w
Curbing Fake Notes functions.
IV. Answer the following questions in one page College Cheques
35. Explain the role of Commercial Banks in economic development. Collecting Income
i). Capital Formation: Paying Expenses
Banks play an important role in capital formation, which is essential for the economic ii). General Utility Functions:
development of a country. Providing Locker Facilities
Issuing Travelers Cheque
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iii). Transferring funds: It was regarded as socially dangerous, economically wasteful and morally deplorable.
It refers to transferring of funds from one bank to another. 5. Economic Growth
Funds are transferred by means of draft, telephonic transfer, and electronic transfer. It is the process whereby the real per capita income of a country increases over a long
C).Other Functions: period of time.
Money Supply It implies an increase in the total physical or real output.
Credit Creation
37. Describe the functions of Reserve Bank of India.
@*@*@*@*@
i). Monetary Authority:
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It controls the supply of money in the economy to stabilize exchange rate, maintain
healthy balance of payment, attain financial stability, control inflation.
ii). The issuer of currency:
l
The objective is to maintain the currency and credit system of the country.
da
da
It is the sole authority to issue currency.
It also takes action to control the circulation of fake currency.
iii). The issuer of Banking License:
a
a
As per Sec 22 of Banking Regulation Act, every bank has to obtain a banking license
ik
ik
from RBI to conduct banking business in India.
iv). Banker to the Government:
lv
lv
It acts as banker both to the central and the state governments.
It provides short-term credit.
a
a
5. Banker’s Bank:
RBI is the bank of all banks in India as it provides loan to banks, accept the deposit of
.k
.k
banks, and rediscount the bills of banks.
38. What are the objectives of Monetary Policy? Explain.
w
w
1. Neutrality of Money:
That monetary authority should aim at neutrality of money in the economy.
w
w
Monetary changes could be the root cause of all economic fluctuations.
2. Exchange Rate Stability:
w
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12. If there is an imbalance in the trade balance (more imports than exports), it can be reduced
CHAPTER – 7 INTERNATIONAL BUSINESS by
a) Decreasing customs duties b) increasing export duties
I. MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS:
c) Stimulating exports d) stimulating imports
1. Trade between two countries is known as ………….trade
13. BOP includes
a) External b) Internal c) Inter-regional d) Home
a) Visible items only b) invisible items only
2. Which of the following factors influence trade?
c) Both visible and invisible items d) merchandise trade only
a) The stage of development of a product b) The relative price of factors of productions.
14. Components of balance of payments of a country includes
c) Government. d) All of the above.
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a) Current account b) Official account c) Capital account d) All of above
3. International trade differs from domestic trade because of
15. In the case of BOT,
a) Trade restrictions b) Immobility of factors
a) Transactions of goods are recorded.
c) Different government policies d) All the above
l
b) Transactions of both goods and services are recorded.
da
da
4. In general, a primary reason why nations conduct international trade is because
c) Both capital and financial accounts are included. d) All of these
a) Some nations prefer to produce one thing while others produce another
16. Tourism and travel are classified in which of balance of payments accounts?
b) Resources are not equally distributed among all trading nations
a)merchandise trade account b) services account
a
a
c) Trade enhances opportunities to accumulate profits
c)unilateral transfers account d) capital account
d) Interest rates are not identical in all trading nations
ik
ik
17. Cyclical disequilibrium in BOP occurs because of
5. Which of the following is a modern theory of international trade?
a) Different paths of business cycle.
a) Absolute cost b) comparative cost c) Factor endowment theory d) none of these
lv
lv
b) The income elasticity of demand or price elasticity of demand is different.
6. Exchange rates are determined in
c) long-run changes in an economy d) Both (a) and (b).
a) Money market b) foreign exchange market
a
a
18. Which of the following is not an example of foreign direct investment?
c) Stock market d) capital market
a) the construction of a new auto assembly plant overseas
.k
.k
7. Exchange rate for currencies is determined by supply and demand under the system of
b) the acquisition of an existing steel mill overseas
a) Fixed exchange rate b) Flexible exchange rate
c) the purchase of bonds or stock issued by a textile company overseas
w
w
c) Constant d) Government regulated
d) the creation of a wholly owned business firm overseas
8. Net export equals ……
19. Foreign direct investments not permitted in India
w
w
a) Export x Import b) Export + Import
a) Banking b) Atomic energy c) Pharmaceutical d) Insurance
c) Export – Import d) Exports of services only
20 Benefits of FDI include, theoretically
w
w
9. Who among the following enunciated the concept of single factoral terms of trade?
a) Boost in Economic Growth b) Increase in the import and export of goods and services
a) Jacob Viner b) G.S.Donens c) Taussig d) J.S.Mill
c) Increased employment and skill levels d) All of these
10. Terms of Trade of a country show ……………
II. Answer the following questions. Each question carries 2 marks.
a) Ratio of goods exported and imported b) Ratio of import duties
21. What is International Economics?
c) Ratio of prices of exports and imports d) Both (a) and (c)
It is that branch of economics which is concerned with the exchange of goods and services
11. Favorable trade means values of exports are ……. Than that of imports.
between two or more countries.
a) More b) Less c) More or Less d) Not more than
22. Define international trade.
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To the trade exchange of goods and services between two or more countries. trade.
It is also called as external trade or foreign trade S.No Classical Theory Modern Theory
23. State any two merits of trade. 1 The phenomenon of international trade on The phenomenon of international trade on
Trade is one of the powerful forces of economic integration. the basis of labor theory of value. the basis of general theory of value.
It brings foreign exchange to our country. 2 Labour Labour and capital
24. What is the main difference between Adam Smith and Ricardo with regard to the 3 It attributes the differences in the It attributes the difference in comparative
emergence of foreign trade? comparative costs to differences in the costs to the difference in factor endowments
Adam Smith Ricardo productive efficiency of workers in the two in the two countries.
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The basis of international trade was A country can gain from trade countries.
absolute cost advantage. When it produces at relatively lower costs.
30. Explain the Net Barter Terms of Trade and Gross Barter Terms of Trade.
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25. Define Terms of Trade. S.No Net Barter Terms Gross Barter Terms
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It is the rate at which the goods of one country are exchanged for goods of another country. 1 The ratio between the prices of exports and It is an index of relationship between total
26. What do you mean by balance of payments? of imports. It is named viner as the physical quantity of imports and the total
It is a systematic record of a country’s economic and financial transaction with the rest of the commodity terms of trade. physical quantity of exports.
a
a
world over a period of a time. 2 Tn = (Px/Pm) x 100 Tg = (Qm/Qx) x 100
ik
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27. What is meant by Exchange Rate?
31. Distinguish between Balance of Trade and Balance of Payments.
It is the price paid in the home currency for a unit of foreign currency that is the rate at
S.No Balance of Trade Balance of Payments
lv
lv
which one currency is exchanged for another currency.
1 It refer the total value of countries export It is a systematic record of a country economic
III. Answer the following questions. Each question carries 3 marks.
commodities and import commodities. and financial transaction with rest of world over
a
a
28. Describe the subject matter of International Economics.
a period.
i). Pure Theory of Trade
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2 It can be favorable, unfavorable or Balance Both receipts and payments side should tallies.
This explains the causes for foreign trade, volume of trade, balance of trade and balance
3 It is a component of current account of It is a components are current account and
of payments.
a balance of payments. capital account
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ii). Policy Issues
32. What are import quotas?
It covers the policy issues like methods of regulating trade, use of taxation, foreign aid,
It is a quantitative limit fixed on the import of some type of goods.
w
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foreign direct investment, disequilibrium in the balance of payments.
It may be fixed either interms of quantity or the value of the product.
iii). International Cartels and Trade Blocs
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This is imposed to conserve foreign exchange or product domestic consumption.
It deals with the economic integration in the form of customs unions, monetary unions,
33. Write a brief note on flexible exchange rate.
and operation of MNCs.
It is also known as floating exchange rate.
Under this system exchange rate are freely determined in an open market by market force of
demand and supply.
Market prices that vary day to day.
34. State the objectives of Foreign Direct Investment.
29. Compare the Classical Theory of international trade with Modern Theory of International
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Sales expansion India should concentrate on the production of wheat in which she enjoys a comparative
Acquisition of resource cost advantage.
Diversification America will specialize in the production of cloth and export it to India in exchange for
Minimization of competitive risk. wheat.
IV. Answer the following questions. Each question carries 5 marks. With trade, India can get 1 unit of cloth and 1 unit of wheat by using its 160 la
labour units.
35. Discuss the differences between Internal Trade and International Trade. With trade, America can get 1 unit of cloth and one unit of wheat by using its 200 units of
S.No Internal Trade International Trade labour.
1 It takes place between different individuals It takes place between different individuals 37. Discuss the Modern Theory of International Trade.
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and firm within the same nation. and firms in different countries. i). Factor endowment model
2 Labour and capital move freely from one Labour and capital don’t move freely from one Developed by Heckscher and Ohlin
region to another. region to another. Countries with a relative factor abundance can specialize and trade
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3 There is no restriction There are no of restriction Abundance of skilled labour → specialization → export → exchange for goods are services
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4 This only one common currency There are different currency produced by countries with abundance of unskilled labour
5 Trade and financial regulations are more or Trade and financial regulations are different ii). The Theory
less the same. between countries. Difference
ifference in the endowm
endowments
ents of factors of production between countries.
countries
a
a
Differences
ifferences in the factor proportions required in production.
ik
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36. Explain briefly the Comparative Cost Theory.
Meaning:
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lv
A country can gain from trade when it produces at relatively lower costs.
- Ricardo
a
a
Even when a country enjoys absolute advantage in both goods, the country would specialize
in the production and export of those goods which are relatively more advantageous.
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Similarly, even when a country has absolute disadvantage in production of both goods, the
country would specialize in production and export of the commodity in which it is Assumptions
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relatively less disadvantageous. There are two countries, two commodities and two factors. (2x2x2 model)
Assumptions Countries differ in factor endowments.
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There are only two nations and two co
commodities. Commodities are categorized in terms of factor intensity.
Labour is the only element of cost of production. Countries use same production technology.
w
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i). Net Barter Terms of Trade: Official reserve transactions consist of movements of international reserves by
The ratio between the prices of exports and of imports is called the “net barter terms of governments and official agencies to accommodate imbalances arising from the current
trade’. and capital accounts.
It is named by Viner as the ‘commodity terms of trade’. 40. Discuss the various types of disequilibrium in the balance of payments.
It is expressed as: Tn= (Px / Pm) x 100 i). Cyclical Disequilibrium:
Where, Two
wo countries may be passing through different phases of business cycle.
Tn = Net Barter Terms of Trade Tthe elasticity’s of demand may differ between countries.
Px = Index number of export prices ii). Secular Disequilibrium:
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Pm = Index number of import prices The secular or long-run
run disequilibrium in BOP occurs because of long
long-run.
ii). Gross Barter Terms of Trade In the initial stages of development, domestic investment exceeds domestic savings and
It is an index of relationship between total physical quantity of imports and the total imports exceed
ceed exports, as it happens in India since 1951.
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physical quantity of exports. iii). Structural Disequilibrium:
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It is expressed as: Tg= (Qx/Qm) x 100 Structural changes in the economy may also cause such
uch structural changes include
Where, development of alternative sources of supply, development of better substitutes,
Qm = Index of import quantities
a
a
exhaustion of productive resources or changes in transport routes and costs.
Qx = Index of export quantities 41. How the Rate of Exchange is determined? Illustrate.
ik
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iii). Income Terms of Trade Rate of Exchange is determined:
It is the index of the value of exports divided by the price index for imports multiplied The equilibrium rate of exchange is determined in the foreign exchange market in
lv
lv
by quantity index of experts. accordance with
th the general theory of value.
It is expressed as: Ty = (Px / Pm)Qx The
he interaction of the forces of demand and supply.
a
a
Where, Thus, the rate of exchange is determined at the point where demand for forex is equal to
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Px = Price index of exports the supply of forex.
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Qx = Quantity index of exports
39. Bring out the components of balance of payments account. dollars.
X axis represents demand
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i) The Current Account:
It includes all international trade transactions of goods and services, international service and supply of forex.
w
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transactions and international unilateral transfers. E is the point of equilibrium where DD
42. Explain the relationship between Foreign Direct Investment and economic development.
iii) The Official Reserve Assets Account:
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requirements. And thereby ease BOP disequilibrium. a) IMF b) World Bank c) ASEAN d) International Finance Corporation
Foreign investment may also help increase competition and break domestic monopolies. 4. The other name for Special Drawing Rights is
a) Paper gold b) Quotas c) Voluntary Export Restrictions d) None of these
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@*@*@*@*@*@*@ 5. The organization which provides long term loan is
da
da
a) World Bank b) International Monetary Fund
c) World Trade Organisation d) BRICS
6. Which of the following countries is not a member of SAARC?
a
a
a) Sri Lanka b) Japan c) Bangladesh d) Afghanistan
ik
ik
7. International Development Association is an affiliate of
a) IMF b) World Bank c) SAARC d) ASEAN
lv
lv
8. ---------- relates to patents, copyrights, trade secrets, etc.,
a) TRIPS b) TRIMS c) GATS d) NAMA
a
a
9. The first ministerial meeting of WTO was held at
a) Singapore b) Geneva c) Seattle d) Doha
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10. ASEAN meetings are held once in every __________ years
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5
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11. Which of the following is not the member of SAARC?
a) Pakistan b) Sri Lanka c) Bhutan d) China
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12. SAARC meets once in ----------- years.
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5
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b) 2005
c) Colombo
c) 2008
d) Tokyo
d) 2010
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16. The Tenth BRICS Summit was held in July 2018 at III. Answer the following questions (3 marks):
a) Beijing b) Moscow c) Johannesburg d) Brasilia 28. Mention the various forms of economic integration.
17. New Development Bank is associated with i). Economic integration
a) BRICS b) WTO c) SAARC d) ASEAN It takes the form of Free Trade Area, Customs Union, Common Market and Economic
18. Which of the following does not come under ‘Six dialogue partners’ of ASEAN? Union.
a) China b) Japan c) India d) North Korea ii)). A free trade area
19. SAARC Agricultural Information Centre (SAIC) works as a central information It is the region encompassing a trade bloc whose member countries have signed a free-
institution for agriculture related resources was founded on trade agreement (FTA).
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a) 1985 b) 1988 c) 1992 d)1998 iii). A customs union
20. BENELUX is a form of It is a type of trade block which is composed of a free trade area with no tariff among
a) Free trade area b) Economic Union c) Common market d) Customs union members and with a common external tariff.
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II. Answer the following questions (2 marks) Ex; BENELUX (Belgium, Netherland and Luxumbuarg).
da
da
21. Write the meaning of Special Drawing rights. 29. What are trade blocks?
They are form of international reserves created by IMF in 1969 to solve the problem of Some countries create business opportunities for themselves by integrating their economies in
a
It is also called as paper gold. Trade blocks cover different kinds of arrangements between or among countries for mutual
ik
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22. Mention any two objectives of ASEAN. benefit.
To accelerate the economic growth, social progress and cultural development in the region. Economic integration takes the form of Free Trade Area, Customs Union, Common Market and
lv
lv
To promote regional peace and stability and adherence to the principles of the United Economic Union.
a
23. Point out any two ways in which IBRD lends to member countries. Basic Credit Facility:
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Loans out of borrowed capital. Compensatory Financing Facility
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A group formed by countries within a geographical area to promote duty free trade and free Supplementary Financing Facility
movement of labour and capital among its members. 31. What is Multilateral Agreement?
w
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25. What is Free trade area? It is a multinational legal or trade agreements between countries.
It is the region encompassing a trade bloc whose member countries have signed a free-trade It is an agreement between more than two countries but not many.
w
agreement (FTA).
26. When and where was SAARC Secretariat established?
SAARC secretariat was established in Kathmandu (Nepal) on 16th January 1987.
27. Specify any two affiliates of World Bank Group.
w The agreements reduce tariffs and make it easier for business to import and export.
32. Write the agenda of BRICS Summit, 2018.
Inclusive growth
Trade issues
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33. State briefly the functions of SAARC. 37. Discuss the role of WTO in India’s socio economic development.
Maintenance of the cooperation in the region. By reducing tariff on raw materials, components and capital goods, it was able to import
Prevention of common problems associated with the member nations. more.
Ensuring strong relationship among the member nations. India gets market access in several countries without any bilateral trade agreements.
34. List out the achievements of ASEAN. Advanced technology has been obtained at cheaper cost.
The main achievement of ASEAN has been the maintenance of an uninterrupted period of India is in a better position to get quick redressal from the trade disputes.
peace and stability. The Indian exporters benefited from wider market information.
ASEAN’s modernization efforts have brought about changes in the region’s structure of 38. Write a note on a) SAARC b) BRICS
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production. a) SAARC
It has been the fourth largest trading entry in the world. The South Asian Association for Regional Co-operation is an organisation of South
IV. Answer the following questions (5 marks) Asian nations, which was established on 8 December 1985.
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35. Explain the objectives of IMF. The SAARC Group comprises of Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, The Maldives, Nepal,
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To promote international monetary cooperation among the member nations. Pakistan and Sri Lanka.
To facilitate faster and balanced growth of international trade. In April 2007, Afghanistan became its eighth member.
To eliminate or reduce exchange controls imposed by member nations. To accelerate the process of economic and social development of member states
a
a
To promote the flow of capital from developed to developing nations. through joint action in the agreed areas of cooperation.
ik
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To solve the problem of international liquidity. The SAARC Secretariat was established in Kathmandu (Nepal) on 16th January 1987.
36. Bring out the functions of World Bank. b) BRICS
lv
lv
i. Investment for productive purposes BRICS is the acronym for an association of five major emerging national economies:
The World Bank performs the function of assisting in the reconstruction and development Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa.
a
a
of territories of member nations through facility of investment for productive purposes. Its headquarter is at Shanghai, China.
ii. Balanced growth of international trade The new development bank formed the BRICS development bank was established by
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Promoting the long range balanced growth of trade at international level and the BRICS states.
maintaining equilibrium in BOPs of member nations by encouraging international The BRICS countries make up 21 percent of global GDP.
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investment. They have increased their share of global GDP threefold in the past 15 years.
iii. Provision of loans and guarantees The BRICS are home to 43 percent of the world population.
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Arranging the loans or providing guarantees on loans by various other channels so as to
execute important projects. ****************
w
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c) Welfare state d) Police state b) An excess of government’s current expenditure over its current revenue
2. One of the following is NOT a feature of private finance c) An excess of government’s total expenditure over its total revenue
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c) Saving some part of income d) Publicity 15. Methods of repayment of public debt is
3. The tax possesses the following characteristics a) Conversion b) Sinking fund c) Funded debt d) All these
a) Compulsory b) No quid pro quo 16. Conversion of public debt means exchange of
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c) Failure to pay is offence d) All the above a) new bonds for the old ones b) low interest bonds for higher interest bonds
da
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4. Which of the following canons of taxation was not listed by Adam smith? c) Long term bonds for short term bonds d) All the above
a) Canon of equality b) Canon of certainty 17. The word budget has been derived from the French word “bougette” which means
c) Canon of convenience d) Canon of simplicity a) A small bag b) An empty box c) A box with papers d) None of the above
a
a
5. Consider the following statements and identify the correct ones. 18. Which one of the following deficits does not consider borrowing as a receipt?
ik
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i. Central government does not have exclusive power to impose tax which is not mentioned a) Revenue deficit b) Budgetary deficit c) Fiscal deficit d) Primary deficit
ii. The Constitution also provides for transferring certain tax revenues from union list to states. 19. Finance Commission determines
lv
lv
a) i only b) ii only c) both d) none a) The finances of Government of India b) The resources transfer to the states
6. GST is equivalence of c) The resources transfer to the various departments d) None of the above
a
a
a) Sales tax b) Corporation tax c) Income tax d) Local tax 20. Consider the following statements and identify the right ones.
i. The finance commission is appointed by the President
7. The direct tax has the following merits except
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ii. The tenure of Finance commission is five years
a) equity b) convenient c) certainty d) civic consciousness a) i only b) ii only c) both d) none
8. Which of the following is a direct tax? II. Two mark questions
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a) Excise duty b) Income tax c) Customs duty d) Service tax 21. Define public finance.
9. Which of the following is not a tax under Union list? Public finance is an investigation into the nature and principles of the state revenue and
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a) Personal Income Tax b) Corporation Tax expenditure.
- Adam smith
c) Agricultural Income Tax d) Excise duty
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22. What is public revenue?
10. “Revenue Receipts” of the Government do not include
Public revenue deals with the methods of raising public revenue such as tax and non-tax.
a) Interest b) Profits and dividents c) Recoveries and loans d) Rent from property
23. Differentiate tax and fee.
11. The difference between revenue expenditure and revenue receipts is
Basis Tax Fees
a. Revenue deficit b. Fiscal deficit c. Budget deficit d. Primary deficit
Meaning It is a compulsory payment by the citizens to the It is charged by public authorities for
12. The difference between total expenditure and total receipts including loans and other government to meet the public expenditure. rendering a service to the citizens.
liabilities is called Compulsion It is legally imposed by the government on the tax There is no compulsion involved in
a. Fiscal deficit b. Budget deficit c. Primary deficit d. Revenue deficit
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24. Write a short note on zero based budget. A tax is a compulsory payment made to the government.
It involves fresh evaluation of expenditure in the Government budget, assuming it as a new Every tax involves some sacrifice on part of the tax payer.
item. A tax is not levied as a fine or penalty for breaking law.
The review has been made to provide justification. 33. Point out any three differences between direct tax and indirect tax.
25. Give two examples for direct tax. Basis Direct Tax Indirect Tax
Corporation Tax Income Tax Meaning It is referred to as the tax, levied on It is referred to as the tax levied on a person
26. What are the components of GST? persons income and wealth. who consumes the goods and services.
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CGST: Collected by the Central Government on an intra-state sale Nature Progressive Regressive
SGST: Collected by the State Government on an intra-state sale Impact Falls on the same person Falls on the different persons
IGST: Collected by the Central Government for inter-state sale 34. What is primary deficit?
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27. What do you mean by public debt?
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Primary deficit is equal to fiscal deficit minus interest payments.
It deals with the methods of raising loans from internal and external sources. It shows the real burden of the government and it does not include the interest
III. Three mark questions: burden on loans taken in the past.
a
29. Describe canons of Taxation. Primary Deficit (PD) = Fiscal deficit (PD) - Interest Payment (IP)
i. Canon of Ability: 35. Mention any three methods of redemption of public debt.
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The Government should impose tax in such a way that the people have to pay taxes i). Sinking Fund
according to their ability. The Government establishes a separate fund known as “Sinking Fund”.
lv
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ii. Canon of Certainty: The Government credits every year a fixed amount of money to this fund.
The Government must ensure that there is no uncertainty regarding the rate of tax or the ii). Conversion
a
a
time of payment. Conversion of loans is another method of redemption of public debt.
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iii. Canon of Convenience: It means that an old loan is converted into a new loan.
The method of tax collection and the timing of the tax payment should suit the iii). Budgetary Surplus
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convenience of the people. When the Government presents surplus budget, it can be utilized for repaying the debt.
30. Mention any three similarities between public finance and private finance. IV. Five mark questions:
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Rationality: Both public finance and private finance are based on rationality 37. Explain the scope of public finance.
Limit to borrowing: Both have to apply restraint with regard to borrowing. i). Public Revenue:
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Resource utilization: Both the private and public sectors have limited resources. The methods of raising public revenue such as tax and non-tax, the principles of taxation,
31. What are the functions of a modern state? rates of taxation, impact, incidence and shifting of taxes and their effects.
Creating economic and social overhead. ii). Public Expenditure:
Ensuring stability in both internal and external. This part studies the fundamental principles that govern the Government expenditure,
Conserving resources for sustainable development. effects of public expenditure and control of public expenditure.
Defense iii). Public Debt:
Judiciary The methods of raising loans from internal and external sources.
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The burden, effects and redemption of public debt fall under this head. v). Reduction in Rate of Interest
iv). Financial Administration: It is the compulsory reduction in the rate of interest, during the time of financial crisis.
This part deals with the study of the different aspects of public budget. 40. State and explain instruments of fiscal policy.
The budget is the Annual master financial plan of the Government. i). Taxation:
v). Fiscal Policy: Taxes transfer income from the people to the Government.
Taxes, subsidies, public debt and public expenditure are the instruments of fiscal policy. Taxes are either direct or indirect.
38. Bring out the merits of indirect taxes over direct taxes. An increase in tax reduces disposable income.
i) Wider Coverage: ii) Public Expenditure:
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All the consumers, whether they are rich or poor, have to pay indirect taxes. It raises wages and salaries of the employees and thereby the aggregate demand for goods
For this reason, it is said that indirect taxes can cover more people than direct taxes. and services.
ii) Equitable: It is raised to fight recession and reduced to control inflation.
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The indirect tax satisfies the canon of equity when higher tax is imposed on luxuries used iii) Public debt:
da
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by rich people. When Government borrows by floating a loan, there is transfer of funds from the public to
iii) Economical the Government.
Cost of collection is less as producers and retailers collect tax and pay to the Government. At the time of interest payment and repayment of public debt, funds are transferred from
a
a
The traders act as honorary tax collectors. Government to public.
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iv) Checks harmful consumption 41. Explain the principles of federal finance.
The Government imposes indirect taxes on those commodities which are harmful to health i). Principle of Independence:
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lv
e.g. tobacco, liquor etc. It means each Government should have separate sources of revenue, authority to levy
They are known as sin taxes. taxes, to borrow money and to meet the expenditure.
a
a
v) Convenient ii). Principle of Equity:
Indirect taxes are levied on commodities and services. The resources should be distributed among the different states.
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Whenever consumers make purchase, they pay tax along with the price. So that each state receives a fair share of revenue.
39. Explain the methods of debt redemption. iii). Principle of Uniformity:
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i). Sinking Fund Each state should contribute equal tax payments for federal finance.
The Government establishes a separate fund known as “Sinking Fund”. But this principle cannot be followed in practice.
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The Government credits every year a fixed amount of money to this fund. Because the taxable capacity of each unit is not of the same.
ii). Conversion iv). Principle of Adequacy of Resources
w
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42. Describe the various types of deficit in budget. CHAPTER – 10 ENVIRONMENTAL ECONOMICS
i). Revenue Deficit
I. MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
It refers to the excess of the government revenue expenditure over revenue receipts.
1. The term environment has been derived from a French word-----------.
It does not consider capital receipts and capital expenditure.
a. Environ b. Environs c. Environia d. Envir
Revenue Deficit = Total Revenue Expenditure - Total Revenue Receipts
2. The word biotic means environment
ii). Budget Deficit
a. living b. non-living c. physical d. None of the above
Budget deficit is the difference between total receipts and total expenditure.
3. Ecosystem is smallest unit of
Budget Deficit = Total Expenditure – Total Revenue
a. Ionosphere b. Lithosphere c. Biosphere d. Mesosphere
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iii). Fiscal Deficit
4. Who developed Material Balance Models?
Fiscal deficit = Budget deficit + Government’s market borrowings and liabilities
a. Thomas and Picardy b. AlenKneese and R.V. Ayres
iv). Primary Deficit
c. Joan Robinson and J.M. Keynes d. Joseph Stiglitz and Edward Chamberlin
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Primary deficit is equal to fiscal deficit minus interest payments.
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5. Environmental goods are --------------
It shows the real burden of the government.
a. Market goods b. Non-market goods c. Both d. None of the above
It does not include the interest burden on loans taken in the past.
6. In a pure public good, consumption is -----------------
Primary Deficit = Fiscal deficit - Interest Payment
a
a
a. Rival b. Non-rival c. Both d. None of the above
43. What are the reasons for the recent growth in public expenditure?
7. One of the most important market failures is caused by ------------
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i). Population Growth:
a. Positive externalities b. Negative externalities c. Both d. None of the above
During the past 67 years of planning, the population of India has increased from 36.1 crore
8. The common source of outdoor air pollution is caused by combustion processes from the
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in 1951, to 121 crore in 2011.
following----------
The growth in population requires massive investment in health and education, law and
a. Heating and cooking b. Traditional stoves c. Motor vehicles d. All the above
a
a
order, etc.
9. The major contributor of Carbon monoxide is
ii). Defense Expenditure
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a. Automobiles b. Industrial process c. Stationary fuel combustion d. None of the above
There has been enormous increase in defense expenditure in India during planning period.
10. Which one of the following causes of global warming?
The defense expenditure has been increasing tremendously due to modernization of
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a. Earth gravitation force b. Oxygen c. Centripetal force d. Increasing temperature
defense equipment.
11. Which of the following is responsible for protecting humans from harmful ultraviolet rays?
iii). Government Subsidies
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a. UV-A b. UV-C c. Ozone layer d. None of the above
The Government of India has been providing subsidies on a number of items such as food,
12. Global warming also refers to as
fertilizers, interest on priority sector lending, exports, education, etc.
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a. Ecological change b. Climate Change c. Atmosphere change d. None of the above
iv). Debt Servicing
13. Which of the following is the anticipated effect of Global warming?
The government has been borrowing heavily both from the internal and external sources.
a. Rising sea levels b. Changing precipitation c. Expansion of deserts d. All of the above
As a result, the government has to make huge amounts of repayment towards debt
14. The process of nutrient enrichment is termed as
servicing.
a. Eutrophication b. Limiting nutrients c. Enrichment d. Schistosomiasis
v). Development Projects
15. Primary cause of Soil pollution is ----------------
The government has been undertaking various development projects such as irrigation,
a. Pest control measures b. Land reclamation c. Agricultural runoff d. Chemical fertilizer
iron and steel, heavy machinery, power, telecommunications, etc.
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16. Which of the following is main cause for deforestation? It is the current increase in temperature of the earth’s surface as well as its atmosphere.
a. Timber harvesting industry b. Natural afforestation 27. Specify the meaning of seed ball.
c. Soil stabilization d. Climate stabilization A seed ball is a seed that has been wrapped in soil materials usually a mixture of clay and
17. Electronic waste is commonly referred as ---------- compost, and then dried.
a. solid waste b. composite waste c. e-waste d. hospital waste III. Answer the following questions in one paragraph.
18. Acid rain is one of the consequences of ------------ 28. Brief the linkage between economy and environment.
a. Water Pollution b. Land pollution c. Noise pollution d. Air pollution Human life also depends on social, political, ethical, philosophical and other aspects of
19. Sustainable Development Goals and targets are to be achieved by ------- economic system.
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a. 2020 b. 2025 c. 2030 d. 2050 The life of human beings is shaped by his living environment.
20. Alkali soils are predominantly located in the ------------ plains? The relationship between the economy and the form of a “Material Balance Model’’ developed
a. Indus-Ganga b. North-Indian c. Gangetic plains d. All the above by Alen Kneese and R.V. Ayres.
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II. Answer the following questions in one or two sentences 29. Specify the meaning of material balance principle.
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21. State the meaning of environment. The material balance principle considers the total economic process as a physically
All the conditions, circumstances, and influences surrounding and affecting the development of balanced flow between inputs and outputs.
an organism or group of organisms. M = G–(RC– RP) + (RrP + Rrc) = Rdp + Rdc
a
a
22. What do you mean by ecosystem?
Final Residual
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Economic Activities of Goods and Service
An ecosystem includes all living things in a given area, interacting with each other, and also Material and Energy Discharge from
Production (G) -Consumption and
with their non-living environments. Inflow from Natural = =
Production Residual Discharges from Production and
Consumption and Production activities Consumption into
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23. Mention the countries where per capita carbon dioxide emission is the highest in the World (M)
(RC+RP) + Recycles from Production and Natural World (RdC+
world.
Consumption (RrP + Rrc) RdC)
a
a
S.No Countries Per Capita CO2
1 Saudi Arabia 16.85
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30. Explain different types of air pollution.
2 Australia 15.83
i). Indoor Air Pollution:
3 United States 15.53
It refers to toxic contaminants that we encounter in our daily lives in our homes, schools
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4 Canada 15.32
and workplaces.
24. What are environmental goods? Give examples.
For example, cooking and heating with solid fuels on open fires.
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Environmental goods are typically non-market goods.
ii). Outdoor Air Pollution:
It’s including clear air, clean water, landscape, green transport infrastructure, public parks,
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It refers to ambient air.
urban parks, rivers, mountains, forests, and beaches.
The common sources of outdoor air pollution are caused by combustion processes from
25. What are the remedial measures to control noise pollution?
motor vehicles, solid fuel burning and industry.
Use of noise barriers
31. What are the causes of water pollution?
Newer roadway for surface transport
i). Dumping of solid wastes:
Traffic control
The dumping of solid wastes and litters in water bodies cause huge problems.
Regulating times for heavy vehicles
ii). Acid rain:
26. Define Global warming.
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Tech society. impinge on human beings.
It is a physical waste in the form of old discarded, end of life electronics. It is a measure of the condition of an
As the result when consumer, business and household devices are disposed or sent for re- environment relative to the requirements
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cycling. of one or more species.
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Example, television, computers, audio-equipments, VCR, DVD, telephone, etc. It is a pure public good that can be
33. What is land pollution? Mention the causes of land pollution. consumed simultaneously by everyone
Meaning: and from which no one can be excluded.
a
a
The degradation of land because of the disposal of waste on the land. Any substance that is A pure public good is one for which consumption is non
non-revival
revival and from which it is
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discharged, deposited in the environment in such a way that it alters the environment causes impossible to exclude a consumer.
land pollution The contribution of the nature to GDP as well as depletion of natural resources are not
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- Protection of the Environment Operations Act 1997 accounted in the present
resent system of National Income Enumeration.
Causes of Land Pollution 36. Explain the concepts of externality and its classification
a
a
Deforestation and soil erosion Concepts of Externality:
Agricultural activities i). Positive Consumption Externality
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Mining activities: When some residents of a locality hire a private security agency to patrol their area.
Landfills The other residents of the area also benefit from better security without bearing cost.
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Industrialization ii). Negative Consumption Externality
Construction activities A person smoking cigarette gets may gives satisfaction to that person, but this act
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Nuclear waste causes hardship to the non
non-smokers
rs who are driven to passive smoking.
34. Write a note on a) Climate change and b) Acid rain iii). Positive Production Externality
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37. Explain the importance of sustainable development and its goals. a). Concerned with developed nations b) Gradual change
It is concerned with the welfare of not only present generation but also future 3. Which among the following is a characteristic of underdevelopment?
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generation. a). Vicious circle of poverty b) Rising mass consumption
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It aims at not only satisfying the luxury wants rich but also the basic necessities of the c) Growth of Industries d) High rate of urbanization
poor like food, sanitation, health care, education etc. 4. The non-economic determinant of economic development
The present generation should not exhaust the resources left by the past generation, a). Natural resources b) Human resource c) Capital formation d) Foreign trade
a
a
It should leave the same for the sake of future generation. 5. Economic growth measures the ------- --------
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Global Goals for Sustainable Development: a). Growth of productivity b) Increase in nominal income
End Poverty in all its forms everywhere c) Increase in output d) None of the above
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Ensure healthy lives and promote well-being for all at all ages 6. The supply side vicious circle of poverty suggests that poor nations remain poor because
Ensure quality education for all a). Saving remains low b) Investment remains low
c) There is a lack of effective government d) a and b above
a
a
Achieve gender equality and empower women and girls
Ensure access to water and sanitation for all 7. Which of the following plan has focused on the agriculture and rural economy?
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Reduce inequality within and among countries a).People’s Plan b) Bombay Plan c) Gandhian Plan d) Vishveshwarya Plan
Make cities inclusive, safe, resilient and sustainable 8. Arrange following plans in correct chronological order
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a). People’s Plan b) Bombay Plan
c) Jawaharlal Nehru Plan d) Vishveshwarya Plan
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@*@*@*@*@*@*@*@
Answer choices
a). (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) b) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) c) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii) d) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
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9. M.N. Roy was associated with --------- ------------
a) Congress Plan b) People’s Plan c) Bombay Plan d) None of the above
10. Which of the following country adopts indicative planning?
a) France b) Germany c) Italy d) Russia
11. Short-term plan is also known as----- --------------
a) Controlling Plans b) De-controlling Plans
c) Rolling Plans d) De-rolling Plans
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12. Long-term plan is also known as ----- ---------------- 24. What is GNP?
a) Progressive Plans b) Non-progressive Plans GNP is the total market value of all final goods and services produced within a nation in a
c) Perspective Plans d) Non-perspective Plans particular year, plus income earned by its citizens, minus income of non-residents located in
13. The basic philosophy behind long-term planning is to bring--------changes in the economy? that country.
a) Financial b) Agricultural c) Industrial d) Structural 25. Define economic planning.
14. Sarvodaya Plan was advocated by----- ------------- Economic Planning is “collective control or suppression of private activities of production and
a). Mahatma Gandhi b) J.P. Narayan c) S. N Agarwal d) M.N. Roy exchange”.
15. Planning Commission was set up in the year --------------- -Robbins-
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a). 1950 b) 1951 c) 1947 d) 1948 26. What are the social indicators of economic development?
16. Who wrote the book ‘The Road to Serfdom’? It is referred to as basic and collective needs of the people.
a). Friedrich Hayek b) H.R. Hicks c) David Ricardo d) Thomas Robert Malthus The direct provision of basic needs such as health education, etc
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17. Perspective plan is also known as ---- 27. Write a short note on NITI Aayog.
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a). Short-term plan b) Medium-term plan c) Long-term plan d) None of the above National institution for transforming India was formed in 1st January 2015 by union cabinet
18. NITI Aayog is formed through------------------------ resolution.
a). Presidential Ordinance b) Allocation of business rules by President of India It has replaced the planning commission form 13th August 2014.
a
a
c). Cabinet resolution d) None of the above NTI Ayog is a policy Think-tank
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19. Expansion of NITI Aayog? III. Answer the following questions in one paragraph.
a). National Institute to Transform India b). National Institute for Transforming India 28. Elucidate major causes of vicious circle of poverty with diagram
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c). National Institution to Transform India d). National Institution for Transforming India There are circular relationships known as the ‘vicious circles of poverty’.
20. The Chair Person of NITI Aayog is That tends to perpetuate the low level of development in Less Developed Countries (LDCs).
a
a
a). Prime Minister b) President c) Vice – President d) Finance Minister Nurkse explains the idea in these words: “It implies a circular constellation of forces tending
II. Answer the following questions in one or two sentences. to act and react upon one another in such a way as to keep a poor country in a state of
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21. Define economic development poverty.
The increase in GNP is accompanied by decline in share of agriculture in output and 29. What are the non-economic factors determining development?
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employment while those of manufacturing and service sectors increase. Human Resource
- Traditional Approach Technical know – how
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22. Mention the indicators of development. Political freedom
Gross National Product Social Indicators – health, education, food, Social organization
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Development
w Corruption free administration
Desire for development
Moral ethical and social values
30. How would you break the vicious circle of poverty?
Deals Deals with the problems of developed Deals with the problems of UDCs To break the vicious circle on the demand side, Nurkse suggested the strategy of balanced
countries growth.
Changes Gradual and steady Discontinuous and Spontaneous
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If investment is made in several industries simultaneously the workers employed in various Network of Expertise
industries will become consumers of each other’s products and will create demand for one Harmonization
another. Conflict Resolution
The balanced growth i.e. simultaneous investment in large number of industries creates Internal Consultancy
mutual demand. IV. Answer the following questions in about a page.
Thus, through the strategy of balanced growth, vicious circle of poverty operating on the 35. Discuss the economic determinants of economic development.
demand side of capital formation can be broken. i). Natural Resource:
31. Trace the evolution of economic planning in India. The principal factor affecting the development of an economy is the availability of natural
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Jawaharlal Nehru (1938): resources.
Set-up “National Planning Commission” by a committee but due to the changes in the political The existence of natural resources in abundance is essential for development.
era and Second World War, it did not materialize. ii). Capital Formation:
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Bombay Plan (1940): Capital formation is the main key to economic growth.
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The 8 leading industrialists of Bombay presented “Bombay Plan”. It was a 15 Year Investment It facilitates adoption of advanced techniques of production.
Plan. It leads to better utilization of natural resources.
S. N Agarwal (1944) iii). Size of the Market:
a
a
They gave the “Gandhian Plan” focusing on the agricultural and rural economy. Large size of the market would stimulate production, increase employment and raise the
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32. Describe the case for planning. National per capita income.
To accelerate and strengthen market mechanism iv). Financial System:
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To remove unemployment It implies the existence of an efficient and organized banking system in the country.
To achieve balanced development v). Foreign Trade:
a
a
To remove poverty and inequalities The country which enjoys favorable balance of trade and terms of trade is always
33. Distinguish between functional and structural planning. developed.
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Basis Functional Planning Structural Planning It has huge forex reserves and stable exchange rate.
Meaning It refers to that planning which seeks
It refers
to to a good deal of changes in 36. Describe different types of Planning.
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remove economic difficulties the socio-economic framework of the country. i). Democratic Vs Totalitarian:
Approach Attempt within the existing Attempt to change the economic Planning within democracy.
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socio-economic framework. structure fundamentally. People are associated at every step in the formulation and implementation of the plan.
Nature Functional planning is Structural planning is There is central control and direction of all economic activities in accordance with a single
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evolutionary
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ii). Centralized Vs Decentralized:
The entire planning process in a country is under a central.
There is central authority which plans, directs and orders the execution of the plan in
Decentralized Planning
Vision and Scenario Planning
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consumer groups, finance institutions and other experts. 3. Sources of secondary data are ___________.
the state is all powerful in preparation and implementation of the plan. (a) Published sources. (b) Unpublished sources.
v). Short, Medium and Long term Planning: (c) neither published nor unpublished sources. (d) Both (A) and (B)
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Short-Term Planning concerns the plans in a time period of1 year – Operational Planning 4. The data collected by questionnaires are_____________.
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Medium-Term Planning is considered for a time period 5 years – Tactical Planning (a) Primary data (b) Secondary data. (c) Published data. (d) Grouped data.
Long-Term Planning is considered for a time period over 10 years – Strategic Planning 5. A measure of the strength of the linear relationship that exists between two variables is
37. Bring out the arguments against planning. called:
a
a
i). Loss of freedom (a) Slope (b) Intercept (c) Correlation coefficient (d) Regression equation
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The absence of freedom in decision making may act as an obstacle for economic growth. 6. If both variables X and Y increase or decrease simultaneously, then the coefficient of
Regulations and restrictions are the backbone of a planned economy. correlation will be:
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ii). Elimination of Initiative (a) Positive (b) Negative (c) Zero (d) One
There will be no incentive for initiatives and innovations. 7. If the points on the scatter diagram indicate that as one variable increases the other variable
a
a
The absence of initiatives may affect progress in following ways. tends to decrease the value of r will be:
The absence of private ownership and profit motive discourages entrepreneurs from (a) Perfect positive (b) Perfect negative (c) Negative (d) Zero
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taking bold decisions and risk taking. 8. The value of the coefficient of correlation r lies between:
As all enjoy equal reward under planned economy irrespective of their effort, (a) 0 and 1 (b) -1 and 0 (c) -1 and +1 (d) -0.5 and +0.5
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efficiency and productivity, nobody is interested in undertaking new and risky 9. The term regression was used by:
ventures. (a) Newton (b) Pearson (c) Spearman (d) Galton
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The bureaucracy and Red Tapism which are the features of planned economy, 10. The purpose of simple linear regression analysis is to:
cripple the initiative as they cause procedural delay and time loss. (a) Predict one variable from another variable
w
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12. If Y = 2 - 0.2X, then the value of Y intercept is equal to Secondary Data ii). Secondary Data
(a) -0.2 (b) 2 (c) 0.2X (d) All of the above ii). Based on Sources
13. In the regression equation Y = β0+β1X, the Y is called: Primary Data
(a) Independent variable (b) Dependent variable Secondary Data
(c) Continuous variable (d) none of the above 25. Define Correlation.
14. In the regression equation Y = β0+β1X, the X is called: Correlation is a statistical device that helps to analyze the co-variation of two or more
(a) Independent variable (b) Dependent variable variables.
(c) Continuous variable (d) none of the above Sir Francis Galton is responsible for the calculation of correlation coefficient.
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15. Econometrics is the integration of 26. Define Regression.
(a)Economics and Statistics (b) Economics and Mathematics It is the study of the relationship between the variables.
(c) Economics, Mathematics and Statistics (d) None of the above The literal meaning of the word regression is stopping back towards the average.
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16. Econometric is the word coined by 27. What is Econometrics?
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(a) Francis Galton (b) Ragnar Frish (c) Karl Person (d) Spearsman “Econometrics is concerned with the empirical determination of economic laws”
17. The raw materials of Econometrics are: - H Theil
(a) Data (b) Goods (c) Statistics (d) Mathematics III. Answer the following questions in one paragraph:
a
a
18. The term Uiin regression equation is 28. What are the functions of Statistics?
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(a) Residuals (b) Standard error (c) Stochastic error term (d) none Statistics presents facts in a definite form.
19. The term Uiis introduced for the representation of It simplifies mass of figures.
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(a) Omitted Variable (b) Standard error (c) Bias (d) Discrete Variable It facilitates comparison.
20. Econometrics is the amalgamation of It helps in formulating and testing.
a
a
(a) 3 subjects (b) 4 subjects (c) 2 subjects (d) 5 subjects It helps in prediction.
II. Answer the following in one or two sentences It helps in the formulation of suitable policies.
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21. What is Statistics? 29. Find the Standard Deviation of the following data: 14, 22, 9, 15, 20, 17, 12, 11
Statistics as a science of estimates and probabilities S.No X N= 8
(x-𝐗⃑) (x-𝐗⃑)2
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- Boddington 1 14 -1 1
𝐗⃑ = 120/8 = 15
2 22 7 49
22. What are the kinds of Statistics?
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3 9 -6 36 𝚺(𝐱 − 𝐗)𝟐
σ =
Descriptive Statistics 4 15 0 0 𝐍
Inferential Statistics 5 20 5 25 140
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=
6 17 2 4 8
23. What do you mean by Inferential Statistics?
7 12 -3 9
The branch of statistics concerned with using sample data to make an inference about a = √𝟏𝟕. 𝟓
8 11 -4 16
population of data is called Inferential Statistics. N=8 ΣX = 120 0 σ = 4.18
Σ(x-X)2 = 140
24. What are the kinds of data?
i). Based on characteristics 30. State and explain the different kinds of Correlation.
a). Quantitative Data: b). Qualitative Data i). Based on the direction of change of variables:
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31. Mention the uses of Regression Analysis. 35. Elucidate the nature and scope of Statistics.
It indicates the cause and effect relationship between the variables and establishes i). Nature of Statistics:
functional relationship. Statistics are an aggregate of facts.
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Besides verification it is used for the prediction of one value, in relation to the other given Statistics are numerically enumerated, estimated and expressed.
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value. It should be collected in a systematic manner for a predetermined purpose.
Regression coefficient is also relative measure. Should be capable of being used as a technique for drawing comparison
In regression there is no such spurious regression ii). Scope of Statistics
a
a
32. Specify the objectives of econometrics. i). Statistics and Economics:
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It helps to explain the behavior of a forthcoming period that is forecasting economic Statistical data and techniques are immensely useful in solving many economic
phenomena. problems.
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It helps to prove the old and established relationships among the variables or between the ii). Statistics and Firms
variables Statistics is widely used in many firms to find whether the product is conforming to
a
a
It helps to establish new theories and new relationships. specifications or not.
It helps to test the hypotheses and estimation of the parameter. iii). Statistics and Commerce
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33. Differentiate the economic model with econometric model. Statistics are life blood of successful commerce.
S.No Economic Model Econometric model iv). Statistics and Education
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1 An economic model is a local It is an integration at dependent variables It is necessary for the formulation of policies to start new course, according to the
representation of knowledge with explanatory variables. changing environment.
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2 It is adapted to yield a define and It represent a set of hypotheses that v). Statistics and Planning:
precise formulation of the economic permits statistical inference from the Statistics is indispensable in planning.
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processed at work.
This is based upon abstract
economic theory.
particular date under review.
It appropriate to the particular situation
based on common sense.
34. Discuss the important statistical organizations (offices) in India.
w All the organisations in the government are seeking the help of planning for efficient
working.
36. Calculate the Karl Pearson Correlation Co-efficient for the following data
Demand of Product X 23 27 28 29 30 31 33 35 36 39
i). Central Statistical Office (CSO) Sale of Product Y: 18 22 23 24 25 26 28 29 30 32
The Central Statistical Office is one of the two wings of the National Statistical
Organisation (NSO).
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33 28 3 2 9 4 6 72 55 7 5 49 25 35
35 29 5 3 25 9 13 80 60 15 15 225 225 225
36 30 6 4 36 16 24 85 65 20 20 400 400 400
l
39 32 9 6 81 36 54 ΣX=645 ΣY=435 ΣU=5 ΣV=20 ΣU2=1813 ΣV2=1415 ΣUV=1675
da
da
11 -3 275 159 175
We have,
a
𝐗⃑ = ΣX = 645 = 64.5 𝐘⃑ = ΣY = 435 = 43.5
N 10 N 10
ik
ik
byx = NΣUV - (ΣUΣV)
lv
lv
NΣU2- (ΣU)2
= (10)x1415 – (5)X(-20)
a
a
(10) x 1813 – (5)2
.k
.k
= 14150 + 100
18130 – 25
= 14250
w
w
18105
w
w
= 0.787
Regression equation of Y on X is
w
w
y-𝐲⃑ = byx (x-𝐗⃑)
y – 43.5 = 0.787 (X-64.5) or
y = 0.787X + 7.26
37.Find the regression equation Y on X and X on Y for the following data: Similarly bxy can be calculated as
Y: 45 48 50 55 65 70 75 72 80 85 byx = NΣUV - (ΣUΣV)
X: 25 30 35 30 40 50 45 55 60 65 NΣU2- (ΣU)2
= (10)x1415 – (5)X(-20)
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y – 64.5 = 0.87 (y-43.5) or
8. What is Autonomous and Induced Investment?
x = 0.87Y + 26.65
9. What is Economy?
38. Describe the application of Econometrics in Economics. 10. What is GDP deflator?
l
i). Forecasting Macroeconomic indicators: 11. What is disposable income and personal income?
da
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It’s concerned with the expected effects of monetary and fiscal policy on the aggregate 12. What are the difference NNP and NDP?
performance of the economy. 13. What is frictional unemployment?
Time series models can be used to make predictions about these economic indicators 14. What are the components of ADF and ASF?
a
15. What is Propensity consume and Propensity save?
ii). Definition:
16. What is commodity money?
ik
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As a result of certain outlook on the role of economics, consists of application of mathematical
17. Define central bank.
statistics to economic data to lend empirical support to the models constructed by
18. What is commercial bank?
lv
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mathematical economics and to obtain numerical results”. 19. What is credit creation?
Econometrics means economic measurement. 20. What are the differences between CRR & SLR?
a
a
Econometrics deals with the measurement of economic relationships. 21. What is international Economics and Exchange rate?
iii). Objectives of Econometrics: 22. Define terms of trade and balance of payment.
.k
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It helps to explain the behavior of a forthcoming period that is forecasting economic 23. What is IMF and special drawing rights?
24. Write any two affiliates group of world bank ?
phenomena.
w
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25. Write any two objectives of ASEAN?
It helps to prove the old and established relationships among the variables or between
26. Define Public revenue and Public finance.
the variables 27. Give two examples of indirect tax and Indirect tax.
w
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It helps to establish new theories and new relationships. 28. What is zero based budget and public debt?
It helps to test the hypotheses and estimation of the parameter. 29. What is federal finance?
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30. What is pollution, Environment and Eco – System?
@*@*@*@*@*@*@ 31. Define Economic planning.
32. Write short notes on NITI Aayog?
33. List out about social Indicators of economic development.
34. What are the difference between Economic growth and Economic Development?
35. What is statistics and Econometrics?
36. List out kinds of co-relations.
37. What is consumption function and Investment functions?
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2. What are the merits of capitalism? 2. Compare between capitalism, socialism and mixedism.
3. What are the mixed Economy? 3. What are the measuring methods of national income?
4. Write short notes on Expenditures methods? 4. What are difficulties to measuring national income?
5. What are the Difference between personal income and disposable income? 5. Explain types of unemployment.
6. Write implications of say’s law? 6. Write Keynes theory of employment and income.
7. What is ADF and ASF with diagram? 7. What are the difference between classical theory and Keynes theory?
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8. Explain between autonomous investment and induced investment. 8. Working multiplier – full concept.
9. Explain psychological law of consumption. 9. What are difference between MEC and MEI?
10. Write uses of Multiplier. 10. Explain – Fisher Quantity theory of money.
l
11. How equilibrium between interest and Investment? 11. What are the functions of money?
da
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12. What are the determinants of Investment function? 12. What are the phases of trade cycle?
13. What is money supply?
13. What are the functions of commercial bank and central bank?
14. Write Cambridge Equations?
14. What are the difference between International trade and internal Trade?
a
a
15. What are the types of inflations?
15. Explain Full concept of comparative cost theory and Absolute cost theory.
ik
ik
16. What are the objectives of demonetizations?
16. What are the objectives of IMF and its functions?
17. What are the functions of NABARD?
17. Write shorts on : I. SAARC II. BRICS
18. Explain difference between money market and capital market.
lv
lv
18. What are the principles of federal finance?
19. What are the objectives of FDI?
19. Explain the types of deficit in budget.
20. What are the difference between classical theory and Modern theory of trade?
a
a
20. What are the scopes of public finance?
21. What are the difference between BOT and BOP?
21. Air pollution – Full concept.
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22. What are the functions of SAARC?
23. What are the objectives of ASEAN? 22. What are the concept of externality and & its classifications?
24. Explain canons of taxations. 23. What are the types of economic planning?
w
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25. What are features of taxations? 24. Explain the argument of planning.
26. What are the difference direct tax and indirect tax? 25. Explain the theory of balance material model.
w
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27. What are the functions of modern state? 26. Focus on Correlation & Regression type of sums and theory.
28. Explain type of Air Pollutions. 27. Explain natures and scope of statistics and scatter diagrams (Correlation).
w
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M. VENKATESAN M.A., M.Phil., B.Ed., PG ASSISSTANT ( HISTORY ) GBHSS AYAPPAKKAM M. VENKATESAN M.A., M.Phil., B.Ed., PG ASSISSTANT ( HISTORY ) GBHSS AYAPPAKKAM
1 – Rise of Nationalism in India
2 – MARKS
1. When did Gandhi return to India from South Africa? 1. What is nationalism ?
(a) 1915 (b) 1916 (c) 1917 (d) 1918 Nationalism means loyalty and devotion to a nation.
2. In which year English Education was introduced in India? It is a consciousness to exalt and place one nation above all others.
(a) 1825 (b) 1835 (c) 1845 (d) 1855 Emphasising promotion of its culture and interests in a nations.
3. Find the odd one.
(a) William Jones (b) Charles Wilkins (c) Max Muller (d) Aurobindo Ghose 2. Describe the implications of the new land tenures?
4. „Swaraj is my birth right and I shall have it‟ was said…………… Agricultural produce was predominantly for the market.
(a) Bala Gangadhar Tilak (b) Dadabhai Naoroji The land was converted into a commodity for sale.
(c) Subhash Chandra Bose (d) Bharathi Agriculture was commercialized.
5. Match and choose the correct answer from the code given below.
(A) Bala Gangadhar Tilak- 1. Voice of India 3. Write a note on Indigo revolt?
(B) Dadabhai Naoroji – 2. Madras Time The farmers paid less than the market price for indigo cultivation.
(C) Macaulay - 3. Kesari
The peasants rebelled against this (1859-60).
(D) William Digby - 4. Minute on Indian Education Code
(a) 2, 4, 1, 3 (b) 3, 1, 4, 2 (c) 1, 3, 2, 4 (d) 4, 2, 3, 1 As a result the planters were expelled from North Bengal.
6. Which one of the following is correctly matched?
(a) English Education Act - 1843 (b) The abolition of slavery – 1859 4. Discuss the importance of Illbert Bill.
(c) Madras Native Association - 1852 (d) Indigo revolt - 1835 The Indian judges were empowered to try europeans through this Bill.
7. Which is the correct chronological sequence of the following associations? The bill was amended by european opposition.
(i) East India Association (ii) Madras Mahajana Sabha The Ilbert Bill controversy was a cause of the rise of Indian nationalism.
(iii) Madras Native Association (iv) The Servants of India Society
(a) ii, i, iii, iv (b) ii, iii, i, iv (c) iii, iv, i, ii (d) iii, iv, ii, i 5. Highlight the contribution of missionaries to modern education.
8. The Indian National Congress was founded by They taught modern education to Indians.
(a) Subhash Chandra Bose (b) Gandhi (c) A.O. Hume (d) B.G. Tilak They taught secular education.
9. The first President of the Indian National Congress was It also provided education to the deprived and marginalised sections of the people.
(a) Surendranath Bannerjea (b) Badruddin Tyabji (c) A.O. Hume (d) W.C. Bonnerjee
10. Who was called the „Grand Old Man of India?
(a)Bala Gangadhar Tilak (b) M.K. Gandhi 6. What were the grievances represented by the Madras Native Association in their petition to
(c) Dadabhai Naoroji (d) Subhash Chandra Bose the British Parliament?
11. Who wrote the book - „Poverty and UnBritish Rule in India‟ ? They pointed out the flaws of the Ryatwari and Zamindari systems.
(a) Bala Gangadhar Tilak (b) Gopala Krishna Gokhale It urged the revival of the ancient village system.
(c) Dadabhai Naoroji (d) M.G. Ranade They also mentioned about judicial system which was slow, complicated.
12. Assertion (A): The British Government pursued a policy of free trade (or) laissez fair.
Reason (R): India had comparative advantage from England's free trade policy. 7. Make a list of the important political associations formed in India prior to the Indian
(a) A is correct but R does not explain A. (b) A is correct and R explains A. National Congress.
(c) A is correct and R is incorrect. (d) Both A and R are wrong. Madras Native Association. Indian Association.
13. Which of the following statements are correct on Orissa famine? East India Association, Madras Mahajana Sabha.
Statement I: In 1866 a million and a half people of Orissa died of starvation.
Statement II: During that time the British exported 200 million pounds of rice to Britain.
Statement III: The Orissa famine prompted Dadabai Naoroji to begin a life long 8. Identify the prominent early Indian nationalists.
investigation of poverty in India. W C. Bonnerjee , BadruddinTyabji, Surendranath Banerjee.
(a) I & II (b) I & III (c) None of the above (d) All of the above Dadabhai Naoroji, Gopala Krishna Gokhale, M.G. Ranade.
Bipin Chandra Pal, BalGangadharTilak, LalaLajpatRai and Aurobindo Ghose.
M. VENKATESAN M.A., M.Phil., B.Ed., PG ASSISSTANT ( HISTORY ) GBHSS AYAPPAKKAM M. VENKATESAN M.A., M.Phil., B.Ed., PG ASSISSTANT ( HISTORY ) GBHSS AYAPPAKKAM
3 – MARKS 5 – MARKS
1. Analyse Macaulay's „Minute on Indian Education‟. 1. Discussthe impact of Western education on Indian Middle Class, highlighting the latter‟s
English education system was introduced in India drafted by T.B.Macaulay. role in reforming and regenerating Indian Society.
Macaulay wrote his famous „Minute on Indian Education‟ in 1835. Impact of the Western education :
He wanted the Indians to be English in will, morals and in intellect'. Impact of the Western education in India, a modern Indian Intellectuals were emerged.
Consequently, the government started schools, colleges in English. Traders, landlords, Doctors and lawyers were included in the new division.
They initially had a cordial approach to the British administration.
2. What do you know of the Madras visit of the chairman of Indian Reform Society in 1853? They soon realized that their wishes were fulfilled only in independent India.
The Madras Native Association presented its grievances before British Parliament. It's role in reforming and regenerating Indian Society :
The MNA petition was discussed in the Britain Parliament. They played a prominent role in promoting Nationalism amongst the people.
To investigate this petition, H. D. Seymour came to Madras. They learned philosophical ideas like nationalism, democracy and socialism.
He visited places like Guntur, Cuddalore, Tiruchirappalli, Salem and Tirunelveli. They formed Various forums for The right of a free press, the right of free speech and the
right of association.
3. Point out the role played by press in creating nationalist consciousness in British India. They realized the need for reforming the society.
It spread the modern ideas of autonomy, democracy, etc. Rajaram mohan Roy, Swami Vivekananda, Aurobindo Ghosh and Gokhale led the
They criticized politics. Political, Social and Religious movements of India.
It addressed the people on several issues affecting the country . Abolition of sati and child marriage and widow remarriage became the main concerns for
They taught people important issues of public interest. these reformers.
4. Describe the way in which indentured labour was organized in British India?
The colonial state allowed agents (kanganis) to trick or kidnap indigent labourers. 2. Examine the Socio-economic causes for the rise of nationalism British in India.
Many impoverished peasants and weavers went hoping to earn some money. Implications of the New Land Tenures :
Under this system, the workers were contracted for a period of five years. The British destroyed the traditional basis of Indian land system.
They worked in the coffee and tea plantations of Sri Lanka. The British fixed the land revenue in cash, during the fall in prices and droughts or
floods.
5. Name the prominent participants in the inaugural meeting of Madras MahajanaSabha held Agriculture was commercialized. But there was no improvement in the lives of the
in May 1884? peasants.
G. Subramaniam, Viraraghavachari, Ananda Charlu. Impact of the laissez faire policy :
Rangiah, BalajiRao, Salem Ramaswamy. The British Government pursued a policy of free trade or laissez faire.
As a result India became a Purchase area for the raw material such like cotton, jute and
6. Attempt a brief account of early emigration of labourers to Ceylon. silks.
In 1815, the Governor of Ceylon asked the Governor of Madras to send "wages" to work Gradually Indian handloom products and handicrafts lost there market.
in Ceylon Plantations. As a result the weavers, the cotton dressers, the carpenters, and the blacksmiths out of
But famines in 1833 and 1843 forced people to migrate. employment.
So Indians went to work as labourers in the coffee and tea plantations of Sri Lanka. Impact of the Famines :
Due to the famine of 1877, a large number of Tamil labourers were employed in Ceylon. The British extended their policy of non-intervention (laissez faire) even to famines.
As a result, millions of people died of starvation during the Raj.
7. What were the items which constituted Home Charges? Sadly when people were dying of starvation millions of tonnes of wheat was exported to
The share to be paid to the shareholders of the company. Britain.
Guaranteed interest to investors in railways.
Pensions to retired officials and generals.
Interest for the money borrowed from England to meet war expenses.
M. VENKATESAN M.A., M.Phil., B.Ed., PG ASSISSTANT ( HISTORY ) GBHSS AYAPPAKKAM M. VENKATESAN M.A., M.Phil., B.Ed., PG ASSISSTANT ( HISTORY ) GBHSS AYAPPAKKAM
3. To what extent the repressive and racist policy measures of the British were responsible 2 – Rise of Extremism and Swedeshi Movement
for the national awakening in India.
Indian civil service examination : 1 . In the Surat session of the Congress, whose name was proposed by militant nationalists for
The systematic exclusion of the Indians from higher official positions came to be looked the next Congress Presidency?
upon as an anti-Indian policy measure. A. Aurobindo Ghose B. Dadabhai Naoroji C. Pherozesha Mehta D. Lala Lajpat Rai
2. Which of the statements given below is/are correct?
When civil service examinations were introduced the age limit was fixed at 21.
(i) The partition of Bengal in 1905 was the most striking example of the British divide and
To debarring the Indians from entering the civil services, the age limit was reduced to 19. rule policy.
Repressive Laws : (ii) In the Calcutta meeting 1905, Surendranath Banerjea gave a call for the boycott of
Repressive regulations like Section 124A of the I.P.C (1870). British goods and institutions.
The Vernacular Press Act (1878) (iii) On 7 August 1905 at Town Hall meeting a formal proclamation of Swadeshi
Above the Laws provoked protests. Movement was made.
Exploitative Measures : (a) (i) only (b) (i) and (iii) only (c) (i) and (ii) only (d) All of the above.
Abolition of custom duty on cotton manufactures imported from England. 3. Match List I and List II and select answer with the help of the codes given below.
But same time in India the excise duty on cotton fabrics manufactured. A. Indian Press Act 1910 - 1. Self-rule
B. Dawn Society - 2. a revolt against their state of dependence
Ilbert Bill :
C. Swaraj - 3. crushed the nationalistic activities
The Indian judges were empowered to try europeans through this Bill. D. Swadeshi - 4. The National Council of education
The bill was amended by european opposition. (a) 3 1 4 2 (b) 1 2 3 4 (c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 1 2 4 3
The Ilbert Bill controversy was a cause of the rise of Indian nationalism. 4. Which one of the following is correctly paired?
(a) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee – Anandmath (b) G. Subramaniam - Dawn Society
4. Explain the objectives of the Indian National Congress and contributions of the early (c) Lord Minto - The University Act of 1904 (d) Epicentre of militant nationalism - Madras
nationalists to the cause of India‟s liberation from the colonial rule. 5. Anushilan Samity of Calcutta was founded by
The objectives of the Indian National Congress (a) Pulin Behari Das (b) Hemachandra Kanungo
Opportunity for participation in the government. (c) Jatindernath Banerjee and Barindar Kumar Ghose
(d) Khudiram Bose and Prafulla Chaki
The land revenue should be reduced and the farmers should be protected from Zamindars.
6. Assertion (A): 16 October 1905 was declared as a day of mourning.
The imposition of heavy tax on the imported goods. Reason (R): That day Bengal was officially divided into two provinces.
I.C.S. examinations should be conducted simultaneously in England and India. (a) A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
The complete separation of the Executive and the Judiciary. (b) A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
Contributions of the early nationalists (c) A is correct and R is wrong. (d) A is wrong and R is correct.
The early nationalists in the INC came from the elite sections of the society. 7. Assertion (A): V.O. Chidambaram established a Swadeshi Steam Navigation Company.
These leaders of the INC adopted the constitutional methods of presenting petitions, Reason (R): He wanted to oppose the monopoly of the British in navigation through the
prayers and memorandums. coast
Later, Bal GangadharTilak, Bipin Chandra Pal, LalaLajpatRai were advocating radical (a) A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
approaches.
(c) A is correct and R is wrong (d) A is wrong and R is correct
The method of mass mobilisation and boycott of British goods and institutions 8. Which of the following statement is not true about Subramania Bharati?
suggested by the radicals. (a) Bharati was the sub–editor of Swadesamitran
Through the press, they explained to the people the oppressive policies of the British. (b) He translated Tilak‟s Tenets of the New Party into Tamil
Both moderates and militants, contributed towards the making of the swadeshi (c) Bharati‟s Gurumani was Swami Vivekananda
movement. (d) He was editor of a woman‟s magazine by name Chakravartini
2 - MARKS
2. How did M.G. Ranade explain the idea of Swadeshi? 4. What do you know of Coral Mill Strike of 1908?
Swadeshi means „of one‟s own country‟. The abject working and living conditions of the Coral Mill workers attracted the
Priority should be given to the products of the own country. attention of V.O.C and Siva.
The products should be given priority even if they are less satisfactory. The workers, who were inspired by the two speeches, went on strike.
The mill owners and government had decided to suppress the strike.
3. Identify the leaders of the epicenters of militant nationalism in British India Finally the mill owners decided to accept the workers demands.
BalGangadharTilak. Bipin Chandra Pal. LalaLajpatRai.
5. Outline the essence of the Alipore Bomb Case.
4. Why was militant nationalism was on the decline by 1908?. Aurobindo Ghose, along with his brother and thirty-five other comrades, were arrested.
The nationalism glued with the Hindu beliefs was not accepted by the Muslims. Chittaranjan Das took up the case.
The leaders of the swadeshi movement failed to penetrate the larger section of the Aurobindo Ghosh was released because there was no evidence of conspiracy.
society. The case portrayed revolutionary nationalists as heroes.
The Surat split of 1907 was another contributing factor to this decline.
6. Write about the swadeshi venture of V.O. C.
5. What were the repressive measures adopted by the colonial government to crush the He opposition to the monopoly of the British in navigation through the coast.
nationalist movements? So he registered a joint stock company called The Swadeshi Steam Navigation
The Newspapers (Incitement to Offences) Act (1908) Company.
The Explosives Substances Act (1908). V.O.C. purchased two steamships, S.S. Gallia and S.S. Lawoe.
The Indian Press Act (1910). He used the maritime glory of India‟s past for the Swadeshi venture in the sea.
The Prevention of Seditious Meetings Act (1911).
7. Why was Collector Ashe killed by Vanchinathan.
3 - MARK The repressive measures of the British administration.
Repression of the Swadeshi efforts in Tuticorin.
1. Give an account of the proceedings of Surat session that ended in the split of the Congress. The arrest and humiliation of the swadeshi leaders.
The question of four resolutions passed at the Calcutta Conference intensified. To avenge for the Tirunelveli event.
The Pherozeshah Mehta group sought removal of those items from the agenda.
So the militants decided to oppose the election of Rash Behari Gosh as president. 5 – MARKS
The session ended in chaos. Now INC split into two groups – militant and moderate.
1. Attempt an account of Swadshi movement in Tamilnadu.
2. Explain the reasons for the spurt in individual acts of violence during the Swadeshi Beginning of Swadeshi Movement:
movement. The Swadeshi movement in Tamil Nadu had an all India flavour.
The apolitical constructive programmes had little acceptance among the youth. It was also underpinned by Tamil - pride and consciousness.
Failure to involve young people in a protracted mass struggle. Initially, the movement gained more reaction to the partition of Bengal.
The revolutionary action was considered an attempt to restore The Indian heroism. Development of Vernacular Oratory :
Which the revolutionaries believed was often challenged by the British. The vernacular oratory had a huge impact on the mass politics in Tamil Nadu.
Europeans in public places were greeted by the students with shouts of Vande Mataram.
3. Highlight the methods used by samitis for mass mobilization. The both Tamil and English press supported the Swadeshi movement.
Samitis taught members exercise and morals. V.O.C. and Swadeshi Steam Navigation Company :
Samitis Served during famines and epidemics. During the swadeshi movement ,V.O.C. purchased two steamships, S.S. Gallia and S.S.
It established the Local schools and tribunals. Lawoe.
Its aim was to refuse to cooperate with the British administration. He educating to the people about swadeshi and the boycott.
M. VENKATESAN M.A., M.Phil., B.Ed., PG ASSISSTANT ( HISTORY ) GBHSS AYAPPAKKAM M. VENKATESAN M.A., M.Phil., B.Ed., PG ASSISSTANT ( HISTORY ) GBHSS AYAPPAKKAM
The swadeshi leaders in Tamil Nadu planned to celebrate the day of Bipin Chandra Pal‟s 4. Who founded the Banaras Hindu University?
release as „Swarajya Day‟ in Tirunelveli. (a) Mahatma Gandhi (b) Madan Mohan Malaviya (c) Tilak (d) B.P. Wadia
Subramania Bharati: 5. The Lucknow session of 1916 is noted for
Radical nationalist methods were more acceptable to the Bharati to counter the British (a) Resurgence of Muslim League (b) Temporary merger of Muslims League into Congress
(c) Congress‟ acceptance of League‟s demand for separate electorates for Muslims
rule.
(d) Jinnah‟s negative role in the joint-session of the League and the Congress
He translated into Tamil Tilak‟s Tenets of the New Party. 6. Match the following with the help of codes given below
He published a booklet on the Madras militants‟ trip to the Surat Congress in 1907. (A) Ghadar Party - (i) 1916
Bharati edited a Tamil weekly India, which became the voice of the radicals. (B) New India - (ii) 1913
(C) Home Rule - (iii) 1909
2. Write about the role played by V.O. Chidambaram in Indian National Movement. (D) Minto-Morley Reforms- (iv) 1915
Swadeshi Steam Navigation Company : (a) ii, iv, i, iii b) iv, i, ii, iii (c) i, iv, iii, ii (d) ii, iii, iv, i
7. The author of the book Indian Unrest was
He opposition to the monopoly of the British in navigation through the coast.
(a) Lala Lajpat Rai (b) Valentine Chirol (c) Tilak (d) Annie Besant
So he registered a joint stock company called The Swadeshi Steam Navigation 8. The Ghadar Party was started by
Company. (a) Lala Lajpat Rai (b) A.C. Mazumdar (c) Lala Hardayal (d) Sankarlal Banker.
V.O.C. purchased two steamships, S.S. Gallia and S.S. Lawoe. 9. Who was the president of the first All-India Trade Union Congress?
He used the maritime glory of India‟s past for the Swadeshi venture in the sea. (a) B.P. Wadia (b) Jawaharlal Nehru (c) Lala Lajpat Rai (d) C.R. Das
The Coral Mill Strike :
The abject working and living conditions of the Coral Mill workers attracted the 2 - MARKS
attention of V.O.C and Siva.
The workers, who were inspired by the their speeches, went on strike. 1. What were the repressive measures adopted by colonial government to crush the growing
The mill owners and government had decided to suppress the strike. nationalist movement during 1903-1914?
But finally the mill owners decided to accept the workers demands. The Criminal Intelligence Department (CID) 1903. * The Newspapers Act (1908)
Celebrating the release of Bipin Chandrapal: The Explosives Substances Act (1908), * The Indian Press Act (1910)
He planned to celebrate the day of Bipin Chandra Pal‟s release as „Swarajya Day‟ in The Prevention of Seditious Meetings Act (1911) * The Foreigners Ordinance (1914)
Tirunelveli.
As a result, he was arrested. 2. What was the background for the launch of the Khilafat movement?
V.O.C. got a life term (20 years) for abetting him.
End of the first world war the allied powers decided to end the caliphate.
He got another life sentence for his own seditious speech.
So the Ali brothers started a Khalifat Movement.
The aim was to the support the Ottoman Empire.
3 - Impact of World War I on Indian Freedom Movement
3. Name the book and weekly published by Annie Besant.
1. The Home Rule Movement in south India was started by
(a) Tilak (b) Annie Besant (c) B.P. Wadia (d) Col. H.S. Olcott Name the book : How India Wrought for Freedom
2. Which of the following about Annie Besant are correct? Name the book weekly magazine : Commonweal
1. Annie Besant was elected the international president of the Theosophical Society, after
Col. H.S. Olcott. 4. Describe the Defence of India Act, 1915.
2. She started a weekly The Commonweal in 1914. Its also referred to as the Defence of India Regulations Act.
3. She published a book How India Wrought for Freedom in 1915. The Act allowed suspects to be tried by special tribunals.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 Three Commissioners were appointed for this act by the Local Government.
3. Assertion: Sarojini Ammaiyar called Jinnah „the Ambassador of Hindu-Muslim Unity‟.
Reason: Jinnah was the chief architect of the Lucknow pact.
(a) A is correct R does not explain A. (b) A is correct and R explanations A.
(c) A is wrong and R is correct. (d) Both A and R are wrong
M. VENKATESAN M.A., M.Phil., B.Ed., PG ASSISSTANT ( HISTORY ) GBHSS AYAPPAKKAM M. VENKATESAN M.A., M.Phil., B.Ed., PG ASSISSTANT ( HISTORY ) GBHSS AYAPPAKKAM
3 - MARKS 2. Narrate the work done by two Home Rule Movements one under Tilak and another under
AnniBesant.
1. Discuss the twin objectives of the Home Rule League? Home Rule Movement under Tilak :
The establishment of Home Rule for India in British Empire. Tilak inaugurated the Home Rule League at Belgaum in April 1916.
Arousing in the Indian masses a sense of pride for the Motherland. Tilak's League was organised as six branches.
Annie Besant organized public meetings and conferences to spread the idea. Tilak popularised the demand for Home Rule through his lectures.
In 1916, two Home Rule Movements were launched in the country. Tilak's movement gained popularity in parts of Maharashtra and Karnataka.
On 23 July 1916 Tilak was arrested for propagating the idea of Home Rule.
2. Why is Ghadar Movement considered an important episode in India‟s freedom struggle. Home Rule Movement under Annie Besant:
A ship named Komagatamaru, filled with Indian immigrants was back from Canada. Besant inaugurated the Home Rule League at Madras in September 1916.
When the ship returned to India, there was a clash with the British police. She made an extensive tour and spread the idea of Home Rule.
In this clash several passengers were killed or arrested . She declared that "the price of India's loyalty is India's Freedom".
This incident left a deep impression on the Indian nationalist movement. As Besant‟s Home Rule Movement became very popular in Madras.
So Students were barred from attending its meetings.
3. What were the demands of the Khilafat Movement presented to the Paris peace Annie Besant and her associates were arrested by the British government in Ooty.
conference held in March 1920?
4 - Advent of Gandhi and Mass Mobilisation
The Sultan of Turkey's position of Caliph should not be disturbed.
The Muslim sacred places must be handed over to the Sultan. 1. Who was the political guru of Gandhiji?
(a) Tilak ( b ) Gokhale (c) W.C.Bannerjee ( d ) M.G. Ranade
The Sultan must be left with sufficient territory.
2. After returning from South Africa Gandhi launched his first successful Satyagraha in
The Jazirat-ul-Arab (Arabia, Syria, Iraq, Palestine) must remain under his sovereignty. (a) Kheda (b) Dandi (c) Champaran (d) Bardoli
3. Why was the Simon Commission boycotted by the Congress?
4. What was the impact and significance of the Madras Labour Union?
(a) There was no recommendation for bestowing dominion status on India in its report.
This union was formed mainly due to the ill-treatment of Indian workers. (b) It did not provide any safeguards for minorities.
This union adopted collective bargaining. (c) It had excluded Indians from its fold.
It used trade unionism as a weapon for class struggle. (d) It did not hold any promise for total independence
This wave spread to other parts of India. 4. When was the tri-colour flag of freedom hoisted?
5- MARKS (a) December 31, 1929 (b) March 12, 1930 (c) January 26, 1930 (d) January 26, 1931
5. What was the name of the party formed by Motilal Nehru and C.R. Das in 1923?
(a) Swaraj Party (b) Ghadar Party (c) Swantara Party (d) Communist Party
1. Highlight the important provisions of Lucknow Pact. 6. Match List I with List II and select answer from the codes given below
Provinces should be free as much as possible in administration and finance. (A) The Namasudra Movement - 1. North Western India
Four-fifths of the Central and Provincial Legislative Councils should be elected. (B) The Adidharma Movement - 2. South India
one- fifth of the Central and Provincial Legislative Councils should be nominated. (C) The Satyashodhak Movement - 3. Eastern India
Four-fifths of the provincial and central legislatures were to be elected on the franchise. (D) The Dravidian Movement - 4. Western India codes
(a) 3, 1, 4, 2 (b) 2, 1, 4, 3 (c) 1, 2, 3, 4 (d) 3, 4, 1, 2
Half the executive council members were to be Indians elected by the councils
7. Arrange the different stages of Non Cooperation Movement in chronological order.
themselves. 1. The most heinous of political crime was perpetrated on an unarmed mass by the British
The Congress also agreed to separate electorates for Muslims in provincial council regime at Amritsar town.
elections. 2. Rowlatt Act was promulgated to imprison any person without trial by a law court.
The Governments, Central and Provincial, should be act in with resolutions passed by
3. Chauri Chaura incident of mob violence made Gandhi announce the suspension of Non-
their Legislative Councils. Cooperation Movement.
The resolution was passed again after an interval of not less than one year, it should be 4. A special session held at Calcutta resolved to accept Gandhi‟s proposal on
put into effect. noncooperation with the colonial state.
(a) 2, 1, 4, 3 (b) 1, 3, 2, 4 (c) 2, 4, 1, 3 (d) 3, 2, 4, 1
M. VENKATESAN M.A., M.Phil., B.Ed., PG ASSISSTANT ( HISTORY ) GBHSS AYAPPAKKAM M. VENKATESAN M.A., M.Phil., B.Ed., PG ASSISSTANT ( HISTORY ) GBHSS AYAPPAKKAM
8. Which of the following is not correctly paired? 4. Write about Bahishkrit Hitakarini Sabha.
(a) Lt. Governor of Punjab - Reginad Dyer (b) Dalit-Bahujan Movement - Dr. Ambedkar Bahishkrit Hitakarini Sabha was founded by Dr.Ambedkar.
(c) Self Respect Movement - Periyar E.V.R. (d) Satyagraha Sabha - Rowlatt Act This mean Association for the welfare of excluded.
9. Arrange the launching of the following events in chronological order Its main Aim was to secure the removal of disabilities imposed on untouchables.
i) The Kheda Satyagraha ii) Champran Movement
iii) Non-Brahman Movement iv) Vedaranyam Salt Satyagraha
(a) ii, iii, i, iv (b) iii, ii, i, iv (c) ii, i, iv, iii (d) ii, i, iii, iv 5. Why was the Rowlatt Act opposed by the nationalists?
10. Which of the following is/are not true? This Act empowered the government to imprison any person without trial.
i. Gandhiji established Sabarmathi Ashram at Ahmedabad. The elected central legislature members also opposing this bill.
ii. Vallabhai Patel was a lawyer So Gandhiji's „Satyagraha Sabha‟ pledged to disobey the Act first.
iii. Simon Commission was welcomed by the Muslim League
iv. Gandhiji attended the Second Round Table Conference
(a) i (b) i and iv (c) ii and iii (d) only iii 6. What do you know of the Mahad Satyagraha launched by Dr.Ambedkhar.
11. Non-Cooperation movement included Its establish for the civic right of the untouchables to public tanks and wells.
(A) boycott of government schools and colleges (B) return of government conferred titles Ambedkar‟s intellectual and public activities drew the attention of all.
(C) observing protest fasts (D) conducting underground movements He lashed out at the Indian National Congress and the British officials.
(a) A and B (b) B and C (c) A and D (d) C and D
12. Assertion (A) : B.R. Ambedkar launched Mahad Satyagraha.
Reason (R) : He wanted to unite Hindus and Muslims. 7.What was agreed upon according to Gandhi-Irwin Pact?
(a) A is correct R explains A (b) A is correct does not explain R The government agreed to allow people to make salt for their consumption.
(c) A is correct and R is wrong (d) A wrong and R is correct. Release political prisoners who had not indulged in violence.
13. Assertion (A): The Indian Council Act and the Rowlatt Act were passed in 1919. Permitted the picketing of liquor and foreign cloth shops.
Reason (R): It was part of the British policy of winning over the moderates and isolating
the extremists
3 - MARKS
(a) Both A and R are correct R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are correct R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is correct and R is wrong (d) A wrong and R is correct. 1. Write a note on the Jallianwala Bagh massacre.
14. Which of the under mentioned personality is unrelated to Swaraj Party? The people had assembled at the Jallianwala Bagh to protest peacefully against the arrest
(a) Rajaji (b) Chitaranjan Das (c) Motilal Nehru (d) Sathya murthi of their leaders. ( Satyapal and Saifudding Kitchlew).
15. Gandhi set out on the March and reached Dandi on This Jallianwala Bagh ground was held had only one narrow entrance.
(a) 6th April 1930 (b) 6th March 1930 (c) 4th April 1939 (d) 4th March 1930
Dyer ordered firing on the crowd, Until the ammunition was empty.
While the official figures of the dead was only about 379.
2 - MARKS
1. How was the visit of Prince of Wales to India received?
2. Write about the Dyarchy in provinces.
The visit of Prince of Wales to several cities in India was boycotted.
Under this „Dyarchy.‟ law and order and finance were „reserved‟ for the whitemen.
The government's calculation that the prince of Wales would induce the spirit of loyalty
They were directly under the control of the Governors.
of the Indian people proved wrong.
The local bodies like health and education were transferred to representatives of India.
Workers and peasants had gone on strike across the country.
Ministers holding „transferred subjects‟ were responsible to the legislatures.
2. Who were the local leaders to accompany Gandhiji to Champran ?
Rajendra Prasad, MazharulHuq, AcharyaKripalani , Mahadeva Desai. 3. What is the importance of the Poona Pact?
The communal award was modified.
3. Why was Servants of India Society founded? The Poona Pact took away separate electorates.
Servants of India Society founded for train Indians of welfare work. Reservation of seats was guaranteed.
It worked for the welfare of the backward and tribal people. This reservation seats was incorporated in the constitutional changes which were made.
Its members were involved in relief and literacy.
M. VENKATESAN M.A., M.Phil., B.Ed., PG ASSISSTANT ( HISTORY ) GBHSS AYAPPAKKAM M. VENKATESAN M.A., M.Phil., B.Ed., PG ASSISSTANT ( HISTORY ) GBHSS AYAPPAKKAM
5. “The leaders of the non-Brahman movement were using the same tactics as the early Impact of the Non-Cooperation movement
Nationalist in dealing with the colonial government.” Elaborate. Schools, colleges and vidyapeethas were established by the natives.
Non Brahmin leaders who questioned the supremacy of the Brahmins and other Several leading lawyers gave up their practice.
‘superior’ castes. The visit of Prince of Wales in 1921 to several cities in India was also boycotted.
These leaders pleaded with the government through their associations for justice. Workers and peasants had gone on strike across the country.
In this way, these leaders followed the path of the early Nationalists. The Government dealt with repression as usual.
The colonial government made use of the grievances of the non-Brahmins to divide and
rule India. 2. In what way was the Civil Disobedient Movement different from Non-cooperation Movement?
Non-cooperation Movement
6. Point out the difference between pro-changers and no changers. It was started with the aim of establishing an Self government.
Pro-changers No changers The non cooperation movement has both a positive and negative approaches.
They proposed a new line of activity. They wanted to continue the Gandhian line. In the positive scheme included the Swadeshi, khadi spinning, and Hindu muslim Unity.
The negative approach included the legislative, judicial and foreign boycott.
They wanted council entry. They opposed council entry.
During this Movement, Riots and poor violence were held.
They wanted to activate entry into They argued that electoral politicswould Civil Disobedient Movement :
electoral politics. divert the attention of nationalists.
It Started with the goal of achieving complete independence.
It was a ethical protest against the unjust tax on salt.
7. Write about Communal Award of British Prime Minister Ramsay MacDonald. Many Indians were joined Gandhi in defiance of the ban on the production of salt.
A meeting between Gandhi and Ambedkar on the separate electorates ended in failure. It was symbolic of the refusal of Indians to be under the repressive colonial government
During the Second RTC also, the discussion on this issue remained inconclusive. and its unjust laws.
So the British government announced Communal Award in August 1932. This Movement was a struggle based on non violent crusaders.
Ambedkar‟s demands for separate electorates with reserved seats were conceded.
3. Estimate the role of Mahathma Gandhi in the Indian Freedom Struggle.
7. Why was the Congress banned in the aftermath of the unsuccessful conclusion of three Gandhiji's early struggles:
round table conferences? The first attempt at mobilizing the Indian masses was made by Gandhi on an invitation
The Congress resolved on renewing the civil disobedience movement. by peasants of Champaran.
The peasants and Workers protested all over the country. He fought in support of ahmedabad factory workers and got a 35% wage increase.
All key leaders including Nehru, Khan Abdul Gafar Khan and finally Gandhi were all He got exempted the farmers of Kheda district from paying land tax for failiure of the
arrested. monsoon.
So the Congress was banned. Special laws were enacted to crush the agitations.
Khilafat Movement and Non-Cooperation Movement:
Gandhi called upon the people to observe „hartal‟ in 1919 against the Rowlatt Act.
5 – MARKS He combined it with the Khilafat issue which brought Hindus and Muslims together.
The Khilafat Conference, at the instance of Gandhi, decided to launch the non-
1. Discuss the context of launching of the Non-Cooperation movement and its outcome. cooperation movement.
launching of the Non-Cooperation. Gandhi promised Swaraj, if Indians participated in the non-cooperation movement on
The Khilafat Conference, at the instance of Gandhi, decided to launch the non- non-violent mode within a year.
cooperation movement. The Civil Disobedience Movement and the Poona Pact :
It was decided to adhere to this non cooperation till the establishment of self-government. As a part of the civil disobedience movement Gandhi started „Dandi March‟.
To decided the boycott of schools, colleges, courts, government offices. He violated the Salt Tax Act by march from the Sabarmati Ashram to the Dandi.
To decided that return in government conferred titles and awards. Gandhiji went on a fast unto death to protest against the communal reservation given by
The struggle at a later stage was to include no tax campaign and mass civil. the British.
Later, the Poona Pact was signed between Gandhiji and Ambedkar.
M. VENKATESAN M.A., M.Phil., B.Ed., PG ASSISSTANT ( HISTORY ) GBHSS AYAPPAKKAM M. VENKATESAN M.A., M.Phil., B.Ed., PG ASSISSTANT ( HISTORY ) GBHSS AYAPPAKKAM
Individual Satyagraha and Quit India Movement: 5. Which of the following about Great Depression are true?
During the second world war, Gandhi decided the way of individual Satyagraha in (i) It started in North America (ii) The crash in the Wall Street triggered the Depression
India. (iii) Depression hit only the rich
(iv) Labourers enjoyed better living conditions during the Depression because of fall inprices.
Individual Satyagraha was the Congress response to the August offer.
(a) i and ii (b) i, ii and iii (c) i and iv (d) i, iii and iv
In 1942, gandhi rejected the Cripps propossal, and started the Quit India Movement. 6. The First Cotton Mill in Bombay was started in
He said to the people, "Do it or die." (a) 1852 (b) 1854 (c) 1861 (d) 1865
7. Find out which of the following statements are correct with the help of the the code given
4. Sketch the educational career of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar with particular focus on his below.
activism to secure social justice to the depressed classes? (a) Chittagong Armoury Raiders‟ Reminiscences was written by Kalpana Dutt.
Ambedkar’s Ideology : (b) Kalpana Dutt fought carrying guns for the liberation of her mother land.
Ambedkar was always concerned about the education and employment of Dalits. (c) She was charged with „waging war against the King Emperor‟.
(a) Only I (b) I and II (c) II and III (d) all the above
His famous slogan was “Educate, unite, struggle”.
8. The first passenger train ran in 1853 between
He wanted to use education to establish justice, equality, fraternity, in society. (a) Madras – Arakkonam (b) Bombay – Pune (c) Bombay – Thane (d) Kolkata – Hoogly
He also demanded scholarships for Dalit students. 9. The first Jute Mill in Calcutta was founded in
Mahad Satyagraha : a) 1855 (b) 1866 (c) 1877 (d) 1888
10. Who among the following was arrested in the Kanpur Conspiracy Case?
Its establish for the civic right of the untouchables to public tanks and wells.
(a) M.N. Roy (b) Baghat Singh (c) S.A. Dange (d) Ram Prasad Bismil
Ambedkar‟s intellectual and public activities drew the attention of all.
11. Which of the following statements about the Kanpur conspiracy case are true?
He lashed out at the Indian National Congress and the British officials. (i) Trade unions emerged in the jute and cotton textile industries.
Bahishkrit Hitakarini Sabha : (ii) The Communists and trade unionists were charged
Bahishkrit Hitakarini Sabha was founded by Dr.Ambedkar. (iii) The case came before session Judge H.E. Holmer
This mean Association for the welfare of excluded. (iv) The trial and the imprisonment led to some awareness of the Congress activities in
Its main Aim was to secure the removal of disabilities imposed on untouchables. India Codes
Poona Pact : (a) i, ii and iii (b) i, iii and iv (c) ii, iii and iv (d) i, ii and iv
The Poona Pact was signed between Gandhiji and Ambedkar.
As a result the communal award was modified. 2 - MARKS
This Poona Pact took away separate electorates.
But Reservation of seats was guaranteed. 1. Name the three British communists sent by the Communist Party of Great Britain to
help build the party in India.
Philip Spratt, Ban Bradley, Lester Hutchinson.
5 - Period of Radicalism in Anti-imperialist Struggles
2. Identify the persons who appeared and defended the accused in the Meerut Conspiracy Case.
1. Communist Party of India was formed in the year
K.F. Nariman and M.C. Chagla.
(a) 1920 (b) 1925 (c) 1930 (d) 1935
2. Kalpana Dutt was associated with 3. What do you know of the notorious Sessions Judge of Gorakhpur H.E. Holmes?
(a) Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (b) Bengal Association He was the judge who tried the Kanpur Conspiracy Case.
(c) Communist Party of India (d) Indian Republican Army He had already tried the Chauri Chaura case.
3. Match the following He sentenced 172 farmers to death in this case
(A) Kanpur Conspiracy Case - 1. Fundamental rights
(B) Meerut Conspiracy Case - 2. Surya Sen 4. Which incident was known as the Second Lahore Conspiracy Case?
(C) Chittagong Armoury Ride - 3. 1929
Saunders murder case was known as the Second Lahore Conspiracy Case.
(D) Karachi Session of Indian National Congress - 4. 1924
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 2, 3, 4, 1 (c) 3, 4, 1, 2 (d) 4, 3, 2, 1 . In this case Bhagat Singh, Rajguru, Sukhdev, JatindraNath Das and 21 others were
4. Who died in jail after 64 days of hunger strike? Arrested.
(a) Pulin Das (b) Sachin Sanyal (c) Jatindra Nath Das (d) Preet Waddadar In this case that Bhagat Singh, Rajguru and Sukhdev were sentenced to death.
M. VENKATESAN M.A., M.Phil., B.Ed., PG ASSISSTANT ( HISTORY ) GBHSS AYAPPAKKAM M. VENKATESAN M.A., M.Phil., B.Ed., PG ASSISSTANT ( HISTORY ) GBHSS AYAPPAKKAM
5. Why is J.N. Tata called the father of Indian modern industry? Lahore Conspiracy Case :
He was the first successful Indian entrepreneur, so he called the father of Indian modern Bhagat Singh and his commerades were arrested in Saunders murder case.
industry. This case was known as the Second Lahore Conspiracy Case.
His trading company evolved into the Tata Group. In this case that Bhagat Singh, Rajguru and Sukhdev were sentenced to death.
He called one of his factories established in Bombay as "Swadeshi". In 1931, Bhagat Singh was hanged in the Lahore Jail.
Bhagat Singh's slogans:
3 - MARKS He said, „the days of capitalism and imperialism are numbered.
He also said, Revolution is the inalienable right of mankind.
Until his last breath, he shouting Inquilab Zindabad.
1. Explain how Surya Sen organised the Chitagong Armoury Raid.
He planned a rebellion to occupy Chittagong in a guerrilla-style operation.
2. Write an account of the industrial development in colonial India during 1919-1939.
They planned to cut off all communication networks to isolate the region.
Simultaneous attacks were launched on telegraph offices, the armoury and the police Development of weaving industry:
barracks. After a short slug the output of textile industry began to pick up.
Finally the Chittagong armouries were raided on the night of 18 April 1930. During the interwar period, the number of looms and spindles increased considerably.
After the Great Depression, the proportion had fallen to 20.5 percent.
Development of shipping industry :
2. Write a short note on TISCO.
Tata Iron and Steel Company (TISCO) – was set up by the Tatas in 1907. The Scindia Steamship Company was a pioneer in the shipping industry.
It was set up by a part of swadeshi effort. In 1939, they also bought the British Bombay Steamship Company.
In 1912–13 Its production was 31,000 tons. Development of other industries:
Its production increased to 1,81,000 tons in 1917–18. Other two industries which registered impressive growth were sugar and cement.
During the inter-war period, many machineries, aircrafts, locomotives industries were
3. Write about the contribution of Singaravelu to the promotion of trade unionism in South started.
India. Industrial Development in Tamil Nadu:
Along with Thiru. V. Kalyanasundaram, he organised many trade unions in South India. A cement factory started at Madukkarai in Coimbatore district.
He organised the first ever celebration of May Day in the country (1923). The number of sugar factories increased from 2 to 11.
He attending Communist Conference of different communist groups.(1925). The number of rice mills, oil mills and cinema enterprise increased.
He was one of the main organisers of the strike in South Indian Railways (1928). 3. Examine the importance of Karachi session of India National Congress in articulating the
5 – MARKS socio- economic political aspirations, under the pressure of Great Depression.
In the context of great agrarian distress, deepened by world-wide economic depression..
1. Discuss Bhagat Singh‟s radical strand of nationalism, and his revolutionary activitsm that So the Congress adopted a no-rent and no-tax campaign as a part of its civil disobedience
led to his hanging. programme.
Bhagat Singh's early activities: Under the pressure of Great Depression, socio-economic demands were sharply
He was associated with the Naujawan Bharat Sabha and the Hindustan Republican articulated in its Karachi Session of the INC.
Association. During this time Peasants organised themselves into Kisan Sabhas, and they participated
He was one of the leader in the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association. the freedom struggle.
Bhagat Singh’s Bomb Throwing : Industrial workers also organized the trade unions, and they participate the freedom
struggle.
The British Government decided to introduce the Trade Disputes Bill against the
The Congress , which was now Nehru‟s leadership, began to talk about an egalitarian
workers.
society based on social and economic justice.
Bhagat Singh and his friends bombed the Central Assembly on the day the bill was
introduced. The Karachi session held in March 1931, presided over by SardarValabhbhai Patel,
adopted a resolution on Fundamental Rights and Duties.
But the bombs did not kill anybody.
M. VENKATESAN M.A., M.Phil., B.Ed., PG ASSISSTANT ( HISTORY ) GBHSS AYAPPAKKAM M. VENKATESAN M.A., M.Phil., B.Ed., PG ASSISSTANT ( HISTORY ) GBHSS AYAPPAKKAM
In this session, provided an insight into what the economic policy of an independent 12. Match the following and choose the correct answer form the codes given below
India. (A) Hindu Revivalism 1. M.S. Golwalkar
In some ways, it was the manifesto of the Indian National Congress for independent (B) Abolition of the Caliphate 2. Arya Samaj
India. (C) Lala Lajpat Rai 3. 1924
(D) RSS 4. Partition of the Punjab into Hindu and Muslim Provinces
(a) 4 3 2 1 (b) 3 4 1 2 (c) 1 3 2 4 (d) 2 3 4 1
1. During the Mughal Period the Official and Court language was 1. Why was supported to British by syed Ahmad khan?
(a) Urdu (b) Hindi (c) Marathi (d) Persian The competitive examinations for the government service began to increase the fear of
2. The first Indian to find a place in London Privy Council Muslims.
(a) Rahmatullah Sayani (b) Sir Syed Ahmed (c) Syed Ameer Ali (d) Badruddin Tyabji So Syed and his followers decided to work for close collaboration with the Government.
3. Assertion: The Bengal government‟s order of 1870 created apprehension in the minds of He also thought that in a country ruled by Hindus, Muslims would not get adequate help.
Muslim professional groups.
Reason: It replaced Urdu by Hindi and the Perso-Arabic script in the courts and offices.
(a) A is correct R does not explain A. (b) A is correct and R explains A. 2. Write a short note on Separate Electorate or Communal Electorate:
(c) A is wrong and R is correct. (d) Both A and R are wrong Under this arrangement only Muslims could vote for the Muslim candidates.
4. The Two Nation Theory first came from Minto-Morley reforms act granted separate constitutional identity to the Muslims.
(a) Rajaji (b) Ramsay MacDonald (c) Mohammad Iqbal (d) Sir Wazir Hasan This separate electorates incorporation of the principle of “divide and rule” into a
5. In the 1937 elections, Congress won in formal constitutional arrangement.
(a) 12 Provinces (b) 7 Provinces (c) 5 Provinces (d) 8 Provinces
6. The Muslim League celebrated the end of Congress rule as a Day of Deliverance on
3.What were the demands put forth by Muslim under the leadership of Aga Khan.
(a) 22 December 1940 (b) 5 February 1939 (c) 23 March 1937 (d) 22 December 1939
Representation of Muslims in government jobs.
7. Match List- I with List- II and select the correct answer using the codes given below
(A) Annie Besant - 1. Aligarh Movement Appointment of Muslim judges in High Courts.
(B) Syed Ahmed Khan - 2. Dayanand Saraswati Muslims were the members in Viceroy‟s council.
(C) Khilafat Movement- 3. Theosophical Society 4. Write about the sixth annual conference of the All India Hindu Mahasabha held in Varanasi
(D) Suddhi Movement - 4. Ali Brothers
in 1923.
(a) 3 1 4 2 (b) 1 2 3 4 (c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 2 3 4 1
This conference was held to place their demand for autonomous institutions.
8. Find out the correct answer from the following:
At this conference, the United Provinces, Punjab, Delhi, Bihar, Madras, Bombay and
(i) Sir Syed Ahmed Khan, the founder of Aligarh movement, was initially supportive of the
Congress. Bengal were sent their as representatives.
(ii) The Punjab Hindu Sabha founded in 1909 laid the foundation for Hindu communal Most of the delegates were attending from the United Provinces.
politics.
(a) Statement (i) & (ii) are correct (b) statement (i) correct (ii) wrong 3 – MARKS
(c) Statement (i) wrong (ii) correct (d) statement (i) & (ii) are wrong
9. Direct Action Day organised by the Muslim League on 1. How did Gandhi view the Malabar Rebellion of 1921.
(a) 25 December, 1942 (b) 16 August, 1946 (c) 21 March, 1937 (d) 22 December, 1939 Basically it was an agrarian revolt.
10. Wavell was succeeded by But communal passion ran high in this revolt.
(a) Linlithgow (b) Pethic Lawrence (c) Mountbatten (d) Chelmsford So Gandhi himself viewed it as a Hindu-Muslim conflict.
11. Assertion (A): The institution of separate electorate was the principle adopted by the
Gandhi wanted Muslim leaders to tender a public apology for the happenings in Malabar.
British Government for fostering and spreading communalism.
Reason (R): The people were split into separate constituencies so that they voted
communally. 2. Highlight the objectives of the first centrally-organized political party of Muslims.
(a) A is correct, R is not the correct explanation of A (b) A is correct, R is wrong To promote among the Muslims of India feelings of loyalty to the British Government.
(c) A and R are wrong (d) A is correct, R is the correct explanation of A To remove any misconception that may arise as to the instruction of Government.
M. VENKATESAN M.A., M.Phil., B.Ed., PG ASSISSTANT ( HISTORY ) GBHSS AYAPPAKKAM M. VENKATESAN M.A., M.Phil., B.Ed., PG ASSISSTANT ( HISTORY ) GBHSS AYAPPAKKAM
To protect and advance the political rights and interests of Muslims of India. Introduce of Separate electorates :
To prevent the rise among the Muslims of India of any feeling of hostility towards other Separate electorates were distributed as part of the policy of divide and rule.
communities. The announcement of separate electorates, the principle of “divide and rule” into a formal
constitutional arrangement.
3. State the importance of Minto-Morley reforms of 1909. Communalism in local body elections :
This act gave separate constituencies for muslims. There were unexpected consequences in democratic politics.
It granted separate constitutional identity to the Muslims. All parties adopted a sectarian approach.
This separate electorates incorporation of the principle of “divide and rule” into a Outbreak of riots:
formal constitutional arrangement. In North India enmity between Hindus and Muslims grew.
it was made completely estrangement, the Hindus and Muslims. The last decades of the 19 th century was marked by a number of Hindu–Muslim riots.
The policy of divide and rule of the British led to the emergence of the Muslim League.
4.What were the proposals of the Delhi Conference of Muslims held in 1927? This led to the partition of India.
The separation of Sind from Bombay.
Reforms for the Frontier and Baluchistan. 3. Hindu nationalism, Muslim nationalism and Indian nationalism were equally responsible
Representation by population in the Punjab and Bengal. for the partition of the country. How?
33 % seats for the Muslims in the Central Legislature. Hindu nationalism, responsible for the partition of the country:
The Hindu Mahasabha, represented the forces of Hindu revivalism in the political
5 – MARKS domain, raised the slogan of „Akhand Hindustan‟ .
1. Trace the origin and growth of communalism in British India. They openly advocated that „the non-Hindu people in Hindustan must adopt the Hindu
Hindu Revivalism : culture and language.
Hindu, revivalism found its voice in politics through the Arya Samaj. LalaLajpat Rai openly advocated the partition of the Punjab into Hindu and Muslim
The participation of the Congressmen in the activities of the Arya Samaj further divided Provinces.
the Hindus and Muslims. Muslim nationalism, responsible for the partition of the country:
Rise of Muslims Consciousness : Muslim supporters of the Swadeshi movement were condemned as “Congress touts.”
The Wahabi movement had wanted to take Islam to its pristine purity. During the Khilafat movement, Muslims were engaged in religious mobilization.
Islam was securing its articulation through the Aligarh movement. The demonstration of Nationalist Muslims was dubbed as anti-Islamic and denigrated.
Divide and Rule Policy of British : Indian nationalism, responsible for the partition of the country:
The British government lent legitimacy and prestige to communal ideology. Congress was unable to prevent the involvement of its members in the activities of Hindu
The British identified the Congressmen with Hindu communalism and the revivalists. communal organisations.
Local administrative bodies provided the scope for pursuing communal politics. Congressmen‟s participation in campaigns of the Arya Samaj further estranged Hindus
Weak policy of The Congress : and muslims.
During the Swadeshi Movement, Muslim supporters of the Swadeshi movement were Tilak, Aurobindo Gosh and LalaLajpatRai aroused Nationalism by using religious
Condemned as “Congress touts.” symbols. it was most aggravating factor for the hindu muslim conflict.
Lal Chand condemned the Indian National Congress for pursuing a policy of appeasing
Muslims. 7 - Last phase of Indian National Movement
Tilak's attempt to mobilise Hindus through the Ganpati festival further intensified
communalism. 1. When did „Individual Satyagraha‟ begin?
(a) March 23, 1940 (b) August 8, 1940 (c) 17 October 1940 (d) August 9, 1942
2. Match the following
2. How did the divide and rule policy of the British impact on Indian nationalism? A. Hindu Muslim Riot - 1. Mohan Singh
Disunity: B. August Offer - 2. Govind Ballabh Pant
The object of the British was to check development of acomposite Indian identity. C. Proposer of Partition Resolution - 3. Lord Linlithgow
To forestall attempts at consolidation and unification of Indians. D. Indian National Army - 4. Naokhali
(a) 3 4 2 1 (b) 4 2 1 3 (c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 3 2 4 1
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3. The Cripps Mission visited India during the regime of 20. British had their intention to leave India by
(a) Lord Wavell (b) Lord Linlithgow (c) Lord Mountbatten (d) None of these (a) August 15, 1947 (b) January 26, 1950 (c) June, 1948 (d) December, 1949
4. Match the following
A.US President - 1. Tojo 2 - MARKS
B. Chinese President - 2. Winston Churchill
C. British Prime Minister - 3. Chiang Kai-Shek 1. What is the importance of Lahore resolution?
D. Japanese Prime Minister - 4. F.D. Roosevelt The demand for a separate nation for Muslims.
(a) 1 4 3 2 (b) 1 3 2 4 (c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 4 2 3 1 The Muslim League and its associates proposed this demand.
5. When was Subhash Chandra Bose removed from the congress? The resolution gave the British an opportunity to reject the litigations with Congress.
(a) 1938 (b) 1939 (c) 1940 (d) 1942
6. Mahatma Gandhi gave the call „Do or Die‟ during the 2. State the main features of August Offer.
(a) Civil Disobedience Movement (b) Non-Cooperation Movement Dominion status at some unspecified future.
(c) Quit India Movement (d) All of the above.
Setting up a War Advisory Council with Indians in it.
7. Who ran an illegal radio station at Bombay during the Quit India Movement?
(a) Usha Mehta (b) Preeti Waddadar (c) Asaf Ali (d) Captain Lakshmii Recognition of the rights of the minority.
8. Who appeared in court in defense of the INA soldiers
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru (b) Motilal Nehru (c) Rajaji (d) Subhash Chandra Bose 3. Why was the Cripps Mission rejected by the Congress?
9. Who was the Viceroy of India when the Quit India Movement started in 1942? The offer of Dominion Status was too little.
(a) Lord Wavell (b) Lord Linlithgow (c) Lord Mountbatten (d) Winston Churchill The idea of nominated members for the Princely States to the constitution-making body.
10. Assertion (A): Quit India Movement could not achieve its goal. The possibility of partition.
Reason (R): The government of the day adopted a very repressive policy.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A. 4. Why did the talks at Simla Conference break down.
(c) A is true but R is false. (d) A is false but R is true. The talks broke down on the right to nominate members to the Viceroy‟s Council.
11. INA was founded with the help of The Muslim League insisted on its exclusive right to nominate Muslim members to the
(a) Germany (b) Japan (c) France (d) USA Council.
12. Name the regiment of Indian National Army consisting of women soldiers. Congress did not accept muslim league rights, so Simla Conference proved to be a
(a) Subhash regiment (b) Kasturba regiment failiure.
(c) Captain Lakshmi Regiment (d) Rani of Jhansi regiment
13. Where did Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose form the Provincial Government of Free India?
(a) Rangoon (b) Malaya (c) Imphal (d) Singapore 5. How did Captain Mohan Singh organise the INA?
14. The INA trials took place in The Indian Prisoners of War with the Japanese were left under Mohan Singh’s
(a) Red Fort, New Delhi (b) Penang (c) Viceregal Lodge, Simla (d) Singapore command.
15. Which Viceroy convened the „Simla Conference‟ in 1945? As Singapore also fell to Japan, the number of POWs under Mohan Singh's control
(a) Lord Wavell (b) Lord Linlithgow (c) Lord Mountbatten (d) Clement Attlee increased.
16. Interim Government of 1946 was headed by Mohan Singh drafted about 40,000 men in the Indian National Army by the end of 1942.
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru (b) Moulana Abul Kalam Azad
(c) Rajendra Prasad (d) Vallabhai Patel
17. Arrange the following in correct order 3 – MARKS
(i) Formation of Indian National Army (ii) Royal Indian Navy Revolt 1. Name the organisations which did not participate in the Quit India Movement.
(iii) Indian National Army Trials (iv) Rajaji formula The Muslim League, The Shiromani Akali Dal, The Hindu MahaSabha.
(a) i, iii, ii, iv (b) i, iv, iii, ii (c) iii, iv, i, ii (d) iii, iv, ii, i
18. Which is the correct sequence of the following events? 2. Discuss the proposals of Sir Strafford Cripps
(i) INA Trial (ii) Direct Action Day (iii) August Offer (iv) Individual Satyagraha Cripps promised Dominion Status after the war.
(a) i, ii, iii, iv (b) iii, i, ii, iv (c) iii, iv, i, ii (d) i, iii, iv, ii He also promised constitution-making body after the war.
19. Name the British Prime Minster who announced the transfer of power to the Indian hands?
The constitution-making body was to be elected Members by the provincial assemblies.
(a) Winston Churchill (b) Lord Mountbatten (c) Clement Attlee (d) F.D. Roosevelt
It also nominated members from the Princely states.
M. VENKATESAN M.A., M.Phil., B.Ed., PG ASSISSTANT ( HISTORY ) GBHSS AYAPPAKKAM M. VENKATESAN M.A., M.Phil., B.Ed., PG ASSISSTANT ( HISTORY ) GBHSS AYAPPAKKAM
3. Explain the reasons for the removal of S.C. Bose from the INC. 2. How far was the INA Trial instrumental in intensifying the freedom struggle?
Subhas Chandra Bose was isolated within the Congress. The contribution of the Congress:
Most of the congress leaders refused cooperation with S.C. Bose. The Indian National Congress fielded its best lawyers in defence of the INA soldiers.
So Bose resigned the AICC president. The trials made a huge impact in inspiring the masses.
Bose founded the Forward Bloc party to function within the Congress The INA figured more prominently as an issue in all election meetings.
The contribution of the press:
4. Who were the Muslim League representatives in the Interim Government formed in 1946? All the Indian press published the inquiry passionately.
Liaquat Ali Khan, I.I. Chundrigar. They published the inquiry in an editorial and demanded their release.
A. R. Nishtar, Ghazanfar Ali Khan. Public Participation :
Jogendra Nath Mandal. Hartals and even general strikes across the nation demanding release of the soldiers.
The funds were raised for the defence of INA soldiers.
5. What was the context in which Gandhi thought of Quit India Movement? The INA Week was reiterated and the immediate release of the soldiers was emphasized.
The proposals of the Cripps made Gandhiji lose faith in the British. Conclusion of the investigation:
The colonial government did not any assurance of independence . The investigation attracted a great deal of attention to the public and had an impact.
Subhas Bose‟s campaign to join hands with the Axis powers in the fight for The trial court convicted and sentenced Sehgal, Dhillon and Shah Nawaz Khan.
independence. The commander of Chief reduced their sentence and later released them.
Bose addressed the people of India on the Azad Hind Radio broadcast from Germany. 3. Write a paragraph about the Rajaji Formula.
A post-war commission to be formed to demarcate the contiguous districts where the
5 - MARKS Muslims were in absolute majority.
A plebiscite of the adult population there to ascertain whether they would prefer Pakistan.
1. Discuss the course of the Quit India Movement. In case of a partition there would be a mutual agreement .
Beginning of the movement: Defence and communication should be in this mutual agreement .
When Gandhi announced the Quit India Movement, all the leaders of the INC, including The border districts could choose to join either of the two sovereign states;
Gandhi, were arrested. The implementation of the scheme would wait till the full transfer of power.
The immediate response to the pre-dawn arrests was hartals in almost all the towns where Gandhi, proposed talks with Jinnah based on what came to be the „Rajaji formula‟.
the people clashed. But no decision has been reached in this speech.
Workers across India went on strike.
Spread of Movement: 4. Why is the Royal Indian Revolt considered a glorious chapter in the history of Indian
The early stage of the struggle was centred in urban areas. National Movement?
It spread in its second phase into the villages. The beginning of the revolt :
Village youth were mobilized through guerilla action. B.C. Dutt, the HMIS Talwar was arrested for scribbling „Quit India‟ on the panel of the
Clandestine Radio : ship.
The press being censored, the rebels set up a clandestine radio broadcast system from This provoked a strike by the 1,100 ratings on the ship.
Bombay. They condemed, racist behaviour and abuses that were the norm of the English
Usha Mehta was the originator of clandestine radio broadcasting in Bombay commanders.
Its broadcast was heard as far away as Madras. The spread of the revolt :
State repression : The trade unions in Bombay and Calcutta called for a sympathy strike and the two cities
The police shot dead 1060 persons during the same period. turned into war zones.
The British unleashed „white terror‟. Shopkeepers downed shutters.
The Quit India movement was the most powerful onslaught against the colonial state Trains were stopped in the two cities with people sitting on the tracks.
hitherto.
Support of Air Force and Army :
M. VENKATESAN M.A., M.Phil., B.Ed., PG ASSISSTANT ( HISTORY ) GBHSS AYAPPAKKAM M. VENKATESAN M.A., M.Phil., B.Ed., PG ASSISSTANT ( HISTORY ) GBHSS AYAPPAKKAM
Royal Air Force personnel from various cities also protested in support of the sailors' 11. The adoption of the Constitution was on
strike. (a) January 30, 1949 (b) August 15, 1947 (c) January 30, 1949 (d) November 26, 1949
The Sepoys in the army cantonment station at Jabalpur too went on strike. 12. The first State formed on linguistic basis was
End of the revolt : (a) Kashmir (b) Assam (c) Andhra (d) Orissa
The colonial government‟s response was brutal repression.
Sardar Vallabhai Patel, then in Bombay, took the initiative to bring the revolt to an end. 2 - MARKS
1. What do you know of Instrument of Accession?
The RIN mutiny, however, was indeed a glorious chapter in the Indian National
Movement. A legal document, introduced in Government of India Act, 1935.
This document was used, during the partition of india.
8 - Reconstruction of Post-Colonial India. Accordingly, the princely states were given the opportunity to join India or Pakistan.
1. Match the following
(A) JVP Committee - 1. 1928 2. Describe the composition of Constituent Assembly.
(B) Sir Cyril Radcliffe - 2. State Reorganisation Commission The Constituent Assembly was setup under the plan of Cabinet Mission.
(C) Fazl Ali - 3. 1948 The constituent assembly members were indirectly elected by the provincial legislators.
(D) Nehru Committee Report - 4. Boundary Commission Rajendra Prasad was elected the chairman of the House.
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 3 4 2 1 (c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 4 2 3 1
3. What is the significance of article 370 of the Constitution?
2. Arrange the following in chronological order.
Autonomous status was given to the State of Jammu and Kashmir.
(i) Atlee‟s announcement on India‟s independence
(ii) Interim Government under Nehru (iii) Lord Mountbatten Plan During the partition of India, Kashmir too became an integral part of the Indian Union.
(a) ii, i, iii (b) i, ii, iii (c) iii, ii, i (d) ii, iii, i This status was given by the promise of the Indian leaders during the partition of India.
3. Match the following
(A) People‟s Republic of China - 1. Belgrade 4. What justified the “police action” in Hyderabad to get it integrated into union of India?
(B) Bandung Conference - 2. March 1947 Following Nizam's announcement, People expressed their anger towards the Nizam and
(C) Asian Relations Conference - 3. April 1955 his army.
(D) Birth of NonAligned Movement - 4. January 1, 1950
(a) 3 4 2 1 (b) 4 2 3 1 (c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 3 2 4 1 So Communists led the Telangana people's movement.
4. Which is the correct sequence of the following events? Which provided the legitimacy to “the police action”.
(i) People‟s Republic of China (ii) India‟s war with China (iii) Meeting of the
Constituent Assembly (iv) Panch Sheel (v) Nehru-Liaquat Ali Khan Pact 5. What was the essence of the JVP Committee‟s recommendations?
(a) i, ii, iii, iv, v (b) iii, i, v, iv, ii (c) iii, iv, i, v, ii (d) i, iii, iv, v, ii The JVP committee rejected the demand for linguistic states.
5. Mahatma Gandhi was assassinated on Because that demand, in given context had “narrow provincialism.
(a) January, 30, 1948 (b) August 15, 1947 (c) January, 30, 1949 (d) October, 2, 1948
“while language is a binding force, it is also a separating one‟‟
6. Who was the first to raise the demand for Andhra province ?
(a) Potti Sriramulu (b) Pattabhi Sitaramayya (c) K.M. Panikkar (d) T. Prakasam 3 - MARKS
7. The Objectives Resolution before the Constituent Assembly was placed by 1. How was the Raja of Kashmir made to sign the Instrument of Accession?
(a) Rajendra Prashad (b) Jawaharlal Nehru During the Partition of India, Maharaja of Kashmir was opposed to Annexation in India.
(c) Vallabh bhai Patel (d) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad But Maharaja Hari Singh could not stop the Marauders from Pakistan raided Kashmir.
8 The Congress ensured the election of Dr B.R. Ambedkar from a seat in When Hari Singh sought India's help, Patel said he should sign the annexure.
(a) Amethi (b) Bombay (c) Nagpur (d) Mhow Accordingly, the King of Kashmir signed the Annexure .
9. Assertion (A): Radcliffe‟s award contained all kinds of anomalies.
Reason (R) : Despite anomalies the award was accepted by all stakeholders.
2. What are the hallmarks of our Indian Constitution?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A. Fundamental rights
(c) A is true but R is false. (d) A is false but R is true. Directive principles of state policy.
10. The Constituent Assembly was convened for the first time on An autonomous election commission.
(a) March 22, 1949 (b) January 26,1946 (c) December 9, 1946 (d) December 13, 1946 The independence of the judiciary.
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3. Highlight the tragic consequences of Partition. In the 1945 election manifesto of the Congress, the idea of linguistic provinces was
Communal riots had become normal in many parts of India. firmly contained.
Minorities on both sides lived in fear . In 1946, Pattabhi Sitaramayya raised the demand for an Andhra Province in
Properties left behind by migrant families in both countries were occupied. Constituent Assembly.
Trains from either side of the new border in the Punjab were many of with piles of dead 3-Member commission :
bodies. The idea of linguistic states revived soon after the first general elections.
In 1948, Chairman Rajendra Prasad set up a 3-member commission for this demand.
4. Explain the five principles of PanchSheel. But the Three Commission rejected the demand for a linguistic province.
Mutual respect for each other's territorial integrity and sovereignty JVP Committee :
Mutual non-aggression
The committee said that linguistic provinces insisted on "narrow provincialism."
Mutual non-interference in each other's internal affairs
The committee also said “while language is a binding force, it is also a separating one‟‟
Equality and cooperation for mutual benefit Finally the JVP committee rejected the demand for linguistic states.
Peaceful co-existence
Potti Sriramulu’s Fasting :
5 – MARKS Potti Sriramulu‟s started fast demanding a separate state of Andhra and he was died in
1. What were the problems in the merger of princely states with the Indian Union and 1952.
how they were ably handled by Patel and Nehru. This led to the States Reorganisation Commission under the leadership of Fasli Ali.
The problems in the merger of princely states with the Indian Union Based on the report of this Commission, the State Reorganisation Act, 1956 was passed.
The ruler of Hyderabad, Nizam declaring his kingdom as independent.
The ruler of Junagadh wanted to join Pakistan, much against the wishes of the people. 3. What were the basic principles of India‟s foreign policy? What role did Prime minister
Similarly, the Hindu ruler of Kashmir, Maharaja Hari Singh, declared that Kashmir Nehru in organizing the Afro-Asian countries into a non-aligned movement.
would remain independent. Basic principles of India’s foreign policy:
These activities delayed the complete attainment of the Indian Union. Anti-colonialism,and anti-racism.
The role of Nehru and Patels in the incorporation of the princely states in the Indian Union Non-alignment with the super powers.
Nehru announced, that there will be offer for generous privy purse to the princes. Afro-Asian Unity.
Annexation of Hyderabad : Non-aggression.
Following Nizam's announcement, there was a movement of the Telangana people led by Non-interference in other‟s internal affairs.
the communists. Mutual respect for each other‟s sovereignty.
India had taken military action with in 48 hours and annexed Hyderabad with the Indian The promotion of world peace and security.
Union . Role of nehru in organizing the Afro-Asian countries into a non-aligned movement.
Annexation of Junagadh : He opposed attempts to push the new countries of Asia and Africa into the Cold War.
King of Junagadh wanted to join Pakistan so people rebelled. The Bandung Conference laid the foundation for the non-aligned movement.
Patel held a public referendum on the Junagadh people and annexed with Indian Union. The importance of non-alignment and its essence in such a world is best explained
Annexation of Kashmir : Nehru.
Maharaja Hari Singh could not stop the Marauders from Pakistan raided Kashmir. Nehru said we object to forcing the new nations of Asia and Africa into their cold war
When Hari Singh sought India's help, Patel said he should sign the annexure. machine.
In 1961 when he stood with Nasser of Egypt and Tito of Yugoslavia to call for peace.
2. Trace the different stages in the reorganization of Indian States from 1920 to 1956.
9 - Envisioning a New Socio-Economic Order
Demand for a linguistic state before India's independence :
The idea of linguistic reorganisation of states was integral to the national movement, 1. Arrange the following in chronological order.
since 1920. (i) Laws abolishing zamindari system (ii) Adoption of High Yielding Variety of seeds
Nehru Report also said “The re distribution of provinces should take place on a linguistic (iii) First Land Ceiling Act, Tamilnadu
basis on the demand. (a) ii, i, iii (b) i, iii, ii (c) iii, ii, i (d) ii, iii, i
M. VENKATESAN M.A., M.Phil., B.Ed., PG ASSISSTANT ( HISTORY ) GBHSS AYAPPAKKAM M. VENKATESAN M.A., M.Phil., B.Ed., PG ASSISSTANT ( HISTORY ) GBHSS AYAPPAKKAM
2. Government of India was committed to a pattern of development. 3. What do you understand by the Socialistic Pattern of Society?
(a) Capitalistic (b) Socialistic (c) Theocratic (d) Industrial The reduction of inequalities. Elimination of exploitation.
3. When was the first amendment to the constitution of India made? Prevention of concentration of wealth.
(a) 1951 (b) 1952 (c) 1976 (d) 1978 All citizens would have an equal opportunity to education and employment.
4. Match the following and choose the correct answer from the codes given blow.
A. Industrial Development Policy Resolution - 1. 1951-56 4. Point out the two important considerations that determined the setting up of public sector
B. IISc - 2. Second Five Year Plan enterprises in the wake of India‟s independence.
C. Mahalanobis - 3. 1909 1.The ideological level. 2. The practical level
D. First Five Year Plan - 4. 1956
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 3 1 4 2 (c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 4 2 3 1 In ideological level, To establish greater control over the economy in the development of
a socialistic pattern .
5. Land Ceiling Act in Tamilnadu was for the second time implemented in the year In practical level, The Government accepts responsibility for creating heavy industries.
(a) 1961 (b) 1972 (c) 1976 (d) 1978
6. Bhoodan movement was started by 5. Write about the Bhoodan movement.
(a) Ram Manohar Lohia (b) Jayaprakash Narayan Bhoodan movement was started by Vinoba Bhave.
(c) Vinoba Bhave (d) Sundar Lal Bahuguna Its aim was persuade large landowners to surrender their surplus land voluntarily.
7. Assertion (A): Zamindari abolition achieved only a part of the original objective. VinobaBhave 's Efforts attracted much public attention.
Reason (R): Many zamindars managed to evict their tenants and claim that the land was
under their personal cultivation.
3 - MARKS
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
1. What are the main objectives of the Tenancy reforms?
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
To regulate the rent.
(c) A is true but R is false. (d) A is false but R is true.
To secure the rights of the tenant.
8. The Industrial Development and Regulation Act was passed in the year
Expropriating the land of the land owners.
(a) 1951 (b) 1961 (c) 1971 (d) 1972
To confer ownership rights on the tenants.
9. Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act was passed in the year
(a) 2005 (b) 2006 (c) 2007 (d) 2008
10.In which year did Indian public sector enterprises face severe problems 2. What was the outcome of Green Revolution in India?
(a) 1961 (b) 1991 (c) 2008 (d) 2005 India achieved self-sufficiency in food production.
11.MGNREG Act provided days work for an individual. Productivity also increased.
(a) 200 (b) 150 (c) 100 (d) 75 The government stored large quanitity of food grains recieving from the farmers.
12.When was Tata Institute of Fundamental Research established? To ensure food security for the people.
(a) 1905 (b) 1921 (c) 1945 (d) 1957
13.How many public sector enterprises were functioning in India in 1951? 3. Describe the Integrated Rural Development Programme introduced by the Union
(a) 5 (b) 7 (c) 6 (d) 225 Government in the 1980s.
The objective of the scheme is to improve the economic status of rural families.
2 - MARKS In this plan, Govt supply of cows or goats for dairying.
This plan also help to set up small shops or other trade-related businesses.
1. Give an account of the conditions of the Indian economy at the time of independence. The subsidy varied according to the economic situation of the family receiving
The level of poverty was very high. assistance.
Many skilled artisans had lost their livelihood.
The per capita income from agriculture was very low. 4. What were the reasons for agricultural backwardness in India?
1. Institutional factors and 2. Technological factors.
2. What were the immediate tasks before the new government headed by Jawaharlal Nehru? Institutional factors refer to the social and economic relations between the land-owners
Developing the economy. Improving conditions in agriculture. and the cultivators.
Widening the manufacturing sector. Technological factors relate to did not use of better seeds, use of chemical fertilizers, use
Increasing employment and reducing poverty. of machinery.
M. VENKATESAN M.A., M.Phil., B.Ed., PG ASSISSTANT ( HISTORY ) GBHSS AYAPPAKKAM M. VENKATESAN M.A., M.Phil., B.Ed., PG ASSISSTANT ( HISTORY ) GBHSS AYAPPAKKAM
5. What were the factors which contributed to the poor performance of the public sector
enterprises?
Delays in construction resulted in cost overrun. 3. Assess the achievements of the first two Five- Year plans.
Administrative prices were not always under control. The First Plan (1951–56) :
Public sector units were also overstaffed. The First Plan (1951–56) focused on developing agriculture.
The allocation for Agriculture and Irrigation accounted for 31% of the total outlay.
5 – MARKS After this, the emphasis shifted to industry.
1. Highlight the measures adopted by the Government of India towards rural reconstruction. The Second Plan (1956–61) :
Integrated Rural Development Programme : The Second Plan , stressed the development of heavy industry for achieving economic
The objective of the scheme is to improve the economic status of rural families. growth.
In this plan, Govt supply of cows or goats for dairying. The share of industry in Plan outlay was only 6% in the First Plan, and increased to about
This plan also help to set up small shops or other trade-related businesses. 24% after the Second Plan.
The subsidy varied according to the economic situation of the family receiving Evaluation of First Two Five Year Plans:
assistance. The first two Plans had set fairly modest targets of growth at about 4%.
Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act : Which economists described as the “Hindu rate of growth”.
In this scheme Govt giving at least 100 days of wage employment. These growth rates were achieved, so that the first two Plans were considered to have
In the absence of agricultural services for three months every year, other jobs were been successful.
provided. Achievements :
Accordingly, roads, canals, small irrigation works and construction work were provided The expansion of the economy
in rural areas. The significant growth in national and per capita income
No contractors are to be involved. Increase in industrial production
One-third of the workers would be women. A more diversified economy.
Men and women would be paid the same wage.
4. Examine the development of institutions of scientific research and technology after India‟s
independence.
Science and Technology :
2. Assess the educational progress made in independent India.
Literacy levels have increased in India from 18.3% in 1951 to 74% in 2011. The Tata Institute of Fundamental Research was set up in 1945 on the initiative of
Female literacy still lags behind the male literacy rate at 65% as compared to 82% among HomiJ.Bhabha,
men. It was intended to promote research in mathematics and pure sciences.
There has been a great increase in the number of schools from the primary to senior high The National Chemical Laboratory, Pune and the National Physics Laboratory, New
school. Delhi were set up in India .
In 2014 - 15 there were 12.72 lakh primary and upper primary schools, 2.45 lakh The Council of Scientific and Industrial Research :
secondary and higher secondary schools, 38,498 colleges in the country. The Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR) is the umbrella organisation,
under which most of the scientific research institutions function.
Colleges, Central and State Universities, Deemed Universities and State Private
The CSIR also advances research in applied fields like machinery, drugs, planes etc.
Universities were started in large numbers.
Children dropping out of school mostly belonged to the poorer families in rural and urban The Atomic Energy Commission :
The Atomic Energy Commission is the nodal agency for the development of nuclear
areas.
science.
The backward states and regions have the poorest record on school education.
So Government started Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA), Rashtriya Madhyam Abhiyan It focusing both on nuclear power generation and nuclear weapons..
(RMSA) and the Samagra Shiksha Abhiyan to redress the issue of dropouts. The Indian Council of Agricultural Research :
The Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) is the coordinating agency for the
research in basic agriculture.
Fishery, forests, dairy, plant genetics, bio-technology are its subsidiary activities.
M. VENKATESAN M.A., M.Phil., B.Ed., PG ASSISSTANT ( HISTORY ) GBHSS AYAPPAKKAM M. VENKATESAN M.A., M.Phil., B.Ed., PG ASSISSTANT ( HISTORY ) GBHSS AYAPPAKKAM
Indian Institutes of Technology : 14. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
Indian Institutes of Technology (IITs) were set up as centres of excellence in different (a) Marlowe - Dido (b) Shakespeare - King Lear
fields of engineering. (c) Francis Bacon - Novum Organum (d) Roger Bacon - Decameron
The first IIT was located in Kharagpur, followed by Delhi, Bombay, Kanpur and Madras. 15. Assertion (A): The Turkish conquests and the fall of Constantinople provided stimulus to
find a sea route to the East.
Reason (R): As the demands for the products from the East increased, the European states
wanted to control sea-borne trade.
10 - Modern World : The age of Reason. (a) Both A and R are correct. R explains A
(b) Both A and R are correct. R does not explain A
1. Which one of the following was not an independent trading city?
(c) A is correct but R is wrong (d) A is wrong but R is correct
(a) Nuremberg (b) Antwerp (c) Genoa (d) St. Petersburg
16. Which one of the following ships was returned after the death of Magellan?
2. Which one of the following had relegated religion to a subordinate place?
(a) Santa Maria (b) Pinta (c) Nina (d) Vittoria
(a) Renaissance (b) Reformation (c) Geographical Discovery (d) Commercial Revolution
17. Who conquered Mexico for Spain?
3. Of the following Popes, who was not the patron of Italian Renaissance?
(a) Pedro Cabral (b) Columbus (c) Hernan Cortes (d) James Cook
(a) Nicholas V (b) Julius II (c) Pius II (d) Paul III
18. When was the Act of Supremacy passed by Henry VIII in England ?
4. Whose success encouraged overseas enterprises enormously?
(a) 1519 (b) 1532 (c) 1533 (d) 1534
(a) Marco Polo (b) Roger Bacon (c) Columbus (d) Bartholomew Diaz
19. Assertion (A): The Black Death weakened the position of the church as it could not
5. Assertion (A): Paper originated in China in second century BC (BCE).
explain the causes for the Black Death.
Reason (R): Germany invented the movable printing press .
Reason (R): The authority of Pope came to be increasingly challenged.
(a) Both A and R are correct. R explains A
(a) Both A and R are correct. R explains A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not explain A
(b) Both A and R are correct. R does not explain A
(c) A is correct but R is wrong (d) A is wrong but R is correct
(c) A is correct but R is wrong (d) A is wrong but R is correct
6. Which one of the following was not an idea developed during the age of Renaissance?
20. Who was the ruler of Germany excommunicated by Gregory VII?
(a) rationalism (b) scepticism (c) anarchism (d) individualism
(a) Henry VII (b) Henry VIII (c ) Henry II (d) Henry IV
7. Who is considered the father of modern experimental science?
(a) Aristotle (b) Plato (c) Roger Bacon (d) Landsteiner
2 - MARKS
8. Who wanted humankind to be ruled not by dogma and authority but rather by reason?
(a) Dante (b) Machiavelli (c) Roger Bacon (d) Petrarch 1. How did Erasmus pave the way for Reformation?
9. Who came to Italy seeking the help of the West in the war against the Turks? He protested many Church practices and teachings.
(a) Giovanni Aurispa (b) Manuel Chrysaloras (c) Roger Bacon (d) Columbus His well known work, The Praise of Folly .
10. Assertion (A): Galileo Galilei was tried by the Church for heresy. He made fun of theologians and monks.
Reason (R): He accepted the views of Copernicus‟ heliocentric theory.
(a) Both A and R are correct. R explains A 2. Write about the Medici family in Florence.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not explain A A powerful merchant family in florence called Medici.
(c) A is correct but R is wrong (d) A is wrong but R is correct Cosimo de Medici who was engage in banking with many branches across Italy.
11. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct? The Medici family patronised many artists.
Statement I: Italians managed to preserve the belief that they were descendants of the
ancient Vikings.
3. What do you know of the Papal Bull of 1493?
Statement II: The hazard of sea voyages was reduced by the use of firearms and canon.
The proclamation drew a north–south line from pole to pole, passing around 320 miles
Statement III: The eagerness to spread religion (Christianity) also acted as an impetus to
the exploration of new lands. west of the Cape Verde islands.
Statement IV: Ferdinand Magellan sailed westward and discovered Brazil It declared that any new discoveries west of the line belonged to Spain.
(a) I, II & III (b) II & III (c) I & III (d) All are correct. Portugal was not happy with the arrangement.
12. Which one of the following was not the work of Leonardo da Vinci?
(a) Virgin of the Rocks (b) Last Supper (c) Mona Lisa (d) Madonna and Child 4. What was the significant outcome of Spanish Armeda?
13. The Cathedral of St. Peters in Rome, built by the Popes, was fashioned by King Philip II of Spain sent an armada to invade England.
(a) Donatello (b) Raphael (c) Leonardo da Vinci (d) Michelangelo However, the English easily destroyed the Spanish Armada.
This marked the rise of the British as an important power in modern world.
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5. Point out the outcome of Diet of Worms. 3. What were the achievements of Italian and English explorers?
The peace talks with Luther and pope failed. John Cabot, an Italian explorer saw the Canada and made it an English colony.
Luther's books banned and burnt. Giovanni da Verrazano, another Italian, explored the lands for the French.
luther was declared outlaw by the emperor. He annexed provinces for the French in eastern Canada.
An English explorer named Henry Hudson wanted to find the passage from North
6. What purpose did the Star Chamber serve and why was it called so ?
Henry VII decided to remove the threat of the nobles to his rule. America to the Pacific Ocean.
So he created a special court in the Star Chamber to put the rebellious nobles on trial.
In this court palace ceiling were stars painted. so it was called star chamber. 4. Bring out the negative outcome of Commercial Revolution.
The most negative result of the Commercial Revolution was the revival of slavery.
The Commercial Revolution developing mining and plantation farming in colonies.
7. Why did feudalism fail in the later stage of the Middle Ages?
The plague that struck Europe in medieval time weakened the nobility. This led to the recruitment of slaves as unskilled labourers.
As thousands of peasants died, the nobility lost their work force and their taxes too. This slave trade that exported more than 11 million Africans to the Americas.
Nobles died in large numbers during the course of Crusades.
5. Discuss the contribution of Society of Jesus to the counter-reformation movement in
Europe.
8. What did the Inquisition do in Spain?
It used education as a tool to teach the Catholic religion to the masses.
This Inquisition was set up to deal with the Protestants.
They set up various educational institutions to promote the Catholic religion.
This Inquisition To give punishment to the heretics.
Society of Jesus succeeded in producing efficient and faithful followers of the Church.
They used many methods from flogging to burning.
The Jesuits, helped in raising the standard of the Church in Europe.
9. Highlight the work of the Council of Trent.
The Council of Trent emphasised faith in the Bible. 6. Write about the voyage of Columbus in 1492.
On 3 August 1492 Columbus sailed from the harbour of Palos, with three small ships .
The celibacy of the priests and the supremacy of the Pope were upheld.
After a voyage of two months, he came to a land which he believed to be India.
It supported the image worship of Jesus and Mary in all churches.
But it was really a new continent, America.
10. Why is Joan of Arc remembered in history? They were called Indians because, he believed that the land he had discovered was India.
In Hundred Years war, the French king Charles VII was helped by Joan of Arc.
She fought bravely and won the battle at Orleans. 7. Describe the voyage of Portuguese sailor Pedro Cabral in India.
So Joan of Arc got the title Maid of Orleans. Cabral sailed to India, following the route of Vasco da Gama, and reached Kozhikode.
The zamorin ruler allowed Cabral to build a fort and carry on trade.
He then left for Cochin , further south, where he was warmly received.
3 – MARKS
After establishing a port at Cannanore Cabral returned with six shiploads of spices to
Portugal.
1. Why did Italy become the birthplace of Renaissance?
Italians preserved the belief that they were descendants of the ancient Romans. 5 - MARKS
They looked back upon their ancestry with pride.
Italy had a more secular culture than most other parts of Latin Christendom. 1. Analyse the contributions of Florentines to Italian Renaissance.
They learnt to write Latin as the ancient Romans did. Renaissance in Literature :
Dante‟s Divine Comedy is a summation of medieval culture.
2. Highlight the literary accomplishments of England during the Renaissance. Its dominant theme is the salvation of mankind through reason and divine grace.
The Elizabethan Age produced many scholars during the English Renaissance. Petrak, the 'father of Italian Renaissance literature', produced works in both Latin and
Notable among them were William Shakespeare, Christopher Marlowe, and Francis Italian.
Bacon. Boccaccio , also a Florentine, produced Decameron, a collection of 100 stories.
Christopher Marlowe wrote,Dido, The Queen of Carthage, and Tamburlaine the Great. Niccolò Machiavelli‟s The Prince became famous because of its relevance as a political
William Shakespeare wrote, the Othello, Hamlet, King Lear and Romeo and Juliet. guide for the rulers.
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Renaissance in Art : Its significance in the economic history of the modern world :
Leonardo da Vinci‟s painted thje Last Supperand Mona Lisa. The Italians obtained goods from the Arabs and traded them in European countries.
Michelangelo sculpted the famous Pieta, a statue of the Virgin Mary. But new maritime discoveries have led europeans to trade directly with eastern countries.
Raphael‟s famous work is Madonna and Child. Through this, the European countries were trying to earn more profits.
Renaissance in Science : 4. What are the causes of Protestant Reformation? How did Martin Luther organise the
Galileo made efforts to make science stay detached from religion. movement in Germany?
He discovered the telescope and discovered the spots of the Sun. Causes of Protestant Reformation
He accepted the views of Copernicus who propounded the heliocentric theory. The practice of sale of indulgence , nepotism, and simony came under attack.
Inexperienced youths were appointed to lucrative bishoprics.
2. Attempt a comprehensive account of the evolution of England, France and Spain as nation- Clergymen received incomes from several churches but never appeared in any of them.
states. Many princes kept an eye on the vast property of the churches.
Spain emerged as nation-states. The peasantry saw the Church as an oppressive landowner.
Major parts of Spain like Aragon and Castile were under the control of the Moors.
Members of great merchant families became popes to increase their wealth.
King Ferdinand and Queen Isabella worked hard to expell the Moors and unite Spain.
Martin Luther organise the Protestant Reformation
The king and queen took power in their hands and controlled the nobles by eliminating After a visit to Rome Martin Luther became disgusted with the corruption and luxury of
them from the royal councils. This made Spain to emerge as a nation-state.
the Church.
England emerged as nation-states. He wrote ninety-five complaints against the Roman Church known as „95 Theses‟.
There was conflict between two royal houses in England namely the House of York and
He argued that Bible alone is supreme and not the Pope and Bishops.
House of Lancaster for the throne. He believed the salvation can be achieved only by the faith of God. In this way the
In this civil war, Henry Tudor emerged victorious and he started a new line of monarchy Protestant revolt began.
in England.
He entered into matrimonial alliance with Elizabeth of York family. This made England 11 - The age of Revolutions
to emerge as a nation-state. 1. The Europeans who settled first in North America were
France emerged as nation-states. (a) Portuguese (b) Spanish (c) Danish (d) English
Burgundy and western parts of France was for long in English possession. 2. New Amsterdam was renamed as
End of the Hundred Years' War, Louis XI returned to Burgundy and expelled the (a) Washington (b) New York (c) Chicago (d) Amsterdam
English. 3. Assertion (A): England passed the Navigation Acts.
Finally, Burgundy came under French control in 1483. With this, France became a Reason (R): The Act mandated that colonial produce should be exported only in British
nation-state. ships.
(a) Both A and R are correct, R explains A
3. Explain the initiatives of Portugal and Spain in the discovery of new sea routes to the East (b) Both A and R are correct, R does not explain A
and point out why it is considered as an important event in the economic history of (c) A is correct but R is wrong (d) A is wrong but R is correct
modern world. 4. Assertion (A): In 1770, England abolished the taxes on products except tea.
Portugal’s contribution to the discovery of new sea routes : Reason (R): This was retained to assert that the British Parliament had a right to tax the
colonies directly as well as indirectly.
Portugal discovered the Canaries, Madeira and Azores.
(a) Both A and R are correct, R explains A
Bartholomew Diaz rounded the Cape of Good Hope. (b) Both A and R are correct, R does not explain A
Vasco da Gama reached the island of Mozambique. (c) A is correct but R is wrong (d) A is wrong but R is correct
Later, he reached part of India and opened avenues for direct trade. 5. Boston Tea Party incident took place in the year
Cabral sailed to India, following the route of Vasco da Gama, and reached Kozhikode. (a) 1775 (b) 1773 (c) 1784 (d) 1799
Spain's contribution to the discovery of new sea routes : 6. Assertion (A): The representatives of all the colonies except that of Georgia, demanded the
In 1492 Columbus came to a land of America. repeal of the Intolerable Acts.
Ferdinand Magellan, a Portuguese sailor got Spanish support to explore the world. Reason (R): The Congress decided to boycott the British goods until then.
(a) Both A and R are correct, R explains A
His Vittoria was the first ship that ever circumnavigated the world.
(b) Both A and R are correct, R does not explain A
(c) A is correct R is wrong (d) A is wrong R is correct
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7. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct? 20. Match and choose the correct answer from the code given below
Statement I: On July 4, 1776, all the thirteen colonies declared independence from Britain. (A) Michael Faraday 1. Ark Wright
Statement II: The Declaration of Independence was essentially the work of Thomas (B) Elias Howe 2. Robert Fulton
Jefferson. (C) Water Frame 3. Electricity
(a) I (b) II (c) None of the above (d) All the above (D) Steam Boat 4. Sewing machine
(a) 1 3 4 2 (b) 1 4 2 3 (c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 3 4 2 1
8. In the American War of Independence the British army was led by 2 - MARKS
(a) Richard Lee (b) George Washington (c) William Howe (d) Rockingham
1. What impact did the European settlement in North America make on the indigenous
9. Which of the following statement/s is/are Correct? population?
Statement I: The peasantry made up the bulk of French society. Colonists in search of gold staged violent ambushes on tribal villages.
Statement II: The peasants in France were serfs. They were dispossessed of their land.
Statement III: The peasants had to work certain days in the week for their lords for Blatant racism took place.
remuneration.
(a) I and II (b) II and III (c) I and III (d) All are Correct 2. What do you know about the Boston Tea Party?
Following the Boston Massacre, about100 activists dressed like Native Americans.
10. The noble who led the protest that led to Tennis Court Oath was They boarded three ships at Boston Harbour.
(a) Marat (b) Danton (c ) Lafayette (d) Mirabeau
342 tea boxes were thrown into the sea.
11. Assertion (A): The rising bourgeoisie wanted their political power to match their economic
status. 3. What was the intellectual contribution of Thomas Paine to the American Revolution?
Thomas Paine, wrote the pamphlet titled Common Sense.
Reason (R): They wanted to have a voice in government.
(a) Both A and R correct. R explains A This pamphlet had justifying the demands of the colonies.
(b) Both A and R correct. R does not explain A The pamphlet had an astounding impact of people.
(c) A is correct but R is wrong (d) A is wrong but R is correct
12. Match and choose the correct answer from the code given below. 4. Point out the importance of the battle of Saratoga.
(A) Montesquieu 1. Jacobins The British General Burgoyne was forced to surrender.
(B) Voltaire 2. English Philosopher Finally, the British forces surrendered to the American forces at York Town.
(C) Reign of Terror 3. The Age of Louis XIV With this victory the northern colonies became free.
(D) John Locke 4. The Spirit of Laws
(a) 1 3 4 2 (b) 4 3 1 2 (c) 4 1 2 3 (d) 1 4 3 2 5. Discuss the three Estates of the ancien regime.
13. The storming of the Bastille happened on 1. Clergy, 2. Nobility , 3. Commoners.
(a) June 5, 1789 (b) July 14, 1789 (c) November 11, 1789 (d) May 1, 1789 The clergy and the nobility were exempted from various taxes.
14. During the French Revolution was dissatisfied with the Declaration of Rights of Man and Only the third estate bore the brunt of taxation.
of the Citizen, as it excluded women.
(a) Olympe de Gouges (b) Mary Antoinette (c) Roget de Lisle (d) Robespierre 6. Highlight the essence of The Declaration of the Rights of Man and of the Citizen.
15. The official residence of Louise XVI was It defined individual and collective rights.
(a) Versailles (b) Toulon (c) Marseilles (d) Tuileries It also insisted that taxation could only be raised by common consent.
16. was earlier known as Saint- Dominigue which declares that, „Men are born and remain free and equal in rights‟.
(a) Mexico (b) Panama (c) Haiti (d) Havana
17. The revolution in Mexico was led by 7. Outline the contribution of Simon Bolivar to Latin American independence.
(a) Simon Bolivar (b) Jose Maria Morelos (c) Ferdinand de Lesseps (d) Miguel Hidalgo Bolivar emerged as a strong military and political force after the struggles.
18. The liberator of Argentina was After leading his army up the face of the eastern Andes.
(a) San Martin (b) Dom Pedro (c) Bernardo O‟Higgins (d) Marina Morelos Bolívar defeat to his enemies in the Battle of Boyaca.
19 ............................. city acquired the nickname “Cottonopolis‟‟.
(a) Manchester (b) Lancashire (c) Liverpool (d) Glasgow
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8. Highlight the essential features of Industrial Revolution. 5. Trace the circumstances in which Brazil became the first constitutional monarchy in South
The use of iron and steel. America.
The use of new sources of energy or fuels such as coal, steam, and iron. Portugal's King Tom Jovo faced challenges in the colony of Brazil.
The invention of new machines. So he decided to hand over Brazil to his son Dom Pedro.
Developments in transport and communication In 1822, Brazil obtained independence from Portugal.
It became the only constitutional monarchy in South America.
9. Why is Samuel Slater considered the father of American Industrial Revolution?
He used the first water-powered roller spinning textile mill in the Americas. 6. What happened in Germany during the second phase of Industrial Revolution?
By 1800, Slater's mill had been duplicated by many other entrepreneurs. Germany emerged as the most industrialised country.
So the U.S. President hailed him as "Father of the American Industrial Revolution." It surpassed England and established itself as the United States' competitor.
Daimler and Benz became the most popular brands of automobile in the world.
10. What was the background for the Peterloo Massacre? Germany made its mark in iron and steel industry.
In England, industrial depression and high food prices.
5 – MARKS
So a great demonstration was organised by the radical leader Henry Hunt.
Alarmed by the mood of the people, the magistrates ordered the attack on the crowd. 1. Discuss the causes, course and results of the American War of Independence
3 - MARKS Causes :
The UK imposed its US settlements on the Navigation Acts , the Sugar Tax Stamp Act,
1. Discuss the important provisions of the Treaty of Paris signed in 1783. the Townshend Act, the tea tax, and The Intolerable Acts.
Britain recognised the freedom of the United States of America. So representatives of the colonies appealed for the intolerated laws to be removed.
France gained certain British territories in West Indies, India and Africa. They sent a request to the King of England, George III, with an olive branch.
Spain obtained Florida from Great Britain But the demand was rejected. This was followed by the American War of Independence.
Holland and England maintained the status quo that prevailed before the war. Course :
The British forces were led by William Howe.
2. Analyse the significance of American Revolution. George Washington led the American forces.
The concepts of democracy and republic became widespread.
The Battle of Saratoga, the British General Burgoyne was forced to surrender.
The political and social changes were on the lines of democracy and equality.
Finally, the British forces surrendered to the American forces at York Town.
Education gained prominence.
Results :
The principle of federalism became widespread.
A peace treaty was signed between The United Kingdom and the United States in Paris.
Britain recognised the freedom of the United States of America.
3. Long before the revolution of 1789, there was a revolution in the realm of ideas. Explain.
George Washington became the first President of the United States.
Intellectuals played a key role in the preparing of society for the French Revolution.
In England Lord North resigned as Prime Minister.
The writings of Voltaire and Rousseau acted as an impetus to the revolution.
Montesquieu opposed the concentration of all powers in one hand.
2. Sketch the course of French Revolution from the storming of Bastille to the execution of
Rousseau , argued that the relationship between the rulers and ruled should be bound by a
Robespierre.
contract. National Assembly and Constitution Making:
4. What caused the “September Massacres”? The National Assembly abolished feudalism in the country.
In France, the people believed that the political prisoners would join a conspiracy by The National Assembly drafted the constitution.
counter-revolutionaries. The Declaration of the Rights of Man and the Citizen was adopted.
As a result, the mob attacked prisons. The powers of the king were Reduced.
Summarily executed those they believed to be royalists. War against Austria and Prussia :
A total of 1,200 prisoners were killed in the incident. Austria and Prussia, who thought that the uprising of the masses was a threat to the
monarchy, helped the French king.
So the National Assembly declared war against Austria and Prussia.
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Formation of Clubs and the September massacre : 12. Europe in Turmoil
Dissatisfied people started forming political clubs to discuss the problems they faced.
On 2 September 1792, the mob descended on the prisons and summarily executed those 1. Napoleon was exiled first time to
they believed to be royalists. (a) Elba (b) St. Helena (c) Corsica (d) Waterloo
National Convention and Robespierre's assassination : 2. Napoleon was defeated by the allied forces of British, Belgians and Prussians at Waterloo in
In 1792 the new Convention abolished monarchy and declared France a republic. (a) France (b) Germany (c) Belgium (d) Italy
King Louis XVI was executed by guillotine on 21 January 1793. 3. Assertion (A): Utopian Socialist s recommended model communities, where the means of
As the government and the base of society were radicalised, so the Jacobian group leader production would be collectively owned.
Robasesphere also hanged. Reason (R): They promoted a visionary idea of a socialistic society, devoid of poverty and
unemployment.
3. American Revolution and French Revolution inspired the revolution in Haiti. Substantiate. (a) Both A and R are correct. R explains A
Haiti, earlier known as Saint-Domingue was the richest French colony in the Caribbean (b) Both A and R are correct. R does not explain A
(c) A is correct but R is wrong (d) A is wrong but R is correct
Sea.
4. Labour Unions were legalised in England in
The storming of the Bastille was followed by armed defiance of the royal governor. (a) 1815 (b) 1822 (c) 1824 (d) 1827
Vincent Ogé, who had lobbied with the Parisian assembly for colonial reforms. 5. Match the following and select the answer from the code given below.
He was led to revolt at the end of 1790. But the rebellion was suppressed and he was (A) New Christianity 1. William Lovett
hanged. (B) A New View of Society 2. Louis Blanc
In the late 1790s, Toussaint L‟Ouverture, gained control of several areas. (C) Revue du Progres 3. Saint Simon
Napoleon sent a fleet of 12,000 troops to seize control from Toussaint L‟Ouverture‟s (D) The People‟s Charter 4. Robert Owen
forces. (a) 2, 3, 4, 1 (b) 3, 4, 2, 1 (c) 1, 4, 3, 2 (d) 3, 1, 2, 4
Napoleons forces were defeated by the Dessalines , even though Toussaint was killed. 6. Marx and Engels published the Communist Manifesto in
(a) 1842 (b) 1848 (c) 1867 (d) 1871
Saint Domingue became the independent black state of Haiti in 1804.
7. Assertion (A): The Chartist movement was not a riot or revolt.
Reason (R): It was an organised movement of the working class.
4. Why did Industrial revolution start in England first? What impact did it make on modern (a) Both A and R are correct. R explains A
society? (b) Both A and R are correct. R does not explain A
Causes of Industrial Revolution in England: (c) A is correct but R is wrong (d) A is wrong but R is correct
Provided the capital necessary for investment in industries. 8. The Chartist‟s principal newspaper was
The markets at home were also expanding as the population grew. (a) The Poor Man‟s Guardian (b) The Charter (c) The Northern Star (d) Il Risorgimento
Political stability also provided objective conditions for industrial development. 9. Louis Napoleon, the nephew of Napoleon Bonaparte, assumed the title
The availability of coal and iron deposits in large quantities. (a) Napoleon II (b) Napoleon III (c) Duke of Orleans (d) Napoleon IV
The British had well established ports all across the coast. 10. The author of Code de la Nature is
The geographical location of England. (a) Charles Fourier (b) Étienne-Gabriel Morally (c ) Saint Simon (d) Bakunin
The temperate climate of the British isles. 11. Assertion (A): The year 1848 was one of the distinct triumphs for nationalism.
Reason (R): Absolutism seemed dead for a while.
Impact of Industrial Revolution :
(a) Both A and R are correct. R explains A
The mechanisation of industry resulted in much greater production and wealth.
(b) Both A and R are correct. R does not explain A
Production and wealth increased enormously.
(c) A is correct but R is wrong (d) A is wrong but R is correct
Thousands of artisans and weavers lost their jobs. 12. The Second International was founded in
Labour was obtained from women and children at a cheap errand. (a) Paris (b) Berlin (c) London (d) Rome
Two classes were formed, the factory owners and the factory workers. 13. The Young Italy Movement was started in the year
(a) 1822 (b) 1827 (c) 1831 (d) 1846
14. Parma, Modena and Tuscany were merged with the Kingdom of Piedmont-Sardinia
after
(a) plebiscite (b) invasion of Charles Albert
(c) Treaty of Solferina (d) Treaty of Villa Franca
M. VENKATESAN M.A., M.Phil., B.Ed., PG ASSISSTANT ( HISTORY ) GBHSS AYAPPAKKAM M. VENKATESAN M.A., M.Phil., B.Ed., PG ASSISSTANT ( HISTORY ) GBHSS AYAPPAKKAM
15. was called the “Hero of Two Worlds”. 5. Attempt an account of the first International Working Men‟s Association of 1864.
(a) Charles Albert (b) Bismarck (c) Napoleon III (d) Garibaldi It purpose was to form an international working class alliance.
16. The Seven Weeks‟ War was fought between It worked hard to exclude the moderates from the International.
(a) Denmark and Prussia (b) Piedmont-Sardinia and Austria It also denounced other socialists such as Ferdinand Lassalle and Bakunin.
(c) France and Prussia (d) Austria and Prussia
17. The Franco-Prussian War was triggered by _ 6. Highlight the contribution of Carbonari to the unification of Italy.
(a) Convention of Gastein (b) Ems telegram The Carbonari, advocating liberal and patriotic ideas.
(c) The treaty of Prague (d) Dispute over the control of Alsace- Lorraine They kept alive the ideas of liberalism and nationalism.
18. delivered a series of Addresses to the German Nation.
As a result Revolts broke out in Naples, Piedmont and Lombardy.
(a) Johann von Herder (b) Friedrich Schliegel (c) J.G. Fichte (d) Otto von Bismarck
19.Assertion (A): J.G. Fichte promoted the idea of nationalism among the Germans.
Reason (R): Fichte was the leader of Young Italy Movement. 7. Who was Francois Babeuf?
(a) Both A and R are correct. R explains A Francois Babeuf, a political agitator of the French Revolutionary period.
(b) Both A and R are correct. R does not explain A He said, the Revolution in France did not address the needs of the peasants and workers.
(c) A is correct but R is wrong (d) A is wrong but R is correct He advocated the abolition of private property and the generalisation of the land.
20. Match and choose the correct answer from the code given below.
(A) Metternich - 1. Ruler of Piedmont- Sardinia 8. What was the importance of Zollverein?
(B) Charles X - 2. French Foreign Minister Prussia was successful in establishing the Zollverein (customs union).
(C) Gramont - 3. French King It included most of the Germanic states except those under the control of Austria.
(D) Charles Albert - 4. Chancellor of Austria-Hungary It also provided economic unity to the Germanic states.
(a) 1, 3, 4, 2 (b) 4, 2, 1, 3 (c) 4, 1, 2, 3 (d) 4, 3, 2, 1
9. What do you know of the Gilded Age?
2 - MARKS An era of intense mass mobilisation of working classes.
Socialism and the labour movements rose in many countries
1. Why is the period between June 24 and 26, 1848 considered the bloody June days? The expansion of industrialisation resulted in wage growth.
The Workers dared to oppose the government for closing workshops created by Louis
Blanc. 10. What is the importance of the year 1873 in the economic history of America?
As a result thousands of people were killed in france. The global economic Depression occurred in 1873.
Eleven thousand revolutionaries were imprisoned or deported. This economic Depression also affected the United States very seriously.
American railroads became bankrupt in this period.
2. What role did Concert of Europe play in Metternich Era?
It worked for the preservation of European order and balance of power. 3 - MARKS
They intervened in the case of countries threatened by internal rebellion.
They Imposed their overall decision on the affected countries. 1. When France sneezes, Europe catches a cold – Elucidate.
Europe in the nineteenth century was influenced by the developments in France.
3. Why was Italy described as “a mere geographical expression” by Metternich? Metternich was the one who sought to suppress the spirit of democracy and nationalism
Italy was divided into eight states by the Vienna Congress. that arose in Europe.
Italy in the nineteenth century was a „patchwork of about a dozen large states and a He said, “When France sneezes, Europe catches a cold.”
number of smaller ones. France sneezed not once, but thrice in 1789, 1830 and 1848, when revolutions broke out
So ‟ Metternich described Italy as “a mere geographical expression.” in France.
4. Explain Poor Laws. 2. “The Industrial Revolution was the basis for emerging the ideas of Socialism” – Substantiate.
In Britain the Poor Laws, as codified during Elizabethan period. The working classes were initially unorganized.
This act provided a relief for the aged, sick, and poor infants. Soon they realized without organisation and unity, no permanent improvement was
This act also provided a relief for the capable unemployed in workhouses. possible.
M. VENKATESAN M.A., M.Phil., B.Ed., PG ASSISSTANT ( HISTORY ) GBHSS AYAPPAKKAM M. VENKATESAN M.A., M.Phil., B.Ed., PG ASSISSTANT ( HISTORY ) GBHSS AYAPPAKKAM
5 - MARKS
So they strove to establish trade unions.
This trade unions, was emerged a form of socialism.
1. Identify the important collectivist thinkers of nineteenth century and highlight their
contributions to Socialism.
3. Estimate the pioneering work done by Robert Owen in improving the condition of workers Karl Marx and Friedrich Engels :
in his factories.
The term “Utopian Socialism” was first used by Karl Marx and Friedrich Engels.
He did not employ children below the age of 10 in his industries.
Utopian Socialists recommended the establishment of model communities.
Later he criticised private property and profit.
Their influence led to the establishment of several hundred model communes in Europe
He advocated a cooperative communities combine industrial and agricultural production.
and USA.
Owen had developed a theory of Utopian Socialism.
Saint Simon :
He criticised contemporary French society for being in the grip of feudalism.
4. How did the 1830 July Revolution in France impact other parts of Europe?
In other parts of Europe there arose a number of risings. Saint-Simon suggested that scientists take the place of priests in the social order.
Belgium was separated from the Netherlands and became a separate independent state. Charles Fourier :
The Greeks attained independence from the Turks. Fourier believed that social conditions were the primary cause of human misery.
But the revolt of Poles against the Russian Tsar was suppressed. He speculated on the co-operative society and wanted the profit and loss to be shared
equally in society.
5. Trace the events that led to the formation of Paris Commune. Robert Owen :
The National Assembly had a majority of monarchical supporters. This made the people He criticised private property and profit.
of Paris bitter. He developed a theory of Utopian Socialism based on social equality and cooperation.
The appointment of a 71-year-old man named Thiers to the leadership made Proudhon :
disillusioned with the republic. He said the “All property is theft.”
Paris was once again armed. Proudhon wanted to replace nation-state with federations of autonomous communes.
As the regular army had been disbanded, the Parisian masses kept their arms.
2. Discuss the political fallout of French Revolutions of 1848 in other parts of Europe.
6. Discuss the measures adopted by Paris Commune in the interests of the poor and the Metternich, the arbiter of Europe and enemy of nationality, was forced to leave Vienna.
working class. Hungary and Bohemia both claimed national independence.
Banning night work in bakeries. Milan expelled the Austrians.
If the factories or industries were shut down by the owners, it was opened by the workers. Venice became an independent republic.
Providing pensions for widows and free education for every child. Charles Albert, King of Sardinia, declared war against Austria.
Stopping the collection of debts incurred during the siege. Absolutism seemed dead for a while. But it was not to be.
By the summer, the monarchs had begun their attacks on the revolutionaries.
7. Attempt an account of Working class struggles during the period of Long Depression in They succeeded in crushing the democratic movements in important centres like Berlin,
Britain and America. Vienna and Milan.
The strike in the Homestead Steel workshop in Britain went up in a gun battle.
The Pullman strike by the US Railway Union was suppressed by the administration. 3. How was the unification of Italy achieved?
In Britain, the Match stick Girls Strike ended with their enormous victory. Beginning of the unification of Italy :
There was also a dock strike in the port of London. The several secret societies such as the like the Corporanari, who were insisting on free
and patriotic ideas, became more spread.
Mazzini, Cavour, and Garibaldi were the three central figures of the unification of Italy.
War with Austria, 1859 :
The combined armies of Piedmont- Sardinia and France defeated the Austrian armies.
In November 1859, Piedmont- Sardinia and Austria concluded the Treaty of Zurich.
Austria ceded Lombardy to Piedmont- Sardinia.
M. VENKATESAN M.A., M.Phil., B.Ed., PG ASSISSTANT ( HISTORY ) GBHSS AYAPPAKKAM M. VENKATESAN M.A., M.Phil., B.Ed., PG ASSISSTANT ( HISTORY ) GBHSS AYAPPAKKAM
Plebiscites : 3. 'An inquiry into the Nature and causes of the Wealth of Nations' was authored by
Parma, Modena and Tuscany were merged with the Kingdom of Piedmont- Sardinia (a) Adam smith (b) Thomas Paine (c) Quesnay (d) Karl Marx
through plebiscites. 4. England decided on free trade policy in
Plebiscites held in Sicily, Naples and Papal States led to their merger with Piedmont- (a) 1833 (b) 1836 (c) 1843 (d) 1858
5. Assertion (A): In the second half of the nineteenth century many nations were faced with
Sardinia.
the problem of surplus manufactures.
Annexation of Venetia :
Reason (R): Surplus manufactures forced nations to find new markets.
During the Austro-Prussian War, Italy had allied itself with Prussia. (a) A and R are correct. R explains A (b) A and R are correct. R does not explain A
Prussia won this war, so italy received Venetia as a gift. (c) A is true but R is wrong (d) A is wrong and R is true
Annexation of Rome : 6. Tariff Act, 1879 was enacted by
The French forces suffered setbacks in the Franco-Prussian War. (a) Germany (b) France (c) Britain (d) USA
As a result, when France left Rome, Italy annexed Rome. 7. Shimonoseki Treaty was signed after the
(a) Russio-Japanese war (b) Second Opium War
4. Why is Bismarck considered the true architect of a unified Germany? (c) Second Anglo-Chinese War (d) Sino-Japanese war
Bismarck's principle: 8. The treaty of Portsmouth was signed at the mediation of
Bismarck, transformed it into a powerful state with the objective of uniting the Germanic (a) Spain (b) Britain (c) USA (d) France
9. Which country presented 21 demands to the President of the newly established Chinese
states under its leadership.
Republic?
He adopted a „blood and iron‟ policy to achieve the unification. (a) France (b) Russia (c) Japan (d) Britain
Diplomatic moves : 10. The new state of Albania was created based on the
He realised that the unification of Germany was not possible without an armed conflict (a) Treaty of Bucharest, 1913 (b) Treaty of Versailles, 1919
with Austria and France. (c) Treaty of London, 1913 (d) Treaty of St. Germaine
He sparked conflict with Austria and France through diplomatic moves. 11. Which one of the following was not part of the Central Powers?
Allied with Austria, he retrieved the areas of Schleswig and Holstein from Denmark and (a) Bulgaria (b) Austria-Hungary (c) Turkey (d) Montenegro
thereby prepared to clash with Austria. 12. With imminent attack on Paris, the French Government moved to
Austro–Prussian War : (a) Marseilles (b) Bordeaux (c) Lyons (d) Versailles
13. Which one of the following was not a part of the Treaty of Versailles?
Bismarck wanted to drive Austria out of Venetia.
(a) Germany was required to surrender Alsace - Lorraine to France
So he got the support of Piedmont-Sardinia. (b) Saar valley to be given to France
By his diplomacy Bismarck had ensured the neutrality of Russia and France. (c) The Rhineland was to be occupied by the Allies
With the victory of the Austrian-Prussian War, he formed the Northern German (d) Danzig was to be under the control of Poland
Federation under the leadership of Prussia. 14. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
Franco–Prussian War : (a) Edict of Emancipation – Alexander II (b) Bloody Sunday - Nicholas II
Bismarck wanted to unite the southern Germanic provinces. (c) 500 Serf riots in Russia - Nicholas I (d) Treaty of Brest-Litovsk - Alexander III
For this he created a rift between Prussia and France. 15. Assertion (A): The League of Nations was shown to have no teeth.
Reason (R): The principle of “collective security‟ could not be applied in actual practice.
At the end of the Franck-Prussian War, Germany combined the unification of Northern
(a) A and R are correct. R explains A (b) A and R are correct but R does not explain A
and southern Germany.
(c) A is correct but R is wrong (d) A is wrong and R is correct
16. Assertion (A): The Great Depression which affected the entire world had made no impact
13 - Imperialism and its Onslaught on USSR.
Reason (R): Land was declared as social property and distributed among poor Peasants.
(a) A and R are correct. R explains A. (b) A and R are correct but R does not explain A.
1. What was the battle in which the French succeeded in pushing back the advancing army of (c) A is correct but R is wrong. (d) A is wrong. R is correct.
Germans? 17. The first Secretary General of the League of Nations Eric Drummond belonged to
(a) Battle of Marne (b) Battle of Tannenberg (c) Battle of Verdun (d) Battle of Somme (a) France (b) South Africa (c) Britain (d) USA
2. Laissez Faire is a word coined by . 18. The League of Nations was dissolved in
(a) John A. Hobson (b) Karl Marx (c) Fischer (d) Gournay (a) 1939 (b) 1941 (c) 1945 (d) 1946
M. VENKATESAN M.A., M.Phil., B.Ed., PG ASSISSTANT ( HISTORY ) GBHSS AYAPPAKKAM M. VENKATESAN M.A., M.Phil., B.Ed., PG ASSISSTANT ( HISTORY ) GBHSS AYAPPAKKAM
19. Who designated Hitler as the Chancellor of Germany? 8. How did the League of Nations resolve the dispute between Greece and Bulgaria in 1925?
(a) General Ludendorff (b) Von Hindenburg In 1925, Greece invaded Bulgaria.
(c) General Smuts (d) Alfred von Bethmann The League ordered a ceasefire.
20. What was the name of journal Mussolini edited? After investigation it decided that Greece was to pay reparations.
(a) Avanti (b) Pravda (c) Marxist (d) Mein Kampf
9. How did the Lateran Treaty help Mussolini in legitimising his authority?
2 - MARKS Mussolini recognising the Vatican City as an independent state.
In return the Church recognised the Kingdom of Italy.
1. Why did Germany want to isolate France?
The Roman Catholic faith was made the religion of Italy.
France lost Alsace and Lorraine in the Franco-Prussian War.
Bismarck expected France to take revenge for this.
10. What was the Third Reich?
So he was determined to isolate France.
The Nazi state of Hitler, known as the Third Reich.
It brought an end to the parliamentary democracy .
2. What was the significance of Entente Cordiale signed between Britain and France in 1904?
Morocco and Egypt related Quarrels were solved. As a result Germany was converted into a highly centralised state.
France allowed to operate independently in Morocco.
France agreed to recognize the British occupation of Egypt. 3 - MARKS
3. Highlight the outcome of the Balkan crisis. 1. How did the first Moroccan crisis happen?
The Bulgarians felt injured and awaited an opportunity to take revenge on Serbia. Relying on their understanding with England the French decided to go ahead with their
The passions of the Serbians were inflamed by victory. plan in Morocco.
Anti-Austrian struggle in Serbia and Bosnia became ever more militant. Early in 1905, a French mission arrived at Fez, a city in Morocco.
French treating it as a part of French protectorate.
4. What was “Triple Intervention”? Germany protested so French agreed to refer the dispute to a European conference.
According to the Treaty of Shimonoseki signed at the end, Japan got Liaotung peninsula
along with some regions. 2. How was Trench Warfare fought?
The European powers feared the sudden growth of Japans. First World War compelled soldiers to burrow into the soil to obtain shelter and survival.
So, France, England and Russia forced Japan to surrender the Liaotung peninsula to The Trench system is the two to four trenches that go parallel to each other.
china. The trenches were dug in a zigzag manner.
So that no enemy, could fire for more than a few yards down its length.
5. Write about the role played by Von Hindenburg in the Eastern Front of the First World War.
The Russian forces penetrated far into the Eastern Prussia. 3. What do you know of the fearsome U-boats and Q-ships?
German general Van Hindenburg confronted russian forces. During the First World War Germany's most fearsome weapon was the submarine.
Russia suffered heavy losses in the Battle of Danenburg by van Hindenburgs war skills. The Germans adopted a strategy to starve Britain by sinking every ship it could.
The Q-ships were Britain's answer to the Germany.
6. Point out the importance of Battle of Jutland. Britain provoked the attack on Germany through these ships and then resorted to
This war took place at sea in Jutland peninsula, Denmark. retaliation.
The battle was inconclusive.
The Battle of Jutland is the largest naval battle of the First World War. 4. Highlight the sequence of events after America‟s entry into the War.
America‟s entry with its enormous resources made Allied victory a foregone conclusion.
7. What is Nihilism? The first to surrender was Bulgaria.
Nihilism represented a revolt against the established social order. The Turks opted for an armistice.
It rejected all authority exercised by the state, church and by the family. Germany was now left with the impossible task of carrying on the struggle alone.
It based its belief only on scientific truth.
M. VENKATESAN M.A., M.Phil., B.Ed., PG ASSISSTANT ( HISTORY ) GBHSS AYAPPAKKAM M. VENKATESAN M.A., M.Phil., B.Ed., PG ASSISSTANT ( HISTORY ) GBHSS AYAPPAKKAM
5. Analyse the impact of Russian Revolution on the world outside Russia. Results :
The revolution fired people‟s imagination across the world. The Peace Conference opened in Paris.
In many countries, communist parties were formed. The peace treaty was signed with Germany in the Hall of Mirrors at Versailles.
Soviet Union encouraged the colonies to fight for their freedom. Separate treaties were signed by the Allies with Austria, Hungary, Bulgaria and Turkey.
Debates over key issues, land reforms, workers‟ rights, started taking place in a global The League of nations was formed for world peace.
context.
2. “Marx supplied sparks and Lenin lit the fire”- Elucidate.
6. Highlight the successful accomplishments of League of Nations. Marxism and Lenin :
A dispute arose between Sweden and Finland over the sovereignty of the Aaland Islands. Marx and Engels held the firm view that the existence of the bourgeoisie was as
The League ruled that the islands should go to Finland. necessary.
The frontier between Poland and Germany in Upper Silesia, which was successfully Lenin Influenced by the ideas of Karl Marx.
resolved. Lenin believed that the way for freedom was through mass action.
Greece invaded Bulgaria, and the League ordered a ceasefire. The Russian Revolution and the Provisional Government :
The inefficient rule of the Tsar‟s led to the revolution in Russia.
7. How did the impact of Great Depression reflect in politics? The Menshevik government was established in Russia through the revolution.
In England, the Labour Party was defeated in the general elections of 1931. But the Provisional government made grave mistakes.
In USA, the Republican Party was rejected by the people in successive elections for Revolution led by Lenin :
about twenty years. Lenin was in Switzerland when the revolution broke out.
The Fascist Parties seized government in Italy and Germany. Lenin wanted continued revolution.
Argentina, Brazil and Chile saw a change of government. His slogan of „All power to the Soviets‟ soon won over the workers‟ leaders.
The slogan ' Bread, peace and land ' attracted the victims of the war.
Lenin Capturing power :
Lenin persuaded the Bolshevik Central Committee to decide on an immediate revolution.
5 – MARKS
Accordingly, key government buildings, including the Winter Palace and the Prime
1. Enumerate the causes and the consequences of the First World War. Minister‟s headquarters, were seized.
Causes : Finally, the new communist government was sworn in under the leadership of Lenin.
The Evolution of the System of Alliances :
The great powers of Europe had come to be arrayed in two opposing camps.
Germany, Austria-Hungary and Italy emerged as Triple Alliance. 3. The Treaty of Versailles was harsh and humiliating for Germany. Substantiate the
Britain, France and Russia emerged as Triple Entente. statement.
Moroccan crisis : Alsace, Lorraine and Saar Valley :
Germany handed over Alsace and Lorraine to France.
The UK supported France in a Moroccan dispute between Germany and France.
The coal mines in the Saar Valley were to be ceded to France.
Early in 1905, a French mission arrived at Fez, a city in Morocco.
Seize of German colonies :
Germany expressed its opposition to this act of France.
All German colonies became mandated territories under the League of Nations.
Balkan Crisis :
Germany was forced to give up all the rights and titles over its overseas possessions to
The Balkan League was formed to occupay Macedonia.
the allies.
As a result of this, two Balkan wars took place.
The Balkan crisis led the countries that participated in it to The First World War. Armed Reduced :
Germany was disarmed and was forced to give up practically all of its submarines and
Immediate Cause :
battleships.
Austria-Hungary Archduke Franz Ferdinand was assassinated by Princip , a Serbian
Germany was forbidden to have any airplanes, either military or naval.
country.
Its army was to be limited to 100,000 .
Austria refused to accept Serbia's explanation for this massacre and waged war on Serbia.
M. VENKATESAN M.A., M.Phil., B.Ed., PG ASSISSTANT ( HISTORY ) GBHSS AYAPPAKKAM M. VENKATESAN M.A., M.Phil., B.Ed., PG ASSISSTANT ( HISTORY ) GBHSS AYAPPAKKAM
The union of Austria : 4. In which year did Japan invade and seize Manchuria from China?
(a) 1931 (b) 1932 (c) 1933 (d) 1934
The union of Austria and Germany was forbidden .
5 ................... emerged as the most powerful Industrial country in continental Europe towards
Germany was to acknowledge and respect the Independence of Austria. the close of nineteenth century.
War Reparations : (a) France (b) Spain (c) Germany (d) Austria
Germany and its allies were held responsible for the loss and damage during the war. 6. Under the terms of the Treaty of Versailles, a plebiscite was to be held in in January 1935.
The exact amount of war reparations was decided as 33 billion dollars. (a) Sudetenland (b) Rhineland (c) Saar (d) Alsace
7. Assertion (A): The methods of warfare changed during the Second World War.
4. Describe the circumstances that favoured Mussolini and Hitler to establish fascist Reason (R): Trench warfare had given way to aerial bombing.
governments in Italy and Germany respectively. (a) Both A and R are correct. R explains A
Circumstances for the establishment of a fascist state in Italy: (b) Both A and R are correct. R does not explain A
The failure of the Democratic party leaders to act decisively led to Mussolini's victory. (c) A is correct but R is wrong (d) A is wrong but R is correct
The dispute between the communist and their opponents led to the civil war. 8. In 1939 Germany signed Non-aggression pact with
Impressed by march of the Fascists on Rome, the King Immanuel III invited Mussolini (a) Austria (b) Italy (c) Russia (d) Britain
to form a government. 9. Japanese attack on Pearl Harbour was planned by
(a) Yamamoto (b) Schuschnigg (c) Kaiser William II (d) Hirohito
In the 1924 elections, after intimidation of the electors, the Fascists won 65 percent of the
10. Lend-Lease system introduced by President Roosevelt was helpful in
votes. (a) providing additional soldiers to countries fighting the fascist forces
Assuming the title of Il Duce, Mussolini became a dictator with power to legislate. (b) safeguarding the Jews from the murderous attacks of Hitler‟s army
Thus Mussolini destroyed parliamentary government and all democratic institutions. (c) expanding the resources of the allies, supplying arms and ammunition
Circumstances for the establishment of a fascist state in Germany: (d) providing medical services to those wounded in the Second World War.
Republican government in Germany fell, as the Communists refused to collaborate with 11. In August 1942, US forces in the Pacific was commanded by
the Social Democrats. (a) MacArthur (b) Eisenhower (c) General de Gaulle (d) George Marshall
In the wake of this, industrialists, bankers and the people of the royal family, who had 12. The US navy defeated the Japanese navy in the Battle of
the background, wanted to subordinate Hitler to their control. (a) Britain (b) Guadalcanal (c) El Alamein (d) Midway
13. German forces suffered their first reverses at
They approached President von Hindenburg and appointed Hitler as Prime Minister.
(a) Potsdam (b) El Alamein (c) Stalingrad (d) Midway
The Nazi regime then put an end to parliamentary democracy in Germany. 14. Which one of the following was not a declaration of the Potsdam conference?
Germany was converted into a highly centralised state. (a) East Prussia to be divided into two parts: northern part going to the Soviet Union, and
All political parties except the Nazi party were declared illegal. the southern part to Poland.
(b) Poland to receive the former free city of Danzig.
(c) Germany to be divided into four occupation zones to be governed by the USSR, Great
14 - Outbreak of Second World War and its Impact in Colonies.
Britain, the United States and France
(d) Trieste was to be divided into Zone A and Zone B. Zone A went to Italy, while zone B
1. Which one of the following was not the cause for the outbreak of Second World War?
was awarded to Yugoslavia
(a) The unjust nature of the terms of Peace with Germany
15. Which one of the following was not the result of the Second World War?
(b) Failure of the League of Nations (c) Economic Depression of 1930s
(a) Second World War was fatal to many European monarchies.
(d) National Liberation Movements in Colonies
(b) The Labour Party government in Britain established a welfare state.
2. The Kellogg–Briand Pact was signed in the year
(c) The struggle against Fascism ended in the triumph of Imperialism
(a) 1927 (b) 1928 (c) 1929 (d) 1930
(d) The United States and Soviet Russia emerged as two super powers in the world.
3. Assertion (A): A Disarmament Conference was organised by the League of Nations at
16. Which of the following pairs is correct?
Geneva.
1) General de Gaulle - France 2) Haile Selassie - Ethiopia
Reason (R): The matter came up for deliberation was Germany‟s rearmament plan on a par
3) General Badoglio - Japan 4) Admiral Yamamoto - Italy
with France.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 3 and 4 (d) All are correct
(a) Both A and R are correct. R explains A 17. France joined the Second Opium War
(b) Both A and R are correct. R does not explain A ( a ) To help Britain in the war (b) To carve out a separate sphere of influence to France
(c) A is correct but R is wrong (d) A is wrong but R is correct (c) To obtain permission for religious activities
(d) To establish the French rights to engage in opium trade.
M. VENKATESAN M.A., M.Phil., B.Ed., PG ASSISSTANT ( HISTORY ) GBHSS AYAPPAKKAM M. VENKATESAN M.A., M.Phil., B.Ed., PG ASSISSTANT ( HISTORY ) GBHSS AYAPPAKKAM
18. The end of Manchu dynasty came in the year 7. Enumerate the essential principles of Atlantic Charter.
(a) 1908 b) 1911 (c) 1912 (d) 1916 No territorial changes without the consent of the people concerned.
19. The dispute that led to the Spanish- American War in 1898 was on Freedom to travel across the sea without hindrance.
(a) Cuba (b) the Philippines (c) Puerto Rico (d) Batavia Disarmament of all nations that threaten aggression.
20. Assertion (A): On 4 July 1946 the Philippines became independent.
Reason (R): Philippines joined the US-dominated South East Asian Treaty Organisation. 8. Examine the importance of the Treaty of Nanking.
(a) Both A and R are correct. R explains A The treaty of Nanking signed at the end of first Opium War.
(b) Both A and R are correct. R does not explain A
This treaty opened the doors to Britain.
(c) A is correct but R is wrong (d) A is wrong but R is correct
China ceded Hong Kong and paid an indemnity.
2 - MARKS 9. Explain the immediate outcome of American rule established in the Philippines in 1902.
The primary colonial institutions were firmly established.
1. Bring out the importance of Kellogg-Briand Pact.
The system of civil services and judiciary was established on the basis of English
The Kellogg–Briand Pact was signed in the year of 1928.
education.
Though the US did not become a member of the League of Nations, it participated in this
The municipal and provincial governments were established through the elections.
meet.
The outcome of this pact was the pledge of all nations of the world to renounce war.
10. Assess the significance of the Cavite uprising.
In Philippines, Cavite uprising , was crushed served to promote the nationalist cause.
2. Why did Germany withdraw from the League of Nations in 1933?
A number of Filipino intellectuals were arrested.
In Disarmament Conference, The issue was the German rearmament plan on a par with
After a brief trial, three priests were publicly executed.
France.
The French refused to agree to this proposal.
As a result, Germany withdrew from the League of Nations. 3 - MARKS
1 Why was Hitler keen on capturing Stalingrad? Point out how his plan turned out to be his
3. What was the background for the formation of Rome-Berlin Axis?
“Waterloo”.
Britain and France condemned Mussolini‟s invasion of Ethiopia.
Hitler thought Stalingrad would be a prize catch, as it was a large industrial city.
This helped Hitler to establish close relationship with Italy.
Hitler felt that occupying the city named after Joseph Stalin would enhance his prestige.
This was the beginning of Rome–Berlin Axis.
It became clear that the German Army could not hold Stalingrad.
Yet Hitler refused to allow a strategic withdrawal.
4. What was the essence of the Munich agreement?
In the Munich conference, the premiers of Britain, France, Germany and Italy joined the
2 Allied bombing of Germany became a symbol of terror bombing campaign. Elucidate.
meeting.
Germany's City of Dresden was completely destroyed.
The German army should occupy the Sudetenland, as demanded by Hitler.
The raids became a symbol of the “terror bombing” campaign against Germany.
Parts of Czechoslovakia should go to Poland and Hungary.
During this period, 600,000 German citizens were killed.
Slowly, the German army was forced back.
5. What do you know of Dunkirk Evacuation?
During the Second World War, French troops were expell to the Dunkirk coast.
3 Bring out the significance of Huk Rebellion.
From there, they were forced to leave the boats and the small ships.
The Philippine Communist peasants were called Huk.
The French soldiers evacuated from Dunkirk formed the nucleus of the Free French Huk areas were bombarded by government forces.
army. As a result, the huk resorted to guerrilla warfare.
6. Highlight the importance of Japan‟s attack on Pearl Harbour. The “Huk rebellion” had been crushed by the Philippine government, assisted by the U.S.
United States declared war on Japan.
Thus making it an absolute second world war. 4 Highlight the important results of the Second World War.
Germany ceased to be a great power.
Britain and China joined the US.
Europe lost its status and prestige.
M. VENKATESAN M.A., M.Phil., B.Ed., PG ASSISSTANT ( HISTORY ) GBHSS AYAPPAKKAM M. VENKATESAN M.A., M.Phil., B.Ed., PG ASSISSTANT ( HISTORY ) GBHSS AYAPPAKKAM
The economy was in a shambles. Attack on Czechoslovakia :
The U.S and Soviet Russia were emerged the two dominant powers of the world. Hitler accused the Germans living in Sudetenland of being oppressed.
Before the referendum was held in the Sudetenland, Hitler occupied it with his army.
5 Attempt an account of Boxer Rebellion in China. Using the conflict in Czechoslovakia, Hitler sent German forces to occupy the conflict
The Boxers came from peasants, particularly from Shandong province. zone.
The original aim of the Boxers was the destruction of the Manchu dynasty. Attack on Poland :
And also destruction of the Westerners who enjoyed a privileged position in China. Hitler accused the Germans living in Poland of being oppressed.
The Boxers burned churches and foreign residences. Hitler, who was aiming to occupy the whole of Europe, On september 1, 1939, the attack
on Poland was held.
6 Discuss the role of Kuomintang Party in China‟s nationalist politics. The reason for the Second World War was the rejection of Britains ultimatum to leave
Sun Yat-sen founded a political party in Tokyo, which became the Kuomintang Party. Germany in Poland.
Sun Yat-sen, the inspirer of the organisation, wanted a republic china.
After the death of Sun Yat-sen , the Kuomintang did not adopt Communist policies.
The Kuomintang represented the interests of the landlords and capitalists. 3. Describe Mao Tse Tung‟s contribution to the establishment of Communist government in
China.
7 Estimate the contribution of Sukarno to the independence of Indonesia. Marxism and Mao Tse Tung :
Sukarno organised the Indonesian Nationalist Party. In 1918 a Society for the Study of Marxism was formed in Peking University.
This party in the country was supported by the westernised secular middle class. Among the students who attended was a young assistant librarian by the name of Mao
In 1931 Sukarno was imprisoned and the party he founded was dissolved. Tse-tung.
With Japans support, he got indonesias independence by Eviction the Dutch. He soon brought the Communist Party under his control.
The Kuomintang government and Mao
5 - MARKS
The Kuomintang government in China was more corrupt.
Mao knew that the Kuomintang grip on the towns was too strong.
1. The seeds for the Second World War were sowed in the treaty of Versailles. Discuss with So concentrated his energies on organizing the peasantry.
reasons. Mao took refuge in Hunan :
The terms imposed upon Germany at the end of First World War were harsh. Mao's life was threatened by the Kuomintang party.
Stripped off its colonies, the size of the German army was drastically reduced. So he took refuge in the hills between Kiangsi and Hunan.
Germany was forced to cede Alsace and Lorraine to France. The Kuomintang invaded five times to completely destroy Mao and his comrades.
Germany agree to the temporary occupation by French troops of the Saar valley. So Mao wanted to move out of Hunan for safer territory.
Germany was also compelled to hand over to Poland large parts of the industrial area of Long March :
Silesia. The communist army then carried out the 'long march'.
Further Germany was to pay an impossible sum in reparation. As a result of the Long March, Mao became the ruler of the people in China.
Austria was not allowed to unite with Germany. Mao organised Workers and Peasants‟ Councils and laid the foundations for communists
Such bad Features later led to the political success of the Nazi Party in Germany. to form a government in China.
2. Examine to what extent Germany and Hitler were responsible for the outbreak of Second
World War. 4 Make a comparative analysis of common and varying features in the liberation struggles of
Annexation of Sar and Rhineland : Indonesia and Philippines.
Hitler held a general referendum in the SAR area and annexed it with Germany. Common features :
In 1936 Hitler flouted the Treaty of Versailles by sending troops to occupy Rhineland. Both countries were a colony of European countries.
Annexation of Austria : In both countries, the communists gave voice against to the domination of colonialism.
The Nazi state was established in Austria by the pressure of Hitler. During World War II, both countries were under Japanese occupation.
Then the German forces entered Vienna and began to establish control over the country. Both countries got Independence, after the second War.
M. VENKATESAN M.A., M.Phil., B.Ed., PG ASSISSTANT ( HISTORY ) GBHSS AYAPPAKKAM M. VENKATESAN M.A., M.Phil., B.Ed., PG ASSISSTANT ( HISTORY ) GBHSS AYAPPAKKAM
Varying features : 10. The term “Third World” was coined by
(a) Alfred Sauvy (b) Marshall (c) Molotov (d) Harry Truman
The Philippines went to the U.S. control after Indonesia is the colonial country of the 11. Match and choose the correct answer from the code given below
being a colony of the Spanish state. Dutch state. (A) Indonesia 1. Jawaharlal Nehru
Nationalism developed among the Filipinos The nationalist movement became the most (B) Egypt 2. Tito
earlier than elsewhere. belated in Indonesia. (C) Ghana 3. Kwame Nkrumah
The Philippines got independence in 1946 Indonesia got independence in 1949 due to (D) Yugoslavia 4. Gamal Abdel Nasser
with the support of the United States. pressure from the U.N Security Council. (E) India 5. Sukarno
(a) 5 3 4 2 1 (b) 1 3 2 4 5 (c) 5 4 3 2 1 (d) 1 2 3 4 5
12. The first Summit of NAM was held at
(a) Belgrade (b) Beijing (c) Bandung (d) Pali
15 - The World after World War 13. Assertion (A): The Second World War proved that the League of Nation was a failure.
Reason (R): World leaders realised the need for the creation of an effective organisation
1. By the end of 1947 the only country left out of the Soviet influence in eastern Europe was to prevent another war.
(a) East Germany (b) Czechoslovakia (c) Greece (d) Turkey (a) Both A and R are correct; R explains A
2. Assertion (A): Stalin criticised Churchill as a warmonger. (b) Both A and R are correct; but R does not explain A
Reason (R): Churchill had earlier called for a western alliance against communism. (c) A is correct but R is wrong
(a) Both A and R are correct; R explains A (d) A is wrong and R is correct
(b) Both A and R are correct; R does not explain A 14. On 24 October 1945, the UNO came into existence with
(c) A is correct and R is wrong (d) A is wrong and R is correct (a) 100 members (b) 72 members (c) 51 members (d) 126 members
3. The term “Cold War” was coined by 15. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct?
(a) Bernard Baruch (b) George Orwell (c) George Kennan (d) Churchill Statement I: The Birth of UNO coincided with the beginning of Cold War.
4. Assertion (A): The soviet foreign minister dubbed the Marshall Plan as "dollar Statement II: During the Cold War period, the UNO played an important role in
imperialism". preventing wars.
Reason (R): In the Soviet view, Marshall Plan was little more than a ploy to spread Statement III: But in disputes involving the permanent members of the Security Council,
American influence. the UNO was a mute spectator.
(a) Both A and R are correct; R explains A (a) I, II (b) II, III (c) I, III (d) All the above
(b) Both A and R are correct; R does not explain A 16. Suez Canal connects the Red Sea with the
(c) A is correct and R is wrong (d) A is wrong and R is correct (a) Gulf of Aden (b) Gulf of Khambat (c) Mediterranean Sea (d) Arabian Sea
5 Marshall aid was for the purpose of 17. Trygve Lie, the first Secretary General of the UNO, belonged to
(a) Economic reconstruction of Europe (a) Burma (b) Japan (c) Singapore (d) Norway
(b) Protection of capitalistic enterprises. 18. Assertion (A): In 2017, Britain voted to exit the European Union.
(c) Establishment of American hegemony in Europe Reason (R): Britain‟s exit is known as Brexit.
(d) forming a military alliance against Soviet Russia (a) Both A and R are correct; R explains A
6. Truman doctrine advocated (b) Both A and R are correct; R does not explain A
(a) financial aid to stop the spread of communism (c) A is correct and R is wrong (d) A is wrong and R is correct
(b) supply of weapons to the insurgents in colonies 19. Glasnost denotes
(c) interference in internal affairs of east European countries (a) transparency and openness (b) democratisation of Communist Party of Soviet Union
(d) permanent army to UN under US Commander (c) restructuring of the Soviet Federal Assembly (d) reinventing communism
7. Arrange the following in chronological order
20. Soviet Union disintegrated on
1) Warsaw Pact 2) CENTO 3) SEATO 4) NATO (a) November 17, 1991 (b) December 8, 1991 (c) May 1, 1991 (d) October 17, 1991
(a) 4, 2, 3, 1 (b) 1, 3, 2, 4 (c) 4, 3, 2, 1 (d) 1, 2, 3, 4
8. The aim of the Baghdad Pact was to 2 - MARKS
(a) protect England‟s leadership in the Middle East
(b) exploit the oil resources in the region 1. Identify the espionage agencies of USA and USSR.
(c) prevent communist influence (d) destabilise the government in Iraq The espionage agency of United States : CIA.
9. US intervention in Lebanon was opposed by The espionage agency of Sovit Union : KGB, or CNS.
(a) Turkey (b) Iraq (c) India (d) Pakistan
M. VENKATESAN M.A., M.Phil., B.Ed., PG ASSISSTANT ( HISTORY ) GBHSS AYAPPAKKAM M. VENKATESAN M.A., M.Phil., B.Ed., PG ASSISSTANT ( HISTORY ) GBHSS AYAPPAKKAM
2. Explain the concept of containment of communism. It was signed in The Polish Capital of Warsaw, and was named the Warsaw Pact.
The US wanted to restoring the European economy and control communism. The treaty called upon member states to come to the defence of any member if it was
For this, the US put forward the Truman Doctrine and the Marshall Plan. attacked by an outside force.
Further, the European Economic Cooperation Agency was formed in 1948.
2. Write about the different stages in the final adoption of UN Charter.
3. Point out the significance of the “Uniting for Peace” resolution passed by the UN General At Dumbarton Oaks, the representatives of the superpowers met to formulate a plan of
Assembly. action for a world organization.
The General Assembly took initiative in US to pass the „Uniting for Peace‟ resolution. The Moscow declaration recognised the need for an international organisation to replace
If the Security Council could not reach an agreement in a crisis, the General Assembly the League of Nations.
may make a recommendation to use the military. Decisions on the voting system in security council and a few other issues were raised in
USSR regarded this resolution as illegal. Yalta Conference.
After holding deliberations and negotiations at the San Francisco Conference, the
4. What do you know about Cominform? Charter of the United Nations was finalised.
USSR set up The Cominform in 1947.
This was an organisation in which all European communist parties were represented. 3. Trace the background of the formation of NATO.
It discouraged trade contact between the non-communist countries. Despite the friendship of the United States, Western European countries felt insecure.
Communist victory in Czechoslovakia added to their fears.
5. Provide examples of Surrogate Wars in the cold war era. The Western European countries were now willing to consider a collective security
The Korean War and the Vietnam Wars were classic examples of the Cold War period. solution.
In both cases Soviet Union supported the communist government in North Korea and in In this context that the NATO organization was formed.
North Vietnam.
The United States supported South Korea and South Vietnam. 4. Give a brief account of Suez Canal Crisis.
In July 1956, the Egyptian president Gamal Abdel Nasser nationalised the Suez Canal.
6. What was the background to the Hungarian Crisis? Which was until then privately owned by the Anglo-French Suez Canal Corporation.
The Russians agreed to Nagy becoming premier again in Hungary . So the Israeli, French and British forces invaded the Sinai Peninsula.
He started introducing a multiparty system and set up a coalition government. UN forces expelled Israeli, British and French troops in march 1957 .
Enraged by this, Soviet Russia sent its army into Hungary and crushed the rebellion.
5. Why SEATO was not so popular as NATO?
7. What was Schuman Plan? SEATO is seen as an Asian-Pacific version of NATO.
Robert Schuman, the French foreign minister, realised that a reconciliation between Only two Southeast Asian countries, the Philippines and Thailand, were members of the
France and Germany was good for both. organization.
He proposed the joint production of two countries ' coal and steel to be administered by SEATO only for consultation.
the High Authority. Leaving each individual nation to react individually to internal threats.
This project for economic integration automatically connected the two countries.
5 - MARKS
8. Outline the concept of Perestroika. 1. Highlight the goals and objectives of the Non- Aligned Movement.
Gorbachev announced the concept of Perestroika. Respect of fundamental human rights
Perestroika describes the necessity of a political and economic re-structuring. Respect of the objectives and principles of the Charter of the United Nations.
By Perestroika Gorbachev loosened centralised control of many institutions. Respect for the sovereignty and territorial integrity of all nations.
Recognition of the equality among all races and of the equality among all nations.
3 - MARKS Non-intervention or non-interference in the internal affairs of another country.
1. Warsaw Pact was a response of the Soviet Union to the US controlled NATO-Explain. Non-use of pressures by any country against other countries.
When West Germany became a member of NATO, USSR decided to make a counter Settlement of all international disputes by peaceful means.
arrangement. Promotion of mutual interest and cooperation.
In May 1955, The Soviet Union and its allies signed this treaty. Respect for justice and international obligations.
M. VENKATESAN M.A., M.Phil., B.Ed., PG ASSISSTANT ( HISTORY ) GBHSS AYAPPAKKAM M. VENKATESAN M.A., M.Phil., B.Ed., PG ASSISSTANT ( HISTORY ) GBHSS AYAPPAKKAM
2. Discuss the origin of Arab-Israeli conflict and show how subsequent developments caused 4. Sketch the political career of Boris Yetlsin, focusing on his role in the collapse of Soviet
a major war between the two in 1967. Union.
The beginning of the Palestinian crisis : Communist Party and Boris Yeltsin :
As the United Nations voted to partition Palestine into a Jewish state and an Arab state in Boris Yeltsin Joining the Communist Party in 1961.
November 1947. Later he became a full-time worker in the party.
So conflict broke out almost immediately between Jews and Arabs in Palestine. He emerged as a popular figure and began to occupy in key positions in the Party.
Independence of Israel : Holding important responsibilities :
On the eve of the British forces‟ withdrawal , Israel declared independence. He chose to eliminate corruption in the Moscow party organisation.
The following year, Israel became a member of the the United Nations Council. In 1986 Yeltsin was elevated to the Politburo.
When Israel was created, there was little involvement of the UN in making political Soon he was made the mayor of Moscow.
decisions. Confrontation with Gorbachev :
Israel seeking armed assistance : He criticized party meetings and reform work for being too slow.
By 1966 the U.S. providing began to Israel with advanced planes and missiles. He advocated democratic governance and economic reforms.
As a result, the Cold War broke out in the Middle East. Boris Yeltsin's comments drew Gorbachev's opposition.
In April 1967 there were artillery exchanges between Israel and Syria. Becoming President of the Russian Republic :
The Beginning of the War : He succeeded in winning a seat in the USSR Congress of People‟s Deputies.
The U.S. Sixth Fleet remained off the Syrian coast. The Soviet parliament elected him president of the Russian republic against Gorbachev‟s
Egypt closed the Straits of Tiran to Israeli shipping. wishes.
So early June Israel attacked Egypt. He became the first popularly elected leader in 1991, after the collapse of Soviet Union.
3. In disputes involving the permanent members of the Security Council, the UNO was a mute
spectator. Elucidate this statement from the cold war period experiences.
The Egyptian Crisis :
On 1956, British and French troops landed at the Egyptian town of Port Said.
The General Assembly, at the initiative of the US, called for an emergency session and
condemned the invasion.
So Israel, Great Britain and France stopped fighting and decided to withdraw their forces
from Egypt.
The Hungarian Crisis :
The Russians agreed to Nagy becoming premier again in Hungary .
He started introducing a multiparty system and set up a coalition government.
Enraged by this, Soviet Russia sent its army into Hungary and crushed the rebellion.
The Israeli-Palestinian problem :
The UN has repeatedly tried to hold the International Peace Conference in its support to
resolve the Israeli-Palestinian conflict completely.
But the problem could not be resolved, because Israel had the full support of the great
powers.
Position of UNO :
On the above issues, the Security Council's permanent states have used their veto power
and extend the issue.
Moreover, the UN was a silent observer, as the permanent members of the Security
Council were involved in the issues.
M. VENKATESAN M.A., M.Phil., B.Ed., PG ASSISSTANT ( HISTORY ) GBHSS AYAPPAKKAM M. VENKATESAN M.A., M.Phil., B.Ed., PG ASSISSTANT ( HISTORY ) GBHSS AYAPPAKKAM
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M. VENKATESAN M.A., M.Phil., B.Ed., PG ASSISSTANT ( HISTORY ) GBHSS AYAPPAKKAM M. VENKATESAN M.A., M.Phil., B.Ed., PG ASSISSTANT ( HISTORY ) GBHSS AYAPPAKKAM
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